THE UNIVERSITY OF AUCKLAND

INCOURSE TEST 2010 BIOLOGICAL SCIENCES

BIOSCI 101 FC

Essential Biology
Monday 26 April 2010 6.30 - 8.30pm

(Time Allowed: TWO hours) Student Identification Form

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PLEASE COMPLETE THE FOLLOWING:

Family Name: _______________________________________________ First Name: ID Number: Signature:

_______________________________________________ _______________________________________________ _______________________________________________

Submit this page to supervisors at the beginning of the test. (Failure to do this may result in non-assessment of your script!)

BIOSCI 101 FC

THE UNIVERSITY OF AUCKLAND

BIOLOGICAL SCIENCES Essential Biology
In-course Assessment Test Monday 26 April 2010 6.30 - 8.30pm

GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS Short Answers: Print your name and I.D. at the top of EVERY ANSWER PAGE. Record your answers in spaces provided. All questions must be attempted.

Multiple Choice Questions: Use the yellow Teleform Answer Sheet. Use pencils only. Shade the rectangle completely. Do not X out mistakes. ERASE them completely. Complete Family name, initials (under first name), ID Number. Fill spaces from left to right. Check your Code (=version number) in box headed Version Code. Your code should be 25572981 .

Test Format:

TOTAL 100 MARKS ALL QUESTIONS MUST BE ATTEMPTED. 25 marks 8 marks 19 marks 22 marks 9 marks 17 marks

Multiple choice Questions Section A: Cellular & Molecular Biology Section B: Microbiology Section C: Genetics Short Answers Section D: Section E: Section F: Cellular & Molecular Biology Microbiology Genetics

Hand in the Teleform answer sheet and short answer sheets (Sections D, E and F) Retain your multiple choice question pages
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SECTION A CELLULAR & MOLECULAR BIOLOGY

TEST VERSION CODE: 25572981 25 marks Recommended time 30 minutes Choose the ONE correct answer from the alternatives provided. Question 1: Which of the following features generally are common to both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells? 1. Ribosomes. 2. Flagella or cilia that contain microtubules. 3. Acell wall made of cellulose. 4. Linear chromosomes made of DNA and protein. 5. A membrane-bounded nucleus. Question 2: Question 3: Question 4: Question 5: The resolving power of a modern electron microscope is 1000 times better than the best light microscope because: 1. electromagnets focus the beam more effectively than glass lenses. 2. the electron microscope can produce a greater ratio of image size to real size. 3. contrast is enhanced by staining with atoms of heavy metal. 4. the wavelength of an electron beam is much shorter than that of visible light. 5. the focal length of the electron microscope is significantly longer. Unequal sharing of electrons between atoms results in: 1. a hydrophobic interaction. 2. an ionic bond. 3. a polar covalent bond. 4. a hydrogen bond. 5. a nonpolar covalent bond. Polysaccharides, lipids, and proteins are similar in that they: 1. are all synthesised from monomers by dehydration reactions. 2. are all decomposed into their subunits by dehydration reactions. 3. are all synthesised from monomers by the process of hydrolysis. 4. are all synthesised as a result of peptide bond formation between monomers. 5. all contain nitrogen in their monomer building blocks.

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

The tertiary structure of a protein is the: 1. order in which amino acids are joined in a polypeptide chain. 2. bonding together of several polypeptide chains by weak bonds. 3. folding of the polypeptide into a unique three-dimensional shape. 4. organisation of sections of the polypeptide chain into an -helix or -pleated sheet. 5. overall protein structure resulting from the aggregation of two or more polypeptide subunits.
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Which of the following statements best summarises the structural differences between DNA and RNA? 1. RNA is a double helix, but DNA is single-stranded. 2. The sugar in DNA nucleotides is different to that found in RNA nucleotides. 3. DNA is a protein, whereas RNA is a nucleic acid. 4. DNA contains purine bases and RNA contains pyrimidines. 5. RNA is a protein, whereas DNA is a nucleic acid.

