Anda di halaman 1dari 22

WRITTEN EXAMINATION – 2001 RELEASED VERSION

BOOK II
1. Precipitation of salivary calcium salts to form 5. The predominant cells in the inflammatory
calculus is exudate of an acute periodontal abscess are

A. promoted by a higher buffering A. neutrophils.


capacity. B. eosinophils.
B. inhibited by a higher buffering C. basophils.
capacity. D. lymphocytes.
C. inhibited by a higher pH. E. monocytes.
D. promoted by a higher pH.

6. Irregularly distributed shallow to moderate


2. Overhangs on restorations initiate chronic craters in the interseptal bone are best
inflammatory periodontal disease by eliminated by

A. enhancing plaque retention. A. osteoplasty.


B. enhancing food retention. B. gingivoplasty.
C. causing traumatic occlusion. C. deep scaling.
D. causing pressure atrophy. D. bone grafting.

3. Caries in older persons is most frequently 7. A clenching habit may be a factor in


found on which of the following locations?
A. suprabony periodontal pocket
A. Pits and fissures. formation.
B. Proximal enamel. B. marginal gingivitis.
C. Root surfaces. C. increased tooth mobility.
D. Incisal dentin. D. generalized recession.

4. The location and extent of sub-gingival 8. Regarding dental caries, which of the
calculus is most accurately determined following is correct?
clinically by
A. All carbohydrates are equally
A. radiopaque solution used in cariogenic.
conjunction with radiographs. B. More frequent consumption of
B. disclosing solution. carbohydrates increases the risk.
C. probing with a fine instrument. C. The rate of carbohydrate clearance
D. visual inspection. from the oral cavity is not significant.
D. Increased dietary fat increases the
risk.
WRITTEN EXAMINATION – 2001 RELEASED VERSION
BOOK II
9. Abrasion is most commonly seen on the 13. An increase of immunoglobulins is consistent
with increased numbers of
A. lingual surface of posterior teeth.
B. occlusal surface of posterior teeth. A. fibroblasts.
C. incisal edges. B. neutrophils.
D. facial surfaces of teeth. C. lymphocytes.
D. plasma cells.

10. Carious lesions are most likely to develop if a


patient has 14. In periodontics, the best prognosis for bone
regeneration follows the surgical treatment of
A. a high lactobacillus count.
B. saliva with low buffering capacity. A. suprabony pockets.
C. plaque on his teeth. B. one-wall infrabony pockets.
D. lactic acid in his mouth. C. two-wall infrabony pockets.
D. three-wall infrabony pockets.

11. The most important objective of occlusal


adjustment of a natural dentition is to 15. The most important diagnostic element in
assessing the periodontal status of a patient is
A. prevent temporomandibular joint
syndrome. A. the results of vitality testing.
B. increase the shearing action in B. the radiographic appearance.
mastication. C. the depth of periodontal pockets.
C. improve oral hygiene by preventing D. the mobility of the teeth.
food impaction.
D. achieve a more favorable direction
and distribution of forces of
occlusion. 16. The absence of adequate drainage in a
periodontal pocket may result in

A. cyst formation.
12. Dental caries is associated with B. abscess formation.
C. epithelial hyperplasia.
1. certain strains of streptococci. D. increased calculus formation.
2. certain strains of staphylococci.
3. certain strains of lactobacilli.
4. gram negative rods and certain
anaerobic bacteria. 17. The instrument best suited for root planing is
a/an
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3) A. hoe.
C. (2) and (4) B. file.
D. (4) only C. curette.
E. All of the above. D. sickle scaler.
E. ultrasonic scaler.
WRITTEN EXAMINATION – 2001 RELEASED VERSION
BOOK II
18. The higher modulus of elasticity of a 22. The majority of nitrous oxide is eliminated
chromium-cobalt-nickel alloy, compared to a from a patient's circulatory system through the
Type IV gold alloy, means that chromium-
cobalt-nickel partial denture clasp will require A. lungs.
B. kidneys.
A. a heavier cross section for a clasp C. liver enzymes.
arm. D. plasma enzymes.
B. a shorter retentive arm. E. intestinal gas.
C. more taper.
D. a shallower undercut.

23. Antihistamines act by

19. During the setting phase, a dental stone A. increasing the action of histaminase.
mixture will exhibit B. altering the formation of histamine.
C. blocking the actions of histamine by
A. expansion. competitive inhibition.
B. contraction. D. interfering with the degradation of
C. loss in compressive strength. histamine.
D. gain in moisture content.

24. A therapeutic advantage of penicillin V over


20. An epinephrine-containing retraction cord has penicillin G is
the potential of
A. greater resistance to penicillinase.
A. interfering with the setting of the B. broader antibacterial spectrum.
impression material. C. greater absorption when given orally.
B. causing tissue necrosis. D. slower renal excretion.
C. producing a systemic reaction. E. None of the above.
D. discolouring gingival tissue.

