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Endeavour classes, 4

th
Floor, Samudra Complex, Circular Road, Ranchi
Email: endeavourclasses@yahoo.co.in


INSTRUCTION
Question Paper format :
1. The test is of 3 hours duration.
2. The Test Booklet consists of 90 questions. The maximum marks are 432.
3. There are THREE parts in the question paper, consisting of
question.
Part A-Physics (144 marks)- Question No. 1 to 24 consist
correct response.
Part B- Chemistry (144 marks)-
correct response.
Part C- Mathematics (144 marks
correct response.
4. Candidates will awarded marks as stated above in instructions No.3 for correct response of each question.1/4(one four
be deducted for indicating incorrect response of each question. No deduction from the total score will be made if no response
indicated for an item in the answer sheet.
5. Use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen only
Use of PENCIL is STRCTlLY PROHIBITED.
6. No Candidate is allowed to carry any textual material
etc; except the Admit Card inside the examination hall/room.
7. Rough work is to be done on the space provided for this purpose in the Test Booklet only.
8. Do not fold or make any stray marks on the Answer Sheet.
Note :- Read carefully the Instruction on the Back Cover of this Test Booklet.
14. The candidates should fill in the required particulars on the Test Booklet and Answer Sheet (Side
Use of PENCIL is STRICTLY PROHIBITED.
15. For writing/marking particulars on Side
STRICTLY PROHIBITED.
16. The Candidates should not write their Registration Numbers anywhere else (except in the specified space) on the Test
Booklet/Answer Sheet.
17. There are THREE parts in the question paper, Part A consisti
consisting of MATHS of 30 question each.
For each incorrect response, one
deduction from the total score, however, will be made if no response is indicated for an item in the Answer Sheet.
18. Handle the Test Booklet and Answer Sheet with care,
19. The candidates are not allowed to do any rough work or writing work on the Answer Sh
done on the space provided for this purpose in the Test Booklet itself, marked Space for Rough Work.
20. On completion of the test, the candidates must hand over the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on duty in the
the candidates are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them.
21. Each candidate must show on demand his/her Admit Card to the Invigilator.
22. No candidate, without special permission of the Superintendent or Invigilator, should leave h
23. The candidates should not leave the Examination Hall without handing over their Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on duty and s
the Attendance Sheet again. Cases where a candidate has not signed the Attendance Sheet a second time will be dee
handed over the Answer Sheet and dealt with as an unfair means case.
THUMB impression in the space provided in the Attendance Sheet.
24. Use of Electronic/Manual Calculator and any Electro
25. The candidates are governed by all Rules and Regulations of the Institute with regard to their conduct in the Examination Hal
cases of unfair means will be dealt with as per Rules and Regulations of the
26. Candidates are not allowed to carry any textual material, printed or written, bits of papers, pager, mobile phone, electronic
any other material except the Admit Card inside the examination hall/room.



Floor, Samudra Complex, Circular Road, Ranchi-1, Ph.-0651
endeavourclasses@yahoo.co.in Help line 09708037020 /21 / 22
ETS/PT

INSTRUCTION



R A N C H I
Question Paper format :

The Test Booklet consists of 90 questions. The maximum marks are 432.
parts in the question paper, consisting of, Physics Chemistry and Mathematics.
Question No. 1 to 24 consist 4 marks each and Que. No 25 to 30 consist
- Que. No 31 to 54 and consist 4 marks each and Que. No 55 to 60 consist
144 marks)-Que. No 61 to 84 consist 4 marks each and Que. No 85 to 90 consist
Candidates will awarded marks as stated above in instructions No.3 for correct response of each question.1/4(one four
be deducted for indicating incorrect response of each question. No deduction from the total score will be made if no response
indicated for an item in the answer sheet.
Blue/Black Ball Point Pen only for writing particulars/ marking responses on Side-1 and Side-2 of the Answer Sheet.
Use of PENCIL is STRCTlLY PROHIBITED.
No Candidate is allowed to carry any textual material-printed or written, bits of papers, pager, mobile phone, any electronic device,
de the examination hall/room.
Rough work is to be done on the space provided for this purpose in the Test Booklet only.
Do not fold or make any stray marks on the Answer Sheet.
Read carefully the Instruction on the Back Cover of this Test Booklet.
The candidates should fill in the required particulars on the Test Booklet and Answer Sheet (Side-1) with Blue/Black Ball Point Pen.
Use of PENCIL is STRICTLY PROHIBITED.
For writing/marking particulars on Side-2 of the Answer Sheet, use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen only. Use of PENCIL is
The Candidates should not write their Registration Numbers anywhere else (except in the specified space) on the Test
parts in the question paper, Part A consisting of PHYSICS, Part B consisting of
of 30 question each.
For each incorrect response, one-third of the total marks allotted to the question would be deducted from the total score. No
score, however, will be made if no response is indicated for an item in the Answer Sheet.
Handle the Test Booklet and Answer Sheet with care, - as under no circumstances.
The candidates are not allowed to do any rough work or writing work on the Answer Sheet. All calculations/writing work are to be
done on the space provided for this purpose in the Test Booklet itself, marked Space for Rough Work.
On completion of the test, the candidates must hand over the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on duty in the
the candidates are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them.
Each candidate must show on demand his/her Admit Card to the Invigilator.
No candidate, without special permission of the Superintendent or Invigilator, should leave his/her seat.
The candidates should not leave the Examination Hall without handing over their Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on duty and s
the Attendance Sheet again. Cases where a candidate has not signed the Attendance Sheet a second time will be dee
handed over the Answer Sheet and dealt with as an unfair means case. The candidates are also required to put their left hand
THUMB impression in the space provided in the Attendance Sheet.
Use of Electronic/Manual Calculator and any Electronic item like mobile phone etc. is prohibited.
The candidates are governed by all Rules and Regulations of the Institute with regard to their conduct in the Examination Hal
cases of unfair means will be dealt with as per Rules and Regulations of the Institution
Candidates are not allowed to carry any textual material, printed or written, bits of papers, pager, mobile phone, electronic
any other material except the Admit Card inside the examination hall/room.

