BIOSCI 107 FC

THE UNIVERSITY OF AUCKLAND

FIRST SEMESTER, 2010 Campus: City

BIOLOGICAL SCIENCES Biology for Biomedical Science

GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS Multiple Choice Questions: Use the Teleform Sheet. Use pencils only. Shade the rectangle completely. Do not cross out mistakes. ERASE them completely. Complete family name, first name, initial and ID Number. Do not complete your stream. Fill spaces from left to right. Short Answers: Your code is 25981025. Check this is correct on your teleform. Failure to enter the version code or other details correctly will mean your MCQ cannot be marked.

Print your name and ID Number at the top of EVERY ANSWER PAGE. Record your answers in the spaces provided. All questions should be attempted.

Exam Format: Multiple choice Questions Section A: Theory (Cell Processes, Blood & Immune, Neurons, Muscle) Short Answer Questions Section B: Cell Processes Section C: Blood and Immune Section D: Excitable Tissues: Neurons Section E: Excitable Tissues: Muscle

50 marks 15 marks 15 marks 10 marks 10 marks

TOTAL 100 MARKS ALL QUESTIONS SHOULD BE ATTEMPTED.

Hand in the Teleform answer sheet and your short answer sheets (Sections B, C, D, and E). Retain your multiple choice question pages.
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SECTION A: THEORY MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

TEST VERSION CODE: 25981025 50 marks Recommended time: 60 minutes Choose the ONE correct answer from the alternatives provided Question 1: Membrane transport proteins are proteins that: 1. span the lipid bilayer. 2. contain hydrophilic residues that interface with the lipid bilayer. 3. do not interact with the cytoskeleton. 4. can be removed from the bilayer using high salt conditions. 5. are associated with the surface of the lipid bilayer. Question 2: Question 3: Question 4: Question 5: The lipid bilayer: 1. has electrical properties that mimic those of a capacitor. 2. is not permeable to water. 3. is formed mainly by a bilayer of cholesterol molecules. 4. has a low permeability to steroids. 5. contains a hydrophilic core which is impermeable to ions. The diffusion of carbon dioxide across cell membranes: 1. is mediated by haemoglobin. 2. is a form of non-mediated transport. 3. utilises the energy of the sodium gradient to drive cellular influx. 4. is an active process that utilises ATP. 5. is via a sodium dependent antiporter. The uptake of glucose by muscle cells: 1. occurs across the basolateral membrane. 2. utilises energy stored in the sodium gradient. 3. is driven by the electrochemical gradient for glucose. 4. is maintained by the conversion of glucose to glucose-6-phosphate in the cytoplasm. 5. occurs via a non-saturable process. Considering the ion gradients across a cell membrane: 1. a channel would mediate sodium flow out of a cell. 2. sodium/hydrogen exchange would lead to a decrease in intracellular pH. 3. active transport is required to accumulate potassium in cells. 4. a channel would mediate calcium movement out of a cell. 5. amino acid accumulation can be coupled to sodium movement out of a cell.
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Question 6: Question 7: Question 8: Question 9: Question 10: Question 11:

The skin: 1. has low resistance tight junctions. 2. contains numerous endocrine glands. 3. contains transitional epithelial cells. 4. is an example of an absorptive epithelial tissue. 5. isa stratified squamous epithelium. Transepithelial secretion of a solute: 1. is initiated by the basolateral entry of the solute. 2. involves a transcellular flux of counter ions to preserve electroneutrality. 3. occurs from the blood to the lumen. 4. only occurs via the paracellular pathway. 5. involves the solute exiting the epithelial cells via the basolateral membrane. Transport via the paracellular pathway is: 1. governed by the electrical resistance of the tight junctions. 2. against the laws of diffusion. 3. increased in the gut in a proximal to distal direction. 4. hormonally regulated. 5. independent of the transcellular transport pathway. Glucose diffusion across the basolateral membrane of an epithelial cell: 1. utilises energy stored in the sodium gradient. 2. does not exhibit saturation. 3. is always directed out of the cell. 4. is driven by the electrochemical gradient for glucose. 5. depends on the direction of the glucose concentration gradient. Glucose/galactose malabsorption syndrome: 1. decreases the osmolarity of the lumen of the small intestine. 2. induces secretory diarrhoea. 3. is caused by a genetic mutation to the facilitative glucose transporter. 4. is a common genetic disease. 5. can be treated by utilisation of an alternative carbohydrate uptake pathway. In patients with cystic fibrosis: 1. secretory diarrhoea is a clinical symptom. 2. theuptake of chloride ions is defective. 3. there is a failure of chloride reabsorption in their sweat ducts. 4. isotonic fluid secretion is normal. 5. the intracellular signalling pathways that regulate CFTR are defective.