25. The most effective drug for relief of angina


21. A cast post and core is used to pectoris is

1. provide intraradicular venting. A. morphine.


2. strengthen a weakened tooth. B. digitalis.
3. redirect the forces of occlusion. C. quinidine.
4. provide retention for a cast crown. D. nitroglycerine.
E. pentobarbital sodium.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above.
WRITTEN EXAMINATION – 2001 RELEASED VERSION
BOOK II
26. The gingival margin of the preparation for a 29. Fixed partial denture pontics should
full crown on a posterior tooth, with a clinical
crown that satisfies the requirements for A. completely replace the missin g hard
retention and resistance, should be placed and soft tissue.
B. have a concave surface touching the
A. 0.5mm subgingivally. mucosa.
B. on the enamel. C. have minimal soft tissue coverage.
C. at least 1mm supragingivally. D. hide the porcelain-metal junction on
D. at the cemento-enamel junction. their gingival aspect.
E. at the gingival margin.

30. In the preparation of gypsum products, an


27. During the fabrication of new complete increase in the water/powder ratio will
dentures, which of the following can be
modified to achieve the desired occlusion? A. increase the surface hardness.
B. increase the compressive strength.
1. The compensating curve. C. accelerate the setting reaction.
2. The orientation of the occlusal plane. D. None of the above.
3. The cusp inclination.
4. The condylar inclination.

A. (1) (2) (3) 31. Following the insertion of complete dentures,


B. (1) and (3) a generalized soreness over the entire
C. (2) and (4) mandibular alveolar ridge can be caused by
D. (4) only
E. All of the above. A. Inadequate interocclusal distance.
B. impingement on the buccal frenum.
C. high muscle attachments.
D. excess border thickness.
28. At his first post-insertion appointment, a
patient with a new removable partial denture
complains of a tender abutment tooth. The
most likely cause is 32. In an edentulous maxilla, the direction of
resorption of the alveolar ridge is
A. overextended borders of the partial.
B. inadequate polishing of the A. upward and palatally.
framework. B. upward and facially.
C. improper path of insertion. C. uniform in all directions.
D. the occlusion. D. upward only.
WRITTEN EXAMINATION – 2001 RELEASED VERSION
BOOK II
33. Dental porcelain has 36. Where cavity preparations are extensive,
polycarboxylate cement can be used as a base
1. low compressive strength. material because
2. high hardness.
3. high tensile strength. A. its pH stimulates secondary dentin
4. low impact strength. formation.
B. it interacts with setting amalgam to
A. (1) (2) (3) form a weak chemical union.
B. (1) and (3) C. it is biocompatible with the pulp.
C. (2) and (4) D. it is compressible when set.
D. (4) only
E. All of the above.

37. Gold contributes which of the following


properties to a gold-copper alloy?
34. Which of the following structures affects the
thickness of the flange of a maxillary A. Corrosion resistance.
complete denture? B. Increased strength.
C. Lowered specific gravity.
A. Malar process. D. Increased hardness.
B. Coronoid process.
C. Mylohyoid ridge.
D. Zygomatic process.
E. Genial tubercle. 38. The coefficient of thermal expansion of
composite resins is

A. greater than that of enamel.


35. Upon examination of an edentulous patient, it B. the same as that of enamel.
is observed that the tuberosities contact the C. less than that of enamel.
retromolar pads at the correct occlusal vertical D. the same as that of amalgam.
dimension. The treatment of choice is to E. the same as that of glass ionomer
cement.
A. reduce the retromolar pads surgically
to provide the necessary clearance.
B. reduce the tuberosities surgically to
provide the necessary clearance. 39. Which of the following impression materials
C. construct new dentures at an is the most dimensionally stable?
increased occlusal vertical dimension
to gain the necessary clearance. A. Condensation type silicone.
D. proceed with construction of the B. Polysulphide.
denture and reduce the posterior C. Polyvinyl siloxane.
extension of the mandibular denture D. Reversible hydrocolloid.
to eliminate interferences. E. Irreversible hydrocolloid.
WRITTEN EXAMINATION – 2001 RELEASED VERSION
BOOK II
40. After initial setting, a chemically cured glass 44. In a standard dental cartridge (carpule)
ionomer cement restoration should have a containing 1.8ml 2% lidocaine with
coating agent applied to epinephrine 1/100,000, the amount of
vasoconstrictor is
A. hasten the final set.
B. protect the cement from moisture. A. 18.0 mg.
C. retard the final set. B. 0.018 mg.
D. protect the cement from ultraviolet C. 1.8 mg.
light. D. 0.18 mg.
E. create a smooth finish. E. 180.0 mg.

41. The location of a crown margin is determined 45. A lowering of serum calcium is the stimulus
by for the endogenous release of

1. esthetic requirements. A. thyroid hormone.