0651- 2563739 / 40
1
09708037020 /21 / 22
ETS/PT-04, AIEEE -2010
, Physics Chemistry and Mathematics. In each part, there are 30
each and Que. No 25 to 30 consist 8 marks each for each
each and Que. No 55 to 60 consist 8 marks each for each
each and Que. No 85 to 90 consist 8 marks each for each
Candidates will awarded marks as stated above in instructions No.3 for correct response of each question.1/4(one fourth) marks will
be deducted for indicating incorrect response of each question. No deduction from the total score will be made if no response is
2 of the Answer Sheet.
printed or written, bits of papers, pager, mobile phone, any electronic device,
1) with Blue/Black Ball Point Pen.
oint Pen only. Use of PENCIL is
The Candidates should not write their Registration Numbers anywhere else (except in the specified space) on the Test
Part B consisting of CHEMISTRY and Part C
third of the total marks allotted to the question would be deducted from the total score. No
score, however, will be made if no response is indicated for an item in the Answer Sheet.
eet. All calculations/writing work are to be
done on the space provided for this purpose in the Test Booklet itself, marked Space for Rough Work.
On completion of the test, the candidates must hand over the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on duty in the Room/Hall. However,
is/her seat.
The candidates should not leave the Examination Hall without handing over their Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on duty and sign
the Attendance Sheet again. Cases where a candidate has not signed the Attendance Sheet a second time will be deemed not to have
The candidates are also required to put their left hand
The candidates are governed by all Rules and Regulations of the Institute with regard to their conduct in the Examination Hall. All
Candidates are not allowed to carry any textual material, printed or written, bits of papers, pager, mobile phone, electronic device or




Endeavour classes, 4
th
Floor, Samudra Complex, Circular Road, Ranchi
Email: endeavourclasses@yahoo.co.in



1. The magnetic flux linked with the coil varies with
time as = 3 t
2
+ 4 t + 9. The magnitude of
induced e. m. f. at t = 2 s is
(A) 9 V (B) 16 V
(C) 3 V (D) 4 V
2. A transformer with efficiency 80 % works at 4 kW
and 100 V. If the secondary voltage is 200 V,
the primary and secondary currents are
respectively
(A) 40 A; 16 A (B) 16 A; 40 A
(C) 20 A; 40 A (D) 40 A; 20 A
3. The flux linked with a circuit is given by
= t
3
+ 3 t 7. The graph between time (x
and given induced emf(y axis) will be
(A) A straight line through the origin
(B) Straight line with positive intercept
(C) Straight line with negative intercept
(D) Parabola not through the origin
4. The r.m.s value of i = I
1
sin t + I
(A)
2
2 1
I I +
(B)
2
1
I
(C)
2
2
2
2
1
I I +
(D)
2
1
I
5. An inductance L having a resistance R is
connected to an alternating source of angular
frequency . The quality factor (Q) of the
inductance is
(A)
2
|

\
|
R
L
(B)

\
|
L
R

(C)
R
L
(D)
L
R

6. In an a.c circuit V and I are given by


V = 100 sin (100t) volt.
I = 100 sin (100t + / 3)mA.
The power dissipated in the circuit is
(A) 10
4
watt (B) 10 watt
(C) 2.5 watt (C) 5 watt
7. In series LR circuit X
L
= 3 R. Now a capacitor
with X
c
= R is added in series. The ratio of new to
old power factor is
(A) 2 (B) 2 / 1
(C) 2 (D) 1
8. For a series LCR circuit, the power loss at
resonance is
(A)
(


C
L
V

1
2
(B) I
2
L
(C) I
2
R (D)
C
V
2

PHYSICS

Floor, Samudra Complex, Circular Road, Ranchi-1, Ph.-0651
endeavourclasses@yahoo.co.in Help line 09708037020 /21 / 22
ETS/PT
The magnetic flux linked with the coil varies with
+ 4 t + 9. The magnitude of
(B) 16 V

A transformer with efficiency 80 % works at 4 kW
and 100 V. If the secondary voltage is 200 V, then
the primary and secondary currents are
(B) 16 A; 40 A
(D) 40 A; 20 A
The flux linked with a circuit is given by
7. The graph between time (x axis)
axis) will be
) A straight line through the origin
(B) Straight line with positive intercept
(C) Straight line with negative intercept
(D) Parabola not through the origin
t + I
2
cos t is
2
2
2
2
I +

2
2
I

An inductance L having a resistance R is
connected to an alternating source of angular
. The quality factor (Q) of the
2 / 1
|

|
L


In an a.c circuit V and I are given by
The power dissipated in the circuit is
(B) 10 watt
(C) 5 watt
= 3 R. Now a capacitor
= R is added in series. The ratio of new to
2
For a series LCR circuit, the power loss at



9. In a photocell, the curve for current (I) verses
potential difference (V) is best represented by


(A) (B)




(C) (D)