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Question 12: Question 13: Question 14: Question 15: Question 16: Question 17:

Increasing the amount of glucose filtered by the kidney will: 1. eventually overwhelm the ability of the loop of Henle to reabsorb glucose. 2. immediately result in the appearance of glucose in the urine. 3. cause glucose to appear in the urine once the transport maximum for SGLT is reached. 4. cause diabetes. 5. eventually saturate the GLUT transporter located in the basolateral membrane of the proximal tubule. Which of the following best approximates the volume of blood in a 10 kg child? 1. 10 litres 2. 5 litres 3. 2 litres 4. 1 litre 5. 0.2 litres Plasma proteins in humans have many functions. Which of the following is NOT one of these functions? 1. Oxygen transport. 2. Maintenance of blood osmotic pressure. 3. Immune responses. 4. Transport of water insoluble lipids. 5. Blood clotting. The beta polypeptide chain of a haemoglobin molecule: 1. is the main protein component in serum. 2. has alpha-helical secondary structure. 3. has beta-sheet secondary structure. 4. binds an oxygen molecule. 5. binds lipid co-factors. Which of the following is NOT involved in the humoral immune response? 1. platelets 2. all of the options are correct 3. erythrocytes 4. neutrophils 5. albumin Which of the following HIV protein molecules is most relevant for vaccine design? 1. none of theother options arerelevant to HIV vaccine design. 2. the protease 3. the reverse transcriptase 4. the integrase 5. GP120

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Drug therapy for HIV/AIDS typically includes inhibitors for which of the following HIV proteins? 1. the integrase, protease and the reverse transcriptase 2. the integrase and the protease 3. the reverse transcriptase and the protease 4. GP41 and the protease 5. GP120 and the integrase Which of the following is TRUE? 1. A haemoglobin molecule has 4 amino acid chains and binds 2 oxygen atoms. 2. Human serum albumin has 4 amino acid chains and 2 identical binding sites. 3. An IgG immunoglobulin molecule has 4 identical antigen binding sites. 4. A haemoglobin molecule is predominately alpha-helical. 5. An IgG immunoglobulin molecule is predominately alpha-helical. Formed elements in the blood that are biconcave discs about 7-8 m in diameter are: 1. small lymphocytes. 2. erythrocytes. 3. fibrinogen. 4. blast cells that should not be present in circulation. 5. platelets. Which of the following mammalian defenses against invading pathogens is a specific defense mechanism? 1. Anti-microbial proteins. 2. The skin. 3. The immune system. 4. The inflammatory process. 5. The mucous membranes. Histamine released in the local inflammatory response has which of the following effect(s)? 1. Attracts erythrocytes to the infection site. 2. Attracts T-lymphocytes to the infection site. 3. Attracts phagocytes to the infection site. 4. Attracts plasma cells to the infection site. 5. All of the options are correct. Why can a normal immune response be described as polyclonal? 1. Diverse antibodies are produced for different epitopes of a specific antigen. 2. Multiple immunoglobulins are produced from descendants of a single B cell. 3. The generation of an immune response requires many different types of cells. 4. Macrophages, T cells, and B cells are all involved in normal immune response. 5. Blood contains many different antibodies to many different antigens.
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Question 24: Question 25:

Which of the following cell types is responsible for initiating a secondary immune response? 1. mast cells 2. B cells 3. stem cells 4. memory cells 5. macrophages The resting membrane potential in neurons is mainly affected by the permeability of the cell membrane to K+ and Na+ ions. At the resting state (i.e. when no action potentials are fired), the permeability ratio P Na+ / P K+ is approximately: 1. 1/1000. 2. 1/40. 3. 1/10. 4. 1/100. 5. 1/1. The equilibrium potential for Na+ (ENa+) represents the point at which: 1. the efflux of Na+ alongits electrical gradient is balanced by the influx of Na+ alongits electrical gradient. 2. the influx of Na+ along its concentration gradient is balanced by the efflux of Na+ alongits electrical gradient. 3. the influx of Na+ along its concentration gradient is balanced by the efflux of Na+ along its concentration gradient. 4. the activity of Na+/ K+ ATPase is at its maximum. 5. there is no potential difference between the inside and outside of the cell. The amplitude of action potentials in neurons is approximately: 1. 100 mV. 2. 1 mV. 3. 10 mV. 4. 1000 mV. 5. 100 V. The duration of action potentials in neurons (not including the duration of afterhyperpolarisation, AHP) is approximately: 1. 1000 ms. 2. 1 ms. 3. 10 ms. 4. 1 sec. 5. 0.1 ms.