2. clinical crown length. B. adrenocortical hormone.
3. presence of caries. C. insulin.
4. presence of an existing restoration. D. parathyroid hormone.
E. adrenalin.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only 46. Which of the following is the greatest risk
E. All of the above. factor for rampant caries in children?

A. Frequent ingestion of
polysaccharides.
42. Which of the following muscles has two B. Frequent ingestion of high sucrose-
separate functions in mandibular movement? containing foods.
C. Severe enamel hypoplasia.
A. Masseter. D. Deficiency of vitamin D.
B. Geniohyoid.
C. External (lateral) pterygoid.
D. Buccinator.
47. Which of the following penicillins is LEAST
resistant to the level of acidity found in the
stomach?
43. The inorganic ion that is implicated in
primary hypertension is A. Benzylpenicillin (penicillin G).
B. Phenoxymethylpenicillin (penicillin
A. sodium. V).
B. fluoride. C. Amoxicillin.
C. potassium. D. Ampicillin.
D. magnesium.
WRITTEN EXAMINATION – 2001 RELEASED VERSION
BOOK II
48. In congestive heart failure, a glycoside that 52. Vestibuloplasty is a preprosthetic surgical
increases the force of myocardial contraction procedure used to
is
A. facilitate reliable impression making.
A. digitoxin. B. provide adequate posterior inter-arch
B. quinidine. space.
C. amyl nitrite. C. allow placement of teeth over the
D. procainamide hydrochloride. residual ridge.
D. increase the supporting surface area

49. When used for conscious sedation, nitrous


oxide may 53. Using pins to retain amalgam restorations
increases the risk of
1. produce signs of inherent myocardial
depression. 1. cracks in the teeth.
2. produce an indirect sympathomimetic 2. pulp exposures.
action. 3. thermal sensitivity.
3. cause the patient to sweat. 4. periodontal ligament invasion.
4. produce numbness of the extremities.
A. (1) (2) (3)
A. (1) (2) (3) B. (1) and (3)
B. (1) and (3) C. (2) and (4)
C. (2) and (4) D. (4) only
D. (4) only E. All of the above.
E. All of the above.

54. In pin-retained restorations, the pin holes


should be parallel to the
50. An excess of which hormone is associated
with increased sensitivity to epinephrine? A. long axis of the tooth.
B. nearest external surface.
A. Testosterone. C. pulp chamber.
B. Parathyroid hormone. D. axial wall.
C. Insulin.
D. Thyroxin.
E. Estrogen.

51. Which of the following, if left untreated, is


most likely to result in a periapical lesion?

A. Internal resorption.
B. Reversible pulpitis.
C. Acute suppurative pulpitis.
D. Chronic hyperplastic pulpitis.
E. Diffuse calcification of the pulp.
WRITTEN EXAMINATION – 2001 RELEASED VERSION
BOOK II
55. Which of the following is/are characterized by 58. A 60-year old patient requests the
an obliteration of pulp chambers and root replacement of tooth 4.6, which was extracted
canals? many years ago. Tooth 1.6 has extruded
1.8mm into the space of the missing tooth.
1. Ageing. The three unit fixed bridge replacing the
2. Chronic trauma. mandibular first molar should be fabricated
3. Dentinal dysplasia.
4. Taurodontism. A. to the existing occlusion.
B. after extracting tooth 1.6 and
A. (1) (2) (3) replacing it with a fixed partial
B. (1) and (3) denture.
C. (2) and (4) C. after restoring tooth 1.6 to a more
D. (4) only normal plane of occlusion.
E. All of the above. D. after devitalizing and preparing tooth
1.6 for a cast crown.

56. Hyperplastic lingual tonsils may resemble


which of the following? 59. The anatomical landmarks used to help
establish the location of the posterior palatal
A. Epulis fissuratum. seal of a maxillary complete denture include
B. Lingual varicosities. the
C. Squamous cell carcinoma.
D. Median rhomboid glossitis. A. pterygomaxillary notches and the
E. Prominent fungiform papillae. fovea palatinae.
B. pterygomaxillary notches and the
posterior nasal spine.
C. posterior border of the tuberosities
57. In the bisecting angle principle of intraoral and the posterior border of the
radiography, the radiopacity that can palatine bone.
obliterate the apices of maxillary molars is the D. anterior border of the tuberosities, the
palatine raphe and the posterior
A. maxillary sinus. border of the palatine bone.
B. palatine bone and the zygoma.
C. orbital process of the zygomatic bone.
D. zygoma and the zygomatic process of
the maxilla. 60. In complete dentures, the external oblique line
is used as a guide for the

A. position of the posterior teeth.


B. height of the occlusal plane.
C. termination of the buccal flange.
D. termination of the lingual flange.
WRITTEN EXAMINATION – 2001 RELEASED VERSION
BOOK II
61. Which of the following is/are clinical signs of 64. Extreme resorption of an edentulous mandible
gingivitis? can bring the alveolar ridge to the level of the
attachment of the
1. Loss of stippling.
2. Gingival hyperplasia. A. buccinator, styloglossus and
3. Bleeding on probing. geniohyoid muscles.
4. Increased probing depth. B. mylohyoid, buccinator and
styloglossus muscles.
A. (1) (2) (3) C. superior constrictor, mylohyoid and
B. (1) and (3) buccinator muscles.
C. (2) and (4) D. mylohyoid, buccinator and
D. (4) only genioglossus muscles.
E. All of the above.