10. A metal surface of work function 1.07 ev is
irradiated with light of wavelength 332 nm. The
retarding potential required to stop the escape of
photoelectrons is
(A) 1.07 eV (B) 2.66 eV
(C) 3.74 eV (D) 4.81 eV
11. An X-Ray tube operates at an accelerating
potential of 20kV. Which of the following
wavelengths will be absent in the continuous
spectrum of X-rays.(h = 6.62
(A) 50 pm (B) 65 pm
(C) 72 pm (D) 94 pm
12. If -particle and proton are accelerated through
the same potential difference, then t
de-Broglie wavelength of
(A) 2

(B)
(C)

2 2
1

(D)
13. If the kinetic energy of a free electron doubles, its
de-Broglie wavelength changes by the factor
(A) 2

(B)
(C)

2

(D)
14. When a point source of light is at a distance of 50
cm from a photoelectric cell, the stopping voltage
is found to be V
0
. If the same source is
distance of 1 m from the cell, the stopping voltage
will be
(A) 2 V
0
(B) V
(C)
2
o
V
(D)
15. Which of these particles (having the same kinetic
energy) has the largest de
(A) electron (B) alpha particle
(C) proton (D) neutron




l
V
O
l
V
O

0651- 2563739 / 40
2
09708037020 /21 / 22
ETS/PT-04, AIEEE -2010
In a photocell, the curve for current (I) verses
potential difference (V) is best represented by
(B)
(D)
A metal surface of work function 1.07 ev is
irradiated with light of wavelength 332 nm. The
retarding potential required to stop the escape of
(B) 2.66 eV
(D) 4.81 eV
Ray tube operates at an accelerating
otential of 20kV. Which of the following
wavelengths will be absent in the continuous
rays.(h = 6.62 10
34
Js)
(B) 65 pm
(D) 94 pm
particle and proton are accelerated through
the same potential difference, then the ratio of
Broglie wavelength of -particle and proton is
(B) 2 2

(D)
2
1

If the kinetic energy of a free electron doubles, its
changes by the factor
(B)
2
1

(D)
2
1

When a point source of light is at a distance of 50
cm from a photoelectric cell, the stopping voltage
. If the same source is placed at a
distance of 1 m from the cell, the stopping voltage
(B) V
0

(D)
4
o
V

Which of these particles (having the same kinetic
energy) has the largest de-Broglie wave length ?
(B) alpha particle
(D) neutron
l
V O
l
V
O




Endeavour classes, 4
th
Floor, Samudra Complex, Circular Road, Ranchi
Email: endeavourclasses@yahoo.co.in

16. Given that in a hydrogen atom, the energy of nth
orbit .
6 . 13
2
eV
n
E
n
= The amount of energy
required to send electron from first orbit to second
orbit is
(A) 10.2 eV (B) 12.1 eV
(C) 13.6 eV (D) 3.4 eV
17. What percentage of original radioactive atoms is
left after four half lives ?
(A) 20 % (B) 10 %
(C) 5 % (D) 6 %
18. A rod of length l rotates with a small but uniform
angular velocity about its perpendicular
bisector. A uniform magnetic field B exists
parallel to the axis of rotation. The potential
difference between the two ends of the rod is
(A) zero (B)
2
1
Bl
(C) Bl
2
(D) 2Bl
19. The magnetic field energy in an inductor changes
form maximum value to minimum value in 5.0 ms
when connected to an AC source. The frequency
of the source is
(A) 20 Hz (B) 50 Hz
(C) 200 Hz (D) 500 Hz
20. A series AC circuit has a resistance of 4
reactance of 3 . The impedance of the circuit is
(A) 5 (B) 7
(C) 12/7 (D) 7/12
21. A constant current of 2.8 A exists in a resistor. The
rms current is
(A) 2.8 A
(B) about 2 A
(C) 1.4 A (D) undefined for a direct current.
22. In which of the following transitions will the
wavelength be minimum?
(A) n = 5 to n = 4 (B) n = 4 to
(C) n = 3 to n = 2 (D) n = 2 to
23. The electric current in a circuit is given by
for some time then r.m.s current for the period
0 to t = will be
(A)
3
o
i

(B)
2
o
i

(C)
o
i 2

(D)
o
i 3
24. The time required for a 50 Hz alternating current
to change its value from zero to r.m.s value will be
(A) 2.5 ms (B) 1.5 ms
(C) 0.5 ms (B) 1 ms





Floor, Samudra Complex, Circular Road, Ranchi-1, Ph.-0651
endeavourclasses@yahoo.co.in Help line 09708037020 /21 / 22
ETS/PT
Given that in a hydrogen atom, the energy of nth
The amount of energy
required to send electron from first orbit to second
(B) 12.1 eV
(D) 3.4 eV
What percentage of original radioactive atoms is
(B) 10 %

rotates with a small but uniform
about its perpendicular
bisector. A uniform magnetic field B exists
allel to the axis of rotation. The potential
difference between the two ends of the rod is
2
Bl

2
The magnetic field energy in an inductor changes
form maximum value to minimum value in 5.0 ms
when connected to an AC source. The frequency
(B) 50 Hz
(D) 500 Hz
A series AC circuit has a resistance of 4 and a
. The impedance of the circuit is

(D) 7/12
A constant current of 2.8 A exists in a resistor. The
(D) undefined for a direct current.
owing transitions will the
= 4 to n = 3
= 2 to n = 1
The electric current in a circuit is given by

t
i i
o
=

for some time then r.m.s current for the period t =


The time required for a 50 Hz alternating current
to change its value from zero to r.m.s value will be
(B) 1.5 ms

