IMPORTANT ONE LINERS FOR NEET - 8

Questions What drug, if given during pregnancy, would cause the uterus to exhibit signs of progesterone withdrawal and induce an abortion? What two forms of insulin, if mixed together, would result in precipitation of zinc? What blood disorder is a side effect of metformin? Which antineoplastic agents' site of inhibition is in: M phase of the cell cycle? Gl phase of the cell cycle? G2 phase of the cell cycle? Between GI and S phases of the cell cycle? Between S and G2 phases of the cell cycle? S phase of the cell cycle? What is the physiologic basis for the actions of birth control pills? True or false: Oral sulfonylureas increase the number of insulin receptors. What drugs combined together produce neuroleptanalgesia? What drugs combined together produce neurolepanalgesia? Answers RU 486

1. Lente insulin 2. NPH insulin or protamine zinc insulin (PZI) Megaloblastic anemia (decreased absorption of vitamin B12 and folic acid) Vinblastine and vincristine L-asparaginase and mitomycin Bleomycin Hydroxyurea Etoposide Cytarabine, methotrexate, 6mercaptopurine, and 6-thioguanine They block the midcycle surge of luteinizing hormone (LH) False-verify this answer. True. They also increase insulin release and decrease glucagon release. Droperidol and fentanyl

What ultra-short-acting barbiturate induces hypnosis and is associated with Thiopental cardiovascular and respiratory depression? What is the most common pain killer used during pregnancy? What antimicrobial agent's major side effect is: Gray baby syndrome? Meperidine Chloramphenicol

What antimicrobial agent's major side Aminoglycosides effect is: CN VIII damage (vestibulotoxic)?

What antimicrobial agent's major side effect is: Teratogenicity? What antimicrobial agent's major side effect is: CholestaHc hepatitis? What antimicrobial agent's major side effect is: Hemolytic anemia? What antimicrobial agent's major side effect is: Dental staining if used in the pediatric population? What antimicrobial agent's major side effect is: Altered folate metabolism? What antimicrobial agent's major side effect is: Auditory toxicity? What antimicrobial agent's major side effect is: Cartilage abnormalities? What are the five zero-order processes? What morphine derivative is used in patients with renal failure? Which group of antihypertensive agents decreases left ventricular hypertrophy the best? What is the site of action of: Osmotic diuretics? What is the site of action of: Loop diuretics? What is the site of action of: Thiazide diuretics? What is the site of action of: K+-sparing diuretics? What is the site of action of: Aldosterone antagonists? What is the only diuretic that works on the blood side of the nephron? What is the active metabolite of spironolactone? What drug is given transdermally for chronic pain but can cause chest wall rigidity if given IV?

Metronidazole Erythromycin Nitrofurantoin Tetracycline Trimethoprim Vancomycin Quinolones 1. Sustained release 2. IV drip 3. Phenytoin 4. Alcohol 5. Aspirin toxicity Hydromorphone Thiazide diuretics The entire tubule barring the thick ascending limb Ascending limb Early distal tubule Early collecting duct Distal convoluted tubules Spironolactone (binds to aldosterone receptors) Canrenone Fentanyl

What is the lipid solubility and potency of a Low lipid solubility and potency (They are drug if the induction and recovery from the inversely proportional.) drug were both rapid? What is the drug of choice for hypertensive a-Methyldopa (Guanabenz or clonidine is patients with a decreased renal function? also used.) What hormone is released by the atria due to an increase in blood pressure to cause an increase in glomerular filtration rate Atrial natriuretic factor (GFR), Na+ retention, and reninangiotensin release? What is the drug of choice in treatment for the late phaseof asthma? Corticosteroids

Which antigenic thrombolytic agent causes Streptokinase a decreased level of circulating fibrinogen? What is the only class of diuretics to retain Cl- used in the short-term treatment of Acetazolamide glaucoma and also in the treatment of acute mountain sickness? What diuretic is used to decrease intraocular and intracranial pressures? Which thrombolytic agent, activated in the presence of fibrin, is manufactured by recombinant DNA process? Mannitol Alteplase

Which diuretic causes irreversible ototoxicity and GI bleeding as its main side Ethacrynic acid effects? What IV agent is used to treat respiratory depression associated with withdrawal from alcohol usage? What is the best form of treatment if an elevated blood pressure is due to: Elevated heart rate? What is the best form of treatment if an elevated blood pressure is due to: Elevated force of contractions? Naloxone

-Blockers

-Blockers

What is the best form of treatment if an Diuretics or angiotensin converting enzyme elevated blood pressure is due to: Increase (ACE) inhibitors in fluid volume? What is the best form of treatment if an Centrally acting sympatholytics, aelevated blood pressure is due to: Increase antagonists, or Ca2+ channel bockers in TPR?

Which class of diuretics blocks Na/Cl cotransport in the distal tubules? Why should codeine be carefully administered acetaminophen or aminosalicylic acid? What muscle comprises the upper esophageal sphincter? True or false: chewing is essential for digestion?

Thiazide diuretics Because it has an additive effect with with these agents Cricopharyngeus False; it just increases the surface area of the food.

