You answered the following questions incorrectly.

Q:1 The benefits of using _______________ include reduced cost of design and manufacturing to create a family of products? A-mass customization B-component commonality C- Modular Design D-universality

The correct answer was: C) Modular Design Explanation: The benefits of using modular design include reduced cost of design and manufacturing to create a family of products

Q:2 Instead of using a variety of bolt sizes in an assembly, designing the assembly in such a way that the same size bolt will work for all purposes describes which design approach? A-mass customization B-component commonality C- Modular Design D-universality The correct answer was: B) Component Commonality Explanation: Component Commonality instead using a variety of bolt sizes in an assembly, designs the assembly in such a way that the same size bolt will work for all purposes.

Q:3 The strategy of designing a product initially intended for one market in such a way that it can be sold in other markets belongs to which design approach? A-mass customization B-component commonality C- Modular Design D-universality The correct answer was: D) Universality Explanation: Universality is the strategy of designing a product initially intended for one market in such a way that it can be sold in other markets.

Q:4 This design approach is where a basic product or set of components remains in undifferentiated form as long as possible before being converted or assembled into a customized, or differentiated, configuration? A-mass customization B-component commonality C- Modular Design D-universality The correct answer was: A) Mass Customization Explanation: Mass Customization is where a basic product or set of components remains in undifferentiated form as long as possible before being converted or assembled into a customized, or differentiated, configuration.

Q:5 The benefits of _______________ different market? A-mass customization B-component commonality C- Modular Design D-universality

include increased sales volume because of the appeal of differentiated products to

The correct answer was: A) Mass Customization Explanation: Mass customization benefits include increased sales volume because of the appeal of differentiated products to different market.

Q:6 Benefits of _______________ processes and tools? A-mass customization B-component commonality C- Modular Design D-universality

include more streamlined production because of fewer shifts between different

The correct answer was: B) Component Commonality Explanation: Component Commonality has a more streamlined production because of fewer shifts between different processes and tools.

Q:7 Benefits of _________________ include expanded customer base, because products can be customized closer to the end user (and sometimes by the end user)? A-mass customization B-component commonality C- Modular Design D-universality The correct answer was: C) Modular Design Explanation: Modular Design includes an expanded customer base, because products can be customized closer to the end user (and sometimes by the end user).

Q:8 Benefits of _______________ market-specific products? A-mass customization B-component commonality C- Modular Design D-universality

this design approach include reduced cost of design and manufacturing compared to

The correct answer was: D) Universality Explanation: Universality benefits include reduced cost of design and manufacturing compared to market-specific products.

Q:9 The benefits of ______________ assembled to order? A-mass customization B-component commonality C- Modular Design D-universality

include increased efficiency and expertise of workers who create the modules to be

The correct answer was: A) Mass Customization Explanation: Mass Customization benefits include increased efficiency and expertise of workers who create the modules to be assembled to order.

Q:10 The tradeoff for using this design approach is that integral design generally allows more emphasis on style, beauty, quality, "fit and finish," and customization? A-mass customization B-component commonality

C- Modular Design D-universality The correct answer was: C) Modular Design Explanation: The tradeoff for using this Modular Design approach is that integral design generally allows more emphasis on style, beauty, quality, "fit and finish," and customization.

Q:11 One of the tradeoffs for using this design approach is the cost of investing in equipment and training to enable distributors to assemble the product? A-mass customization B-component commonality C- Modular Design D-universality The correct answer was: A) Mass Customization Explanation: One of the tradeoffs for using Mass Customization is the cost of investing in equipment and training to enable distributors to assemble the product.

Q:12 The tradeoff for using this design approach is reduction in quality if the greater variety of parts would for example allow closer tolerances or more attractive design? A-mass customization B-component commonality C- Modular Design D-universality The correct answer was: B) Component Commonality Explanation: The tradeoff for using Component Commonality is reduction in quality if the greater variety of parts would for example allow closer tolerances or more attractive design.

Q:13 The benefits of _______________ of this design approach include easier, more cost-effective shipping, warehousing, and display of the product if it is designed with packaging in mind? A-mass customization B-component commonality C- Modular Design D-universality The correct answer was: C) Modular Design Explanation: Modular Design benefits include easier, more cost-effective shipping, warehousing, and display of the product if it is designed with packaging in mind.