25. The decay constant of a radioactive sample is
The half-life and mean life of the sample are
respectively given be
(A)
2 log 1
e
and

(B)
(C)

1
) 2 (log and
e

26. A particle of mass m kg and charge q coulomb is
accelerated through V volt, then the de
wavelength associated with it, in metre is
(A)
mv
h
=

(B)
(C)
mqV
h
2
=

(D)
27. If the frequency of K

element with atomic number 31 is v, then the


frequency of K

X-Ray emitted from the element


with atomic number 51 would be
(A) v
3
5

(B)
(C) v
9
25

(D)
28. Frequency of the series of Balmer series of
hydrogen atom in terms of Rydberg constant R
and velocity of light c is
(A) Rc (B)
(C) 4 Rc (D)
29. A monochromatic light of wavelength
on an isolated metallic sphere of radius a. The
threshold wavelength is
Then the number of photo electrons emitted before
the emission of photo electrons stops will be
(A)
(

o
o
e
ahc

1 1 4
2

(B)
(

+
o
o
e
ahc

1 1 4
2

(C)

(
(


1 1 4
2
o
o
e
ahc

(D)
(
(

+

1 1 4
2
o
o
e
ahc





0651- 2563739 / 40
3
09708037020 /21 / 22
ETS/PT-04, AIEEE -2010
The decay constant of a radioactive sample is .
life and mean life of the sample are
(B)

1 2 log
and
e
(B)

1
2 log
and
e

A particle of mass m kg and charge q coulomb is
accelerated through V volt, then the de-Broglie
wavelength associated with it, in metre is
(B)
mqV
h
=

(D)

mV
hq
2
=

X-Ray emitted from the


element with atomic number 31 is v, then the
Ray emitted from the element
with atomic number 51 would be
(B) v
31
51

(D) v
25
9

Frequency of the series of Balmer series of
hydrogen atom in terms of Rydberg constant R
and velocity of light c is
(B)
4
Rc

(D)
Rc
4

A monochromatic light of wavelength incident
on an isolated metallic sphere of radius a. The
threshold wavelength is
o
. which is larger then .
Then the number of photo electrons emitted before
the emission of photo electrons stops will be






Endeavour classes, 4
th
Floor, Samudra Complex, Circular Road, Ranchi
Email: endeavourclasses@yahoo.co.in

30. A small metal plate (work function
distance d from a singly ionized, fixed ion. A
monochromatic light beam is incident on the metal
plate and photoelectrons are emitted. The
maximum wavelength of light beam so that some
of the photo electrons may go round the ion along
a circle will be
(A)
d e
dhc
o
o

8
8
2
+
(B)
e
4
2
+
(C)
d e
dhc
o
o

4
4
2

(D)
e

+
2



31. Which of the following statements is not true
regarding vapour pressure of solvent (p
that of the solution (p
s
) containing non
solute?
(A) Both p
o
and p
s
increase on increasing
temperature
(B) (p
o
p
s
) increases on increasing
temperature
(C) p
s
= p
o

mole fraction of solvent


(D)
( )
o
s
o
p
p p
decreases on increasing
temperature
32. 1.0 m aqueous solution of CrC
at 5.58
o
C. Assuming complete ionization of
the hydrated complex, which of the following
isomers conforms to the observation (K
water = 1.86 K kg mol
1
)?
(A) [Cr(H
2
O)
3
Cl
3
].3H
2
O
(B) [Cr(H
2
O)
4
Cl
4
]Cl.2H
2
O
(C) [Cr(H
2
O)
5
Cl]Cl
2
.H
2
O
(D) [Cr(H
2
O)
6
]Cl
3

33. In the reaction

The equivalent mass of Al(OH)
(A) 78
(C) 52
34. The vapour density of a mixture containing
NO
2
and N
2
O
4
is 27.6 Mole fraction of NO
the mixture is
(A) 0.2
(C) 0.6
35. A mixture of NaOH and Na
ml of 0.1 M HCl using phenolphthalein as
indicator. However, the same amount of the
mixture required 30 ml of 0.1 M HCl when
methyl orange was used as the indicator. The
molar ratio of NaOH and Na
mixture was

(A) 2 : 1
(C) 1 : 2

CHEMISTRY
NaOH + Al (OH)
3


Floor, Samudra Complex, Circular Road, Ranchi-1, Ph.-0651
endeavourclasses@yahoo.co.in Help line 09708037020 /21 / 22
ETS/PT
A small metal plate (work function ) is kept at a
distance d from a singly ionized, fixed ion. A
monochromatic light beam is incident on the metal
plate and photoelectrons are emitted. The
maximum wavelength of light beam so that some
of the photo electrons may go round the ion along
d
dhc
o
o

4
d
dhc
o
o

+

Which of the following statements is not true
regarding vapour pressure of solvent (p
o
) and
) containing non-volatile
increase on increasing
) increases on increasing
mole fraction of solvent
decreases on increasing
1.0 m aqueous solution of CrCl
3
.6H
2
O freezes
C. Assuming complete ionization of
the hydrated complex, which of the following
isomers conforms to the observation (K
f
for

