For questions 1 to 5:

Based on the information provided in the questions, we can infer that 9. 2 P Q

JLM and ASC are the subjects taught in ‘P’ (5).
From (4) and (5), it is clear that B is studying in ‘R’.
From (1), it is also clear that FLG is taught in ‘Q’.
So, D is studying in ‘R’ and got placed in ‘X3’. T
From (6), it is clear that E is studying ASC and got placed in ‘X4’.
S R
Nam e Subje ct Unive r s ity Com pany M N
A JLM P X1 O
B CSC R X2
∠SPM = 90° − ∠OPQ = 30°
C PSY Q X5
D BA N R X3 ∴ ∠MPT = ∠SPT − ∠SPM = 60° − 30° = 30°

E A SC P X4 ∴ ∠TPQ = ∠OPQ − ∠MPT = 60° − 30° = 30°

F FLG Q X6 ∴ ∠PTQ = 180° − (∠TPQ + ∠PQT ) = 180° − (30° + 60° ) = 90°

1. 4 2. 1 3. 5 4. 2 5. 5 PT QR 3
In ∆PTQ : = sin 60° = =
PQ PQ 2
For questions 6 and 7:
As per the information given in the question we know that Rita 2
⇒ Re quired ratio =
(family B) is one of the twin baby girls and is 8 years old. 3
Also, Kaya (family A) is 9 years old and the age of Radha and Reena
Hence, option (2) is the correct choice.
is 13 years and 7 years respectively.
Let, the age (in years) of Maya, Shreya and Farah be (x – 3), x and
(x – 5) respectively. 10. 1 Given that y = x × [x] and 8 ≤ x × [x ] ≤ 17.
We also know that Maya and Shreya are sisters.
So, any one of the three persons Maya, Shreya and Farah can be the y
Let x = where ‘a’ is a positive integer.
other twin baby girl. a
As, y = x × [x]
6. 1 Given that Radha is elder than all the mentioned persons.
So, Farah cannot be the other twin baby girl as then the age y y y
⇒y= × ⇒a= 
of Shreya will be equal to the age of Radha, i.e. 13 years. a  a  a
So, either Maya or Shreya is the other twin baby girl. for,
So, the value of ‘x’ can be 11 or 8. y = 9, a = 3
Therefore, the age of Farah can be 6 or 3 years. y = 10, a = 3
y = 11, a = 3
7. 5 Given that Reena belongs to family B. y = 16, a = 4
Therefore, Farah has to be the other twin baby girl as Maya y = 17, a = 4
and Shreya are sisters and the total number of girls in family ⇒ Total ‘5’ possible values of x.
B is 3.
So, the value of ‘x’ is 8 + 5 = 13.
Therefore, age of Shreya is 13 years. For questions 11 to 14:
The total points given by the judges J1, J2, J3, J4 and J5 is 25, 20, 30, 20
and 20 respectively. Please bear in the mind that judges awarded
8. 3 If Yasir occupies seat number 1, then the serial number of the distinct point to the candidates. The range of the possible points earned
seat on which the remaining persons can be seated are as by the five contestants is given in the following table.
follows:

Persons Numbers of the seats Judge Samir Milind Ranvir Sahil Arjun
Arafat 2 or 3 1 or 2 or 3 1 or 2 or 3
J1 9 6 5
or 4 or 4
Rasheed 2 or 3 or 4
J2 4 0 or 2 0 or 2 8 6
Ali 4 or 5
1 or 2 or 4 1 or 2 or 4
Rehman 5 or 6 J3 11 6 7
or 5 or 5
Case I: Seat number 2 is unoccupied. J4 7 0 or 3 0 or 3 8 2
Arafat will occupy seat number 3, Rasheed will occupy seat J5 3 5 8 0 or 4 0 or 4
number 4 and similarly the serial number of the seat occupied
by Ali and Rehman is 5 and 6 respectively. 11. 3 Minimum possible points earned by Sahil = 1 + 8 + 6 + 8 + 0
Total number of ways in which they can be seated = 1. = 23.
Case II: Seat number 4 is unoccupied. 12. 1 Maximum possible points earned by Ranvir = 5 + 2 + 5 + 3 + 8
Ali and Rehman will sit on seat number 5 and 6 respectively = 23.
and Arafat can sit on either of the seats numbered 2 or 3.
Total number of ways in which they can be seated = 2. 23
Required percentage = × 100 = 20%
Hence, total number of ways in which the mentioned 5 persons 115
can be seated = 1 + 2 = 3.

