1. The theory of radio waves was originated by: a. Marconi c. Maxwell b. Bell d. Hertz ANS: C 2.

The person who sent the first radio signal across the Atlantic ocean was: a. Marconi c. Maxwell b. Bell d. Hertz ANS: A 3. The transmission of radio waves was first done by: a. Marconi c. Maxwell b. Bell d. Hertz ANS: D 4. A complete communication system must include: a. a transmitter and receiver b. a transmitter, a receiver, and a channel c. a transmitter, a receiver, and a spectrum analyzer d. a multiplexer, a demultiplexer, and a channel ANS: B 5. Radians per second is equal to: a. 2p f c. the phase angle b. f 2p d. none of the above ANS: A 6. The bandwidth required for a modulated carrier depends on: a. the carrier frequency c. the signal-plus-noise to noise ratio b. the signal-to-noise ratio d. the baseband frequency range ANS: D 7. When two or more signals share a common channel, it is called: a. sub-channeling c. SINAD b. signal switching d. multiplexing ANS: D 8. TDM stands for: a. Time-Division Multiplexing c. Time Domain Measurement b. Two-level Digital Modulation d. none of the above ANS: A 9. FDM stands for: a. Fast Digital Modulation c. Frequency-Division Multiplexing b. Frequency Domain Measurement d. none of the above ANS: C 10. The wavelength of a radio signal is: a. equal to f c b. equal to c l c. the distance a wave travels in one period d. how far the signal can travel without distortion ANS: C 11. Distortion is caused by: a. creation of harmonics of baseband frequencies b. baseband frequencies "mixing" with each other c. shift in phase relationships between baseband frequencies d. all of the above ANS: D 12. The collection of sinusoidal frequencies present in a modulated carrier is called its: a. frequency-domain representation c. spectrum b. Fourier series d. all of the above ANS: D 13. The baseband bandwidth for a voice-grade (telephone) signal is: a. approximately 3 kHz c. at least 5 kHz b. 20 Hz to 15,000 Hz d. none of the above ANS: A 14. Noise in a communication system originates in: a. the sender c. the channel b. the receiver d. all of the above ANS: D

15. "Man-made" noise can come from: a. equipment that sparks c. static b. temperature d. all of the above ANS: A 16. Thermal noise is generated in: a. transistors and diodes c. copper wire b. resistors d. all of the above ANS: D 17. Shot noise is generated in: a. transistors and diodes c. copper wire b. resistors d. none of the above ANS: A 18. The power density of "flicker" noise is: a. the same at all frequencies c. greater at low frequencies b. greater at high frequencies d. the same as "white" noise ANS: C 19. So called "1/f" noise is also called: a. random noise c. white noise b. pink noise d. partition noise ANS: B 20. "Pink" noise has: a. equal power per Hertz c. constant power b. equal power per octave d. none of the above ANS: B 21. When two noise voltages, V1 and V2, are combined, the total voltage VT is: a. VT = sqrt(V1 V1 + V2 V2) c. VT = sqrt(V1 V2) b. VT = (V1 + V2)/2 d. VT = V1 + V2 ANS: A 22. Signal-to-Noise ratio is calculated as: a. signal voltage divided by noise voltage b. signal power divided by noise power c. first add the signal power to the noise power, then divide by noise power d. none of the above ANS: B 23. SINAD is calculated as: a. signal voltage divided by noise voltage b. signal power divided by noise power c. first add the signal power to the noise power, then divide by noise power d. none of the above ANS: D 24. Noise Figure is a measure of: a. how much noise is in a communications system b. how much noise is in the channel c. how much noise an amplifier adds to a signal d. signal-to-noise ratio in dB ANS: C 25. The part, or parts, of a sinusoidal carrier that can be modulated are: a. its amplitude c. its amplitude, frequency, and direction b. its amplitude and frequency d. its amplitude, frequency, and phase angle ANS: D 1. AM stands for: a. Audio Modulation c. Angle Modulation b. Amplitude Modulation d. Antenna Modulation ANS: B 2. The "envelope" of an AM signal is due to: a. the baseband signal c. the amplitude signal b. the carrier signal d. none of the above ANS: A 3. If the audio Va sin(wat) modulates the carrier Vc sin(wct), then the modulation index, m, is: a. m = wa / wc c. m = (Va / Vc)2 b. m = Va / Vc d. m = Va / wa