O

The equivalent mass of Al(OH)
3
is
(B) 26
(D) unpredictable
The vapour density of a mixture containing
is 27.6 Mole fraction of NO
2
in
(B) 0.4
(D) 0.8
A mixture of NaOH and Na
2
CO
3
required 25
ml of 0.1 M HCl using phenolphthalein as
indicator. However, the same amount of the
mixture required 30 ml of 0.1 M HCl when
methyl orange was used as the indicator. The
molar ratio of NaOH and Na
2
CO
3
in the
(B) 4 : 1
(D) 1 : 4
36. Calculate the molarity of KMnO
ml of which is just sufficient to oxidize 0.238
g of U
4+
in acidic medium according to the
reaction (atomic mass of U = 238)
5 U
4+
+ 2MnO
4

+ 6H
U 5
(A) 0.05 M
(C) 0.15 M
37. 20 ml of 0.1 M FeC
0.1 M KMnO
4
in acidic medium. Volume of
KMnO
4
solution required to oxidize FeC
completely is
(A) 20 ml
(C) 8 ml
38. For the reaction : 2H
equivalent mass of H
(A) molar mass / 4
(C) molar mass / 2
39. For the redox reaction
2
2
7
O Cr + I

+ H
+

The correct coefficients of the reactants for the
balanced equation are
2
2
7
O Cr
(A) 1
(B) 1
(C) 2
(D) 1
40. What volume at STP of gaseous ammonia will
be required to be passed into 100 ml of 0.5 M
H
2
SO
4
to bring down its strength to 0.25 M?
(A) 0.560 L
(C) 1.680 L
41. Three solution A, B, C of HCl
produce 100 ml of 0.1 M solution. The
molarities of A, B, C are 0.05 M, 0.10 M and
0.15 M respectively. In what ratio can they be
mixed ?
(A) 55 ml, 20 ml, 25 ml
(B) 57 ml, 15 ml, 28 ml
(C) 54 ml, 23 ml, 23 ml
(D) 23 ml, 54 ml, 23 ml
42. Equal volumes of 1.0 M KCl and 1.0 M Ag
NO
3
are mixed. The depression of freezing
point of the resulting solution will be (K
= 1.86 K kg mol
1
, 1M = 1m)
(A) 3.72 K
(C) 0.93 K
43. The vapour pressure of a liquid decreases b
10 torr when a non-
The mole fraction of the solute in solution is
0.1. What would be the mole fraction of the
liquid if the decrease in vapour pressure is 20
torr, the same solute being dissolved.
(A) 0.2
(C) 0.8
CHEMISTRY
NaAlO
2
+ H
2
O

0651- 2563739 / 40
4
09708037020 /21 / 22
ETS/PT-04, AIEEE -2010
Calculate the molarity of KMnO
4
solution, 20
ml of which is just sufficient to oxidize 0.238
in acidic medium according to the
reaction (atomic mass of U = 238)
+ 6H
2
O
+ + +
+ + O H Mn U
3
2 2
2
4 2
(B) 0.10 M
(D) 0.02 M
20 ml of 0.1 M FeC
2
O
4
solution is titrated with
in acidic medium. Volume of
solution required to oxidize FeC
2
O
4

(B) 12 ml
(D) 4 ml
For the reaction : 2H
3
PO
2
H
3
PO
4
+ PH
3
, the
equivalent mass of H
3
PO
2
is
(B) molar mass / 3
(D) molar mass
For the redox reaction
Cr
3+
+ I
2
+ H
2
O
The correct coefficients of the reactants for the
balanced equation are
I

H
+

3 14
6 14
6 14
6 7
What volume at STP of gaseous ammonia will
be required to be passed into 100 ml of 0.5 M
to bring down its strength to 0.25 M?
(B) 1.120 L
(D) 2.240 L
Three solution A, B, C of HCl are mixed to
produce 100 ml of 0.1 M solution. The
molarities of A, B, C are 0.05 M, 0.10 M and
0.15 M respectively. In what ratio can they be
(A) 55 ml, 20 ml, 25 ml
(B) 57 ml, 15 ml, 28 ml
(C) 54 ml, 23 ml, 23 ml
(D) 23 ml, 54 ml, 23 ml
l volumes of 1.0 M KCl and 1.0 M Ag
are mixed. The depression of freezing
point of the resulting solution will be (K
f
(H
2
O)
, 1M = 1m)
(B) 1.86 K
(D) None of these
The vapour pressure of a liquid decreases by
-volatile solute is dissolved.
The mole fraction of the solute in solution is
0.1. What would be the mole fraction of the
liquid if the decrease in vapour pressure is 20
torr, the same solute being dissolved.
(B) 0.9
(D) 0.6




Endeavour classes, 4
th
Floor, Samudra Complex, Circular Road, Ranchi
Email: endeavourclasses@yahoo.co.in

44. Henerys law constant K of CO
25
o
C is3.0 10
2
molL
1

mass of CO
2
present in 100 L of soft drink
bottled with a partial pressure of CO
at the same temperature

(A) 5.28 g
(C) 428 g
45. The reactivity order of halides for
dehydrohalogenation is
(A) R F > R Cl > R Br > R
(B) R I > R Br > R CL > R
(C) R I > R Cl > R Br > R
(D) R F > R I > R Br > R

46. In S
N
1 reaction, the racemization takes place.
It is due to
(A) inversion of configuration
(B) retention of configuration
(C) conversion of configuration
(D) both (A) & (B)
47. Which among MeX, RCH
R
3
CX ismost reactive toward
(A) MeX
(C) R
2
CHX
48. Isopropyl chloride undergoes hydrolysis by
(A) S
N
1 mechanism
(B) S
N
2 mechanism
(C) S
N
1 and S
N
2 mechanisms
(D) Neither S
N
1 nor S
N
2 mechanism
49. Arrange the following compounds in order of
increasing dipole moment :
Toluene (I)
m-dichlorobenzene (II)
o-dichlorobenzene (III)
p-dichlorobenzene (IV)
(A) I < IV < II < III
(C) IV < I < III < II