The following THREE questions are based on the 15 molecules illustrated in Figure 1. Each molecule may be used once, more than once, or not at all. Figure 1

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Which molecule has hydrophilic and hydrophobic properties and would be found in plasma membranes? 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 1 12 6 14 5

Which of the following combinations could be linked together to form a nucleotide? 1. 1, 2, and 11 2. 12, 14, and 15 3. 5, 9, and 10 4. 3, 7, and 8 5. 11, 12, and 13 Which of the following molecules could be joined via the formation of a peptide bond? 1. 7 and 8 2. 12 and 13 3. 3 and 7 4. 2 and 3 5. 8 and 9

Question 10: Question 11:

Ions can travel directly from the cytoplasm of one animal cell to the cytoplasm of an adjacent cell through: 1. tight junctions. 2. plasmodesmata. 3. intermediate filaments. 4. gap junctions. 5. desmosomes. When a membrane is freeze-fractured, the bilayer splits down the middle between the two layers of phospholipids. In an electron micrograph of a freezefractured membrane, the bumps seen on the fractured surface of the membrane are most likely to be: 1. carbohydrates. 2. phospholipids. 3. peripheral membrane proteins. 4. integral membrane proteins. 5. cholesterol molecules. Which of the following functions is most important for the glycoproteins and glycolipids of animal cell membranes? 1. Active transport of molecules against their concentration gradients. 2. Maintaining the integrity of a fluid mosaic membrane. 3. Facilitated diffusion of molecules down their concentration gradients. 4. Distinguishing one type of neighbouring cell from another. 5. Maintaining membrane fluidity at low temperatures.
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Question 12:

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BIOSCI 101 FC

Which of the following would be most likely to move rapidly through the lipid bilayer of a plasma membrane? 1. K+ 2. Glucose 3. CO2 4. Starch 5. An amino acid The active site of an enzyme is the region that: 1. binds allosteric regulators of the enzyme. 2. is cleaved when the enzyme is activated. 3. is inhibited by the presence of a coenzyme or a cofactor. 4. is involved in the catalytic reaction of the enzyme. 5. binds the products of the catalytic reaction. Copper ions (Cu2+) are required for the activity of the enzyme cytochrome oxidase. The copper probably acts as: 1. a substrate for the enzyme. 2. a cofactor for the enzyme. 3. an inhibitor of the enzyme. 4. a coenzyme derived from a vitamin. 5. an allosteric activator of the enzyme. Which of the following statements regarding DNA (deoxyribonucleic acid) is INCORRECT? 1. DNA encodes the sequence of amino acids in a protein. 2. DNA is composed of chemical building blocks called nucleotides. 3. Each deoxyribonucleic acid molecule is composed of two long chains of nucleotides arranged in a double helix. 4. DNA is found only in eukaryotic cells. 5. Genes are composed of deoxyribonucleic acid. Radioactive thymine is added to a rapidly dividing culture of E. coli bacteria. What would happen in a cell that divides once in the presence of this radioactive base? 1. One of the daughter cells, but not the other, would have radioactive DNA. 2. All four bases of the DNA would be radioactive. 3. DNA in both daughter cells would be radioactive. 4. Neither of the two daughter cells would be radioactive. 5. Radioactive thymine would pair with nonradioactive guanine. At a specific area of a chromosome, the sequence of nucleotides below is present where the helix opens to form a replication fork: 3' C C T A G G C T G C A A T C C 5' An RNA primer is formed starting at the underlined T (T) of the template. Which of the following represents the primer sequence? 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 5' A C G T T A G G 3' 3' G C C T A G G 5 5 ' G C C T A G G 3' 5 ' G C C U A G G 3' 5 ' A C G U U A G G 3'

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Question 19:

There are 61 mRNA codons that specifyamino acids, but only 32 tRNAs are actually required to translate them. This is best explained by the fact that: 1. some tRNAs have anticodons that recognize four or more different codons. 2. many codons are never used, so the tRNAs that recognize them are dispensable. 3. the rules for base pairing between the third base of a mRNA codon and tRNA are flexible. 4. some tRNAs are easily destroyed by nucleases. 5. the DNA codes for all 61 tRNAs but some are not transcribed.

Questions 20 and 21 are based on the following diagram (figure 2).

Figure2

Question 20: Question 21:

What type of bonding is responsible for maintaining the shape of the tRNA molecule in Figure 2? 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. Covalent bonding between sulphur atoms. Ionic bonding between phosphates. Van der Waals interactions between hydrogen atoms. Hydrogen bonding between base pairs. Peptide bonding between amino acids.