Question 26: Question 27: Question 28:

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Question 29: Question 30: Question 31:

Figure 1

Figure 1 above shows an action potential recorded in the axon. What is happening during stage 3? 1. Activation of voltage-gated K+ channels. 2. Cell membrane repolarisation due to activation of Na-K ATPase (Na+/ K+ pump). 3. Rapid influx of K+ ions into the cell. 4. Activation of voltage-gated Na+ channels. 5. Rapid influx of Na+ ions intothe cell. Continuous (non-saltatory) conduction of an action potential along nerve fibres: 1. occurs only in myelinated axons. 2. occurs only in unmyelinated axons. 3. occurs only in the central nervous system. 4. occurs only in the peripheral nervous system. 5. is faster than in nerve fibres in which action potentials are conducted in saltatory way. The conduction velocity in unmyelinated nerve fibres is approximately: 1. 100 m/sec. 2. 1000 m/sec. 3. 10 m/sec. 4. 1 m/sec. 5. 10000 m/sec.

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Action potentials are usually propagated in only one direction along an axon because: 1. both Na+ and K+ voltage-gated channels open in one direction. 2. ions can flow along axons only in one direction. 3. the nodes of Ranvier conduct current only in one direction. 4. the brief absolute refractory period prevents opening of voltage-gated Na+ channels. 5. the axon hillock has a higher (i.e. more negative) membrane potential than axon terminals. Anincreased amplitude of Excitatory Postsynaptic Potentials (EPSPs) can be observed when excitatory synapses located on a single neuron are activated repeatedly at short intervals. This process is called: 1. dendritic summation. 2. spatial summation. 3. temporal summation. 4. dendritic facilitation. 5. postetanic potentiation. Excitatory Postsynaptic Potentials (EPSPs): 1. are usually evoked in neurons by GABA. 2. are effective in depolarising the trigger zone (axon hillock) to threshold and evoking action potentials when produced by activation of only one excitatory synapse. 3. are produced by opening of channels in the postsynaptic membrane that are permeable to several cations (e.g. Na+, K+ and often Ca2+). 4. are produced in neuronal cell bodies but not in dendrites. 5. cause hyperpolarisation of the postsynaptic membrane. Inhibitory Postsynaptic Potentials (IPSPs): 1. are produced in dendrites but not in neuronal cell bodies. 2. are evoked by glutamate. 3. can be evoked also in striated muscle fibres. 4. are produced by opening of channels in the postsynaptic membrane that are permeable to K+ or Cl-. 5. cause depolarisation of the postsynaptic membrane.

Question 36: All the following electrical changes in neurons are graded events, EXCEPT: 1. depolarisation evoked by electrical stimuli. 2. receptor potentials. 3. IPSPs. 4. EPSPs. 5. action potentials. Question 37: Which of the following is a neuropeptide (as opposed to a classical neurotransmitter)? 1. acetylcholine 2. substance P 3. GABA 4. dopamine 5. glutamate
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Question 38: Question 39: Question 40: Question 41: Question 42: Question 43: Question 44:

In a skeletal muscle fibre: 1. adjacent sarcomeres are delineated by the A-bands. 2. sarcomeres are activated by Ca2+ entering via L-type Ca2+ channels. 3. sarcomeres are independently activated. 4. sarcomeres respond to stretch by decreasing force production. 5. none of the other optionsis correct. In type 2b skeletal muscle fibres: 1. the maximum ATPase rate is low compared to type 1 fibres. 2. the maximum shortening velocity is low compared to type 1 fibres. 3. the SR pumping capacity is low compared to type 1 fibres. 4. none of the other optionsis correct. 5. the glycolytic capacity is lower than type 1 fibres. In all muscles: 1. force is regulated by troponin. 2. myosin is a monomeric protein. 3. force is normally regulated by ATP levels. 4. none of the other optionsis correct. 5. actin forms a polymer. Myosin: 1. does not need actin to hydrolyse ATP. 2. uses ADP to detach from actin. 3. none of the other optionsis correct. 4. releases ATP to create a power stroke. 5. cannot bind to actin when ADP is present. Actin: 1. splits ATP to produce force. 2. is a fibrous protein. 3. none of the other optionsis correct. 4. filaments are longer than myosin filaments. 5. filaments are attached at M-lines. Cardiac muscle cells: 1. cannot produce force without light chain phosphorylation. 2. are innervated by multiple neurons. 3. use sodium/calcium exchange to regulate resting calcium levels. 4. none of the other optionsis correct. 5. are mainly glycolytic in metabolism. Smooth muscle: 1. none of the other options is correct. 2. has a limited range of contraction. 3. uses troponin to regulate force production. 4. does not use bones to transmit force. 5. is controlled directly by central nervous system nerves.
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Question 45: Question 46: Question 47: Question 48: Question 49: Question 50:

The neurotransmitter acetyl choline (ACh): 1. is released by the parasympathetic nervous system. 2. is broken down by ACh reductase. 3. does not activate skeletal muscle. 4. increases heart rate. 5. none of the other options is correct. Smooth muscle contraction force: 1. none of the other options is correct. 2. is regulated by myosin light chain kinase. 3. develops faster than type 2 skeletal muscle fibres. 4. drops at short sarcomere lengths. 5. is independent of shortening velocity. Smooth muscle cells: 1. dont need high calcium levels to maintain force. 2. none of the other optionsis correct. 3. dont form motor units. 4. contain multiple nuclei. 5. are found only in hollow organs. Muscle action potentials are always: 1. dependent on sodium influx. 2. faster than in nerves. 3. shorter than the contraction time. 4. none of the other optionsis correct. 5. generated by nervous system activity. The sarcoplasmic reticulum: 1. is most abundant in type 2 muscle fibres. 2. none of the other optionsis correct. 3. stores ATP for muscle contraction. 4. is not found in all muscle cell types. 5. uses sodium/calcium exchange to transport calcium. Cardiac muscle: 1. can be myogenic. 2. can be myogenic, is striated like skeletal muscle and contracts more slowly than type 2 skeletal muscle fibres. 3. contracts more slowly than type 2 skeletal muscle fibres. 4. none of the other optionsis correct. 5. is not striated like skeletal muscle.

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THERE ARE NO QUESTIONS ON THIS PAGE.

SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS FOLLOW

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ID NUMBER: ___________________________ SURNAME: ____________________________ FIRST NAME: ______________________

THE UNIVERSITY OF AUCKLAND

BIOSCI 107

Short Answer Questions Section

Instructions Print your name and ID at the top of each answer page. Record your answers in the spaces provided. Only answers in the specified areas will be marked. All questions should be attempted.

Short Answer Format Section B: Section C: Section D: Section E: Cell Processes Blood and Immune Systems Excitable Tissues: Neurons Excitable Tissues: Muscle 15 marks 15 marks 10 marks 10 marks

Total: 50 marks. Recommended time: 60 minutes.

CP
15

B&I
15

ET:M
10

ET:N
10

ALL 50

Admin Use Only

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ID NUMBER: ___________________________ SURNAME: ____________________________ FIRST NAME: ______________________

SECTION B: CELL PROCESSES

15 marks Recommended time: 20 minutes Please study the following figure.

Figure 2

51. Please use Figure 2 to answer the following questions. On the diagram indicate whether the 4 membrane transport proteins shown are either primary active transporters, secondary active transporters or ion channels. (2 marks) (b) Fill in the blanks: (5 marks) The _____________________________ utilises the Na+ gradient to accumulate Cl- ions against its __________________________ gradient. This gradient is maintained by the active removal of _____________________ and enhanced by the recycling of _______________________ to generate a negative membrane potential. Cl- exit across the apical membrane is the ________________________ in Cl- secretion and is mediated by a channel called ________________________. To preserve ___________________ Na+ ions are pulled across the epithelium to negate the ___________________ potential established in the lumen of the gland. The resultant _______________ difference generated across the epithelium produces a nett water flow that results in a(n) ___________________ secretion.
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(a)

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51. (c)

In the space provided draw and label a simple diagram that explains how cholera toxin produces secretory diarrhoea. (3 marks)

52.