50. CH
3
Br + Nu

CH
3

decreasing order of the rate of the above
reaction with nucleophiles (Nu
[Nu

= (a) PhO

, (b) AcO
CH
3
O

]
(A) a > b > c > d
(C) d > c > a > b
51. The compound which gives the most stable
carbonium ion on dehydration is
(A) (CH
3
)
2
CHCH
2
OH
(B) (CH
3
)
3
COH
(C) CH
3
CH
2
CH
2
OCH
2
OH
(D) CH
3
CHOHCH
2
CH
3

52. Which of the following will not give iodoform
test ?
(A) Ethanol
(C) Isopropyl alcohol

Floor, Samudra Complex, Circular Road, Ranchi-1, Ph.-0651
endeavourclasses@yahoo.co.in Help line 09708037020 /21 / 22
ETS/PT
Henerys law constant K of CO
2
in water at
atm
1
. Calculate the
present in 100 L of soft drink
bottled with a partial pressure of CO
2
of 4 atm
(B) 12.0 g
(D) 528 g

The reactivity order of halides for
Br > R I
CL > R F
Br > R F
Br > R Cl
1 reaction, the racemization takes place.
inversion of configuration
retention of configuration
conversion of configuration
Which among MeX, RCH
2
X, R
2
CHX and
CX ismost reactive toward
S
N
2 reaction ?
(B) RCH
2
X
(D) R
3
CX
Isopropyl chloride undergoes hydrolysis by
mechanisms
mechanism
Arrange the following compounds in order of
increasing dipole moment :
(B) IV < I < II < III
(D) IV < II < I < III
Nu + Br

the
decreasing order of the rate of the above
reaction with nucleophiles (Nu

) A toD is
, (b) AcO

, (c) HO

, (d)
(B) b > d > c > a
(D) d > c > b > a
The compound which gives the most stable
carbonium ion on dehydration is
OH
Which of the following will not give iodoform
(B) Ethanal
(D) Benzyl alcohol

53. The order of reactivity of the following
alcohols towards conc. HCl is









(A) I > II > III > IV
(C) IV > III > II > I


54. The product of the following reaction,

























55. Vapour pressure (in torr) of an ideal solution
of two liquids A and B is given by : P = 52X
+ 114
where X
A
is the mole fraction of A in the
mixture. The vapour pressure (in torr) of
equimolar mixture of the two liquids
(A) 166
(C) 140
56. 25 ml of an aqueous solution of NaCl required
20 ml of 0.10 M AgNO
precipitation of Cl


of NaCl solution at 27
(A) 1.97 atm
(C) 3.94 atm

F OH
CH
(I)
CH
CH
3

OH
(III)
CH
3
C CH = CH
2

CH
3


CH
3


CH
3
C CH
CH
3


CH
3
OH

(A)

CH
3
C CH
2
CH
3


CH
3


(B)

CH
3
C CH
OH

CH
3
CH
3


(C)

HOCH
2
C CH
CH
3


CH
3


(D)


0651- 2563739 / 40
5
09708037020 /21 / 22
ETS/PT-04, AIEEE -2010
The order of reactivity of the following
alcohols towards conc. HCl is
(A) I > II > III > IV (B) I > III > II > IV
(C) IV > III > II > I (D) IV > III > I > II
The product of the following reaction,
pressure (in torr) of an ideal solution
of two liquids A and B is given by : P = 52X
A

is the mole fraction of A in the
mixture. The vapour pressure (in torr) of
equimolar mixture of the two liquids
(B) 83
(D) 280
ml of an aqueous solution of NaCl required
20 ml of 0.10 M AgNO
3
solution for complete
ions. The osmotic pressure
of NaCl solution at 27
o
C is expected to be :
(B) 2.46 atm
(D) 0.35 atm
CH
3

OH
CH
3

F
OH
(II)
CH
3

OH
Ph
(IV)

(i) Hg(OAc)
2
, H
2
O
(ii) NaBH
4

is
CH
3

2
CH
2
OH
CH
3


CH
2
CH
3





Endeavour classes, 4
th
Floor, Samudra Complex, Circular Road, Ranchi
Email: endeavourclasses@yahoo.co.in

57. 1.500 g of hydroxide of a metal gave 1.000g
of its oxide on heating. The equivalent mass of
the metal is
(A) 5.0
(C) 12.0
58. Identify Z in



(A) mixture of CH
CH
3
CHOHCH
2
Cl
(B) CH
3
CHOHCH
2
Cl
(C) CH
3
CHClCH
2
OH
(D) CH
3
CHClCH
2
Cl
59. Identify X in the following sequence :



(A) CH
3
CH
2
CH
2
OH
(C) CH
3
OCH
2
CH
3


60. What is Z in the following sequence of
reactions?



(A) CH
3
CH
2
CH
2
OH
(C) (CH3CH
2
)
2
CHOH



61. Evaluate

+ +

2 4 2
4
1 (
) 1 (
x x x
dx x
(A)
c
x
x + +
2
2
1
(B)
(C)
c
x
x +
2
2
1

62.