ANS: B 4. The equation for full-carrier AM is: a. v(t) = (Ec + Em) sin(wct) c. v(t) = (Ec Em) sin(wmt) sin(wct) b. v(t) = (Ec + Em) sin(wmt) + sin(w ct) d. v(t) = (Ec + Em sin(wmt)) sin(wct) ANS: D 5. Overmodulation causes: a. distortion c. both a and b b. splatter d. none of the above ANS: C 6. The peak voltage of an AM signal goes from Emax to Emin. The modulation index, m, is: a. m = Emin / Emax c. m = (Emax Emin) / (Emax + Emin) b. m = Emax / Emin d. m = (Emax + Emin) / (Emax Emin) ANS: C 7. If Va sin(wat) amplitude modulates the carrier Vc sin(wct), it will produce the frequencies: a. wc + wa and wc wa c. wc + wa and 2wc + 2wa b. (wc + wa)/2 and (wc wa)/2 d. none of the above ANS: A 8. At 100% modulation, the total sideband power is: a. equal to the carrier power c. half the carrier power b. twice the carrier power d. 1.414 carrier power ANS: C 9. If a 5-kHz signal modulates a 1-MHz carrier, the bandwidth of the AM signal will be: a. 5 kHz c. 1.005 MHz b. 10 kHz d. none of the above ANS: B 10. If an AM radio station increases its modulation index, you would expect: a. the audio to get louder at the receiver c. the signal-to-noise ratio to increase b. the received RF signal to increase d. all of the above ANS: D 11. The modulation index can be derived from: a. the time-domain signal c. both a and b b. the frequency-domain signal d. none of the above ANS: C 12. The main problem in using quadrature AM would be: a. requires too much bandwidth c. incompatibility with ordinary AM radios b. requires too much power d. all of the above ANS: C 13. As compared to plain AM, SSB AM: a. is more efficient b. requires a more complex demodulator circuit c. requires less bandwidth d. all of the above ANS: D 14. The SC in SSB SC stands for: a. single-carrier c. sideband-carrier b. suppressed-carrier d. none of the above ANS: B 15. PEP stands for: a. Peak Envelope Power c. Peak Envelope Product b. Peak Efficiency Power d. none of the above ANS: A 16. If an SSB transmitter radiates 1000 watts at peak modulation, what will it radiate with no modulation? a. 1000 watts c. 250 watts b. 500 watts d. 0 watts ANS: D 17. Music on AM radio stations is "low-fidelity" because: a. AM is susceptible to noise b. commercial AM stations use low power c. commercial AM stations have a narrow bandwidth d. all of the above ANS: C 18. The type of information that can be sent using AM is:

a. audio c. digital data b. video d. all of the above ANS: D 19. Two tones modulate an AM carrier. One tone causes a modulation index of m1 and the other tone causes a modulation index of m2. The total modulation index is: a. m1 + m2 c. sqrt(m1 m2 + m2 m1) b. (m1 + m2) / 2 d. sqrt(m1 m1 + m2 m2) ANS: D 20. To demodulate a USB SSB signal, the receiver must: a. be set to USB mode c. both a and b b. reinsert the carrier d. none of the above ANS: C 1. The FM modulation index: a. increases with both deviation and modulation frequency b. increases with deviation and decreases with modulation frequency c. decreases with deviation and increases with modulation frequency d. is equal to twice the deviation ANS: B 2. One way to derive FM from PM is: a. integrate the modulating signal before applying to the PM oscillator b. integrate the signal out of the PM oscillator c. differentiate the modulating signal before applying to the PM oscillator d. differentiate the signal out of the PM oscillator ANS: A 3. The bandwidth of an FM signal is considered to be limited because: a. there can only be a finite number of sidebands b. it is equal to the frequency deviation c. it is band-limited at the receiver d. the power in the outer sidebands is negligible ANS: D 4. Mathematically, the calculation of FM bandwidth requires the use of: a. ordinary trigonometry and algebra c. Taylor series b. Bessel functions d. fractals ANS: B 5. FM bandwidth can be approximated by: a. Armstrong's Rule c. Carson's Rule b. Bessel's Rule d. none of the above ANS: C 6. NBFM stands for: a. National Broadcast FM c. Near Band FM b. Non-Broadcast FM d. Narrowband FM ANS: D 7. When FM reception deteriorates abruptly due to noise, it is called: a. the capture effect c. the noise effect b. the threshold effect d. the limit effect ANS: B 8. An FM receiver switching suddenly between two stations on nearby frequencies is called: a. the capture effect c. the "two-station" effect b. the threshold effect d. none of the above ANS: A 9. Pre-emphasis is used to: a. increase the signal to noise ratio for higher audio frequencies b. increase the signal to noise ratio for lower audio frequencies c. increase the signal to noise ratio for all audio frequencies d. allow stereo audio to be carried by FM stations ANS: A 10. A pre-emphasis of 75 ms refers to: a. the time it takes for the circuit to work b. the "dead time" before de-emphasis occurs c. the time delay between the L and R channels d. the time-constant of the filter circuits used