In which region of the stomach are parietal Body or corpus and chief cells located? What hormone, released in response to low pH, inhibits gastric emptying by decreasing antral contractions, increases Secretin constriction of the pyloric sphincter, and also increases bicarbonate secretions from the pancreas? In which region of the stomach are G cells Antrum (They secrete gastrin: G for located? gastrin.) How long is the transit time through the large intestine? How long is the transit time through the small intestine? What hormone causes contractions of smooth muscle, regulates interdigestive motility, and prepares the intestine for the next meal? What is the main function of HCl in the stomach? 3 to 4 days 2 to 4 hours

Motilin

Converts pepsinogen into pepsin

What hormone increases the intestinal secretions of electrolytes and H2O, relaxes Vasoactive intestinal peptide (VIP) smooth muscle, dilates peripheral blood vessels, and inhibits gastric secretions? What gland produces 20% of salivary secretions and contributes to almost all of the amylase secretions? What hormone causes contractions of the gallbladder, augments the action of secretin to produce an alkaline pancreatic juice, inhibits gastric emptying, and increases constriction of the pyloric Parotid gland (serous secretions)

Cholecystoldnin (CCK)

sphincter? What are the four functions of saliva? 1. Provides antibacterial action 2. Lubricates 3. Begins carbohydrate digestion 4. Begins fat digestion

What is composed of skeletal muscle, innervated by the pudendal nerve, and in a External anal sphincter voluntary constant state of contraction that relaxes for defecation? What hormone is stimulated by glucose and fat in the duodenum, inhibits gastric secretions and motility, and stimulates insulin secretion? Which portion of the autonomic nervous system regulates salivary flow? A pH of less than 4.5 stimulates the release of what hormone? What is composed of smooth muscle, innervated by pelvic splanchnics and hypogastric nerves, and involuntary? Gastrin inhibitory peptide (GIP)

Parasympathetic portion Secretin (It inhibits acid Secretion.) Internal anal sphincter

What gland produces 70% of total salivary Submandibular gland (produces both secretions? mucous and serous secretions) What is the tonicity of pancreatic juice? What organism is associated with gastric ulcers? Isotonic Helicobacter pylori

What is the only gastric secretion required Intrinsic factor (IF) to sustain life? What three structures increase the surface 1. Plicae circularis 2. Villi 3. Microvilli area of the GI tract? What hormone is the primary regulator of HCO3 secretion from the pancreas? What cells of the GI tract secrete mucus? What are the five F's associated with gallstones? Lactose intolerance is caused by a lack of what enzyme? What are the three end products of amylase digestion? Secretin Goblet cells 1. Fat 2. Forty 3. Female 4. Familial 5. Fertile Lactase 1. Maltose 2. Maltotetrose 3. Alpha limit dextrans (a-1,6 binding)

What percentage of bile acids are excreted 5% (95% reabsorbed via enterohepatic daily? circulation)

Which glands of the upper duodenum secrete a bicarbonaterich solution? What is the major route for excretion of cholesterol? What hormone potentiates the effect of secretin? What is the major phospholipid in bile? What is the rate-limiting step in the formation of bile acids? What two amino acids are conjugated to bile acids to increase H2O solubility? What is absorbed in the gallbladder to concentrate bile? If a substance is removed from circulation by an organ, is its arteriovenous (AV) difference positive or negative?

Brunner's glands Bile CCK Lecithin 7-a-Hydroxylase 1. Glycine 2. Taurine Water Positive AV difference

In laminar flow, which area has the fastest The center of the tube flow? What are four ways to get an increased pump function of the heart? What system has an increased pressure, decreased resistance, increased flow, increased compliance, and blood volume that is proportional to flow? 1. Exercise 2. Increase heart rate 3. Increase in arterial pressure 4. Increase contractility Pulmonary circuit

1. Brain (cerebral circulation) 2. GI tract What two organs have local metabolites as (after a meal) All other organs are under the main determinant of blood flow? neural control. What are the three sympathetic effects on the pacemaker cells of the heart? 1. Increase the slope of prepotential 2. Take less time to reach threshold 3. Increase the rate of firing

1. Hyperpolarize the cells by increasing K+ What are the three parasympathetic effects conductance 2. Take longer to reach on the pacemaker cells of the heart? threshold 3. Decrease the rate of firing What are the two major causes of arterial pressure? What causes an increase in cardiac performance with no increase in preload? Change in what intracellular ion causes a change in contractility? 1. Contraction of the heart 2. Hydrostatic pressure Contractility (inotropic) Calcium

What are the two main circulations with extrinsic regulation that are most affected by nervous reflexes? What is the third heart sound caused by? If a substance is put into circulation by an organ, is its arteriovenous difference positive or negative? What is the baroreceptor response to an increase in blood pressure? What is a perfusionlimited situation? Which region of the lungs has a low perfusion pressure and a high resistance so that there is little blood flow? What fluid is monitored directly by central chemoreceptors? On a pressure-volume loop, what is seen with: Aortic regurgitation? On a pressure-volume loop, what is seen with:Aortic stenosis? On a pressure-volume loop, what is seen with:Increased contractility? On a pressure-volume loop, what is seen with:Heart failure?

1. Cutaneous circulation 2. Resting skeletal muscle Ventricular filling (heard during diastole)

What is the fourth heart sound caused by? Atria] contraction (heard during diastole) Negative Increase afferent activity of CN IX and CN X to decrease heart rate (parasympathetic) When alveolar and capillary blood equilibrate for a substance Apex Cerebrospinal fluid (H+;CO2) Increase in stroke volume Increase in afterload, decrease in stroke volume, increase in peak tension Increase in stroke volume by decreasing the end-systolic volume Increase in end-systolic volume, decrease in afterload, decrease in peak tension, increase in peak tension

What two compensatory mechanisms 1. Increase in erythropoietin 2. Increase in occur to reverse hypoxia at high altitudes? 2,3-bisphosphoglycerate (2,3-BPG) What would you give to neutralize the excess base in an alkalotic patient? What would you give to neutralize the excess acid in an acidotic patient? What is a diffusion-limited situation? NH4Cl(strong acid can lyse RBCs) NaCO2 (CO2 eliminated by lungs) When alveolar gas and capillary blood attempt to equilibrate but do NOT (i.e., CO2)

What must occur in order for PaCO2 to Need to increase alveolar ventilation (if not remain constant when there is an increase hypercapnia would result) in the body's metabolism? What enzyme is needed for conversion of testosterone to estradiol? Aromatase

What two anions compete with iodine for the iodine pump in the thyroid gland? What enzyme is associated with osteoblastic activity?