65. The chief mechanism by which the body


62. To improve denture stability, mandibular metabolizes short-acting barbiturates is
molar teeth should normally be placed
A. oxidation.
A. over the crest of the mandibular ridge. B. reduction.
B. buccal to the crest of the mandibular C. hydroxylation and oxidation.
ridge. D. sequestration in the body fats.
C. over the buccal shelf area.
D. lingual to the crest of the mandibular
ridge.
66. The usual adult dosage of codeine
administered orally is

63. In an infrabony pocket, the epithelial A. 500-1000mg.


attachment is located B. 250-500mg.
C. 30-60mg.
A. within basal bone. D. 2-5mg.
B. coronal to alveolar bone crest. E. None of the above.
C. apical to alveolar bone crest.
D. none of the above.

67. Before performing surgery on a patient who is


taking warfarin, which of the following
should be evaluated?

A. Bleeding time.
B. Clotting time.
C. Prothrombin time.
D. Coagulation time.
WRITTEN EXAMINATION – 2001 RELEASED VERSION
BOOK II
68. Normal sulcular epithelium in man is 71. A patient who has until recently been on
prolonged corticosteroid therapy may have
1. non-keratinized.
2. squamous. A. increased bleeding time.
3. stratified. B. hyposensitivity to pain.
4. non-permeable. C. decreased tolerance to physiological
stress.
A. (1) (2) (3) D. an increased metabolic rate.
B. (1) and (3) E. high level of plasmatic cortisol.
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above.
72. The treatment for an 11-year old who has
intermittent swelling and pain associated with
a central incisor which was traumatized
69. A large carious exposure occurs on a 6 months ago should be
permanent first molar of a 7-year old. There is
no periapical involvement and the tooth is A. pulpotomy.
vital. The treatment should be to B. pulpectomy.
C. extraction.
A. cap the exposure with calcium D. observation.
hydroxide and place zinc-oxide and
eugenol.
B. perform a pulpotomy and place
calcium hydroxide. 73. Which cells migrate into the gingival sulcus in
C. perform a pulpectomy. the largest numbers in response to the
D. extract the tooth and place a space accumulation of plaque?
maintainer.
A. Plasma cells and monocytes.
B. Polymorphonuclear leukocytes.
C. Macrophages.
70. Periodontal pocket epithelium D. Lymphocytes.
E. Mast cells.
A. is NOT colonized by bacteria.
B. does NOT contain anatomically and
physiologically distinct zones.
C. is a site where immunological 74. The most likely diagnosis for a child with a
elements interact with pocket painful, fiery-red, diffuse gingivitis is
bacteria.
D. does NOT provide a barrier against A. primary herpetic gingivo-stomatitis.
bacterial penetration. B. juvenile periodontitis.
C. idiopathic fibromatosis.
D. aphthous stomatitis.
WRITTEN EXAMINATION – 2001 RELEASED VERSION
BOOK II
75. Filters are placed in the path of the x-ray 78. Particulate hydroxyapatite, when placed
beam to subperiostially,

A. increase contrast. 1. is highly biocompatible.


B. reduce film density. 2. has a low incidence of secondary
C. reduce exposure time. infection following surgery.
D. reduce patient radiation dose. 3. has a tendency to migrate following
insertion.
4. induces bone formation throughout
the implanted material.
76. If an alginate impression must be stored for a
few minutes before the cast is poured, it A. (1) (2) (3)
should be placed in B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
A. water. D. (4) only
B. 100% relative humidity. E. All of the above.
C. A 1% aqueous calcium sulfate
solution.
D. None of the above.
79. A characteristic sign of aggressive
periodontitis in an adolescent (juvenile
periodontitis) is
77. Which of the following modifications to the
standard procedure for mixing gypsum A. marginal gingivitis.
products will increase the compressive B. painful, burning gingivae.
strength of the set material? C. hyperplastic gingivitis.
D. drifting of the teeth.
A. Adding a small amount of salt to the
water before mixing.
B. Decreasing the water/powder ratio by
a small amount. 80. Whenever possible, the margins of a
C. Using warmer water. restoration should be placed
D. Decreasing the mixing time.
1. subgingivally.
2. supragingivally.
3. on cementum.
4. on enamel.