Page 2 MBA Proctored - Mock CAT 3

Test Prep
13. 4 Given that the judge J2 and J4 gave the same points to Milind.
This is only possible if both the judges gave 0 points to Milind
because if Milind got 1 point from the judge J2, then Ranvir will
also get 1 point from the judge J2 and this is not possible.
Given that Samir got 4 points from judge J3, which means that
Ranvir got 6 – 4 = 2 points from judge J3.
The total points earned by Ranvir = 5 + 2 + 2 + 3 + 8 = 20.
17. 2 It is obvious that A > B. Also, since both A and B are two– digit
numbers, therefore 9 < A < 100 and 9 < B < 100.
Given that 2A = 5B, therefore A has to be a multiple of 5.
The value of ‘A’ will be minimum when the value of ‘B’ is
minimum, which occurs at B = 10.
Possible values that A can take are 25, 30, 35,...90 and 95.
Corresponding values of B will be 10, 12, 14,....36 and 38.

14. 5 The range of the total points earned by all the five contestants Using Statement A:
is given below. Given that A + B > 123
Samir: 24 - 28 There are two sets of values of A and B for which A + B > 123,
Milind: 22 - 27 (A = 90 and B = 36) and (A = 95 and B = 38)
Ranvir: 14 - 23 Hence, statement A is not sufficient to answer the question
Sahil: 23 - 30
Arjun: 16 - 23 Using Statement B:
Therefore, both Ranvir and Arjun will definitely not earn more Given that A + B > 132
points than Sahil. A + B > 132 only for A = 95 and B = 38. So, the value of A is 95.
Hence, statement B is sufficient to answer the question.
15. 1 Using statement A: Hence, option (2) is the correct choice.
Given equation is ax2 + 2bx + c = 0 ...(i)
18. 3 Using statement A:
2ac
Also, b = If both the holes are opened, then it will take
a+c
Discriminant of equation = 4 (b2 – ac)  69 × 92 
 69 + 92  minutes to completely empty a full tank.
 
 4a2c 2  a − c 
2
Hence, statement A alone is sufficient to answer the question.
= −4 ac − 2
= −4ac  
 (a + c)  a + c 
Using statement B:
Therefore, the discriminant is ‘– ve’ and hence the roots of the Given that the quantity of water flowing through hole A in 3
given equation are not real. minutes is same as the quantity of water flowing through hole
Hence, statement A alone is sufficient to answer the question. B in 4 minutes.
Therefore, the quantity of water flowing through hole A and
Using statement B: hole B independently in 1 minute will be in ratio 4:3.
D = 4(b2 – ac) Therefore, if hole A is closed and hole B is opened it will take
The information a > c and b > c is not sufficient to answer the
question. 4
× 69 = 92 minutes to completely empty a full tank.
Hence, statement B alone is not sufficient to answer the 3
question. Hence, statement B alone is sufficient to answer the question.
Hence, option (1) is the correct choice. Hence, option (3) is the correct choice.

16. 4 Using statement A: 19. 4 The prices at which Ajay purchased 4 varieties of rice are
Given that ∠BPC = 80°.
100
∴ ∠BAC + ∠BPC = 180°. 50 paise/kg, paise / kg, 25 paise/kg and 20 paise/kg
3
Therefore, BACP is a cyclic quadrilateral. respectively.
But this information is not sufficient to answer the question. They are mixed in the ratio 4:3:2:1. Let, the cost price of the
Hence, statement A alone is not sufficient to answer the mixture be ‘X’.
question.
1 100 
X= 4 × 50 + 3 × + 2 × 25 + 1× 20  = 37 paise / kg.
Using statement B: 10  3 
Given that ∠BAR = 2∠ACB = 60°. In order to make a profit of 20%, the selling price of the mixture
But this information is also not sufficient to answer the
250
question. will be 1.2 × 37 paise/kg = kg / Re.
111
Combining both the statements together:
We know that BACP is cyclic quadrilateral, Q is the mid point 20. 4 Ratio of the sides of original cuboid = 60 : 40 : 30 = 6 : 4 : 3
Dimensions of the smaller cuboid not only should be multiple
of AP and ∠BAR = 60°.
of 6, 4 and 3 as but should be factors of 60, 40 and 30 in the
Also, ∠BPA = ∠ACB = 30°. same order.
Factors of 60 = (1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 10, 12, 15, 20, 30, 60)
∴ ∠PBA = 180° – (∠BAP + ∠BPA ) = 90°. Hence, AP will be
Factors of 40 = (1, 2, 4, 5, 8, 10, 20, 40)
the diameter and Q will be the centre of the circle that will Factors of 30 = (1, 2, 3, 5, 6, 10, 15, 30)
circumscribe the quadrilateral BACP. The possible dimensions of the smaller cuboid can be (6, 4, 3)
∴ ∠CQP = 2 (∠BAC – ∠BAR ) = 80°. (12, 8, 6) and (30, 20, 15)
Hence number of cuboids could be
Hence, option (4) is the correct choice.
 60 × 40 × 30   60 × 40 × 30   60 × 40 × 30 
  or   or  
 6 × 4 × 3   12 × 8 × 6   30 × 20 × 15 
= 1000 or 125 or 8