Q:14 A tradeoff with this design approach is while logistics costs may be reduced by modular design, the cost of each product in a family may go up? A-mass customization B-component commonality C- Modular Design D-universality The correct answer was: C) Modular Design Explanation: A tradeoff with this Modular Design is while logistics costs may be reduced by modular design, the cost of each product in a family may go up.

Q:15 On the debit side, this design approach may be less suited to any given market than a specialized product would be? A-mass customization B-component commonality C- Modular Design D-universality The correct answer was: D) Universality Explanation: The Universality approach may be less suited to any given market than a specialized product would be.

Q:16 The, _____________ over the long term? A-forecast B-prospectus C-business plan D-S_OP plan

is a thorough and disciplined preview of what the firm hopes to accomplish with its products

The correct answer was: C) Business plan Explanation: A business plan is a thorough and disciplined preview of what the firm hopes to accomplish with its products over the long term.

Q:17 The basic premise of S&OP is that there should be one ______________ not only sales and operations but also finance? A-agreed upon B-unifying C-effective D-overall

plan to tie together all the major functions-

The correct answer was: B) Unifying Explanation: The basic premise of S&OP is that there should be one unifying plan to tie together all the major functions-not only sales and operations but also finance

Q:18 In the traditional arrangement the business plan all too often drops out of sight after it has done its job of convincing _____________ to get involved with the business? A-employees B-investors C-management D-stockholders

The correct answer was: B) Investors Explanation: In the traditional arrangement the business plan all too often drops out of sight after it has done its job of convincing investors to get involved with the business.

Q:19 The sales and operations plan is the definitive statement of company plans for the near to intermediate term-typically ______________ months? A-12-18 B-8-12 C-6-10 D-4-6 The correct answer was: A) 12-18

Explanation: The S & OP is the definitive statement of company plans for the near to intermediate term-typically 12 to I8 months.

Q:20 S&OP brings together a planning team that reconciles all of the ________________ marketing, development manufacturing, sourcing, and financing-into one unified plan? A-management B-functional C-production D-sales

business plans-including sales,

The correct answer was: B) Functional Explanation: The S&OP brings together a planning team that reconciles all of the functional business plans-including sales, marketing, development manufacturing, sourcing, and financing-into one unified plan.

Q:21 There is an inherent tension between the needs of the customer and the ______________ supply chain? A-increasing B-production C-lean D-evolving

quality standards of the

The correct answer was: D) Evolving Explanation: There is an inherent tension between the needs of the customer and the evolving quality standards of the supply chain?

Q:22 The ______________ process integrates the tactical focus of the operations side with the customer orientation of the marketing and sales side? A-production B-improvement C-evolution D-SOP

The correct answer was: D) S&OP Explanation: The S&OP process integrates the tactical focus of the operations side with the customer orientation of the marketing and sales side

Q:23 With a continuous review and improvement process in place the organization should incorporate a balanced ___________ for evaluating results? A-scorecard B-approach C-assessment D-chart

The correct answer was: A) Scorecard Explanation: With a continuous review and improvement process in place the organization should incorporate a balanced scorecard for evaluating results

Q:24 The difference between S&OP and the more traditional approach is that the ______________ after the completion of the sales plan? A-production B-finance C-transportation D-demand

planning takes place

The correct answer was: A) Production Explanation: The difference between S&OP and the more traditional approach is that the production planning takes place after the completion of the sales plan.

Q:25 The mission of S&OP is to put _______________ the level of product families? A-marketing and demand B-sales and supply C-supply and demand D-sales and production

into balance and keep them there, and this balancing act starts at

The correct answer was: C) Supply and demand Explanation: The mission of S&OP is to put supply and demand into balance and keep them there, and this balancing act starts at the level of product families

Q:26 From the marketing and sales side, S&OP receives _____________ forecasts of expected sales (customer orders) arranged by product family? A-cost-phased B-demand-phased C-time-phased D-supply-phased

The correct answer was: C) Time-phased Explanation: The S&OP receives time-phased forecasts of expected sales (customer orders) arranged by product family from the marketing and sales side.