A. (1) (2) (3)


B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above.
WRITTEN EXAMINATION – 2001 RELEASED VERSION
BOOK II
81. Planing the enamel at the gingival 84. In partial denture design, the major connector
cavosurface of a Class II amalgam preparation should
on a permanent tooth
A. connect rigidly the bilateral
A. should result in a long bevel. components.
B. is contraindicated because of the low B. act as a stress-breaker.
edge strength of amalgam. C. not interfere with lateral forces.
C. is unnecessary since the tooth D. dissipate vertical forces.
structure in this area is strong.
D. should remove unsupported enamel
which may fracture.
E. should result in a sharp 85. The extension of the lingual anterior border of
gingivoproximal line angle. a mandibular denture is limited by the

A. mylohyoid muscle.
B. geniohyoid muscle.
82. The area of the tooth that is most sensitive C. genioglossus muscle.
during cavity preparation is D. fibres of the digastric muscle.

A. dentin.
B. cementum.
C. cementoenamel junction. 86. In patients wearing complete dentures, the
D. dentinoenamel junction. most frequent cause of tooth contact
(clicking) during speaking is

A. nervous tension.
83. Which of the following is/are (a) useful B. incorrect centric relation position.
guide(s) in determining a patient’s occlusal C. excessive occlusal vertical dimension.
vertical dimension? D. lack of vertical overlap.
E. unbalanced occlusion.
1. Appearance.
2. Phonetics.
3. Observation of the rest position.
4. Pre-extraction profile records. 87. The addition of platinum to a dental gold
alloy results in increased
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3) 1. strength.
C. (2) and (4) 2. hardness.
D. (4) only. 3. melting point.
E. All of the above. 4. resistance to corrosion.

A. (1) (2) (3)


B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above.
WRITTEN EXAMINATION – 2001 RELEASED VERSION
BOOK II
88. Water irrigation devices have been shown to 91. A maxillary complete denture exhibits more
retention and stability than a mandibular one
A. eliminate plaque. because it
B. dislodge food particles from between
teeth. 1. covers a greater area.
C. disinfect pockets for up to 18 hours. 2. incorporates a posterior palatal seal.
D. prevent calculus formation. 3. is not subject to as much muscular
displacement.
4. is completely surrounded by soft
tissue.
89. The most common cause of malocclusion
with a Class I molar relationship is A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
A. a thumbsucking habit. C. (2) and (4)
B. crossbite in the posterior segments. D. (4) only
C. tooth size and jaw size discrepancy. E. All of the above.
D. improper eruption of permanent first
molars.

92. The prime advantage of vacuum firing of


porcelain is
90. A 6-year old patient has a larger than average
diastema between the maxillary central A. better colour.
incisors. The radiographic examination shows B. less shrinkage.
a mesiodens. In order to manage the C. more translucency.
diastema, you should extract the mesiodens D. increased strength.

A. after its complete eruption.


B. once the patient has reached the age
of 12. 93. The selection of a vasoconstrictor for a local
C. only if it develops into a cystic lesion. anesthetic depends upon
D. as soon as possible.
A. the duration of the operation.
B. the need for hemostasis.
C. the medical status of the patient.
D. all of the above.

94. Warfarin (Coumadin®) acts by

A. preventing formation of
thromboplastin.
B. preventing fibrinogen conversion to
fibrin.
C. inhibiting the synthesis of
prothrombin in the liver.
D. incorporating ionic calcium.
WRITTEN EXAMINATION – 2001 RELEASED VERSION
BOOK II
95. Enlargement of the thyroid gland can be 98. Benign neoplasms
caused by
1. grow slowly.
A. insufficient fluoride. 2. are generally painless.
B. excess iodine. 3. can be managed conservatively.
C. insufficient iodine. 4. can metastasize.
D. excess calcium.
E. excess sodium. A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
96. Which of the following is the LEAST likely E. All of the above.
primary site for the development of oral
squamous cell carcinoma in the elderly?

A. Dorsum of the tongue. 99. A removable orthodontic appliance,


B. Floor of the mouth. producing a light force on the labial of a
C. Lateral border of the tongue. proclined maxillary central incisor will cause
D. Tonsillar fossa.
A. lingual movement of the crown and
lingual movement of the root apex.
B. intrusion of the central incisor and
97. A surgical flap not repositioned over a bony lingual movement of the crown.
base will result in C. lingual movement of the crown and
labial movement of the root apex.
1. slower healing. D. intrusion of the central incisor.
2. foreign body inflammatory reaction.
3. wound dehiscence.
4. necrosis of bone.
100. Which of the following pharmacokinetic
A. (1) (2) (3) change(s) occur(s) with aging?
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4) 1. Absorption is altered by a decrease in
D. (4) only the gastric pH.
E. All of the above. 2. Metabolism is decreased by a reduced
liver mass.
3. Distribution is altered by a decrease
in total body fat.
4. Excretion is reduced because of
lessened renal blood flow.