Ion channels and transporters have fundamentally different properties. Complete the table by inserting yes or no to indicate whether the Na+ channel or the facilitated glucose transporter have the listed properties. The first row of the table has been completed for you. (5 marks) Property Exhibits specificity Contains ion selectivity filter Exhibits saturation Mediates passive diffusion Forms a water filled pore Exhibits gating of open probabilty Na+ Channel No Facilitated glucose transporter Yes

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ID NUMBER: ___________________________ SURNAME: ____________________________ FIRST NAME: ______________________

SECTION C: BLOOD AND IMMUNE SYSTEMS

15 marks Recommended time: 20 minutes 53. Please study the following diagram.

(a) For each of the circles numbered from 1 to 9 in Figure 3, choose the most appropriate label from the following list. Please note that each letter may be used more than once. (9 marks) A. B. C. D. E. F. Stimulates Gives rise to Prevents Free antigens directly activate Engulfed by Secrete

Answers: 1. ____________ 2. ____________ 3. ____________ 4. ____________ 5. ____________ 6. ____________ 7. ____________ Figure 3 8. ____________ 9. ____________ (1 mark) 10

(b)

What is an MHC-II molecule?

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Figure 4c

BIOSCI 107 FC (5 marks)

Please study the following diagram.

Figure 4a Figure 4b

2 1 3

Cytoplasm Cell membrane

Nucleus Chromosomal DNA

Figure 4 Figure 4 shows diagrams representing the three stages of the life-cycle of HIV, after the infection of a T-helper cell. (a) For Figure 4A, what does label 1 point to?

(b)

For Figure 4A, what does label 2 point to?

(c)

BRIEFLY describe in the space below what is happening in Figure 4B.

(d)

For Figure 4C, what is the small circle indicated by label 3?

(e)

BRIEFLY describe in the space below what is happening in Figure 4C.

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ID NUMBER: ___________________________ SURNAME: ____________________________ FIRST NAME: ______________________

SECTION D: EXCITABLE TISSUES: NEURONS

10 marks Recommended time: 10 minutes 55. In the boxes below, place the events involved in generating an action potential and synaptic transmission in a sensory neuron in the order in which they occur: A. B. The receptor potential is transmitted passively to the trigger zone of the axon. The action potential arrives at the pre-synaptic terminal of the axon causing release of the neurotransmitter glutamate. This evokes excitatory postsynaptic potentials (EPSPs) in the postsynaptic membrane of the receiving neurons. Threshold depolarisation occurs in the trigger zone of the axon and an action potential is evoked. A stimulus acts on the receptor and causes a local depolarisation of the cell membrane, known as the receptor potential. The current generated by the action potential in the trigger zone of the axon spreads passively to the adjacent region of the axon, causing threshold depolarisation and the generation of a new action potential in that region. (5 marks total)

C. D. E.

Answers:

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56.

The list 1 5 shows five definitions. The list A to E shows five terms. Please match the correct terms with the correct definition. (5 marks total)

1.

The minimum level of depolarisation required for an action potential to be generated. A neurotransmitter caused hyperpolarisation of the postsynaptic membrane. Area where the action potentials arise. Time during which a neuron cannot produce an action potential even with a very strong stimulus. Period of time when a second action potential can be initiated with a very strong stimulus.

A.

Inhibitory Postsynaptic Potential (IPSP)

2.

B. Relative refractory period C. Absolute refractory period D. Threshold

3. 4.

5.

E.

Axon hillock

Answers: 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. _____________ _____________ _____________ _____________

_____________

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ID NUMBER: ___________________________ SURNAME: ____________________________ FIRST NAME: ______________________

SECTION E: EXCITABLE TISSUES: MUSCLE

10 marks Recommended time: 10 minutes

57.

The following summarises events during contraction of the heart. Please insert the missing word(s) or number(s) to complete the paragraph. (Total 10 marks)

In the heart, the beat is initiated by ________________ cells found in the ____________ node. The rate of discharge of these cells is controlled by the neurotransmitters ______________________ and ______________________. The neurotransmitter _________________ increases the heart rate which also __________________the force of cardiac ________________. From there, the action potential passes through the ______________________ to the __________________ node and then

down the _______________ via the bundle of __________________ to reach the ___________________ fibres that cover and enter the __________________. The ______________________ complex of the ECG reflects the _________________ of the ventricular muscle mass and the contraction phase known as_________________ and the peripheral blood pressure _________________. As the ventricular cells repolarise, the _________________ of the ECG is seen which marks the start of the _________________ period when the ventricle refills with blood. This is normally followed by a _________________ marking the start of the next heart beat.

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