ANS: D 11. FM stereo: a. uses DSBSC AM modulation c. has a higher S/N than mono FM b. is implemented using an SCA signal d. is not compatible with mono FM ANS: A 12. An SCA signal: a. can use amplitude modulation c. is monaural b. can use FM modulation d. all of the above ANS: D 13. The modulation index of an FM signal can be determined readily: a. using measurements at points where J0 equals one b. using measurements at points where J0 equals zero c. using measurements at points where the deviation equals zero d. only by using Bessel functions ANS: B 1. The ability to change operating frequency rapidly without a lot of retuning is called: a. agility c. VFO b. expansion d. spread-spectrum ANS: A 2. The difference between the DC power into a transmitter and the RF power coming out: a. is a measure of efficiency c. may require water cooling b. heats the transmitter d. all of the above ANS: D 3. Baseband compression produces: a. a smaller range of frequencies from low to high b. a smaller range of amplitude from soft to loud c. a smaller number of signals d. none of the above ANS: B 4. ALC stands for: a. Amplitude Level Control c. Accurate Level Control b. Automatic Level Control d. none of the above ANS: B 5. In an AM transmitter, ALC is used to: a. keep the modulation close to 100% c. maximize transmitted power b. keep the modulation below 100% d. all of the above ANS: D 6. With high-level AM: a. all RF amplifiers can be nonlinear c. minimum RF power is required b. minimum modulation power is required d. all of the above ANS: A 7. With high-level AM: a. the RF amplifiers are typically Class A c. the RF amplifiers are typically Class C b. the RF amplifiers are typically Class B d. the RF amplifiers are typically Class AB ANS: C 8. With low-level AM: a. the RF amplifiers must be Class A c. the RF amplifiers must be linear b. the RF amplifiers must be Class B d. the RF amplifiers must be low-power ANS: C 9. Power amplifiers must be linear for any signal that: a. is complex c. has variable frequency b. has variable amplitude d. all of the above ANS: B 10. In high-level AM, "high-level" refers to: a. the power level of the carrier c. the power level of the final RF amplifier b. the power level of the modulation d. none of the above ANS: D 11. In high-level AM, the power in the sidebands comes from: a. the modulating amplifier c. the driver stage b. the RF amplifier d. the carrier ANS: A