Q:27 Along with customer order forecasts and strategy the sales side contributes ____________ efforts expressed both in currency and in the units used by production? A-figures B-goals C-estimates D-suggestions

of the results of their

The correct answer was: C) Estimates Explanation: Along with customer order forecasts and strategy the sales side contributes estimates of the results of their efforts expressed both in currency and in the units used by production.

Q:28 _____ also known as the chase strategy, aims to match production to demand for each period? A-level production B-hybrid matching C-supply matching D-demand matching

The correct answer was: D) Demand matching Explanation: Demand matching also known as the chase strategy, aims to match production to demand for each period.

Q:29 This strategy combines elements of level production and demand matching keeping the plant running near full capacity for part of the cycle, allowing inventory to build up, and then slows or shuts down to allow the inventory to shrink as customers buy the product? A-supply matching B-level production C-bull-whip D-hybrid

The correct answer was: D) Hybrid Explanation: The Hybrid strategy combines elements of level production and demand matching keeping the plant running near full capacity for part of the cycle, allowing inventory to build up.

Q:30 This strategy offers the benefits of simplicity and, from production's viewpoint, predictability (no last minute hiring of temps or layoffs)? A-level production B-order matching C-hybrid D-demand matching

The correct answer was: A) Level production Explanation: The Level production strategy offers the benefits of simplicity and, from production's viewpoint, predictability.

Q:31 For each product family there should exist one of three operational approaches for determining when to produce the product in relationship to customer orders and include all of the following except? A-make to ship B-assemble to order C-make to order D-make to stock

The correct answer was: A) Make to ship Explanation: Supply-demand strategies include: Make to stock, Make to order, and Assemble to order and does not include make to ship.

Q:32 This is essentially a mass-market strategy that works perfectly well when demand is stable and products turn over rapidly? A-make to stock B-assemble to order C-make to order D-make to stock The correct answer was: A) Make to stock Explanation: Make to stock is essentially a mass-market strategy that works perfectly well when demand is stable and products turn over rapidly.

Q:33 This strategy works well with the mass customization of products without long lead times and works well with products that can be tailored to customer taste by exchanging a limited number of components? A-make to ship B-assemble to order C-make to order D-make to stock The correct answer was: B) Assemble to order Explanation: Assemble to order works well with the mass customization of products without long lead times and works well with products that can be tailored to customer taste by exchanging a limited number of components.

Q:34 This approach is suitable for custom work if delivery lead time is not an issue also the product can be tailored to a customer's exact specifications? A-make to ship B-assemble to order C-make to order D-make to stock The correct answer was: C) Make to order Explanation: The Make to order approach is suitable for custom work if delivery lead time is not an issue also the product can be tailored to a customer's exact specifications.

Q:35 One of the challenges of this particular production approach is the need to have reasonably skilled or trained labor in both distribution and on hand to assist customers? A-make to ship B-assemble to order C-make to order D-make to stock The correct answer was: B) Assemble to order Explanation: A challenge of the Assemble to order approach is the need to have reasonably skilled or trained labor in both distribution and on hand to assist customers.

Q:36 The essence of the S&OP is the _______________ executive meeting, which is preceded by two weeks or more of preparation by members of the team? A-daily B-weekly C-monthly D-yearly

The correct answer was: C) Monthly Explanation: The essence of the S&OP is the monthly executive meeting, which is preceded by two weeks or more of preparation by members of the team

Q:37 During this step the information systems department should update all the files necessary to develop the new statistical forecast? A-pre-SOP meeting B-demand planning C-data gathering D-supply planning

The correct answer was: C) Data gathering

Explanation: Data gathering is the step where the information systems department should update all the files necessary to develop the new statistical forecast.

Q:39 Based on the demand forecasts, the supply management team may alter the operations plan and revise the S&OP data? A-pre-SOP meeting B-demand planning C-data gathering D-supply planning The correct answer was: D) Supply planning Explanation: Supply planning is based on the demand forecasts, the supply management team may alter the operations plan and revise the S&OP data.

Q:40 During this step sales and marketing representatives review the data and issue an updated medium-term management forecast for current and new products? A-pre-SOP meeting B-demand planning C-data gathering D-supply planning The correct answer was: B) Demand planning Explanation: During the Demand planning step, sales and marketing representatives review the data and issue an updated medium-term management forecast for current and new products.