1. Perchlorate 2. Thiocyanate Alkaline phosphatase

What form of plasma calcium is the physiologically active form and is regulated Free calcium (ionized) within narrow limits? Which three factors cause the release of epinephrine from the adrenal medulla? What phase of the female cycle ALWAYS lasts for the same number of days (14 days in most women)? What serves as a marker for 24-hour growth hormone secretion? What three things inhibit the secretion of glucagon? Which three organs or structures have gluconeogenic capabilities? Which type of diabetes is more likely to lead to ketoacidosis? Excess bone demineralization and remodeling can be detected by checking urine levels of what substance? What two things cause l-a-hydroxylase activity to increase? What type of membrane is permeable to water and small solutes? What is the movement of ions in an electrical held known as? What two components of a body of water cannot be measured and need to be calculated? What phase of an action potential has the greatest rate of Na+ influx? Which phase of an action potential requires energy? 1. Exercise 2. Emergencies (stress) 3. Exposure to cold (The three Es) Luteal phase Plasma insulin-like growth factor type 1 (IGF-1) levels 1. Insulin 2. Somatostatin 3. Hyperglycemia 1. Liver 2. Kidney 3. GI epithelium Type I (insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus [IDDM]) Hydroxyproline (breakdown product of collagen) 1. Parathyroid hormone (PTH) 2. A decrease in PO4 levels Selectively permeable membrane Conductance 1. Intracellular fluid (ICF) (water minus extracellular fluid) 2. Interstitial fluid (ISF) (extracellular fluid minus plasma volume) Phase 0 Phase 4 (via the Na+/K+ pump)

What type of muscle is associated with one Skeletal muscle T tubule and two cisternae (triad)? What is the region of an axon where no myelin is found? Nodes of Ranvier

What types) of muscle contain the thin filament troponin?

Skeletal and cardiac muscle

Where are antidiuretic hormone (ADH) and The supraoptic and paraventricular nuclei oxytocin produced? of the hypothalamus What is the only hormone to INCREASE with a DECREASE in pituitary function? Which enzyme converts cholesterol to pregnenolone? What are the four "stress" hormones? Proopiomelanocortin (POMC) is cleaved into what two substances? What are the six substances that promote the secretion of insulin? What is the thin filament that has the attachment site for the crossbridges and also activates adenosine triphosphatase (ATPase)? What types of muscle have a sarcomere? Prolactin Desmolase-rate limiting step (RLS) in steroid hormone synthesis 1. Growth hormone (GH) 2. Glucagon 3. Cortisol 4. Epinephrine 1. Adrenocorticotrophic hormone (ACTH) 2. (alpha)-Lipotropins (melanotropins and endorphins) 1. Glucose 2. Amino acid (arginine) 3. Gastrin inhibitory peptide (GIP) 4. Glucagon 5. Alpha-Agonists 6. ACh Actin Skeletal and cardiac muscle

Where is the action potential generated on Axon hillock a neuron? What is the name for the load that the muscle is working against during stimulation? What type of contraction has an active tension when the length is shortened? What type of muscle has high creatinine phosphokinase (CPK), high ATPase activity, and no myoglobin; is anaerobic; and is for short-term use? What type of muscle uses calmodulin? What thick filament has crossbridges and ATPase activity? What causes actin-myosin crossbridge dissociation? What is used as an index of cortisol secretions? What would be the two major Afterload Isotonic contraction

White muscle (fast) Smooth muscle Myosin Binding of ATP Urine 17-OH steroids 1. Circulatory failure 2. Inability to mobilize

consequences if the zona fasciculata and the zona reticularis were removed? How many carbons do androgens have? How many carbons do estrogens have? The level of what hormone tends to DECREASE with stress? On what two occasions are cortisol releasing hormone (CRH) secretions elevated? What is an inhibitory interneuron known as? What is the summation of mechanical stimuli known as? What is the thin filament that binds to calcium? What determines the maximum velocity of shortening muscle? What type of muscle has end plates? What type of contraction has an active tension, but the overall length of the con traction does not change and no work is done? What thin filament covers the attachment site in resting muscle so that the crossbridges are unavailable for binding?

energy stores Androgens are 19-carbon steroids. Estrogens are 18-carbon steroids. (Removal of one carbon from an androgen = an estrogen.) Insulin 1. Early morning 2. During stress Renshaw neuron Tetany Troponin C The muscle's ATPase activity Skeletal muscle Isometric contraction

Tropomyosin

What is the load on a muscle in the relaxed Preload state known as? Total tension - preload = what? What types of muscle are uninuclear? In a contractile muscle, what is the source of the calcium? What is the maximum force of a contraction determined by? What types) of muscle have T tubules associated with them? What type of muscle has myoglobin, low CPK, and low ATPase activity; is aerobic; Active tension (contraction) Cardiac and smooth muscle Sarcoplasmic reticulum (The source is NOT extracellular.) The number of motor units activated during the contraction Cardiac and skeletal muscle Red muscle (slow-twitch muscle)

and is for long-term use? What event signifies the first day of the menstrual cycle? The first day of bleeding

What hormone is essential for induction of ovulation and formation of the corpus Luteinizing hormone (LH) luteum? How many days before the first day of bleeding is ovulation? What is required to maintain lactation? What hormone, in high levels, blocks milk production? What hormone is necessary for maintenance of the corpus luteum for the first 3 months of pregnancy? 14 days in most women (Remember: The luteal phase is always constant.) Suckling (stimulates oxytocin secretion) Estrogen Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)- from the trophoblast