Figure2 represents the tRNA that recognises and binds phenylalanine. Which of the following codons on the mRNA strand codes for this amino acid? 1. 5' AUG 3' 2. 5' AAG 3' 3. 5' GAA 3' 4. 5' CUU 3' 5. 5' UUC 3'
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Question 22: Question 23: Question 24: Question 25:

In a eukaryotic cell, a transcription unit that is 8,000 nucleotides long might use only 1,200 nucleotides to make a protein consisting of approximately 400 amino acids. This is best explained by the fact that: 1. there are termination exons near the beginning of mRNA. 2. many noncoding stretches of nucleotides are present in mRNA. 3. nucleotides break off and are lost during the transcription process. 4. many nucleotides are needed to code for each amino acid. 5. there is redundancy and ambiguity in the genetic code. Polyribosomes are: 1. ribosomes associated with more than one tRNA. 2. ribosomes containing more than two subunits. 3. aggregations of vesicles containing ribosomal RNA. 4. groups of ribosomes reading a single mRNA simultaneously. 5. multiple copies of ribosomes associated with giant chromosomes. Each of the following options is a modification of the sentence THECATATETHERAT. If this sequence of letters represented DNA codons, which one would be analogous to a missense mutation? 1. CATATETHERAT 2. THECATARETHERAT 3. THETACATETHERAT 4. THECATATTHERAT 5. THERATATETHECAT The fact that plants can be cloned from somatic cells demonstrates that: 1. differentiation does not occur in plants. 2. differentiated cells retain all the genes of the zygote. 3. the differentiated state is normally very unstable. 4. differentiated cells contain masked mRNA. 5. genes are lost during differentiation.

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SECTION B MICROBIOLOGY MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

8 marks Recommended time 10 minutes Choose the ONE correct answer from the alternatives provided.

Question 26: Question 27: Question 28: Question 29:

Which statement about the genomes of prokaryotes is CORRECT? 1. Prokaryotic genomes generally are composed of linear rather than circular DNA. 2. Prokaryotic chromosomes are sometimes called plasmids. 3. Prokaryotic genomes are diploid throughout most of the cell cycle. 4. Prokaryotic cells have multiple chromosomes, packed with a relatively large amount of protein. 5. The prokaryotic chromosome is not contained within a nucleus but, rather, is found at the nucleoid region. In trying to determine whether DNA or protein is the genetic material, Hershey and Chase prepared radioactively labeled T2 phage based on the assumption that: 1. DNA contains phosphorus, but protein does not. 2. DNA contains nitrogen, whereas protein does not. 3. DNA contains sulphur, whereas protein does not. 4. RNA includes ribose, while DNA includes deoxyribose sugars. 5. DNA contains purines, whereas protein includes pyrimidines. Bacterial transformation involves: 1. the creation of a strand of RNA from a DNA molecule. 2. assimilation of external DNA into a cell. 3. the infection of cells by a phage DNA molecule. 4. the type of semiconservative replication shown by DNA. 5. the creation of a strand of DNA from an RNA molecule. Which of the following terms describes bacteriophage DNA that has become integrated into the host cell chromosome? 1. T-even phage 2. prophage 3. plasmid 4. virulent 5. transposon

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Question 30: Question 31: Question 32: Question 33:

When an Hfr bacterium exchanges DNA with an F- bacterium: 1. homologous recombination may occur between the recipient chromosome and the introduced donor chromosomal DNA. 2. the recipient bacterium always becomes F+. 3. the F- bacterium is the DNA donor. 4. the two bacteria remain permanently connected via the sex pilus. 5. the donor bacterium loses its copy of F DNA. Why do RNA viruses appear to have higher rates of mutation than DNA viruses? 1. RNA nucleotides are more unstable than DNA nucleotides. 2. RNA viruses replicate faster. 3. RNA viruses are more sensitive to mutagens. 4. RNA viruses can incorporate a variety of nonstandard bases. 5. RNA polymerases do not have proof-reading activity. Altering patterns of gene expression in prokaryotes should enhance the organisms chances of survival in which of the following ways? 1. By allowing the organism to adjust to changes in environmental conditions. 2. By organising gene expression so that genes are expressed in a given order. 3. By allowing young organisms to respond differently from more mature organisms. 4. By allowing each gene to be expressed an equal number of times. 5. By allowing environmental changes to alter the prokaryotes genome. If genetic engineering was used to move the lac repressor gene (lac I), along with its promoter, to a position some several thousand base pairs away from its normal position, the most likely outcome would be: 1. the lac operon functions normally. 2. the lac operon is expressed continuously. 3. the repressor no longer binds to the operator. 4. the repressor is no longer made. 5. the repressor no longer binds to the inducer.