A. (1) (2) (3)


B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above.
WRITTEN EXAMINATION – 2001 RELEASED VERSION
BOOK II
101. Hypercementosis at the root apex is often 105. Compared to unfilled resins, composite resins
associated with have

A. hypothyroidism. 1. reduced thermal dimensional changes.


B. Paget's disease. 2. increased strength.
C. orthodontic tooth movement. 3. reduced polymerization shrinkage.
D. normal occlusal function. 4. better polishability.
E. hyperparathyroidism.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
102. When a radiographic examination is D. (4) only
warranted for a 10-year old child, the most E. All of the above.
effective way to decrease radiation exposure
is to

A. use a thyroid collar and lead apron. 106. Premature loss of a primary maxillary second
B. apply a radiation protection badge. molar usually produces a malocclusion in the
C. use high speed film. permanent dentition that is characterized by
D. decrease the kilovoltage to 50kVp.
E. take a panoramic film only. A. anterior crowding.
B. labially displaced maxillary canines.
C. delayed eruption of the permanent
first molar.
103. When using the periodontal probe to measure D. a Class II molar relationship on the
pocket depth, the measurement is taken from affected side.
the E. a Class III molar relationship on the
affected side.
A. base of the pocket to the
cementoenamel junction.
B. free gingival margin to the
cementoenamel junction. 107. A 7-year old patient has a left unilateral
C. base of the pocket to the crest of the posterior cross-bite and a left functional shift
free gingiva. of the mandible. The most appropriate
D. base of the pocket to the treatment for this patient is
mucogingival junction.
A. bilateral expansion of the maxillary
arch.
B. unilateral expansion of maxillary
104. Which of the following conditions is arch.
characterized by abnormally large pulp C. placement of a maxillary
chambers? repositioning splint.
D. observation until the permanent teeth
A. Amelogenesis imperfecta. erupt.
B. Regional odontodysplasia. E. bilateral constriction of the
C. Dentinogenesis imperfecta. mandibular arch.
D. Dentinal dysplasia Type I.
WRITTEN EXAMINATION – 2001 RELEASED VERSION
BOOK II
108. An 8-year old patient with all primary molars 111. Following loss of a permanent mandibular
still present exhibits a cusp-to-cusp first molar at age 8, which of the following
relationship of permanent maxillary and changes are likely to occur?
mandibular first molars. The management of
this patient should be to 1. Distal drift of second premolar.
2. No movement of second premolar.
A. plan serial extractions for more 3. Mesial drift of second permanent
normal adjustment of the occlusion. molar.
B. refer the patient to an orthodontist for 4. No movement of second permanent
consultation. molar.
C. place a cervical headgear to reposition
maxillary molars. A. (1) (2) (3)
D. disk the distal surfaces of primary B. (1) and (3)
mandibular second molars to allow C. (2) and (4)
normal adjustment of permanent D. (4) only
molars. E. All of the above.
E. observe.

112. To prevent mesial drift of a permanent first


109. Excessive orthodontic force used to move a molar, the ideal time to place a distal-
tooth may extension space maintainer is

1. cause hyalinization. A. as soon as the tooth erupts through the


2. cause root resorption. gingival tissue.
3. crush the periodontal ligament. B. after the permanent second molar has
4. impair tooth movement. erupted.
C. immediately after extraction of the
A. (1) (2) (3) primary second molar.
B. (1) and (3) D. as soon as the extraction site of the
C. (2) and (4) primary second molar has completely
D. (4) only healed.
E. All of the above.

113. The best space maintainer to prevent the


110. The predominant type of movement produced lingual collapse that often occurs following
by a finger spring on a removable appliance is the early loss of a mandibular primary canine
is a
A. torque.
B. tipping. A. Nance expansion arch.
C. rotation. B. lingual arch.
D. translation. C. band and loop space maintainer.
D. distal shoe space maintainer.
WRITTEN EXAMINATION – 2001 RELEASED VERSION
BOOK II
114. A major disadvantage of the cervical headgear 117. Cultures made from a dental abscess indicate
used for some orthodontic treatment is the risk the infection is caused by beta hemolytic
of streptococcus. Which of the following is the
drug of choice?
A. intrusion of maxillary canines.
B. extrusion of maxillary incisors. A. Penicillin.
C. extrusion of maxillary molars. B. Erythromycin.
D. deformity of the neck. C. Tetracycline.
E. psychological trauma due to D. Cloxacillin.
appearance.

118. Which one of the following describes the


115. Recurring tooth rotations occur most position of the needle tip during
frequently after orthodontic correction due to administration of local anesthetic for the
inferior alveolar nerve block?
A. density of the cortical bone.
B. persistence of tongue and finger A. Anterior to the pterygomandibular
habits. raphe.
C. free gingival and transseptal fibres. B. Medial to the medial pterygoid
D. oblique fibres of the periodontal muscle.
ligament. C. Superior to the lateral pterygoid
muscle.
D. Lateral to the sphenomandibular
ligament.
116. The design of a mucoperiosteal flap should

1. provide for visual access.