+
+
x
x x
cos 1
sin
dx
(A) x sec x/2
(C) tan x/2
63. Evaluate

+ +

2
) 1 )( 3 (
5 2
x x
x
B ln |x + 1| +
+
+ ) 1 ( 2 x
C
B, C is
(A) 11/4, 11/4, 7/2
(B) 11/4, +11/4, 7
(C) 11, +11,
2
7

(D) None of these
C3H8O C3H6O
K2Cr2O7
H2SO4
(X)
warm
I2+NaOH
Z
X
PCl
5

Alc. KOH
CH
3
CH
2
CH
2
Br
Aq. NaOH
Aq. NaOH
Y
MATHEMATIC

Floor, Samudra Complex, Circular Road, Ranchi-1, Ph.-0651
endeavourclasses@yahoo.co.in Help line 09708037020 /21 / 22
ETS/PT
1.500 g of hydroxide of a metal gave 1.000g
of its oxide on heating. The equivalent mass of
(B) 10.0
(D) 15.0
mixture of CH
3
CHClCH
2
Cl and
Identify X in the following sequence :
(B) CH
3
CHOHCH
3

(D) CH
3
CH
2
CHO
What is Z in the following sequence of
(B) CH
3
CHOHCH
3

(D) CH
3
CH
2
CHO
2 / 1
) 1
dx

(B)
c
x
x + + + 1
1
2
2

(D) None of these
(B) x tan x/2
(D) None of these
2
dx = A ln |x + 3| +
+
D then value of A,
64. Evaluate I =

x
e
sin
(A) e
sin x
(x sec x) + c
(B) xe
sin x
+ e
sin x
+ sec + c
(C) e
sin x
(1 sec x) + c
(D) None of these
65.

+ sin( sin
3
x x
dx
(A)
x +
cos
sin(
sin
2

(B)
x
x +
sin
sin(
sin
2

(C)
x
x +
sin
sin(
sin
1

(D)
x
x +
sin
sin(
sin
2

66.
( )

+
3
0
2 2
] [ ] [ x x
dx = I Value of I will be
(A) 10 + 3 3
(C) 10 2 3
67.

+ x x
dx
sec sin
= Aln
f(x) Value of A & f(x)
(A) A =
3 2
1
, f(x) = sin x
(B) A =
3
1
, f(x) = sin x + cos x
(C) A =
3 2
1
, f(x) = sin x + cos x
(D) None of these
68.

+
2
3
15
0
2
sin

dx x

(A) 15
(C) 31
69.
4 9
6 4
2 4
2
=
+ +

dx
x x
x
tan
1
9(x) + C
value of f(x) & g(x) is
(A) f(x) =
) (
3
3
2
2
2
=
+ +
+
x x g
x
x
(B) g(x) =
) (
3
2
=
+
x x g
x
(C) f(x) =
/ 3
3
3
2
2
2
x x
x
x

+ +
+
CHI3
warm
+NaOH

Y
(i) Conc. H2SO4
(ii) H2O; boil
Z
Aq. NaOH
X
Y
Cl2 / H2O
Z
MATHEMATIC

0651- 2563739 / 40
6
09708037020 /21 / 22
ETS/PT-04, AIEEE -2010
(x cos x sec x tan x) dx
sec x) + c
+ sec + c
sec x) + c
)
= I, Value of I will be
C +
)

C +
)

C +
)

C +
)

dx = I Value of I will be
(B) 9 + 3 2
(D) 9 3 2

= Aln
x x
x x
cos sin 3
cos sin 3
+
+
+ tan
1

f(x) Value of A & f(x)
, f(x) = sin x
, f(x) = sin x + cos x
, f(x) = sin x + cos x
(B) 16
(D) 33
2 2
1
=
ln f(x) +
2
3
value of f(x) & g(x) is
3
2
2
2


3
2
2
x

10
2
2

(D) None of these




Endeavour classes, 4
th
Floor, Samudra Complex, Circular Road, Ranchi
Email: endeavourclasses@yahoo.co.in

70. f(x) = x
2
Find the value of I =

1
1
f(x) f(x)

(A) 1 (B)
2
1

(C)
3
1
(D) None of these
71.

n
r
n r
n
e
n
1
/
is
1
lim

(A) e (B) e 1
(C) 1 e (D) e + 1
72.

1
0
2 2
is
1
lim
n
r
n
r n

(A) (B) /2
(C) /4 (D) none
73. Let f (x) be an odd function in the interval
(

2
,
2
T T
, with a period T. Then f(x) =

x
a
t f is dt ) (

(A) periodic with period T
(B) none periodic
(C) periodic
(D) periodic with period a T
74. The absolute value of

19
10
1
sin
(A) less than 10
7
(B) more than 10
(C) less than 0
6
(D) more than 10
75. The value of the definite integral
lies in the interval [a, b] the smallest such
interval is
(A)
(

17
1
, 0

(C)
(

27
1
, 0

76. The value of

+
2 /
0
3
tan 1

x
dx
(A) 0 (B) 1
(C) /4 (D) /2
77.

+
2
2
) ( )}{ ( ) ( { x g x f x f
(A) f(x) must be an odd function
(B) g(x) must be on odd function
(C) g(x) as well as f(x) must be an ever
functions
(D) f(x) or g(x) can be either an odd or an even
function




Floor, Samudra Complex, Circular Road, Ranchi-1, Ph.-0651
endeavourclasses@yahoo.co.in Help line 09708037020 /21 / 22
ETS/PT
Find the value of I =

1
0
1
f(x) (x) f
+
(D) None of these
1
(D) e + 1
(D) none
Let f (x) be an odd function in the interval
, with a period T. Then f(x) =

(D) periodic with period a T
+
8
is dx
sin
x
x

(B) more than 10
7
(D) more than 10
6
The value of the definite integral

+
1
0
3
) 16 (
.
x
dx x
lies in the interval [a, b] the smallest such
(B) [0, 1]

(D) none of these
x
is
= ; 0 )} ( dx x g

(A) f(x) must be an odd function
(B) g(x) must be on odd function
(C) g(x) as well as f(x) must be an ever
(D) f(x) or g(x) can be either an odd or an even
78.