Q:41 Team members involve in this step typically includes at least one person from the finance area, and the owner of the S&OP process? A-pre-SOP meeting B-executive meeting C-data gathering D-demand planning The correct answer was: A) Pre-S&OP meeting Explanation: Team members involve in the Pre-S&OP meeting typically includes at least one person from the finance area, and the owner of the S&OP process.

Q:41 The monthly meeting, which lasts approximately two hours, should include vice presidents from the basic supply chain areas, such as sales, marketing, operations, logistics, product development, and so on? A-executive meeting B-demand C-data D-SOP

The correct answer was: B) Executive meeting Explanation: The monthly Executive meeting, which lasts approximately two hours, should include vice presidents from the basic supply chain areas, such as sales, marketing, operations, logistics, product development, etc.

Q:42 With its focus on breaking through the functional barriers, the ____________ approach to aggregate planning integrates perfectly with supply chain management thinking? A-

B-Demand C-Data D-SOP The correct answer was: D) S&OP Explanation: With its focus on breaking through the functional barriers, the S&OP approach to aggregate planning integrates perfectly with supply chain management thinking.

Q:43 The S&OP brings together sales, marketing, production, finance, and other key players to produce an; ______________ plan that incorporates and reconciles the views of all functional areas? A-integrated B-functional C-hybrid D-executive

The correct answer was: A) Integrated Explanation: The S&OP brings together sales, marketing, production, finance, and other key players to produce an integrated plan that incorporates and reconciles the views of all functional areas

Q:44 After the collaborative process of sales and operations planning, production is on its own to create a _____________ production schedule that will commit the firm to produce specific products on particular dates? A-key B-master C-functional D-integral

The correct answer was: B) Master Explanation: Production is on its own to create a master production schedule that will commit the firm to produce specific products on particular dates following the S&OP.

Q:45 Besides disaggregating the product families, the MPS also determines weekly production dates based on the ______________ projections in the production plan? A-daily B-weekly C-monthly D-yearly

The correct answer was: C) Monthly Explanation: The MPS also determines weekly production dates based on the monthly projections in the production plan.

Q:46 By providing firm production dates and numbers, the MPS serves as a ______________ operations? A-contract B-guide C-format D-map

between sales and

The correct answer was: A) Contract Explanation: Providing a firm production dates and numbers, the MPS serves as a contract between sales and operations

Q:47 For the sales force, the MPS provides assurance that they may make delivery _____________ on the number of units that will be available week by week? A-arrangements B-orders C-commitments D-routes

to customers based

The correct answer was: C) Commitments Explanation: The sales force, based on the MPS may make delivery commitments to customers based on the number of units that will be available week by week.

Q:48 Putting numbers to the mutual obligations implied by the MPS contract offers benefits to both sides taking place in 3 stages including the following except? A-draft B-rough-cut C-responses D-revisions

The correct answer was: C) Responses Explanation: The MPS includes the 3 stages; draft, rough-cut and revisions, no responses are included in the 3 stages.

Q:1 In this stage a review is made of the capacity throughout the system to see if the production schedule is feasible with current plants, labor, equipment, processes, etc? A-draft B-rough-cut C-responses D-revisions The correct answer was: B) Rough-cut Explanation: In the Rough-cut stage a review is made of the capacity throughout the system to see if the production schedule is feasible with current plants, labor, equipment, processes, etc.

Q:1 If at any time during the MPS planning stage if it does not appear that production targets are realistic then the plan goes back to the S&OP team for ____________? A-draft B-rough-cut C-responses D-revisions The correct answer was: D) Revisions Explanation: If at any time during the MPS planning stage if it does not appear that production targets are realistic then the plan goes back to the S&OP team for revisions.

Q:51 The MPS schedule for make-to-stock production is based on ____________, which will be manufactured and sent to inventory? A- Schedule finished goods B- Schedule raw goods C- Schedule module production D- Schedule module distribution

The correct answer was: A) Schedule finished goods Explanation: The schedule for make-to-stock production is based on finished goods, which will be manufactured and sent to inventory.