Page 3 MBA Proctored - Mock CAT 3

Test Prep
21. 1 Let ∠DAC = x 26. 1 As 80x = 4 ...(i)

⇒ ∠ABD = x + 36° 80y = 5 ...(ii)

80(x+y) = 20 ...(iii)
A
80 80
= = 20
x F 80 x 4

y 1
or, 801 – x = 20 or 80 = 20 (1− x)
1− x − y (1− x) − (y) y
x + 36 ° (1 80 °– 2y) 1−
x + 36 ° y 20 (1− x) = 20 (1− x) (1− x)
= 20
B D C
20 20 20 20
If ∠FCD = ∠DFC = y = y
= y = = =4
(1− x)
 1  (80)y 5
In the ∆ADC , x + y = ∠ADB = x + 36° (Exterior angle) 20  201− x 
 
⇒ y = 36° ⇒ ∠FDC = 108°  
Alternative method:
22. 2 The nth term of the series 4, 8, 12, 16... 960 is 4n. 3 80x = 4 and 80y = 5
The mth term of the series 2, 6, 12, 20, ... 930 is m(m + 1) and ∴ x = log804 and y = log805
930 is the 30th term of the series as: 2 = 1 × 2, 6 = 2× 3,
12 = 3 × 4, and so on. 1 − x − y 1 − log80 4 − log80 5 log80 80 – log80 4 − log80 5
⇒ = =
1− x 1 − log80 4 log80 80 − log80 4
So, all the terms in the series 2, 6, 12, 20, ... 930 that are
divisible by 4, will be there in the series 4, 8, 12, 16, ... 960. log80 4
= = log20 4. ⇒ 20log20 4 = 4
log80 20
Hence, m(m + 1) will only be divisible by 4 when ‘m’ is divisible
Special note:
by 4 or ‘m’ leaves a remainder of 3 when divided by 4.
Look for the mathematical fallacy here:-
80x = 4 or (24.5)x = 22 or 24x.5x = 22
Hence, for m = 3, 4, 7, 8, ... 27 and 28, m(m + 1) will be divisible
or, 24x–2.5x = 20.50
by 4.
Equating the powers of 2 and 5 on both the sides, we get
Hence, there are 14 values of ‘m’ for which m(m + 1) is
4x – 2 = 0 and x = 0
divisible by 4.
Therefore, total number of terms common to the two given 1
sequences is 14. or, x = and x = 0
2
Which is impossible and hence many of you clicked option (5)
For questions 23 to 25:
Data inconsistent as your answer.
Given that the increase in the number of applicants in the Commerce
Mind you when 80x = 4, x = log804 which is an irrational
stream in 2008 as compared to 2007 is 70000 and that the average
number, but while solving it above we preassign a rational
number of applicants in the four given streams in 2008 is 400000.
value of to it.
Therefore, the increase in the number of applicants in the Engineering 27. 3 There are two possible cases
stream in 2008 will be 70000 + 20000 = 90000. Case I: Four letter word contains only one ‘a’
Thus, the corresponding increase in the number of applicants in the Case II: Four letter word contains three ‘a’ s
Medical Science stream in 2008 will be 90000 – 69000 = 21000 and
Case I: Exactly two distinct letters are used
subsequently the increase in the number of applicants in the Arts
(a) Other three letter are same in the word (a, b, b, b)
stream will be 21000 + 59000 = 80000.
(a, c, c, c) (a, d, d, d)
23. 5 So, the values of C, E and F will be (70000 – 21000 = 49000), 4!
Total cases = × 3 = 12
(80000 – 90000 = – 10000) and (80000 – 70000) respectively. 3!
So, all the four options (1), (2), (3) and (4) are true. (b) Exactly three distinct letters are used in the word
For questions 24 and 25: (a, b, b, c)
Let the number of applicants in the Engineering, Medical Science, (a, b, b, d) (a, c, c, d) (a, c, c, b) (a, d, d, b) (a, d, d, c)
Commerce and Arts stream in 2007 be ‘x’, ‘y’, ‘z’ and ‘w’ respectively. 4!
Therefore, the number of applicants in the Engineering, Medical Science, Total cases = × 6 = 72
2!
Commerce and Arts stream in 2008 will be (x + 90000), (y + 21000),
(z + 70000) and (w + 80000) respectively. (c) Four distinct letters are used in the work (a, b, c, d)
So, x + y + z + w + 261000 = 400000 x 4 = 1600000. Total cases = 4! = 24
Or, x + y + z + w = 1339000. or One ‘a’ can be placed in any of the four places in ‘4’
ways and remaining three places can be filled by
24. 1 b, c and d in 3 × 3 × 3 ways
∴ Number of ways = 4 × 3 × 3 × 3 = 108
Required percentage = 
80000 
25. 2  × 100 = 5.97 % ≈ 6% Case II: Possible cases are (a, a, a, b) (a, a, a, c) (a, a, a, d)
 1339000 
4!
Total cases = × 3 = 12
3!
Required no. of cases = 108 + 12 = 120