+
+

4
2
2
1
.
1
1
x
dx
x
x

(A)
x
x
|
|

\
|
+

1
2
sin
2
1
2
1
(B)
x
x
|
|

\
|
+

1
2
cos
2
1
2
1
(C)
x
x
|
|

\
|
+

1
2
tan
2
1
2
1
(D) none of these

79.

+
+
dx
) 1 .( ) 1 (
) 1 3 (
3
x x
x

(A)
x
x

+
2
2
( 2 1
1
log
2
1
(B)
x x
x

+
( 2 1
1
log
4
1
(C)
x x
x
+

+
( 2 1
1
log
4
1
(D) none of these
80.

+
is
) 1 .(
10 4 / 1
x x
dx
(A)
( ) x
+
|
|

\
|
+

1
1
8
4
8
4
(B)
( ) ( x
+
+

9
4
9 1
1
8
4
(C)
( )
C
x
+
+
9
1 4 9
4

(D) none of these

81. The area bounded by the graph y = 1| [x
the
x-axis and the lines x =
denotes the greatest integer function)
(A) 7 sq. units (B) 15 sq. units
(C) 21 sq. units (D) 28 sq. units
82. The area bounded by the curve
y = x
4
2x
3
+ x
2
+ 3, the axis of abscissas and
two ordinates corresponding to the points of
minimum of the function y (x) is
(A) 10/3
(C) 21/10
83. The area bounded by the curve y = x
axis and the line x = 2
equal areas by the line x = k. The value of k is
(A) 2
1/3
1
(C) 2
2/3






0651- 2563739 / 40
7
09708037020 /21 / 22
ETS/PT-04, AIEEE -2010
C +

C +
|
|

|

C +
|
|

|


C
x x
+

2 2 2
) 1 (
1
) 1 (
1

C
x x
+

2
) 1 (
1
) 1
1

C
x x
+

2
) 1 (
1
) 1
1


C x + +
9
4

( )
C
x
+
+
9
4
1
4

The area bounded by the graph y = 1| [x 3]|
axis and the lines x =2 and x = 3 is ([.]
denotes the greatest integer function)
(B) 15 sq. units
(D) 28 sq. units
The area bounded by the curve
+ 3, the axis of abscissas and
two ordinates corresponding to the points of
minimum of the function y (x) is
(B) 27/10
(D) None of these.
The area bounded by the curve y = x
2
, the x-
axis and the line x = 2
1/3
is divided into two
ual areas by the line x = k. The value of k is
(B) 1
(D) 2
1/3





Endeavour classes, 4
th
Floor, Samudra Complex, Circular Road, Ranchi
Email: endeavourclasses@yahoo.co.in


84. The area of the figure bounded by the curves
y =
| x 1 | and y = 3 | x | is
(A) 2 (B) 3
(C) 4 (D) None of these
85. If f(x) = max

cos , sin x x
the region bounded by the curves y = f (x), x
axis y axis and x = 2 is
(A)
|

\
|
+3
12
5

(C)
|

\
|
+ 2
12
5
(D)
86. If (x) =


=
=

\
|
|

\
|
n
r
n
r
n
r
r
1
1
lim
(x) dx equals ;
(A) 3 (B) 8/3
(C) 8 (D) None of these
87. The value of the integral

+ +
b
a
x) b f(a f(x)
f(x)
dx is
(A) a b
(C)
2
a b
























sq
units
sq
units

Floor, Samudra Complex, Circular Road, Ranchi-1, Ph.-0651
endeavourclasses@yahoo.co.in Help line 09708037020 /21 / 22
ETS/PT
The area of the figure bounded by the curves

(D) None of these
)
`

2
1
, x
then the area of
the region bounded by the curves y = f (x), x

(B)
|

\
|
+ 3
12
5

(D)
|

\
|
+ + 3 2
12
5

=
|

|
n
r
r
r
1
1
, then

3
0

(D) None of these


The value of the integral
dx is
(B)
2
b a

(D) b a

88.

+
2 2
1 ) 1 (
1
x x
(A)

\
|

1
1
2
tan
2
1
(B)

\
|
+
1
1
tan
2
1
(C)

\
|
1
1
tan
2
1
(D) None of these
89.

. 2 sin x
log cos x dx is equal to
(A) cos
2
x

\
|
+ log
2
1
(B) cos
2
x. log cos x + k
(C) cos
2
x

\
|
log
2
1
(D) None of these.
90. If

x
0
f(t)
dt = x +

1
x
f(l) is
(A) 1/2 (B) 0
(C) 1 (D)




sq
units
sq
units

0651- 2563739 / 40
8
09708037020 /21 / 22
ETS/PT-04, AIEEE -2010
dx is equal to
c
x
x
+
|
|

|
2
2

c
x
x
+
|
|

|
+
2
2

c
x
x
+
|
|

2
1
2

log cos x dx is equal to
k x +
|

|
cos log
x. log cos x + k
k x +
|

|
cos log

t) ( f t
dt, tehn the value of
(B) 0
(D) 1/2

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