Q:52 The schedule for make-to-order product families is based on ____________, with a very large number of products made from a smaller number of components? AA- Schedule finished goods B- Schedule raw goods C- Schedule module production D- Schedule module distribution The correct answer was: B) Schedule raw materials Explanation: The schedule for make-to-order product families is based on raw materials, with a very large number of products made from a smaller number of components.

Q:53 MPS focus for assemble-to-order product families include a large number of end items, but in this case the number of components is limited? A- Schedule finished goods B- Schedule raw goods C- Schedule module production D- Schedule module distribution The correct answer was: C) Schedule module production Explanation: Schedule module production is used for assemble-to-order product families and includes a large number of end items, but in this case the number of components is limited.

Q:54 At the beginning of the period, the _____________ arrive? A-make-to-stock B-make-to-order C-assemble-to-order D-available-to-promise

amount includes inventory on hand plus the items scheduled to

The correct answer was: D) Available-to-promise Explanation: At the beginning of the period, the available-to-promise amount includes inventory on hand plus the items scheduled to arrive.

Q:55 The planning _____________ has to be long enough to equal, at least, the longest cumulative or end-to-end lead time of any item in the planning period? A-horizon B-phase C-period D-duration

The correct answer was: A) Horizon Explanation: The planning horizon has to be long enough to equal, at least, the longest cumulative or end-to-end lead time of any item in the planning period.

Q:56 An end-to-end lead time includes the string of _____________ A-lead B-order C-purchase D-delivery

times of all components in an end item?

The correct answer was: A) Lead Explanation: An end-to-end lead time includes the string of lead times of all components in an end item.

Q:57 In a _______________ zone capacity, materials are committed to specific orders and any chances would require the approval of senior management? A-slushy B-liquid C-production D-frozen The correct answer was: D) Frozen Explanation: In a frozen zone capacity, materials are committed to specific orders and any chances would require the approval of senior management.

Q:58 A zone marked off by a planning time fence is ______________ committed? A-slushy B-liquid C-production D-frozen

and capacity or materials are not so strongly

The correct answer was: A) Slushy Explanation: A zone marked off by a planning time fence is slushy and capacity or materials are not so strongly committed.

Q:59 All changes are permissible in a __________________ zone so long as they don't violate the limits set in the production plan? A-slushy B-liquid C-production D-frozen The correct answer was: B) Liquid Explanation: All changes are permissible in a liquid zone so long as they don't violate the limits set in the production plan.

Q:60 The MPS _______________ production of those items? A-joins B-commits C-disaggregates D-freezes

the product families in the production plan into individual items and schedules

The correct answer was: C) Disaggregates Explanation: The MPS disaggregates the product families in the production plan into individual items and schedules production of those items.

Q:61 The MPS selects the most efficient method of scheduling based on the _____________ A-cost-supply B-supply-demand C-time-demand D-supply-cost

strategy for the product?

The correct answer was: B) Supply-Demand Explanation: The MPS selects the most efficient method of scheduling based on the supply-demand strategy for the product.

Q:62 _____ includes inventory on hand plus scheduled receipts minus products already sold or committed for delivery? A-make-to-stock B-available-to-promise C-assemble-to-order D-make-to-order The correct answer was: B) Available-to-promise Explanation: ATP includes inventory on hand plus scheduled receipts minus products already sold or committed for delivery.

Q:63 When changes in the MPS would be troublesome, _____________ changes can be made without permission? A-production B-management C-suppliers D- time fences

may mark off time zones in which no order

The correct answer was: D) Time fences Explanation: When changes in the MPS would be troublesome, time fences may mark off time zones in which no order changes can be made without permission.

Q:64 Material requirements planning schedules ____________ into manufacturing finished products for consumers? A-dependent demand B-production demand C-supply demand D-independent demand

or the delivery of the materials and components that go

The correct answer was: A) Dependent demand Explanation: Material requirements planning schedules dependent demand or the delivery of the materials and components that go into manufacturing finished products for consumers.

Q:65 In its simplest configuration a; _______________ component required to manufacture an item? A-component list B-inventory plan C-bill of materials D-dependent plan

is an industrial-strength shopping list, enumerating every

The correct answer was: C) Bill of materials Explanation: In its simplest configuration, a bill of materials is an industrial-strength shopping list, enumerating every component required to manufacture an item.