Up to how many hours after ejaculation are 72 hours sperm able to fertilize the egg? What hormone induces myometrial contraction and causes milk letdown? What hormone is necessary for the maintenance of the uterine endometrium from the fourth month of pregnancy on? How long after ovulation does fertilization occur? Oxytocin Progesterone (Estrogen is needed for progesterone to be effective.) 8 to 25 hours

What hormone thins cervical mucus, stimulates LH receptors on granulosa cells, Estradiol elicits the LH surge, and increases proliferation of the uterine mucosal layers? What hormone is secreted by the placenta late in pregnancy, stimulates mammary growth during pregnancy, mobilizes energy Human chorionic somatomanunotropin stores from the mother so that the fetus (hCS) or human placental lactogen (hPL) can utilize them, and has an amino acid sequence like GH? What hormone causes an increase in the production of milk? Prolactin

What is the force necessary to collapse the Lung recoil lung known as? For what hormone do Leydig cells have receptors? What vitamin needs thyroid hormone for LH Vitamin A

conversion to its active form? What is the tonicity of fluid that leaves the loop of Henle? What enzyme converts androgens to estrogens? What does excess production of thyroidstimulating hormone (TSH) cause? What type of cell reabsorbs bone? What is the major form of androgen secreted from the adrenal gland? What cells of the genitourinary system produce testosterone in males? What type of urine does ADH cause to be excreted? What is the term for the volume of plasma removed from a substance per unit time? Hypotonic Aromatase A goiter Osteoclast; Blasts make; clasts take. Dehydroepiandrosterone (DHEA) Leydig cells Hypertonic urine (because of the water reabsorption in the collecting duct) Clearance

What is the most potent male sex steroid? Dihydrotestosterone - DHT What two substances stimulate Sertoli cells? Follicle stimulating hormone (FSH) and testosterone At which three sites in the body is T4 converted to T3?

1. Liver 2. Kidney 3. Pituitary gland (via 5'deiodinase enzyme) The fresh air being Alveolar ventilation (the first 150 ml is not delivered to the respiratory zone per included) minute is known as what? What region of the lungs gets very little ventilation? Apex

Where does polyuric originate if the patient Before the collecting duct (There is no is dehydrated and has electrolyte electrolyte disturbance in the collecting deficiencies? duct.) What substance is free filtered but partially Urea reabsorbed by passive mechanisms? What hormone promotes mobilization of energy stores, enhances the capacity of Cortisol glucagon and catecholamines, and increases the capacity to withstand stress? What is used as an index of androgen secretion? What are the pituitary hormones associated with: Thyrotropin releasing hormone (TRH)? Urine 17-ketosteroids Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH)

What are the pituitary hormones associated with: Cortisol releasing hormone (CRH)? What are the pituitary hormones associated with: Gonadotropin releasing hormone (GnRH)? What are the pituitary hormones associated with: Growth hormone releasing hormone (GHRH)? What are the pituitary hormones associated with: Somatostatin? What are the pituitary hormones associated with: Prolactin inhibiting factor (PIF) [dopamine]? Which hormones are released from the: Zona glomerulosa? Which hormones are released from the: Zona fasciculata? Which hormones are released from the: Zona reticularis? Which hormones are released from the: Medulla?

Adrenocorticotrophic hormone (ACTH) Luteinizing hormone (LH) and follicle stimulating hormone (FSH) Growth hormone (GH) Inhibits GH secretion Inhibits prolactin secretion Aldosterone (salt) Cortisol (sugar) Androgens (sex) NE:Epi (1:4) If the zona glomerulosa were removed from the adrenal gland, what would be seen?

Decrease in Na+ causing a decrease in the ECF volume, leading to a decrease in BP, What does subatmospheric pressure and eventually to circulatory shock and (negative) do to the lungs? death Terminal bronchioles (No gas exchange It causes them to expand (because of the occurs here.) Where is there summation, decrease in intrathoracic pressure) Where hyperpolarization of the postsynaptic is the last conducting zone of the lungs? membrane, an increase in Cl- conductance, and local gradation? Inhibitory postsynaptic potential (IPSP) Macula densa Insulin-like growth factor-1 (IGF-1) The total air in and out of the respiratory system per minute is known as what? Which extravascular chemoreceptor detects low NaCI concentrations? What is the major stimulus for cell division in chondroblasts? The total ventilation (minute volume or minute ventilation)

What is the major hormone secreted by the 17 alpha-Estradiol ovarian follicle?

What two conditions cause ADH to be released? What cell converts androgens to estrogens? What hormone acts on this cell? What three lung volumes cannot be measured with a spirometer? What two conditions decrease the secretion of aldosterone? What cell in the female genitourinary system is stimulated by LH and is the site where androgens are produced? What serves as a marker of endogenous insulin secretions? What do you have when there is depolarization of the postsynaptic membrane owing to an influx of Na+, resulting in summation and local gradation?