12. In an AM transmitter with 100% modulation, the voltage of the final RF stage will be: a. approximately half the DC supply voltage b. approximately twice the DC supply voltage c. approximately four times the DC supply voltage d. none of the above ANS: C 13. Practical transmitters are usually designed to drive a load impedance of: a. 50 ohms resistive c. 300 ohms resistive b. 75 ohms resistive d. 600 ohms resistive ANS: A 14. Which of the following can be used for impedance matching? a. pi network c. both a and b b. T network d. a bridge circuit ANS: C 15. When a transmitter is connected to a resistor instead of an antenna, the resistor is called: a. a heavy load c. a temporary load b. a dummy load d. a test load ANS: B 16. When a transmitter is connected to a resistor instead of an antenna, the resistor must be: a. wire-wound c. 1% tolerance or better b. noninductive d. all of the above ANS: B 17. A Class D amplifier is: a. very efficient c. essentially pulse-duration modulation b. essentially pulse-width modulation d. all of the above ANS: D 18. To generate a SSB signal: a. start with full-carrier AM c. start with a quadrature signal b. start with DSBSC d. all of the above ANS: B 19. The carrier is suppressed in: a. a balanced modulator c. a frequency multiplier b. a mixer d. none of the above ANS: A 20. To remove one AM sideband and leave the other you could use: a. a mechanical filter c. both a and b b. a crystal filter d. none of the above ANS: C 21. A direct FM modulator: a. varies the frequency of the carrier oscillator b. integrates the modulating signal c. both a and b d. none of the above ANS: A 22. An indirect FM modulator: a. requires a varactor in the carrier oscillator b. varies the phase of the carrier oscillator c. both a and b d. none of the above ANS: B 23. AFC stands for: a. Amplitude to Frequency Conversion c. Automatic Frequency Control b. Automatic Frequency Centering d. Audio Frequency Control ANS: C 24. Frequency multipliers are: a. essentially balanced modulators c. essentially mixers b. essentially Class C amplifiers d. none of the above ANS: B 25. With mixing: a. the carrier frequency can be raised b. the carrier frequency can be lowered c. the carrier frequency can be changed to any required value

d. the deviation is altered ANS: C The two basic specifications for a receiver are: a. the sensitivity and the selectivity b. the number of converters and the number of IFs c. the spurious response and the tracking d. the signal and the noise ANS: A 2. The superheterodyne receiver was invented by: a. Foster c. Armstrong b. Seeley d. Hertz ANS: C 3. Trimmers and padders are: a. two types of adjusting tools c. small adjustable inductors b. small adjustable resistors d. small adjustable capacitors ANS: D 4. "Skin effect" refers to: a. the way radio signals travel across a flat surface b. the tissue-burning effect of a strong RF signal c. the increase of wire resistance with frequency d. none of the above ANS: C 5. The "front end" of a receiver can include: a. the tuner c. the mixer b. the RF amplifier d. all of the above ANS: D 6. "IF" stands for: a. intermediate frequency c. indeterminate frequency b. intermodulation frequency d. image frequency ANS: A 7. AGC stands for: a. Audio Gain Control c. Active Gain Control b. Automatic Gain Control d. Active Gain Conversion ANS: B 8. The frequency of the local oscillator: a. is above the RF frequency b. is below the RF frequency c. can be either above of below the RF frequency d. is fixed, typically at 455 kHz. ANS: C 9. The local oscillator and mixer are combined in one device because: a. it gives a greater reduction of spurious responses b. it increases sensitivity c. it increases selectivity d. it is cheaper ANS: D 10. Basically, sensitivity measures: a. the weakest signal that can be usefully received b. the highest-frequency signal that can be usefully received c. the dynamic range of the audio amplifier d. none of the above ANS: A 11. Basically, selectivity measures: a. the range of frequencies that the receiver can select b. with two signals close in frequency, the ability to receive one and reject the other c. how well adjacent frequencies are separated by the demodulator d. how well the adjacent frequencies are separated in the mixer ANS: B 12. When comparing values for shape factor: a. a value of 1.414 dB is ideal c. a value of 1.0 is ideal b. a value of 0.707 is ideal d. there is no ideal value