Q:66 The ______________ maps the journey of a component from work center to work center, specifying all the operations it undergoes on the way to completion? A-component list B-inventory plan C-bill of materials D-router file The correct answer was: D) Router file Explanation: The router file maps the journey of a component from work center to work center, specifying all the operations it undergoes on the way to completion

Q:67 This technique for filling dependent demand orders is to produce only the number of components needed and deliver them when they're needed? A-cost-supply B-supply demand C-lot for lot D-supply cost The correct answer was: C) Lot-for-lot Explanation: Lot-for-lot-this technique is favored for filling dependent demand orders is to produce only the number of components needed and deliver them when they're needed.

Q:68 Developing and updating a detailed MRP for all operations on all materials offers supply chains which of the following potential benefits? A-faster market response B-reduced responsiveness C-elimination of labor D-refined inventory The correct answer was: A) Faster Market response Explanation: Faster Market response is a benefit of a detailed MRP for all operations on all materials.

Q:69 This process of counting backward from a due date to accommodate lead time is called ____________? A-auditing B-reconciling C-buffering D-offsetting

The correct answer was: D) Offsetting Explanation: This process of counting backward from a due date to accommodate lead time is called offsetting.

Q:70 There is a degree of inflexibility built into an MRP, because it uses fixed _______________ some tension when combined with Just-in-Time approaches? A-production

times and can cause

B-shipping C-lead D-assembly

The correct answer was: C) Lead Explanation: There is a degree of inflexibility built into an MRP, because it uses fixed lead times and can cause some tension when combined with Just-in-Time approaches.

Q:71 There are stakeholders outside the basic supply chain model that can significantly affect its functioning for good or ill. Which one of these does not include in these stakeholders? A-government that may build infrastructure B-taxing agencies C-climate D-trade associations E-customers The correct answer was: E. Customers Explanation: Rest all are outside the basic supply chain and affect the supply chain.

Q:72 MRP software systems can improve on-time delivery percentages there by reducing component inventories and ____________? A-supplier costs B-inventory C-holding costs D-labor costs

The correct answer was: C) Holding costs Explanation: MRP systems can improve on-time delivery percentages there by reducing component inventories and holding costs.

Q:73 This MRP system calculates the impact of each order on the work center that is scheduled to complete the order, and if it finds too little capacity at that center it may change the order date? A-capacity-loop B-feedback loop C-closed loop D-time loop

The correct answer was: C) Closed-loop Explanation: Closed-loop calculates the impact of each order on the work center that is scheduled to complete the order, and if it finds too little capacity at that center it may change the order date.

Q:74 There is one entity which not only threatens a chain but also sometimes energizes a supply chain. This entity is A-customer B-competitors C-manufacture D-distributor E-supplier The correct answer was: B. Competitor Explanation: Competition can not only threaten a chain; it can energize it as well.

Q:75 Good supply chain planning contains numerous ______________ , so that one level of planning can test the assumptions of the previous level and ask for changes if the plan seems impracticable? A-quality check B-check point C-feedback loop D-offsetting loop

The correct answer was: C) Feedback loops Explanation: Good supply chain planning contains numerous feedback loops, so that one level of planning can test the assumptions of the previous level and ask for changes if the plan seems impracticable.

Q:76 The traditional approach to distribution replenishment (DRP) is to __________________ toward the end customer? A-buffer B-push C-pull D-offset

inventory through the chain

The correct answer was: C) Pull Explanation: The traditional approach to distribution replenishment is to pull inventory through the chain toward the end customer.

Q:77 A ________________ centrally? A-buffer B-push C-pull D-offset

system sends distribution inventory down the chain based on decisions and forecasts made

The correct answer was: B) Push Explanation: A push system sends distribution inventory down the chain based on decisions and forecasts made centrally.

Q:78 Distribution requirements planning uses __________________ that works throughout the network? A-dependent demand B-production demand C-supply demand D-independent demand

models to develop a stock replenishment program

The correct answer was: A) Dependent demand Explanation: DRP uses dependent demand models to develop a stock replenishment program that works throughout the network.

Q:79 Distribution requirements planning use models that work throughout the network and combines the following ingredients except? A-demand forecasts B-minimum safety stock C-lead time information

D-independent demand

The correct answer was: D) Independent demand Explanation: Distribution requirements planning include overall system knowledge and dependent demand not independent demand models.