1. Low blood volume 2. Elevated plasma volume (high solute concentration) Granulosa cell FSH 1. Residual volume 2. Total lung capacity 3. Functional residual capacity 1. An increase in blood pressure 2. Weightlessness Thecal cell C peptide

Excitatory postsynaptic potential (EPSP)

What are days 15 to 28 in the female cycle Luteal phase known as? What hormone is secreted by the Sertoli cells to decrease FSH production? What hormone regulates osmolarity because it controls water excretion? What is the term for the air in the system after maximal inspiration? What is a sign of a Sertoli cell tumor in a man? Inhibin ADH (It causes water reabsorption.) Total lung capacity (TLC) Excess estradiol in the blood

What hormone is responsible for the negative feedback onto LH and FSH of the Estrogen anterior pituitary and positive feedback onto the granulosa cells? What is the term for the total dead space of Physiologic dead space The surge of what the lungs? hormone induces ovulation? LH It collapses them. Inspiratory reserve volume (IRV) What does positive pressure do to the lungs? What is the term for the air that can be taken in after normal inspiration? What is the first zone of the lungs that is

capable of O2 exchange? Respiratory bronchioles (because they have alveoli) Alveolar dead space What is the term for ventilation of underperfused alveoli? What is the temperature of the scrotum?

4 degrees cooler than the body How is the By a countercurrent heat exchanger in the lower temperature of the testes spermatic cord maintained? What happens to sex steroids, LH, and FSH: If the gonads are removed? What happens to sex steroids, LH, and FSH: In postmenopausal women? What happens to sex steroids, LH, and FSH: After the administration of testosterone? What happens to sex steroids, LH, and FSH: After the administration of inhibin? What happens to sex steroids, LH, and FSH: With constant infusion of GnRH? What region of the lungs is incapable of gas exchange? What is the term for the amount of air that can never leave the lungs? If you increase the depth of breathing, what ventilatory parameters can be increased? If you increase the rate of breathing, what ventilatory parameters can be increased? Sex steroids decrease; LH increases; FSH increases. Sex steroids decrease; LH increases; FSH increases. Sex steroids increase; LH decreases; nothing happens to FSH. Nothing happens to sex steroids; nothing happens to LH; FSH decreases. Sex steroids decrease; LH decreases; FSH decreases (needs to be given pulsatile). Anatomic dead space Residual volume Total ventilation and alveolar ventilation Total ventilation

What is the term for the air left in the lungs Functional residual capacity (FRC) after normal expiration? The lung volume from maximum inspiration Vital capacity (VC) to maximum expiration is known as what? Where is renin produced? What phase of the female cycle occurs during days 1 to 15? What hormone level peaks 1 day before the surge of LH and FSH in the female cycle? What is the day after the LH surge in the In the juxtaglomerular ( JG) cells of the kidney Follicular phase Estradiol Ovulation

female cycle known as? By what mechanism does chronic constriction keep blood flow through the penis low during non-aroused states? Days 1 to 7 of the female cycle are known as what? Alpha-Adrenergic mediated constriction Menses

The amount of air that enters or leaves the respiratory system in a single respiratory Tidal volume cycle is known as what? What part of the autonomic nervous system is responsible for the movement of Sympathetic nervous system semen through the vas deferens and related structures? Which pancreatic cells secrete glucagon? Which pancreatic cells secrete somatostatin? What term describes how easily a vessel stretches? What is the most compliant artery in the body? What is the best way to regulate mean arterial pressure? What is the term for resistance to ventricular outflow? What is the main determinant of resistance? What is the relationship between Na+ reabsorption and O2 consumption? What vessels have the greatest crosssectional area? What is the nontitratable acid that buffers secreted H+ in the kidney buffered as? What are the five ways to promote turbulent flow? What part of the cardiovascular system has the lowest drop in pressure? What vessels are the resistance vessels and have the largest drop in pressure? Alpha cells Delta cells Compliance (pulse pressure is inversely proportional to compliance) Aorta Via total peripheral resistance (TPR) Afterload The radius of the vessel (also the viscosity and length) An increase in Na+ causes Oz consumption to increase. Capillaries NH4+ (ammonium). H2PO4 (dihydrogen phosphate) is the titratable acid that buffers secreted H+. 1. Increase velocity 2. Branching 3. Narrow orifice 4. Increase tube diameter 5. Decrease viscosity Right atrium Arterioles

What part of the autonomic nervous system is the main controller of blood flow when a person is at rest? What process occurs when hydrostatic pressure exceeds plasma oncotic pressure? What vessels have the greatest blood volume? What vessels have the smallest total cross-sectional area? What is the only way to increase O2 delivery to the myocardium?

Sympathetic nervous system (alpha constricts, beta-2 dialates. Filtration Systemic veins of the lower extremities The aorta, then the vena cava Increase the blood flow

It decreases. Sympathetics decrease What happens to airway resistance during resistance; parasympathetics increase inspiration? resistance. What is the main drive for ventilation? Where does depolarization in the heart begin? Where is the greatest venous PO2 in resting tissue? The PCO2 of systemic circulation From the apex to the base and from the endocardium to the epicardium Renal circulation

The load on the muscle in the relaxed state Preload (also the end-diastolic volume is known as what? [EDV]) What cells of the heart have the highest rate of automaticity? What are the slowest conducting cells of the heart? What is the main control of flow in exercising muscle? During what phase of the cardiac cycle do coronary vessels receive their blood flow? Sinoatrial (SA) nodal cells Atrioventricular (AV) nodal cells Vasodilator metabolites Diastole

On the venous pressure curve, what do the Atrial contraction, Ventricular contraction, following waves represent -a wave, -c Atrial filling (venous filling) Atrial wave, -v wave? contraction, Venous What causes the second heart sound? Where is the second heart sound on an EKG? What causes the diastolic interval to decrease? What happens to cerebral circulation Aortic closure At the T wave Increase in the heart rate Blood flow increases because PCO2 is

during hypoventilation?

increased. (The opposite occurs during hyperventilation.) Alveolar ventilation (Hyperventilation decreases PaCO2 and vice versa. Body metabolism also affects PaCO2') 100 mmHg 40 mmHg 40 mmHg 47 mmHg 1. Increase preload (EDV) 2. Decrease end-systolic volume (ESV)

What is the main factor affecting PaCO2? What are the normal values for: PaO2? What are the normal values for: PaCO2? What are the normal values for: PvO2? What are the normal values for: PvCO2? What are the two ways to increase stroke volume?