ANS: C 13. When comparing values for shape factor: a. a value of 2 is better than a value of 4 c. both values are basically equivalent b. a value of 4 is better than a value of 2 d. none of the above ANS: A 14. Distortion in a receiver can occur in: a. the mixer c. the IF amplifiers b. the detector d. all of the above ANS: D 15. Phase distortion is important in: a. voice communications systems c. monochrome video receivers b. color video receivers d. all of the above ANS: B 16. The response of a receiver to weak signals is usually limited by: a. the AGC c. the dynamic range of the receiver b. noise generated in the receiver d. the type of detector circuit being used ANS: B 17. Image frequencies occur when two signals: a. are transmitted on the same frequency b. enter the mixer, with one being a reflected signal equal to the IF frequency c. enter the mixer, one below and one above the local oscillator by a difference equal to the IF d. enter the mixer, and the difference between the two signals is equal to twice the IF ANS: C 18. An image must be rejected: a. prior to mixing c. prior to detection b. prior to IF amplification d. images cannot be rejected ANS: A 19. Image frequency problems would be reduced by: a. having an IF amplifier with the proper shape factor b. having a wideband RF amplifier after the mixer c. having a narrowband RF amplifier before the mixer d. none of the above ANS: C 20. A common AM detector is the: a. PLL c. ratio detector b. envelope detector d. all of the above ANS: B 21. An FM detector is the: a. PLL c. quadrature detector b. ratio detector d. all of the above ANS: D 22. Germanium diodes are used in AM detectors because: a. they are faster than silicon diodes b. they are cheaper than silicon diodes c. they minimize distortion from nonlinearity d. all of the above ANS: C 23. A common SSB detector is: a. a PLL c. a BFO b. a diode d. a product detector ANS: D 24. BFO stands for: a. Beat Frequency Oscillator c. Bipolar Frequency Oscillator b. Barrier Frequency Oscillator d. Bistable Frequency Oscillator ANS: A 25. To demodulate both SSB and DSBSC, you need to: a. use a Foster-Seeley discriminator b. reinject the carrier c. use double conversion d. use one diode for SSB and two diodes for DSBSC ANS: B

26. Which would be best for DSBSC: a. carrier detection c. envelope detection b. coherent detection d. ratio detection ANS: B 27. An FM detector that is not sensitive to amplitude variations is: a. Foster-Seeley detector c. a PLL detector b. a quadrature detector d. all of the above ANS: C 28. The function of a limiter is: a. to remove amplitude variations c. to limit dynamic range b. to limit spurious responses d. to limit noise response ANS: A 29. Suppressing the audio when no signal is present is called: a. AGC c. AFC b. squelch d. limiting ANS: B 30. LNA stands for: a. Limited-Noise Amplifier c. Low-Noise Audio b. Low-Noise Amplifier d. Logarithmic Noise Amplification ANS: B 31. AFC stands for: a. Audio Frequency Compensator c. Automatic Frequency Control b. Autodyne Frequency Compensation d. Autonomous Frequency Control ANS: C 32. The function of AFC is: a. maintain a constant IF frequency b. match the local oscillator to the received signal c. lock the discriminator to the IF frequency d. none of the above ANS: B 33. SAW stands for: a. Symmetrical Audio Wave c. Silicon-Activated Wafer b. Surface Acoustic Wave d. Software-Activated Wave ANS: B 34. The important property of a SAW is: a. it stabilizes the audio in a receiver c. it is a stable bandpass filter b. it allows software radios to be built d. none of the above ANS: C 35. The main function of the AGC is to: a. keep the gain of the receiver constant b. keep the gain of the IF amplifiers constant c. keep the input to the detector at a constant amplitude d. all of the above ANS: C 36. DSP stands for: a. Dynamic Signal Properties c. Distorted Signal Packet b. Direct Signal Phase d. Digital Signal Processor ANS: D 37. SINAD stands for: a. Sinusoidal Amplitude Distortion b. Signal and Noise Amplitude Distortion c. Signal-plus-Noise-to-Noise Ratio d. Signal-plus-Noise and Distortion-to-Noise and Distortion Ratio ANS: D 38. TRF stands for: a. Tuned Radio Frequency c. Transmitted Radio Frequency b. Tracking Radio Frequency d. Tuned Receiver Function ANS: A 1. The first digital code was the: a. ASCII code c. Morse code b. Baudot code d. none of the above