Page 4 MBA Proctored - Mock CAT 3

Test Prep
28. 3 Selling price of a shirt in the first month So, neither D took a yellow ball nor did he took a red
= Rs.(0.7 × 900) = Rs.630 ball.
Profit earned by selling 1 shirt in the first month Consider the statements made by D: We already know that
= Rs.630 – Rs.300 = Rs.330. statement II is false as F took a red ball. So, one of the
Selling price of a shirt in the second month statements I and III is true.
= Rs.(0.5 × 900) = Rs. 450. It is also given that balls of two different colours were not
Profit earned by selling 1 shirt in the the second month taken by any of the mentioned persons.
= Rs.450 – Rs.300 = Rs.150
Let, the number of shirts sold in the first month be ‘x’. Case I: E took a yellow ball
∴ 330x = 150(240 – x) D must have taken a blue ball and balls of white and black
⇒ x = 75 colour are not taken by any of the mentioned persons.
Required difference = 240 – 2x = 90.
Case II: D took a green ball
E could have taken either a white or a black ball.
29. 4 In the given figure
For four persons viz. A, F, C and B the exact color of
OE = OD = OC (Radii of the same circle)
the balls taken by them can be determined.
In the triangle ODC
OC = OD(Radii of the same circle)
33. 3 Considering the statements made by C, we can conclude that
Also, OC = OE = CD (given OE = CD)
one of the two statements I and II must be true, which means
∴ OC = CD = DO
that statement III is definitely false.
Hence all the three angles of the triangle ODC will be 60°
Considering the statements made by B:
In the ∆EAO We know that statement I is definitely false as A took a blue
EA = EO ball. Also, statement III is false.
Let ∠EAO = ∠EOA = x So, statement II made by B is true.
Considering the statements made by F: We already know that
⇒ ∠OED = 2x[Exterior Angle] A took a blue ball and C took a green ball. Hence, both the
⇒ ∠OED = ∠ODE = 2x[As OE = OD] statements I and II are false and therefore statement III made
by F is true.
In the ∆DAC So, neither D took a yellow ball nor did he took a red
x + 2x + 60 + 60 = 180° ball.
⇒ x = 20° Consider the statements made by D: We already know that
⇒ ∠ADC = 100°
statement II is false as F took a red ball. So, one of the
statements I and III is true.
D It is also given that balls of two different colours were not
taken by any of the mentioned persons.
2X 60
E Case I: E took a yellow ball
2X D must have taken a blue ball and balls of white and black
X X 60 60 colour are not taken by any of the mentioned persons.
A B O C
Case II: D took a green ball
E could have taken either a white or a black ball.
For questions 30 to 33:
If E took a yellow ball, then D must have taken a blue ball.
30. 3 Considering the statements made by C, we can conclude that So, it is correct.
one of the two statements I and II must be true, which means
that statement III is definitely false. 34. 4 Let, the amount that was invested by the man in the bank be
So, A took a blue ball. ‘C’.
1.2(1.2C – 200) = 400
31. 4 Considering the statements made by C, we can conclude that
⇒ 1.44C = 240 + 400
one of the two statements I and II must be true, which means
that statement III is definitely false. 640 4000
Considering the statements made by E and A: Both ∴ C = Rs. = Rs.
1.44 9
statements II and III by E state that B took a blue ball and hence
both are false as only one statement made on B is true. So 35. 1 Case I: The total number of factors of N is equal to 2.
statement I of both A and E are correct. We know that only prime numbers have two factors.
So, F took a red ball and B took a green ball. The total number of multiples of all prime numbers greater
Hence statement II by A was false. than 33 and less than 50 will be 2.
So, C took a red ball. Such prime numbers are 37, 41, 43 and 47.
32. 2 Considering the statements made by C, we can conclude that
one of the two statements I and II must be true, which means Case II: The total number of factors as well as multiples
that statement III is definitely false. (below 100) of N is equal to 3:
Considering the statements made by B: So, the number N should be less than 34 and more than 24
We know that statement I is definitely false as A took a blue We know that only squares of prime numbers have 3 factors.
ball. Also, statement III is false. There is only one square of a prime number in this range
So, statement II made by B is true. i.e. 25.
Considering the statements made by F: We already know that So, a total of 5 such numbers exist.(37, 41, 43, 47, 25)
A took a blue ball and C took a green ball. Hence, both the
statements I and II are false and therefore statement III made
by F is true.

