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Project Management

Total Questions : 50 59 min 45 secs


Project Management Name

Q.1)
Which of the following best describes a project scope statement? A. Description of project deliverablesB. Authorizing document that allows the project to startC. Managing all of the required work and only the required work D. Planning and executing all of the required work

Q.2)
What is the advantage of JIT or Just in Time? A. It requires material to be readily availableB. It allows the project team to have control over the materialsC. It decreases the inventory investmentD. It allows for a broad range of deviation compared to other solutions

Q.3)
Which knowledge area includes the creation of a project charter? A. Scope ManagementB. Cost ManagementC. Integration ManagementD. Communications Management

Q.4)
Benchmarking is not about A. Copying ideasB.

Tool for improvementC. Measuring against industry practicesD. None of the above

Q.5)
SNET, SNLT, FNLT are examples of A. Costing techniquesB. ConstraintsC. Procurement modelsD. Risk models

Q.6)
QA is a _______ process A. ManagementB. Project ManagerC. AuditD. Inspection

Q.7)
What is the difference between a standard and a regulation? A. Standards and regulations are sameB. Standards are regulated by specific institutes; Regulations are lawC. Standards are optional; Regulations are requiredD. Standards are required; Regulations are law

Q.8)
Communication plan includes the following A. Project GlossaryB. Escalation proceduresC.

Format, content and details of what needs to be communicatedD. All of the above

Q.9)
Project feasibility studies are sometimes treated as projects in themselves. A. 'TrueB. 'FalseC. Depends on the company situationD. Depends on the project manager

Q.10)
How can risks be transferred? A. Using InsuranceB. Using GuaranteesC. Setting a Quality Management Plan in placeD. Using Fixed Price Contracts

Q.11)
What can be done in case a team cannot meet given location issues? A. TeleconferencingB. Postpone MeetingC. Cancel meetingD. Meet in a smaller group

Q.12)
When does lessons learnt identification take place? A. At the end of the projectB. At the end of each project phaseC.

Throughout the project life cycleD. Whenever a lesson is learnt

Q.13)
Information from the initiating phase is an input into which of the following phases? A. PlanningB. ExecutingC. ControllingD. All phases

Q.14)
As a project manager you created a scope document which over the last two months has evolved providing greater detail. This is an example of A. DecompositionB. Scope verificationC. Scope creepD. Progressive Elaboration

Q.15)
Your project is behind schedule and with management's approval you are seeking to crash the critical path. This process adds to A. CostB. TimeC. RiskD. Documentation

Q.16)
A contractor is billing Rs 1200 per hr plus material. This is an example of A. Cost plus fixed feeB. Time and materialC.

Unit priceD. Lump sum

Q.17)
A project must be completed in 6 months. This is an example of A. ScheduleB. AssumptionC. ConstraintD. Planning Process

Q.18)
In a control chart the zone between the limits represents A. Random variationB. VariationC. Non random variationD. None of the above

Q.19)
A project has a budget of Rs 290000 and will last 3 years. It is 10% complete and on schedule. What is the BAC? A. '29000B. '290000C. '96666D. '9666

Q.20)
Which of the following can best help a project manager during project execution? A. Stakeholder AnalysisB. Change Control BoardsC. PMISD.

Scope verification

Q.21)
A heuristic is a A. GuidelineB. RegulationC. A regulation internal to an organizationD. A best practice to implement an activity

Q.22)
If there are 10 stakeholders, total number of channels are A. '45B. '55C. '50D. '60

Q.23)
Which business philosophy can help continuously improve products, services and practices? A. TQMB. ASQC. QAD. QC

Q.24)
Which one of the following is not an attribute of bottom up estimating? A. People doing the work create the estimatesB. It creates a more accurate estimateC. It is more expensive form of estimatingD.

It is less expensive form of estimating

Q.25)
Which is the most important stakeholder involved with a project? A. Project ManagerB. Project SponsorC. CEOD. Customer

Q.26)
Direct costs are A. Attributed to more than 1 projectB. Vary according to external conditionsC. Remain constantD. Attributed directly to the project

Q.27)
A single source seller means A. There is only one qualified sellerB. There is only one seller the company wishes to do business withC. There is one seller that can provide all aspects of procurement needs D. There is one seller in the market

Q.28)
The lessons learnt document is created by which of the following? A. CustomersB. Project SponsorC. Project TeamD. Stakeholders

Q.29)
Normal curve is shaped as a A. Bell curveB. U curveC. S curveD. Straight Line

Q.30)
Which network diagram type can use dummy activities? A. Project Network DiagramB. Precedence Diagram MethodC. Activity on the node methodD. Arrow Diagram method

Q.31)
In project selection, which is the most important factor? A. Business needsB. ConstraintsC. BudgetD. Schedule

Q.32)
What is the chart that defines responsibility, accountability, consultation and information within team called? A. RACI chartB. Organizational chartC. Assignment Matrix chartD. None of the above

Q.33)
Your customer is anxious about the success of a particular project. Which is not a top concern for the customer? A. Project priorityB. ScheduleC. CostD. Personality conflicts

Q.34)
Which of the following is responsible for the quality of the deliverables? A. Project championB. Project teamC. StakeholdersD. Customers

Q.35)
Which of the following is not true about change requests? A. Take place during the projectB. Always require additional fundingC. Can be written or verbalD. Can be requested by a stakeholder

Q.36)
Which is likely to be part of operations? A. Providing electricity to the communityB. Designing an electrical gridC. Building a new damD. Informing the public about changes in the electrical company

Q.37)
When is it appropriate to accept a project risk? A. It is never appropriateB. All risks must be mitigated or transferredC. Only if project team has not completed this type of project work beforeD. Only if risk is in balance with the reward of accepting the risk

Q.38)
Which of the following best describes QA? A. QA is quality assurance for overall project performanceB. QA is quality acceptance according to scope verificationC. QA is quality assurance for project deliverablesD. QA is quality assurance for project stakeholders

Q.39)
Time and labour required to complete a task are defined by A. Activity listsB. Activity resource requirementsC. Activity attributesD. Resource capabilities

Q.40)
Which process is most concerned with mitigation? A. Quality PlanningB. Risk response planningC. Procurement planningD. Risk identification

Q.41)

You had 19 stakeholders on a project and 3 more are added. How many more channels are there compared to earlier? A. '171B. '231C. '60D. '1

Q.42)
What is the present value if organization expects to make Rs 100000 four years from now at annual interest rate of 6 percent A. '100000B. '58000C. '25000D. '0

Q.43)
Gold plating is A. Providing excellent customer serviceB. Process of adding features to drive up costsC. Another name for Zero DefectD. None of the above

Q.44)
Original model serving as an example is also known as A. Proof of conceptB. PrototypeC. First BuildD. None of the above

Q.45)

Organizational assets come in the form of A. Historical informationB. PeopleC. ExpertiseD. Clients

Q.46)
QC is a _______ process A. ManagementB. Project ManagerC. AuditD. Inspection

Q.47)
The project life cycle is comprised of the following A. PhasesB. MilestonesC. EstimatesD. Activities

Q.48)
Which of the following does the project plan not provide a baseline for? A. ScopeB. CostC. ScheduleD. Control

Q.49)
Which is not a method by which a project manager can present project performance? A.

HistogramsB. S curvesC. Bar chartsD. RACI charts

Q.50)
The authority level of a project manager in a classical functional organization can be described as A. LowB. ModerateC. BalancedD. High
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