ANS: C 2. In digital transmission, signal degradation can be removed using: a. an amplifier c. a regenerative repeater b. a filter d. all of the above ANS: C 3. TDM stands for: a. Time-Division Multiplexing c. Ten-Digital Manchester b. Time-Domain Multiplexing d. Ten Dual-Manchester ANS: A 4. Hartley's Law is: a. I = ktB c. C = B log2(1 + S/N) b. C = 2B log2M d. SR = 2fmax ANS: A 5. The Shannon-Hartley theorem is: a. I = ktB c. C = B log2(1 + S/N) b. C = 2B log2M d. SR = 2fmax ANS: B 6. The Shannon Limit is given by: a. I = ktB c. C = B log2(1 + S/N) b. C = 2B log2M d. SR = 2fmax ANS: C 7. The Nyquist Rate can be expressed as: a. I = ktB c. C = B log2(1 + S/N) b. C = 2B log2M d. SR = 2fmax ANS: D 8. Natural Sampling does not use: a. a sample-and-hold circuit c. a fixed sample rate b. true binary numbers d. an analog-to-digital converter ANS: A 9. Which is true about aliasing and foldover distortion? a. They are two types of sampling error. b. You can have one or the other, but not both. c. Aliasing is a technique to prevent foldover distortion. d. They are the same thing. ANS: D 10. Foldover distortion is caused by: a. noise c. too few samples per second b. too many samples per second d. all of the above ANS: C 11. The immediate result of sampling is: a. a sample alias c. PCM b. PAM d. PDM ANS: B 12. Which of these is not a pulse-modulation technique: a. PDM c. PPM b. PWM d. PPS ANS: D 13. Quantizing noise (quantization noise): a. decreases as the sample rate increases b. decreases as the sample rate decreases c. decreases as the bits per sample increases d. decreases as the bits per sample decreases ANS: C 14. The dynamic range of a system is the ratio of: a. the strongest transmittable signal to the weakest discernible signal b. the maximum rate of conversion to the minimum rate of conversion c. the maximum bits per sample to the minimum bits per sample d. none of the above ANS: A 15. Companding is used to: a. compress the range of base-band frequencies b. reduce dynamic range at higher bit-rates

c. preserve dynamic range while keeping bit-rate low d. maximize the useable bandwidth in digital transmission ANS: C 16. In North America, companding uses: a. the Logarithmic Law c. the a Law (alpha law) b. the A Law d. the m Law (mu law) ANS: D 17. In Europe, companding uses: a. the Logarithmic Law c. the a Law (alpha law) b. the A Law d. the m Law (mu law) ANS: B 18. Codec stands for: a. Coder-Decoder c. Code-Compression b. Coded-Carrier d. none of the above ANS: A 19. A typical codec in a telephone system sends and receives: a. 4-bit numbers c. 12-bit numbers b. 8-bit numbers d. 16-bit numbers ANS: B 20. Compared to PCM, delta modulation: a. transmits fewer bits per sample c. can suffer slope overload b. requires a much higher sampling rate d. all of the above ANS: D 21. In delta modulation, "granular noise" is produced when: a. the signal changes too rapidly c. the bit rate is too high b. the signal does not change d. the sample is too large ANS: B 22. Compared to PCM, adaptive delta modulation can transmit voice: a. with a lower bit rate but reduced quality c. only over shorter distances b. with a lower bit rate but the same quality d. only if the voice is band-limited ANS: B 23. Which coding scheme requires DC continuity: a. AMI c. unipolar NRZ b. Manchester d. bipolar RZ ANS: C 24. Manchester coding: a. is a biphase code b. has a level transition in the middle of every bit period c. provides strong timing information d. all of the above ANS: D 25. The number of framing bit/s in DS-1 is: a. 1 c. 4 b. 2 d. 8 ANS: A 26. Framing bits in DS-1 are used to: a. detect errors c. synchronize the transmitter and receiver b. carry signaling d. all of the above ANS: C 27. So-called "stolen" bits in DS-1 are used to: a. detect errors c. synchronize the transmitter and receiver b. carry signaling d. all of the above ANS: B 28. The number of bits per sample in DS-1 is: a. 1 c. 4 b. 2 d. 8 ANS: D 29. The number of samples per second in DS-1 is: a. 8 k c. 64 k b. 56 k d. 1.544 106 ANS: A 30. The bit rate for each channel in DS-1 is:

a. 1.544 Mb/s c. 56 kb/s b. 64 kb/s d. 8 kb/s ANS: B 31. In DS-1, bits are transmitted over a T-1 cable at: a. 1.544 MB/s c. 56 kb/s b. 64 kb/s d. 8 kb/s ANS: A 32. A T-1 cable uses: a. Manchester coding c. NRZ coding b. bipolar RZ AMI coding d. pulse-width coding ANS: B 33. The number of frames in a superframe is: a. 6 c. 24 b. 12 d. 48 ANS: B 34. A typical T-1 line uses: a. twisted-pair wire c. fiber-optic cable b. coaxial cable d. microwave ANS: A 35. "Signaling" is used to indicate: a. on-hook/off-hook condition c. ringing b. busy signal d. all of the above ANS: D 36. A vocoder implements compression by: a. constructing a model of the transmission medium b. constructing a model of the human vocal system c. finding redundancies in the digitized data d. using lossless techniques ANS: B 37. Compared to standard PCM systems, the quality of the output of a vocoder is: a. much better c. about the same b. somewhat better d. not as good ANS: D 1. DTMF stands for: a. Digital Telephony Multiple Frequency c. Dual-Tone Multifrequency b. Dial Tone Master Frequency d. Digital Trunk Master Frequency ANS: C 2. PSTN stands for: a. Public Switched Telephone Network c. Primary Service Telephone Network b. Private Switched Telephone Network d. Primary Service Telephone Numbers ANS: A 3. POTS stands for: a. Private Office Telephone System c. Primary Operational Test System b. Primary Office Telephone Service d. Plain Old Telephone Service ANS: D 4. LATA stands for: a. Local Access and Transport Area c. Local Area Telephone Access b. Local Access Telephone Area d. Local Area Transport Access ANS: A 5. A LATA is a: a. a local calling area c. a way of accessing a tandem office b. a type of digital local network d. a way of accessing a central office ANS: A 6. Central offices are connected by: a. local loops c. both a and b b. trunk lines d. none of the above ANS: B 7. Local loops terminate at: a. a tandem office c. a central office b. a toll station d. an interexchange office ANS: C

8. Call blocking: a. cannot occur in the public telephone network b. occurs on the local loop when there is an electrical power failure c. occurs only on long-distance cables d. occurs when the central office capacity is exceeded ANS: D 9. In telephony, POP stands for: a. Post Office Protocol c. Power-On Protocol b. Point Of Presence d. none of the above ANS: B 10. The cable used for local loops is mainly: a. twisted-pair copper wire c. coaxial cable b. shielded twisted-pair copper wire d. fiber-optic ANS: A 11. FITL stands for: a. Framing Information for Toll Loops c. Framing In The Loop b. Fiber In the Toll Loop d. Fiber-In-The-Loop ANS: D 12. Loading coils were used to: a. increase the speed of the local loop for digital data b. reduce the attenuation of voice signals c. reduce crosstalk d. provide C-type conditioning to a local loop ANS: B 13. DC current flows through a telephone: a. when it is on hook c. as long as it is attached to a local loop b. when it is off hook d. only when it is ringing ANS: B 14. The range of DC current that flows through a telephone is: a. 20 mA to 80 mA c. 2 mA to 8 mA b. 200 mA to 800 mA d. 20 mA to 80 mA ANS: D 15. The separation of control functions from signal switching is known as: a. step-by-step switching control c. common control b. crossbar control d. ESS ANS: C 16. The typical voltage across a telephone when on-hook is: a. 48 volts DC c. 90 volts DC b. 48 volts, 20 hertz AC d. 90 volts, 20 hertz AC ANS: A 17. The typical voltage needed to "ring" a telephone is: a. 48 volts DC c. 90 volts DC b. 48 volts, 20 hertz AC d. 90 volts, 20 hertz AC ANS: D 18. The bandwidth of voice-grade signals on a telephone system is restricted in order to: a. allow lines to be "conditioned" c. allow signals to be multiplexed b. prevent "singing" d. all of the above ANS: C 19. VNL stands for: a. voltage net loss c. via net loss b. volume net loss d. voice noise level ANS: C 20. Signal loss is designed into a telephone system to: a. eliminate reflections c. improve signal-to-noise ratio b. prevent oscillation d. reduce power consumption ANS: B 21. The reference noise level for telephony is: a. 1 mW c. 1 pW b. 0 dBm d. 0 dBr ANS: C 22. The number of voice channels in a basic FDM group is: a. 6 c. 24