Page 5 MBA Proctored - Mock CAT 3

Test Prep
36. 4 The nine consecutive integers can be from(1 to 9), (2 to 10), 40. 4 2007:
(3 to 11), (4 to 12), (5 to 13), (6 to 14), (7 to 15). Here we have Let the number of ‘Blackberry Mobile’ users, number of Mobile
not included (8 to 16) as they sum up to 108.Now the sums users and the population of city B be a, M and P respectively.
are 45, 54, 63, 72, 81, 90, 99. Thus there are 7 numbers less a = 2.5% of P = 18% of M ...(i)
than 100 which can be expressed as a sum of 9 consecutive
integers. 2009:
The required sum (45 + 54 + 63 + 72 + 81 + 90 + 99) = 504. No of Blackberry Mobile users = 9a
No of Mobile users = (1.5)2 × M = 2.25 M
For questions 37 to 40: Population = (1.1)2 × P = 1.21 P
Let us assume, (2.25M − 9a )
x = Number of Blackberry Mobile users in a city as a percentage of the Required Percentage = × 100
1.21P
total Mobile phone users in that city.
y = Number of Blackberry Mobile users in a city as a percentage of the  
M  2.25 
population of that city.  2.25   − 9   − 9
 
=  × 100 =  0.18  × 100
a
z = Number of Blackberry Mobile users in a city as a percentage of the
total Blackberry Mobile users in the 8 cities. P (1.21)
1.21 
a 0.025
37. 1 So the Density of Mobile users is same as the ratio of y to x.
3.5
The table below depicts the Mobile density for different = × 100 = 7.23%
mentioned cities. 48.4
D M R J C B S V 41. 4 In the given paragraph only sentences C and D are correct.
Mobile Density 0.23 0.32 0.28 0.43 0.61 0.13 0.58 0.66 Sentence A is incorrect as it uses ‘from’ instead of ‘since’ to
It is clear from the table that C has the second highest density denote the time-frame of the G20 protests. Sentence B
of Mobile users. incorrectly uses ‘the’ before ‘number’. Here we are not
referring to any specific group so the article before ‘number’
38. 5 As M has 9600 more black berry users than S should be an indefinite one-’ a’. Sentence E should have ‘was
Let the total number of Blackberry Mobile users be ‘a’. sent’ instead of the incorrectly used ‘has been sent’ as we
then, 0.16 of a = 9600 are referring to an action, which is indicated by a time
Hence, a = 60,000 reference, completed in the past.

Total number of Blackberry Mobile users in M 42. 5 Only sentences C, D and E are correct. In sentence A, there
= 4% Population(P) of M should be no article before ‘climate’ as the sentence is referring
= 25% of 60000 to climate in general and not talking of the climate in a particular
place. B is incorrect because it uses ‘off-peg’ instead of ‘off-
z
⇒ Population of M = 60000 × 
25  the-peg’ which is an expression to denote something that is
 = 60000 × k , where k = y
 4  readymade.
For the population of any city to be greater than one lac,
43. 2 Only sentence A is correct. In sentence B it should be ‘a book
5 about Lawerence’ ; a book is written about a person and on a
‘k’ for a particular city should be greater than  
3 subject-matter. C has a modifier error as ‘also’ is incorrectly
By observation , we can see that for the cities R, C, S and V, placed, since the author in sentence A is talking about the
author ‘making up his mind’, ‘also’ should modify the same
5 phrase in sentence C, therefore it should come immediately
k is less than   .
3 before the phrase ‘made up my mind’ in sentence C. In its
correct form C should read as ‘I had also made up my mind...’.
39. 1 As there are total of 60000 ‘Blackberry Mobile’ users and The error in D is similar to B. In E ‘earlier’ should be used
75000 Blackberries phones means there is a total of 15000 or instead of ‘early’ as we are comparing the time-frames of two
25%, extra Blackberries if each of the ‘Blackberry Mobile’ decisions.
users take 1 ‘Blackberry Mobile’ each.
Possible ways to distribute the rest 25% among the eight 44. 3 Only sentences D and E are correct. In A there is an
cities are(in percentage) as follows. inconsistency of a plural noun matching with a singular
(I) B × 1 + C × 2 = 15 × 1 + 5 × 2 = 25%. adjective- ‘social creature’ should read as ‘social creatures’
as it refers to ‘human beings’; also the sentence should not
(II) M × 1 = 25%.
have the indefinite article ‘a’. In sentence B there should be no
(III) D × 1 + C × 1 = 20 × 1 + 5 × 1 = 25%. article before ‘company’ as the author is referring to company
(IV) R × 1 + S × 1 + V × 1 = 8 × 1 + 9 × 1 + 8 × 1 = 25%. in a general sense; the correct sentence would read as ‘we
like company’; The sentence should have ‘the’ before ‘trivial’.
(V) R × 2 + S × 1 = 8 × 2 + 9 × 1 = 25%.
In sentence C there should be a restrictive clause represented
(VI) V × 2 + S × 1 = 8 × 2 + 9 = 25%. through the relative noun ‘that’ as it defines the ‘obvious sense’;
(VII) J × 1 + B × 1 = 10 × 1 + 15 × 1 = 25%. once in its correct form C should read ‘in the obvious sense
that we each depend.....’
(VIII) J × 2 + C × 1 = 10 × 2 + 5 × 1 = 25%.
45. 1 All the sentences except for D are correct. D flouts the tense
Therefore, users of all the cities can hold more than one consistency that is maintained throughout the paragraph. It
“Blackberry Mobile”. should read ‘have looked toward’ instead of ‘are looking toward’
to convey the meaning implied in the paragraph.