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SECTION C GENETICS MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

19 marks Recommended time 20 minutes Choose the ONE correct answer from the alternatives provided.

Question 34: Question 35: Question 36: Question 37:

What is a genome? 1. An ordered display of chromosomes arranged from largest to smallest. 2. A specific set of polypeptides within each cell. 3. A specific segment of DNA that is found within a prokaryotic chromosome. 4. A specialised polymer of four different kinds of monomers. 5. The complete complement of an organisms genes.

Sequencing an entire genome, such as that of C. elegans, a nematode, is most important because: 1. a sequence that is found to have no introns in the nematode genome is likely to have acquired the introns from higher organisms. 2. a sequence that is found to have a particular function in the nematode is likely to have a closely related function in vertebrates. 3. 4. 5. nematodes are organisms on the brink of extinction. the nematode is a good animal model for testing cures for viral illness. it allows researchers to use the sequence to build a better nematode, resistant to disease.

How do bacterial cells protecttheir own DNA from restriction enzymes? 1. Adding histones to protect the double-stranded DNA. 2. Reinforcing the bacterial DNA structure with covalent phosphodiester bonds. 3. Using DNA ligase to seal the bacterial DNA into a closed circle. 4. Adding methyl groups to adenines and cytosines. 5. Forming sticky ends of bacterial DNA to prevent the enzyme from attaching. Which of the following rejoins the sugar-phosphate backbone to make recombinant DNA? 1. Helicase. 2. Gel electrophoresis. 3. Restriction enzymes. 4. DNA ligase. 5. Reverse transcriptase.

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Question 38: Question 39: Question 40:

The major advantage of using artificial chromosomes such as YACs and BACs for cloning genes is that: 1. all of the options are correct. 2. YACs and BACs can carry much larger DNA fragments than ordinary plasmids can. 3. plasmids are unable to replicate in cells. 4. YACs and BACs can be used to express proteins encoded by inserted genes, but plasmids cannot. 5. only one copy of a plasmid can be present in any given cell, whereas many copies of a YAC or BAC can coexist in a single cell. The somatic cells derived from a single-celled zygote divide by which process? 1. Binary fission. 2. Mitosis and cytokinesis. 3. Cytokinesis alone. 4. Replication. 5. Meiosis. If there are 20 sister chromatids in a cell, how many centromeres are there? 1. 80 2. 10 3. 30 4. 20 5. 40

Question 41:

The cell above has a diploid nucleus with four chromosomes. There are two pairs of homologous chromosomes, one long and the other short. One haploid set is symbolised as black and the other haploid set is grey. The chromosomes have not yet replicated. Choose the correct chromosomal condition for this cell at prometaphase of mitosis:

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

D B E C A
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Question 42: Question 43: Question 44: Question 45: Question 46:

Which of these statements is FALSE? 1. In humans, the 23rd pair, the sex chromosomes, determines whether the person is female (XX) or male (XY). 2. Single, haploid (n) sets of chromosomes in ovum and sperm unite during fertilisation, forming a diploid (2n), single-celled zygote. 3. A life cycle is defined as the sequence of stages in an organisms reproductive history from conception to production of a new offspring. 4. At sexual maturity, ovaries and testes produce diploid gametes by meiosis. 5. In humans, each of the 22 maternal autosomes has a homologous paternal autosome. Which of the following describesthe location of a geneon a chromosome? 1. Sequence. 2. Allele. 3. Variant. 4. Locus. 5. Trait. DNA fingerprinting is based on: 1. complete dominance. 2. incomplete dominance. 3. a multiple allele locus. 4. norms of reaction. 5. polygenic inheritance. Why did the improvement of microscopy techniques in the late 1800s set the stage for the emergence of modern genetics? 1. It led to the discovery of mitochondria. 2. It revealed new and unanticipated features of Mendels pea plant varieties. 3. It allowed scientists to see the DNA present within chromosomes. 4. It allowed the study of meiosis and mitosis, revealing parallels between the behaviour of genes and chromosomes. 5. It showed genes functioning to direct the formation of enzymes. Mendels observation of the segregation of alleles in gamete formation has its basis in which of the following phases of cell division? 1. Anaphase I of meiosis. 2. Anaphase of mitosis. 3. Prophase I of meiosis. 4. Metaphase I of meiosis. 5. Prophase II of meiosis.