What is the main factor that determines the Hydrostatic pressure glomerular filtration rate (GFR)? What is the normal value for the GFR? What happens to pulmonary blood flow under conditions of low alveolar PO2? What is the normal compensatory mechanism for a state of metabolic alkalosis? 120 ml/min A decrease in blood flow secondary to vasoconstriction Hypoventilation (respiratory acidosis)

What anion is excreted in large amounts in the urine in a patient with a compensated Bicarbonate (alkaline urine) alkalosis? Which hormone affects the osmolarity? What are the sympathetic effects on the kidney? What are the effects of angiotensin II on the kidney? ADH A decrease in GFR and an increase in filtration fraction: FF = GFR/RPF. (There is a larger decrease in the RPF than the GFR, resulting in an increase in the filtration fraction.) Constriction of the efferent arterioles

1. Increased slope of action potential 2. What four changes occur with an increase Increased peak left ventricular pressure 3. in contractility? Increased rate of relaxation 4. Decreased systolic interval What fibers of the heart have the lowest intrinsic rate of automaticity? What causes the first heart sound, and when does it occur on an EKG? What is the main determining factor of Purkinje fibers Mitral valve closure at the QRS complex Renal plasma flow (decreases flow;

filtration fraction?

increases filtration fraction)

What is the normal osmolarity of the filtrate 300 mOsm in the renal tubule? What prohibits the filtering of protein anions into the renal tubule? What are the fastest conducting fibers in the heart? From which point to which point does repolarization travel in the heart? What are the three characteristics of autoregulation? What is/are the major autoregulators of: Cerebral circulation? What is/are the major autoregulators of: Coronary circulation? What is/are the major autoregulators of: Exercising skeletal muscle? What process occurs if the capillary oncotic pressure is greater than the hydrostatic pressure? What area of the circulatory system houses the greatest blood velocity? What two things happen to cutaneous circulation when the sympathetic nervous system is stimulated? Adenosine in the kidney, decreased PO2 in the lungs, and thromboxane A2 (TXA2) have what effect in the circulation? What is the period when higher than normal stimulation is required to induce a second action potential? During an action potential, what is the stimulus for opening the Na+ channels? What substance "affects" the action potential? What substance "affects" the resting membrane potential? In which direction do osmotically active The negative charge on the filtration membrane Purkinje fibers From the base to the apex and from the epicardium to the endocardium (opposite of depolarization) 1. Flow independent of BP 2. Flow proportional to local metabolism 3. Flow independent of nervous reflexes Increase in PCO2 Decrease in PO2; increase in PCO2 and adenosine Lactate Reabsorption Aorta 1. Constriction of arterioles to decrease blood flow 2. Constriction of the venous plexus to decrease the blood volume Vasoconstriction

Relative refractory period Depolarization Na+ conductance K+ conductance Toward them

substances cause water to move? What are the three tracers for total body water? What are the three characteristics of an action potential? In what system is the second greatest blood volume found? What are the four ways to increase total peripheral resistance (TPR)? What type of system is a high resistance system with flow equal at all points and where total resistance is the SUM of the individual resistances? 1. Urea 2. Thiourea 3. Titrated water 1. All or none 2. Propagated 3. No summation Pulmonary system 1. Decrease the radius 2. Increase the viscosity 3. Increase the length 4. Decrease the number of parallel channels Vessels connected in a series

What effect on a blood vessel does each of the following have: histamine, bradykinin, prostaglandins (A2, E2, I2), nitric oxide, Vasodilatory effect adenosine, an increase in K+, H+, PCO2 and a decrease in PO2? What are three characteristics of a subthreshold potential? What is the depolarization phase of an action potential caused by? 1. Graded 2. Summation 3. Not propagated Na+ influx

If the ventilation-perfusion ratio is less than The base, because flow exceeds delivery of 1, what part of the lung is involved and O2 what physiologic process is occurring? How do you compensate for metabolic acidosis? Hyperventilate (respiratory alkalosis)

How many liters of water are there in: Total 42 L body water? How many liters of water are there in: ICF? 28 L How many liters of water are there in: ECF? How many liters of water are there in: Plasma volume? What hormone affects fluid volume? The repolarization phase of the action potential is caused by what? 14 L

How many liters of water are there in: ISF? 10.5 L 3.5 L Aldosterone (Na+ content determines the volume of the plasma.) K+ efflux (depolarization opens the gates)

What is the name of the period in which, no matter how strong the stimulus, a second action potential cannot be generated? What hormone is necessary to maintain normal thyroid hormone levels? What region of the lung has the greatest blood flow?

Absolute refractory period

GH The base

During inspiration, which region of the lung receives the greatest level of ventilation: The base the apex or the base? What is the function of the stretch receptors in the lungs? Where does the inherent rhythm for respiration originate? Where is the deep breathing center located? To prevent overdistention of the lungs (inhibits inspiration) In the medullary center of the medullary oblongata Apneustic center in the pons

What type of system is a low-resistance system in which the total resistance is always less than any individual resistance, System connected in parallel and the reciprocal of the total resistance is the sum of the reciprocal resistances? What is happening to the renal arteriole in each of the following situations: Increased GFR, increased glomerular pressure, decreased RPF, increased FF? Constriction of efferent arteriole