Page 6 MBA Proctored - Mock CAT 3

Test Prep
46. 1 Paragraph four of the passage describes the self limiting 56. 5
mode adopted by the writers to the extent that all serious
matters are addressed in the serious mode. The passage
mentions the dominant Greek culture but it does not in any
way become the reason for the preference. In fact the opening 57. 2
lines of the 4th paragraph blame the self-limiting approach on
the writers. Hence options 3 and 5 can be ruled out. Options
2 and 4 are false. Culture is definitely a factor attributed but
there is no socio-cultural pressure which is dominant. Also
option 4 cannot be said to be the primary or intrinsic reason as
it is assuming too much beyond the scope of the argument.
58. 1
47. 5 Only option 5 did not contribute to the spread of tragedy.
Options 1-4 are seen as responsible / contributory towards
the reach and growth of the genre of tragedy.
48. 4 The author is critical of the obsession with tragedy. He believes
that something is wrong with the modern literary novel. He is
bold in his criticism; note the words “dull, bloody boring etc.”
The author criticises the culture and writers. The sacrifices
made to garner attention in international awards etc also attract
the author’s criticism. More than sarcasm, analysis and a 59. 1
questioning or humorous stance, the author adopts a clear-
cut critical tone. Hence option 4 is becomes the correct answer
choice.
49. 5 Options 1 and 2 talk only about Wittgenstein and leave out
relativism. Option 3 has an incorrect cause effect relationship.
Option 4 again has a cause effect relationship which cannot
be substantiated by the paragraph. Only option 5 gives the
correct summary though the order of the themes is 60. 1
interchanged. Wittgenstein comes second in the paragraph
and Relativism comes first.
50. 1 Options 2 leaves out metamorphosis and is also incomplete. 61. 2
Options 3 and 5 talk about evolution in a vague manner. They
also leave out why a ‘theosophical’ diagram is needed. Option
4 talks about ‘liking of biologists’ which is nowhere expressed
in the paragraph. So, only option 1 qualifies as a correct
summary though it is too concise.
62. 5
51. 4 Option 1 introduces a ‘may’ whereas the paragraph is
assertive that Raga is inseparably linked to Rasa. Option 2
leaves out ‘Raga’ altogether. Option 3 is incomplete in its
description of Raga as also the purpose. Option 5 becomes
flawed towards the end – ‘association of Raga with Indian
wisdom’ is general and not to the point. Option 4 gives a
reasonably correct summary of the paragraph.
52. 3 Option 1 introduces a new concept ‘foreground’. Also it does
not talk about the ‘human hell’. Option 2 leaves out the possible
purpose of Liardet. Option 4 is incorrect and reads too much
into the paragraph. Option 5 is incorrect in saying ‘clearly 63. 1
voices’ whereas the paragraph just hints that the purpose
may be reform. Option 3 gives a correct and concise summary
of the paragraph.
53. 5 The very fact that notes were distributed in excess points to
the fact that the regulation of the banks was improper. The 64. 5
anomalies were exposed only during the hour of crisis.
54. 4 Only option 4 is the correct answer choice it is evident from
the first line of the 3rd paragraph. Options 1 and 3 are
contradictory to the fact mentioned in the passage. Option 2 is
not indicated anywhere in the passage. 65. 2
55. 1 The passage does not allude to the sources of funds for the
farmers except for a direct reference to the banks as the
lenders. Hence option 1 cannot be inferred. All the other options
can be found in the last two paragraphs of the passage.
Page 7 MBA
Test Prep
All the options mentioned are just symptoms that were evident
during the panic of 1819. None of them is a predominant
factor. Hence 5 is correct.
Eclogue is a short pastoral poem, usually in the form of a
dialogue between shepherds. Similarly Madrigal is a type of
16th- or 17th-century part-song for unaccompanied voices,
performed without musical instruments in which several
singers sing different notes at the same time. Both the stem
pair and option (2) are examples of a classification relationship.
Paddock is an enclosed area used for pasturing or exercising
animals. It also refers to an enclosure where race horses are
saddled. Hence Paddock is a place where an animal is kept. A
doctor is not a place where a stethoscope is kept. A prison is
not necessarily a place where a buccaneer/a pirate is kept.
An estuary is the mouth of a large river. So it is not a place
where insects are kept. A refectory is the dining hall in an
educational institution; again it has no connection with sheep.
An apiary is a place where bees are kept.
The words of the stem pair Obtrusion : Intrusion hint a similar
meaning of unwanted involvement. Option (2) and (4) display
opposites so cannot be valid options. Option (3) soreness:
lesion has a Cause and effect relationship, which makes it an
incorrect answer. Option (5) demonstrates an antonymous
relationship hence it is incorrect. In Option (1) spuriousness:
Facade, both words hint a similar meaning of falseness and