2. provide for instrument access. 119. The tooth preparation for a porcelain veneer
3. permit repositioning over a solid bone must create a/an
base.
4. be semilunar in shape. A. rough surface for improved bonding.
B. space for an appropriate thickness of
A. (1) (2) (3) the veneering material.
B. (1) and (3) C. margin well below the gingival crest.
C. (2) and (4) D. definite finish line.
D. (4) only
E. All of the above.
WRITTEN EXAMINATION – 2001 RELEASED VERSION
BOOK II
120. A 78-year old patient presents with several 123. Resin bonding of composites to acid-etched
carious lesions on the root surfaces of the enamel results in
maxillary posterior teeth. The restorative
material of choice is A. decreased polymerization shrinkage
of the resin.
A. microfilled composite resin. B. decreased crack formation in the
B. hybrid composite resin. enamel.
C. silver amalgam. C. reduced microleakage.
D. glass ionomer cement. D. elimination of post-operative
E. reinforced zinc oxide and eugenol sensitivity.
cement. E. improved wear resistance of the
composite.

121. Acid etching of dentin with 10-15%


phosphoric acid for 15-20 seconds 124. In order to achieve a proper interproximal
contact when using a spherical alloy, which of
1. removes the smear layer. the following is/are essential?
2. increases dentinal permeability.
3. opens the dentinal tubules. 1. A larger sized condenser.
4. decalcifies the intertubular and 2. A thinner matrix band.
peritubular dentin. 3. An anatomical wedge.
4. Use of mechanical condensation.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3) A. (1) (2) (3)
C. (2) and (4) B. (1) and (3)
D. (4) only C. (2) and (4)
E. All of the above. D. (4) only
E. All of the above.

122. Composite resin is CONTRAINDICATED as


a posterior restorative material in cases of 125. Which of the following cements can
chemically bond to enamel?
1. cusp replacement.
2. bruxism. 1. Zinc phosphate cement.
3. lack of enamel at the gingival cavo- 2. Polycarboxylate cement.
surface margin. 3. Ethoxy benzoic acid cement.
4. inability to maintain a dry operating 4. Glass ionomer cement.
field.
A. (1) (2) (3)
A. (1) (2) (3) B. (1) and (3)
B. (1) and (3) C. (2) and (4)
C. (2) and (4) D. (4) only
D. (4) only E. All of the above.
E. All of the above.
WRITTEN EXAMINATION – 2001 RELEASED VERSION
BOOK II
126. Which of the following SHOULD NOT be 130. A 22-year old presents with a fracture of the
corrected with a porcelain veneer? incisal third of tooth 2.1 exposing a small
amount of dentin. The fracture occurred one
A. Peg lateral incisor. hour previously. There is no mobility of the
B. Diastema between 1.1 and 2.1. tooth but the patient complains that it is rough
C. Cross bite on tooth 1.3. and sensitive to cold. The most appropriate
D. Enamel hypoplasia. emergency treatment is to

A. open the pulp chamber, clean the


canal and temporarily close with zinc
127. The most likely cause of postoperative oxide and eugenol.
sensitivity with Class II composite resin B. smooth the surrounding enamel and
restorations is apply glass ionomer cement.
C. smooth the surrounding enamel and
A. acid etching of dentin. apply a calcium hydroxide cement.
B. microleakage at the interface. D. place a provisional (temporary)
C. toxicity of the restorative material. crown.
D. overheating during the finishing
process.

131. As a dentist in Canada, it is ethical to refuse to


treat a patient on the basis of
128. Which of the following would be a
CONTRAINDICATION for the use of a resin 1. religious beliefs.
bonded fixed partial denture (acid etched 2. physical handicap.
bridge or “Maryland Bridge”)? 3. infectious disease.
4. recognition of lack of skill or
A. Class II malocclusion. knowledge.
B. An opposing free end saddle
removable partial. A. (1) (2) (3)
C. Previous orthodontic treatment. B. (1) and (3)
D. Heavily restored abutment. C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above.

129. The "smear layer" is an important


consideration in
132. When removing bone or sectioning roots of
A. plaque accumulation. teeth with a high-speed handpiece, the
B. caries removal. air/water combination should be set with
C. pulp regeneration.
D. dentin bonding. A. air and water on.
B. water only.
C. air only.
D. neither air nor water.
WRITTEN EXAMINATION – 2001 RELEASED VERSION
BOOK II
133. Pain and difficulty on swallowing, trismus 136. A 4mm diameter carious exposure occurs on a
and a displaced uvula are signs and symptoms permanent first molar of a 7-year old child.
of infection of which one of the following The tooth is vital and has no periapical
spaces? involvement. The appropriate initial
treatment would be to perform a(n)
A. Submandibular.
B. Lateral parapharyngeal. A. pulp capping.
C. Sublingual. B. pulpotomy.
D. Deep temporal. C. pulpectomy.
E. Submasseteric. D. extraction.