Q:80 The gross requirement in a DRP system is the demand or sales forecast-that is, the expected ________________ at the retail level? A-independent demand B-production demand C-supply demand D-dependent demand

The correct answer was: A) Independent demand Explanation: The gross requirement in a DRP system is the demand or sales forecast-that is, the expected independentdemand at the retail level.

Q:81 Accurate _______________ information about is necessary to define release dates for orders that will ensure receipt of the goods on time. The order date is offset from the release date to accommodate the lead time? A-lead time B-safety stock C-demand forecasts D-independent demand

The correct answer was: A) Lead time Explanation: Accurate lead time information about is necessary to define release dates for orders that will ensure receipt of the goods on time. The order date is offset from the release date to accommodate the lead time.

Q:82 Distribution requirements planning combines the coordinated planning and control offered by the push systems with the; ______________ that characterizes pull systems? A-effectiveness B-timeliness C-efficiency D-responsiveness

The correct answer was: D) Responsiveness Explanation: DRP combines the coordinated planning and control offered by the push systems with the responsiveness that characterizes pull systems.

Q:83 In theory (DRP) can provide more ________________ systems? A-accurate B-timely C-efficient D-consistent

allocations of stock than either straight pull or straight push

The correct answer was: A) Accurate Explanation: In theory (DRP) can provide more accurate allocations of stock than either straight pull or straight push systems.

Q:84 Based on more thorough ________________ of need and available supply, the DRP should allow release of smaller, more frequent orders than straight pull or push arrangements? A-assessments B-budgets C-forcasts D-maps The correct answer was: A) Assessments Explanation: The DRP should allow release of smaller, more frequent orders than straight pull or push arrangements based on more thorough assessments of need and available supply.

Q:85 DRP focuses on the network as a whole, not merely the individual partner and works to optimize all aspects of the _____________ chain? A-partner B-supply C-distribution D-production

The correct answer was: C) Distribution Explanation: The DRP focuses on the network as a whole, not merely the individual partner and works to optimize all aspects of the distribution chain.

Q:86 , in a supply chain context, is all about what can be accomplished by employing all the resources in the network? A-horizon B-capacity C-production D-efficiency

The correct answer was: B) Capacity Explanation: In a supply chain context, Capacity is all about what can be accomplished by employing all the resources in the network.

Q:87 Capacity planning involves identifying required resources and selecting methods of making __________________ available when needed? A-supplies B-resources C-products D-capacity

The correct answer was: D) Capacity Explanation: Capacity planning involves identifying required resources and selecting methods of making capacity available when needed

Q:88 This aspect of capacity involves monitoring actual output, comparing it to planned output, and taking action to correct any imbalances that may arise? A-control B-management C-planing

D- forecasting

The correct answer was: A) Control Explanation: Control is the aspect of capacity that involves monitoring actual output, comparing it to planned output, and taking action to correct any imbalances that may arise.

Q:89 Capacity planning begins with the S &OP production planning process and plays a continuous role right down through production ____________ control? A-demand B-quality C-activity D-supply

The correct answer was: C) Activity Explanation: Capacity planning begins with the S &OP production planning process and plays a continuous role right down through production activity control

Q:90 Beginning with the production plan, which is an outcome of sales and operations planning, resource requirements planning is the _____________ term type of capacity planning? A-medium B-fastest C-shortest D-longest

The correct answer was: D) Longest Explanation: Resource requirements planning is the longest term type of capacity planning which begins with the production plan, which is an outcome of sales and operations planning.

Q:91 Capacity planning includes a number of levels of planning, including all of the following except? A-resource requirement B-rough cut C- Capacity assessment D-capacity requirements

The correct answer was: C) Capacity assessment Explanation: Capacity assessment is not included in capacity planning or its number of planning levels.

Q:92 If a company decides to increase capacity to match expected growth in demand (hence, production requirements), it can decide how best to stage the ___________________ ? A-inventory B-resources C-investments D-assets

The correct answer was: C) Investments Explanation: If a company decides to increase capacity to match expected growth in demand (hence, production requirements), it can decide how best to stage the investments.