resemble the Synonymous relationship like the stem pair.
‘Venality’ is corruption. Honesty is its antonym. Verity means
truthfulness and falsehood is its antonym. So (1) shares the
same relationship as the pair in the question.
Here the relationship is that of opposites. Bucolic-refers to
village life and it is the opposite of Urban. Options 1, 3 and 4
have synonyms. In option 5, a fanatic is also a zealot. But a
Choleric person is one who gets angry and hence is opposite
to amiable.
The passage uses the Dolly incident as an example to discuss
that cloning is possible. It ends with –what should be our
reaction to this fact?. So option 1 is a part of the passage.
Option 2 has not been touched upon much in the passage-
only in a small way in the last paragraph. Option 3 is again a
small part of the passage. Option 4 forms a small part of the
passage in the beginning. However the discomfort was soon
dispelled as the author points out in the first paragraph. Option
5 is what the author is primarily trying to say in the passage.
Throughout the passage, the author hints at the acceptance
of cloning as a positive development.
The author mentions that bearing children for ill siblings and
cloning are ethically similar- because both-children and clones-
can be produced with a similar intention of giving a spare
supply of body elements to siblings making option 1 correct.
Options 2-5 are not seen to be comparable.
The last paragraph describes cloning as an advantage and
the author uses the words ‘gigantic leap’ earlier. Hence the
passage may well be seen in the light of an advance for the
process of cloning. Option 2 is a point that is not discussed in
the passage. Options 3 and 4 are exaggerated.
In course of means while something is going on, 1 is incorrect
as it means at a suitable time, 3 is incorrect, as it means
‘because’. 4 means ‘because of’ and 5 is grammatically
incorrect.
Proctored - Mock CAT 3
66. 3 Option 3 is correct, Penelope’s web means ‘An endless job.’
All the other options are incorrect.
67. 4 Option 4 is correct, fair and square means ‘honest and proper’,
all the other options are incorrect.
68. 2 Option 1 is not something on which all trainers would agree. In
fact Philips would not agree with this statement. Option 3 is
again a statement which is too definitive and would be debated
among trainers. Option 4 is incorrect as it is contrary to the
facts in the passage. Option 2 is something on which most of
the trainers would agree. Refer to the start of para 4.
69. 5 None of the options 1 to 4 are statements to which the author
would definitely agree. Option 1 is a bone of contention among
the trainers. Option 2 is Philip’s opinion-not the author’s. Option
3 is vague—since it looks like there is a lack of realization
about the lack of time on the part of the people running the
management courses. So the intent itself is missing, which is
not correctly projected in Option 3. The author has not made
any assertion like option 4 nor can it be inferred. Hence option
5.
70. 2 Option 2 is correct, as it is directly related to the preceding
sentence and answers the first question. All other options
are talking about something that takes place much later.
71. 4 Option 4 is the best answer as it is directly linked to the
preceding sentence that talks about entrepreneurs. All the
other options are not related to the preceding sentence.
72. 2 The paragraph talks about market inefficiencies that lead to
the failure to calculate the costs of those who do not participate
in transactions that financial institutions get into. These
“externalities” are nothing but the losses suffered by the
economy on account of transactions made by the financial
system. Because of this the financial market fails to correctly
evaluate risk and is ‘systematically inefficient’. Therefore option
2 is right.
73. 2 The opening lines discuss the main aspects of 20th century
philosophical thinking which according to the author had two
main parts. The author does not mention any other aspect of
the thought process. Here analytical is close to questioning ;
Option 1 is incorrect as it was the reason for the origin of the
movement, Options 3 & 4 are ongoing aspects of both
movements, Option 5 is false.
74. 4 The passage states that the problem of objectivity is created
by the assumption that “ consciousness in taking something
as object is “creative” of a boundary which cannot be crossed
by consciousness”, making one deduce that this boundary
creation leads to subjectivity. Options 1,2, 3 & 5 are incorrect
because they are not alluded to with respect to the problem
per se’.
75. 2 The paragraph mentions the integration of rules onto ontology,
this reference alludes to the break in the logical structure of
things. In simple words insertion of rules/imperatives makes it
difficult to understand how things are logically integrated as a
whole. Option 1 states a fact. It is directly given and hence not
an implication, Options 3 and 4 are aspects of the principle
which are again given. Option 5 is not implied at in the
paragraph and is too generic.
76. 4 Option (1) is out of question as we can not infer that rents are
