NCLEX Practice Questions 3 1. A patient is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of primary hyperparathyroidism.

A nurse checking the patient's lab results would expect which of the following changes in laboratory findings? A. Elevated serum calcium. B. Low serum parathyroid hormone (PTH). C. Elevated serum vitamin D. D. Low urine calcium. 2. A patient with Addison's disease asks a nurse for nutrition and diet advice. Which of the following diet modifications is NOT recommended? A. A diet high in grains. B. A diet with adequate caloric intake. C. A high protein diet. D. A restricted sodium diet. 3. A patient with a history of diabetes mellitus is in the second post-operative day following cholecystectomy. She has complained of nausea and isn't able to eat solid foods. The nurse enters the room to find the patient confused and shaky. Which of the following is the most likely explanation for the patient's symptoms? A. Anesthesia reaction. B. Hyperglycemia. C. Hypoglycemia. D. Diabetic ketoacidosis. 4. A nurse assigned to the emergency department evaluates a patient who underwent fiberoptic colonoscopy 18 hours previously. The patient reports increasing abdominal pain, fever, and chills. Which of the following conditions poses the most immediate concern? A. Bowel perforation. B. Viral gastroenteritis. C. Colon cancer. D. Diverticulitis. 5. A patient is admitted to the same day surgery unit for liver biopsy. Which of the following laboratory tests assesses coagulation? A. Partial thromboplastin time. B. Prothrombin time. C. Platelet count. D. Hemoglobin 6. A nurse is assessing a clinic patient with a diagnosis of hepatitis A. Which of the following is the most likely route of transmission? A. Sexual contact with an infected partner. B. Contaminated food. C. Blood transfusion. D. Illegal drug use. 7. A leukemia patient has a relative who wants to donate blood for transfusion. Which of the following donor medical conditions would prevent this? A. A history of hepatitis C five years previously. B. Cholecystitis requiring cholecystectomy one year previously. C. Asymptomatic diverticulosis. D. Crohn's disease in remission. 8. A physician has diagnosed acute gastritis in a clinic patient. Which of the following medications would be contraindicated for this patient? A. Naproxen sodium (Naprosyn). B. Calcium carbonate. C. Clarithromycin (Biaxin).

D. Furosemide (Lasix). 9. The nurse is conducting nutrition counseling for a patient with cholecystitis. Which of the following information is important to communicate? A. The patient must maintain a low calorie diet. B. The patient must maintain a high protein/low carbohydrate diet. C. The patient should limit sweets and sugary drinks. D. The patient should limit fatty foods. 10. A patient admitted to the hospital with myocardial infarction develops severe pulmonary edema. Which of the following symptoms should the nurse expect the patient to exhibit? A. Slow, deep respirations. B. Stridor. C. Bradycardia. D. Air hunger. 11. A nurse caring for several patients on the cardiac unit is told that one is scheduled for implantation of an automatic internal cardioverter-defibrillator. Which of the following patients is most likely to have this procedure? A. A patient admitted for myocardial infarction without cardiac muscle damage. B. A post-operative coronary bypass patient, recovering on schedule. C. A patient with a history of ventricular tachycardia and syncopal episodes. D. A patient with a history of atrial tachycardia and fatigue. 12. A patient is scheduled for a magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) scan for suspected lung cancer. Which of the following is a contraindication to the study for this patient? A. The patient is allergic to shellfish. B. The patient has a pacemaker. C. The patient suffers from claustrophobia. D. The patient takes anti-psychotic medication. 13. A nurse calls a physician with the concern that a patient has developed a pulmonary embolism. Which of the following symptoms has the nurse most likely observed? A. The patient is somnolent with decreased response to the family. B. The patient suddenly complains of chest pain and shortness of breath. C. The patient has developed a wet cough and the nurse hears crackles on auscultation of the lungs. D. The patient has a fever, chills, and loss of appetite. 14. A patient comes to the emergency department with abdominal pain. Work-up reveals the presence of a rapidly enlarging abdominal aortic aneurysm. Which of the following actions should the nurse expect? A. The patient will be admitted to the medicine unit for observation and medication. B. The patient will be admitted to the day surgery unit for sclerotherapy. C. The patient will be admitted to the surgical unit and resection will be scheduled. D. The patient will be discharged home to follow-up with his cardiologist in 24 hours. 15. A patient with leukemia is receiving chemotherapy that is known to depress bone marrow. A CBC (complete blood count) reveals a platelet count of 25,000/microliter. Which of the following actions related specifically to the platelet count should be included on the nursing care plan? A. Monitor for fever every 4 hours. B. Require visitors to wear respiratory masks and protective clothing. C. Consider transfusion of packed red blood cells. D. Check for signs of bleeding, including examination of urine and stool for blood. 16. A nurse in the emergency department is observing a 4-year-old child for signs of increased intracranial pressure after a fall from a bicycle, resulting in head trauma. Which of the following signs or symptoms would be cause for concern? A. Bulging anterior fontanel. B. Repeated vomiting. C. Signs of sleepiness at 10 PM.

D. Inability to read short words from a distance of 18 inches. 17. A nonimmunized child appears at the clinic with a visible rash. Which of the following observations indicates the child may have rubeola (measles)? A. Small blue-white spots are visible on the oral mucosa. B. The rash begins on the trunk and spreads outward. C. There is low-grade fever. D. The lesions have a "tear drop on a rose petal" appearance. 18. A child is seen in the emergency department for scarlet fever. Which of the following descriptions of scarlet fever is NOT correct? A. Scarlet fever is caused by infection with group A Streptococcus bacteria. B. "Strawberry tongue" is a characteristic sign. C. Petechiae occur on the soft palate. D. The pharynx is red and swollen. 19. A child weighing 30 kg arrives at the clinic with diffuse itching as the result of an allergic reaction to an insect bite. Diphenhydramine (Benadryl) 25 mg 3 times a day is prescribed. The correct pediatric dose is 5 mg/kg/day. Which of the following best describes the prescribed drug dose? A. It is the correct dose. B. The dose is too low. C. The dose is too high. D. The dose should be increased or decreased, depending on the symptoms. 20. The mother of a 2-month-old infant brings the child to the clinic for a well baby check. She is concerned because she feels only one testis in the scrotal sac. Which of the following statements about the undescended testis is the most accurate? A. Normally, the testes are descended by birth. B. The infant will likely require surgical intervention. C. The infant probably has with only one testis. D. Normally, the testes descend by one year of age.