Q:93 At the level of rough-cut planning, the mission is to assess the available capacity at each location and match that to the required capacity according to ____________? A-DRP B-MRP C-RFP D-SOP

The correct answer was: B) MRP Explanation: At the level of rough-cut planning, the mission is to assess the available capacity at each location and match that to the required capacity according to MRP.

Q:94 If we want to measure available capacity, _________________ the work center is actually being used? A-demand B-utilization C-availability D-efficiency

as expected is the percentage of available time that

The correct answer was: B) Utilization Explanation: If we want to measure available capacity, utilization as expected is the percentage of available time that the work center is actually being used.

Q:95 If we want to measure available capacity, _______________ workers or equipment in use during those hours? A-available time B-utilized time C-production time D-quality time

is a product of hours of operation and numbers of

The correct answer was: A) Available time Explanation: Available time is a product of hours of operation and numbers of workers or equipment in use during those hours and is used to measure available capacity.

Q:96 To measure available capacity, _________________ is a measure of actual output as a percentage of standard expected output? A-efficiency B-utilization C-availability D-production

The correct answer was: A) Efficiency Explanation: To measure available capacity, efficiency is a measure of actual output as a percentage of standard expected output.

Q:97 The term "standard hours" or "standard time," refers to the amount of time an average worker or piece of equipment is expected to need, following prescribed methods, to produce _______________ unit of output? A-one unit B-two units

C-four units D-over five units

The correct answer was: A) One unit Explanation: The term "standard hours" or "standard time," refers to the amount of time an average worker or piece of equipment is expected to need, following prescribed methods, to produce one unit of output.

Q:98 Once you know the available capacity at a site, you can compare it to the required capacity to see if you have a match and if you don't have the required capacity at a work site then there is a capacity ____________? A-gap B-discrepancy C-constraint D-problem

The correct answer was: C) Constraint Explanation: Once you know the available capacity at a site, you can compare it to the required capacity to see if you have a match and if you don't have the required capacity at a work site then there is a capacity constraint.

Q:99 This is the point in the process for looking at orders and work schedules to see specifically how available capacity will, or will not, translate into the production necessity to meet demand forecasts? A-resource planning B-capacity planning C-availability planning D-constraint planning

The correct answer was: B) Capacity planning Explanation: Capacity planning-the process for looking at orders and work schedules to see specifically how available capacity will, or will not, translate into the production necessity to meet demand forecasts.

Q:100 If you dont have the necessary capacity needed you may be able to stage the upgrades. The following are all ways to stage capacity growth, except? A-expand in steps B-expand all at once C-expand behind demand D-expand with demand

The correct answer was: D) Expand with demand Explanation: To increase capacity, growth stages will need to be implemented either ahead or behind demand, in steps or all at once.

Q:101 Who does the manufacturer forecast demand from? A-retailer B-manufacturer C-utility provider D-distributor E-component manufactures The correct answer was: D. Distributor Explanation: The manufacturer forecasts demand from the distributor

Q:102. What is the bullwhip effect driven by? A-production times B-demand forecasts C-manufacturing processes D-selling quotas E-reverse cash flow The correct answer was: B. Demand forecasts Explanation: The bullwhip effect is driven by demand forecasts

Q:103 What is the solution to the bullwhip effect? A- Substitute actual information for the demand forecasts B-speed up manufacturing times C-make more efficient logistical plans to speed up routes D-better locate distribution centers E-automate all warehousing activities The correct answer was: A. Substitute actual information for the demand forecasts Explanation: The bullwhip effect is driven by demand forecasts; the solution is to substitute actual information for the demand forecasts

Q:104 When a supply chain works in response to forecasts, its called what type of chain? A-make to order chain B-make to stock chain C-push chain D-pull chain E-forecast chain The correct answer was: C. Push chain Explanation: When a supply chain works in r esponse to forecasts, its called a push chain

Q:105 What is the challenge in changing from forecast-driven to demand-driven? A- Reducing inventory without lowering profit margins B- Reducing inventory without raising fixed costs C- Reducing inventory without lowering customer satisfaction D- Reducing inventory without lowering availability The correct answer was: C. Reducing inventory without lowering customer satisfaction Explanation: The challenge in changing from forecast-driven to demand-driven, from push to pull, is reducing inventory without also lowering customer satisfaction