134. Following the injection of 1.8ml of 2% 137. A lateral cephalometric radiograph for a
lidocaine with 1:100,000 epinephrine, a patient with a 3mm anterior functional shift
nervous 22-year old male with well controlled should be taken with the patient in
insulin dependent diabetes states that he feels
dizzy and weak. Beads of sweat have A. maximum intercuspation.
accumulated on his forehead and upper lip. B. initial contact.
He is quite pale. The initial management of C. normal rest position.
this patient is to D. maximum opening.
E. protrusive.
A. administer glucagon 1.0mg.
B. administer epinephrine 0.5mg.
C. administer Benadryl
(diphenhydramine) 50mg. 138. A patient with a tumor in the right
D. elevate the patient's legs and infratemporal fossa shows a significant shift
administer 100% oxygen. of the mandible to the right when opening.
E. call 911 and begin CPR. Which nerve is involved?

A. Facial nerve VII.


B. Glossopharyngeal nerve IX.
135. A 8-year old child has an 8mm central C. Trigeminal nerve V.
diastema. The etiology could include D. Hypoglossal nerve XII.

1. frenum.
2. cyst.
3. mesiodens. 139. Which two muscles are involved in suckin g?
4. normal development.
A. Caninus and depressor angularis.
A. (1) (2) (3) B. Risorius and buccinator.
B. (1) and (3) C. Buccinator and orbicularis oris.
C. (2) and (4) D. Levator labii superioris and
D. (4) only zygomaticus major.
E. All of the above.
WRITTEN EXAMINATION – 2001 RELEASED VERSION
BOOK II
140. The floor of the mouth is formed by the 143. The most appropriate treatment of acute
necrotizing ulcerative periodontitis in a
A. digastric muscle. patient with no fever and no
B. genioglossus muscle. lymphadenopathy is
C. mylohyoid muscle.
D. styloglossus muscle. 1. periodontal debridement.
2. antibiotic therapy.
3. oral hygiene instruction.
4. topical steroid therapy.
141. Following root planing, a patient experiences
thermal sensitivity. This pain is associated A. (1) (2) (3)
with which of the following? B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
A. Golgi receptor. D. (4) only.
B. Free nerve endings. E. All of the above.
C. Odontoblastic processes.
D. Cementoblasts.

144. In periodontal therapy, “guided tissue


regeneration” is most successful in treating
142. A 45-year old, overweight man reports that
his wife complains that he snores. The initial 1. horizontal bone loss.
management of the patient’s snoring problem 2. a 3-walled infrabony defect.
is to 3. a mandibular Class III furcation
involvement.
A. fabricate an appliance to reduce 4. a mandibular Class II furcation
snoring. involvement.
B. fabricate restorations to increase the
patient’s vertical dimension of A. (1) (2) (3)
occlusion. B. (1) and (3)
C. refer for an orthognathic surgery C. (2) and (4)
consultation. D. (4) only.
D. refer for a sleep assessment. E. All of the above.

145. The most likely cause of tooth loss following


a tunneling procedure to provide complete
access for a mandibular Class III furcation
involvement is

A. root caries.
B. root sensitivity.
C. pulpal involvement.
D. recurrent pocketing.
WRITTEN EXAMINATION – 2001 RELEASED VERSION
BOOK II
146. Increased tooth mobility can result from 149. Continued smoking will impair wound
healing following a surgical procedure
1. excessive occlusal forces with normal because of
periodontal support.
2. apical periodontitis. A. stain development.
3. normal occlusal forces with B. increased rate of plaque formation.
inadequate periodontal support. C. increased rate of calculus formation.
4. simple marginal gingivitis. D. contraction of peripheral blood
vessels.
A. (1) (2) (3) E. superficial irritation to tissues by
B. (1) and (3) smoke.
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above. 150. A 23-year old female complains of bilateral
stiffness and soreness in the preauricular
region. Her symptoms have been present for
the past week and are most pronounced in the
147. For an otherwise healthy patient, with an morning. The most likely cause is
acute localized periodontal abscess, initial
treatment must include A. fibrous ankylosis of the
temporomandibular joints.
A. scaling and root planing. B. nocturnal bruxism.
B. occlusal adjustment. C. early osteoarthritis.
C. prescription of an antibiotic. D. mandibular subluxation.
D. prescription of an analgesic.

148. On bite-wing radiographs of adults under the


age of 30, the normal alveolar crest is

A. at the cementoenamel junction.


B. 1-2mm apical to the cementoenamel
junction.
C. 3-4mm apical to the cementoenamel
junction.
D. not clearly distinguishable.