low. Option (2) says that the landlords are interested only in
rents, which is beyond the scope of information offered in the
paragraph. Option (3) is incorrect as tenants are not in the
Page 8 MBA
subject. The paragraph starts with a suggestion. This
suggestion can come from any source be it an organization or
an individual. Therefore option (5) lies beyond the scope of
the given information. Option (4) fills the logical gap of more
houses available for rent and rents coming down. Rents can
come down when the supply exceeds demand and hence it
is the correct answer.
77. 4 Option (1) is incorrect because it pertains to the preferences
of the client. Also, this tends to weaken the above conclusion
as it is the family businesses that would have been able to
establish a good reputation more than individual restorers.
Option (2) is inappropriate because it seriously weakens the
above conclusion by stating that those generations who have
been in this business for years are more knowledgeable and
skillful than independent restorers.
Option (3) challenges the basis of the argument by stating
that the quality of restoration is most important rather than
which party does the restoration. This does not strengthen
the given conclusion as it seems to ignore the parties involved
in the restoration process. Hence, it is incorrect.
Option (4) is correct as it strengthens the above conclusion
by highlighting the unique service provided by individual
restorers in comparison to the service provided by others
who are in this business for generations. Hence, since families
in the restoration business are unable to match this service,
they should think of getting into other professions.
Option (5) does not have any impact on the argument because
it explains what is needed while restoring a painting. This only
elaborates on the technical process and does not affect the
conclusion presented above. Hence, (5) is not the correct
answer.
78. 5 Option (1) is incorrect because it does not have any impact on
the argument. It just suggests that these developments happen
at an early stage in life which has already been stated in the
argument.
Option (2) is incorrect as it does not highlight the flaw in the
reasoning. It adds a parallel dimension to the situation given in
the paragraph.
Option (3) elaborates on the need for social skills and their
impact on the child’s personality. It does not impact the argument
in any other way and hence it is not the best choice.
Option (4) suggests how others around the child can help him
build his social skills. This provides an additional solution but
does not present any flaw in the argument. Hence, it is
incorrect.
Option (5) is correct as the type of reasoning used in the
question is: for Y to happen, X has to take place. If we can
prove that X does not guarantee the occurrence of Y, it will
help us to weaken the reasoning. Option (5) states that those
students who have an interest in music are good at adapting
to the environment and not vice-versa. This brings out the
flaw in the reasoning.
79. 5 Mr. A is terminally ill and is going through insufferable pain. The
court will turn down the plea of Mr. A only when the court is
convinced that he is not terminally ill. The court is considering
the recommendations of the group of doctors attending to Mr.
A but there some doctors from the fraternity who believe that
he has not been treated properly for the disease. This can
raise doubts about the deteriorating condition of Mr. A; hence
the court can reject the plea for euthanasia. Options (2) and
(3) do not hold true as Mr. A is considered to be terminally ill
and these go against the basic premises of the case. Option
(4) is out of question as the court has turned down the plea
so the court, anyway, has given a verdict in the matter. Option
(1) is beyond the scope of the argument.
Proctored - Mock CAT 3
Test Prep
80. 1 Option (1) is the best choice because it is within the purview
of the argument. It is clear that the government plans to take
these steps in the hope of meeting the requirement for parking
space in the city. This can be inferred from the given argument
as it is in sync with the government’s intentions presented
above.
Option (2) is incorrect because it suggests that diversion of
traffic from neighbouring areas creates further problem;
however, this cannot be justified from the argument.
Option (3) cannot be inferred from the argument because the
argument pertains to the problem of parking space in public
areas within the city and not residential areas. Hence, this is
an incorrect inference.
Option (4) is incorrect because it cannot be inferred from the
argument. The argument does not refer to the problems related
to following traffic rules. The behaviour of the drivers on the
road is also not discussed in the argument which is why no
inference can be drawn on this basis.
Option ( 5) is wrong because it shifts the blame on the
incompetence of the traffic control department which is not
discussed above. This inference is out of scope of the given
argument and hence is incorrect.

Page 9 MBA Proctored - Mock CAT 3

Test Prep