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VERSION 25572981 Question 47: Question 48: Question 49: Question 50: Question 51: Question 52:

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How many unique gametes could be produced through independent assortment by an individual with the genotype AaBbCCDdEE? 1. 4 2. 64 3. 8 4. 32 5. 16 The frequency of crossing over between any two linked genes will be: 1. higher if they are recessive. 2. the same as if they were not linked. 3. proportional to the distance between them. 4. dependent on how many alleles there are. 5. determined by their relative dominance. Males are more often affected by sex-linked traits than females because: 1. males are hemizygous for the X chromosome. 2. male hormones such as testosterone often alter the effects of mutations on the X chromosome. 3. mutations on the Y chromosome often worsen the effects of X-linked mutations. 4. female hormones such as estrogen often compensate for the effects of mutations on the X. 5. X chromosomes in males generally have more mutations than X chromosomes in females. A Barr body is normally found in the nucleus of which kind of human cell? 1. Unfertilised egg cells only. 2. Both male and female somatic cells. 3. Somatic cells of a female only. 4. Sperm cells only. 5. Somatic cells of a male only. If a pair of homologous chromosomes fails to separate during anaphase of meiosis I, what will be the chromosome number of the four resulting gametes with respect to the normal haploid number (n)? 1. n + 1; n + 1; n - 1; n - 1 2. n + 1; n + 1; n; n 3. n - 1; n - 1; n; n 4. n + 1; n - 1; n - 1; n - 1 5. n + 1; n - 1; n; n A nonreciprocal crossover causes which of the following products? 1. Nondisjunction. 2. Deletion and duplication. 3. Duplication and nondisjunction. 4. Duplication only. 5. Deletion only. QUESTION/ANSWER SHEETS FOLLOW

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________________________________________________ ________________________________________________

Student ID Number: __________________________

THE UNIVERSITY OF AUCKLAND In-Course Test 2010 BIOSCI 101 Essential Biology

Short Answer Questions Section

Instructions Print your name and ID in the space above Print your name and ID at the top of each answer page. Record your answers in the spaces provided. All questions should be attempted.

Short Answer Format Section D: Section E: Section F: Cellular & Molecular Biology Microbiology Genetics 22 marks 9 marks 17 marks

Total: 48 marks. Recommended time: 1 hour.

C&MB Section D
22
Admin Use Only

Micro Section E
9

Genetics Section F
17

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THERE ARE NO QUESTIONS ON THIS PAGE.

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SECTION D CELLULAR & MOLECULAR BIOLOGY SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS

22 marks Recommended time 30 minutes

For official use

53. Fig. 3 above represents the information flow connecting genes to proteins. Complete the following table to show the processes occurring at each step (labeled i-iii on Fig 3), the key enzyme or cellular machine involved and the initiation signal required. Step Name of process Key enzyme/machine Initiation signal 54. i ii iii DNA replication ___________________ ___________________ ribosome _________________ promoter sequence _________________ (6 marks)

___________________ ___________________

Name the enzyme that transfers information in the opposite direction at step (ii) and explain why genetic engineers use it when cloning eukaryotic genes. (2 marks) ________________________________________________________________________ ________________________________________________________________________ ________________________________________________________________________ ________________________________________________________________________

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55. Complete the following diagram of the replication fork of a DNA molecule by labeling: - the 3' and 5' ends of the new DNA on the leading strand. - the 3' and 5' ends of the new DNA on the lagging strand. - the most recently synthesised Okazaki fragment on the lagging strand (3 marks)

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Fig 4

56. Fig 4 represents a ribosome making a protein. What else would you see on the ribosome if: (ii) the elongation stage has started (2 marks) (i) the initiation complex has just been formed (1 mark)

_________________________________________________________________

__________________________________________________________________ __________________________________________________________________

(iii)

protein synthesis is about to be terminated

(2 marks)

__________________________________________________________________

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57. Once synthesised, the completed protein molecule has a complex three-dimensional shape that may be described at four different levels. Which of the following bond types contributes to each level of structure (some may be used more than once): Bonds: ionic, hydrogen, peptide, disulphide, hydrophobic Primary structure: Secondary structure: Tertiary structure: _____________________________________________________ _____________________________________________________ _____________________________________________________

Quaternary structure: _____________________________________________________ (4 marks)

58.