What is happening to the renal arteriole in each of the following situations: Decreased Dilatation of the efferent arteriole GFR, increased RPF, decreased glomerular pressure, decreased FF? What is happening to the renal arteriole in each of the following situations: Decreased Constriction of the afferent arteriole GFR, decreased RPF, decreased glomerular pressure? What is happening to the renal arteriole in each of the following situations: Increased GFR, increased RPF, increased glomerular pressure? Which region in the lungs gives the best ventilation - perfusion ratio? Dilatation of the afferent arteriole

The hilum

What causes peripheral chemoreceptors to A decrease in die arterial PO2, H+, and

be stimulated? What is secreted by the parafollicular C cells of the thyroid? What is the titrated acid that the secreted H+ is buffered as? What type of dehydration is associated with hemorrhage, burns, vomiting, and diarrhea? What is the potential at which concentrations are equal and opposite to the electrical forces, and also at which there is no net flux of ions across the membrane? What hydration state is caused by the ingestion of salt water? What is the free water clearance if the osmolarity of urine is greater than 300 mOsm?

PCO2 of the normal drive for ventilation) Calcitonin H2PO4 Isotonic dehydration

Equilibrium potential (Nernst's equation)

Hypertonic overhydration Negative free water clearance (concentrated urine)

What is the term for the process of water traveling from a low solute to a high solute Osmosis concentration? What three factors increase simple diffusion? What type of dehydration is associated with Addison's disease? When is GH released? What is protein-mediated transportation down a concentration gradient known as? What determines the level of alveolar ventilation? Which point in the lungs is involved if the ventilation - perfusion ratio is greater than 1? 1. Increased solubility 2. Increased concentration gradient 3. Decreased thickness of the membrane Hypotonic dehydration At night and during puberty Facilitated transport Central chemoreceptors (PCO2) Apex

Why is the V-P ratio in the apex of the lung Delivery exceeds the flow greater than 1? How is CO2 carried in the blood? To what hydrated state can excess ingestion of water or syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone As plasma bicarbonate Hypotonic overhydration

(SIADH) lead? What are the four major anabolic hormones? What are the eight insulin INdependent tissues? 1. Insulin 2. Thyroid hormone 3. GH 4. Sex steroids 1. CNS 2. RBCs 3. Renal tubules 4. Testis 5. Teeth 6. cells 7. Liver 8. Intestinal epithelium

What are the growth factors released from Somatomedins the liver called? What state of hydration would you be in if you had edema and if you ingested an excessive amount of salt? What type of cell lays down bone? What is the only condition in which giving enriched O2 will not significantly increase PaO2? What is the biologically active form of thyroid hormone? For how many months can you store thyroid hormone? What is the ratio of T4 to T3? What type of cell is surrounded by mineralized bone? What type of dehydration is associated with excess sweating, decreased water intake, fever, alcoholism, lithium salts, excess evaporation, and diabetes insipidus? During what part of the cardiac cycle do you hear: Aortic stenosis? During what part of the cardiac cycle do you hear: Mitral stenosis? During what part of the cardiac cycle do you hear: Mitral regurgitation? During what part of the cardiac cycle do you hear: Aortic regurgitation? Isotonic overhydration Osteoblast Remember: Blasts make; clasts take. Pulmonary shunt T3 2 to 3 months 20:01 Osteocvte

Hypertonic dehydration

Systole Diastole Systole (pan) Diastole

1. Surface area 2. Thickness of the What four factors affect the rate of diffusion membrane 3. Concentration gradient 4. for any process? Solubility (main factor) What does a decrease in GH in Dwarfism

adolescence lead to? What type of transportation requires ATP and is protein mediated against a concentration gradient? What does an increase in GH in adolescence lead to? What gas has a low driving force but high solubility? What are two causes of diffusion impairment in the lungs? What is evident in the urinalysis of a compensated acidotic patient? What does angiotensin II do to restore blood pressure? When is systemic venous blood delivered to the left side of the heart without O2 exchange in the alveoli? What gas has a high driving force and low solubility? In what type of shunt do you see an increase in right atrial, ventricular, and pulmonary arterial PO2, along with an increase in pulmonary blood flow? Primary active transportation Gigantism CO2 1. Decrease in surface area 2. Increase in membrane thickness (PAO2 > PaO2) Low HCO3 - excretion (acidotic) It has a direct vasoconstrictive effect. In a pulmonary shunt O2

Left-to-right shunt

What causes Ca+ and PO4 to be reabsorbed from the kidney and Ca+ and Vitamin D3 PO4 to be absorbed from the GI tract, and also promotes bone synthesis? What does excess secretion of GH in an adult lead to? Acromegaly

The rate at which a substance is filtered Filtered load rate (GFR X plasma into Bowman's capsule is known as what? concentration) What part of the nephron has the greatest osmolarity? At what region of the nephron does H+/HCO3 - exchange occur? Tip of the loop of Henle (1200 mOsm) Distal tubule

During what type of heart block do the atria and the ventricles beat independently of Third-degree heart block each other? What is the length of systole on a pressure From the beginning of the isovolumic curve? contraction (IVC) to the beginning of the

isovolumic relaxation (IVR) From which point to which point does it appear on an EKG? What are the four features of aortic stenosis? When is surface tension the greatest in a respiratory cycle? What type of transportation requires ATP, can be co- or countertransport, and is a protein-mediated transport with a concentration gradient? What lung pathology is associated with a decrease in FEV1/FVC? What is the most important factor in describing lung recoil? What is the free water clearance if the osmolarity of urine is less than 300 mOsm? What four characteristics are common to all protein-mediated transportation? From the QRS to the T wave (S1 to S2) 1. Increase in afterload 2. Increase in LV pressure 3. Increase in the pressure gradient between the LV and the aorta 4. Crescendo-decrescendo systolic ejection murmur (early systolic ejection click) At the end of inspiration

Secondary active transportation

COPD (obstructive) Surface tension (also fibers of tissue) Positive free water clearance (dilute urine) 1. More rapid than diffusion 2. Zero-order kinetics 3. Chemical specificity 4. Competition for carriers

What causes an increase in Na+ and water loss from the kidney by increasing GFR, Atrial natriuretic factor (ANF) released from stimulated by stress and high Na+ the right atrium concentrations? What growth factors are chondrogenic, working on the epiphyseal end plates of bone? What causes an increase in Ca+ reabsorption from the distal tubule, a decrease in PO4 reabsorption from the kidney, and an increase in Ca+ and PO4 reabsorption from the GI tract? If a patient is irritated, excited, and emotionally unstable and has overall symptoms of -adrenergic stimulation, would you assume that this patient is hyperthyroidic or hypothyroidic? Somatomedins (insulin-like growth factor type 1[IGF-1])

Parathyroid hormone (PTH)

Hyperthyroidic

What is needed for proper postnatal and perinatal mental growth and also for proper Thyroid hormone bone ossification and GH secretion? What type of heart block is associated with slowed conduction through the AV node First-degree heart block and PR intervals greater than 0.21 second? What two occurrences cause an increase in the force of contraction? What are three features of mural regurgitation? What is the length of diastole on a pressure curve, and where is it on an EKG? What are the three features of aortic regurgitation? What are the three features of mitral stenosis? What type of heart block is characterized by: Progressive lengthening of the P-R interval until there is failure of the impulse to be transmitted? 1. Increase in preload 2. Increase in contractility by increased intracellular Ca+ 1. Increase in v wave 2. Increase in preload 3. Increase in atrial pressure and volume From the beginning of the IVR to the beginning of the IVC, and from the T wave to the QRS complex (S2 to Sl) 1. Increase in preload 2. Increase in systolic pressure 3. Decrease in aortic diastolic pressure 1. Increase in a wave 2. Decrease in LV filling 3. Increase in atrioventricular pressure Second-degree heart block, Wenckebach (Mobitz type I)

What type of heart block is characterized by: Constant P-R interval but with an Second-degree heart block, nonoccasional failure of conduction, resulting Wenckebach (Mobitz type II) in an atrial rate greater than the ventricular rate? 1. Increased compliance 2. Decreased What are the three functions of surfactant? surface tension 3. Decreased probability of pulmonary edema formation More negative intrathoracic pressure Promotes systemic venous return into the causes what to happen to systemic venous chest and increases the caliber and volume return and what to the pulmonary vessels? of the pulmonary vessels What four factors cause the oxygenhemoglobin dissociation curve to shift to the right? What part of respiration, on a pressure volume curve, acts "like the chest wall"? Excretion" is the transport maximum (Tm) 1. Increased PCO2 2. Decreased pH 3. Increased 2,3-BPG 4. Increased temperature Inspiration (collapse is due to elastic recoil) "Secretion + filtration = Paraaminohippurate (PAH)

for what substance? What has happened if the amount filtered and the amount excreted per unit time are the same? Nothing; there has been no tubular modification.

What happens to the following parameters Decrease (obstructive); increase in an obstructive versus restrictive lung (restrictive) problem: Lung recoil? What happens to the following parameters Increase (obstructive); decrease in an obstructive versus restrictive lung (restrictive) problem: FRO? What happens to the following parameters Increase (obstructive); decrease in an obstructive versus restrictive lung (restrictive) problem: TLC? What happens to the following parameters Decrease (obstructive); decrease in an obstructive versus restrictive lung (restrictive) problem: FVC? What happens to the following parameters Decrease (obstructive); decrease in an obstructive versus restrictive lung (restrictive) problem: FEVI? What happens to the following parameters Decrease (obstructive); increase in an obstructive versus restrictive lung (restrictive) problem: Peak flow? What happens to the following parameters Increase (obstructive); decrease in an obstructive versus restrictive lung (restrictive) problem: RV? What hormone increases reabsorption of Na+ by the principal cells and promotes Aldosterone excretion of H+ and K+ by the intercalated cells of the kidney? What three situations cause the renninangiotensin-aldosterone axis to fire? What pathology is associated with low ACTH levels and high levels of cortisol? 1. A decrease in blood pressure in the afferent arteriole 2. Low Na+ levels at the macula densa 3. 1-Sympathetic nervous system input Cushing's syndrome (adrenal)

When do you see low urine flow, high urine osmolarity, high ECF volume, low ECF SIADH (water retention) osmolarity (low Na+), high ICF volume, and low ICF osmolarity? What is the term for the process in which excretion is less than the filtered load? Net positive reabsorption (glucose, Na+, urea)

What has happened when everything that is filtered is reabsorbed until the carriers The transport maximum has been reached are saturated and the excess is excreted in (Tm glucose = 375 mg/min). the urine? What four factors cause aldosterone to be released? 1. Conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II 2. Hyperkalemia 3. Hyponatremia 4. A decrease in blood volume

What disease state includes buffalo hump, moon fades, hyperglycemia, hyperlipidemia, hypertension, Cushing's disease hypokalemia, osteoporosis, and thinning of the hair? What condition involves high urine flow, low urine osmolarity, low ECF volume, high Diabetes insipidus (lose water) ECF osmolarity, low ICF volume, and high ICF osmolarity? Which condition involves elevated ACTH and cortisol levels? Which condition involves high ACTH, low cortisol, high ADH, elevated renin levels, hypotension, and low body hair? What process has taken place in the kidney when excretion is greater than the filtered load? Cushing's disease (pituitary tumor) Addison's disease (primary adrenal insufficiency) Net negative secretion (PAH, creatinine)