Proteins carry out a diverse range of functions in cells. Give an example of: (i) (ii) a membrane protein involved in transport _________________________________________________________________ a protein that provides structural support in cells _________________________________________________________________ (2 marks)

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SECTION E MICROBIOLOGY SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS

9 marks Recommended time 10 minutes

Total

For official use

59.

Answer the following questions based on your knowledge of bacteriophage T4 and human immunodeficiency virus (HIV): (i) (ii) Describe a key difference in the structure of T4 and HIV. _________________________________________________________________ _________________________________________________________________ (1 mark) Contrast the strategies each virus uses to enter and exit their host cell

T4 HIV Entry

Exit

(4 marks)

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The following four diagrams represent the regulation of the lac operon by the lac repressor and the catabolite activator protein. Match the correct label to each diagram: lactose and glucose glucose but no lactose neither lactose nor glucose lactose but no glucose

(4 marks)

A ___________________________

B ___________________________

C ___________________________

D ___________________________

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SECTION F GENETICS SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS

17 marks Recommended time 20 minutes
61 62 63 64
For official use

65

Total

61. When a gene is cloned into a bacterial host both antibiotic resistance and blue / white selection are used to determine which bacteria contain a plasmid and which plasmids are recombinant. (a) Complete the table below by indicating whether the plasmid is present or absent. (2 marks) Bacterial phenotype The bacterial host is killed by the antibiotic The bacterial host is antibiotic resistant The bacterial host is antibiotic resistant and appears blue The bacterial host is antibiotic resistant and appears white

Plasmid present or absent

(b)

Which of the above four bacterial phenotypes indicates the presence of a recombinant plasmid with an inserted DNA fragment? (1 mark) _________________________________________________________________

(c) Blue / white selection is based on the lacZ gene and the substrate X-gal. The diagram below represents the section of a plasmid that contains the lacZ gene. On the diagram circle and label clearly each of the following: the lacZ gene promotor the lacZ enzyme the EcoR I cloning site the X-gal substrate (2 marks)

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62.

Electrophoresis is an important technique commonly used in recombinant DNA technology. (a) On the diagram below of a DNA gel label the following: (i) the agarose gel. (ii) the wells the area in which the samples are loaded. (iii) the cathode. (iv) the anode.

(2 marks)

(b)

On the diagram circle and label the DNA molecule that is longest and the DNA molecule that is the shortest. (1 mark)

(c)

The DNA molecule is made up primarily of a sugarphosphate backbone and nucleotides, the DNA molecule has an overall _______________________ charge that is largely due to the ______________ group. (1 mark)

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63.

Mitotic cell division can be divided into four phases.

(a) On the axes below draw a graph that illustrates the chromosome number or change in chromosome number in each of the four phases of mitotic cell division. (2 marks)

(b)

The M or mitotic phase of cell division can be divided into two stages. List below these two stages and in the space provided briefly describe what occurs in each stage. (2 marks) (i) _________________ _______________________________________ (ii) _________________ _______________________________________

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64.

The diagram below represents a cell containing a pair of chromosomes at metaphase I of meiosis. The individual is a heterozygote for two tightly linked genes, gene A and gene B.

(i)

What is the genotype of the cell? _________________

(1 mark)

(ii) How many pieces of double stranded DNA are present in the cell? _____________ (1 mark) (iii) If a crossing-over event occurred between gene A and B, what would be the genotype of the two types of recombinant gametes that could be produced? ____________________ and ______________________ (1 mark)

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65.

The human X and Y chromosomes are quite different in size and DNA sequence. The X and Y chromosomes have two homologous areas of sequence known as the ____________________________. These regions are located at the ____________________________ of each chromosome. (1 mark)