b. 12 d. 60 ANS: B 23. Basic FDM groups can be combined into: a. supergroups c. jumbogroups b. mastergroups d. all of the above ANS: D 24. In telephone system FDM, voice is put on a carrier using: a. SSB c. PDM b. DSBSC d. PCM ANS: A 25. PABX stands for: a. Power Amplification Before Transmission b. Private Automatic Branch Exchange c. Public Automated Branch Exchange d. Public Access Branch Exchange ANS: B 26. SLIC stands for: a. Single-Line Interface Circuit c. Subscriber Line Interface Card b. Standard Line Interface Card d. Standard Local Interface Circuit ANS: C 27. In DS-1, bits are "robbed" in order to: a. provide synchronization c. cancel echoes b. carry signaling d. check for errors ANS: B 28. "Bit-stuffing" is more formally called: a. compensation c. justification b. rectification d. frame alignment ANS: C 29. ISDN stands for: a. Integrated Services Digital Network c. Integrated Services Data Network b. Information Services Digital Network d. Information Systems Digital Network ANS: A 30. Basic ISDN has not been widely adopted because: a. it took to long to develop b. it is too slow c. it has been surpassed by newer technologies d. all of the above ANS: D 31. ADSL stands for: a. All-Digital Subscriber Line c. Allocated Digital Service Line b. Asymmetrical Digital Subscriber Line d. Access to Data Services Line ANS: B 32. Compared to ISDN, internet access using ADSL is typically: a. much faster c. much more expensive b. about the same speed d. none of the above ANS: A 1. In practical terms, parallel data transmission is sent: a. over short distances only c. over any distance b. usually over long distances d. usually over a coaxial cable ANS: A 2. The five-level teletype code was invented by: a. the Morkum Company c. Western Union b. the Teletype Company d. Emile Baudot ANS: D 3. Data codes are also called: a. character codes c. they do not have any other name b. character sets d. both a and b ANS: C 4. Digital data that is not being used to carry characters is called: a. FIGS data c. numerical data b. binary data d. all of the above

ANS: B 5. Character codes include: a. alphanumeric characters c. graphic control characters b. data link control characters d. all of the above ANS: D 6. ASCII stands for: a. American Standard Character-set 2 b. American Standard Code for Information Interchange c. American Standard Code 2 d. Alphanumeric Standard Code for Information Interchange ANS: B 7. BS, FF, and CR are examples of: a. nonstandard character codes c. control characters b. escape characters d. none of the above ANS: C 8. LF stands for: a. Line Feed c. Line Forward b. Link Feed d. Link Forward ANS: A 9. UART stands for: a. Universal Asynchronous Receiver-Transmitter b. Unidirectional Asynchronous Receiver-Transmitter c. Unaltered Received Text d. Universal Automatic Receiver for Text ANS: A 10. In asynchronous transmission, the transmitter and receiver are: a. frame-by-frame synchronized using the data bits b. frame-by-frame synchronized using a common clock c. frame-by-frame synchronized using the start and stop bits d. not synchronized at all, hence the name "asynchronous" ANS: C 11. In asynchronous transmission, the time between consecutive frames is: a. equal to zero c. equal to the start and stop bit-times b. equal to one bit-time d. not a set length ANS: D 12. In synchronous transmission, the frames are: a. about the same length as ten asynchronous frames b. much longer than asynchronous frames c. 128 bytes long d. 1024 bytes long ANS: B 13. Synchronous transmission is used because: a. no start and stop bits means higher efficiency b. it is cheaper than asynchronous since no UARTS are required c. it is easier to implement than asynchronous d. all of the above ANS: A 14. In synchronous transmission, the receiver "syncs-up" with the transmitter by using: a. the clock bits c. the CRC bits b. the data bits d. a separate clock line ANS: B 15. To maintain synchronization in synchronous transmission: a. long strings of 1s and 0s must not be allowed b. transmission must stop periodically for resynchronization c. the clock circuits must be precisely adjusted d. the channel must be noise-free ANS: A 16. BISYNC: a. is an IBM product c. requires the use of DLE b. is a character-oriented protocol d. all of the above ANS: D 17. HDLC:

a. is an IBM product c. is identical to SDLC b. is a bit-oriented protocol d. all of the above ANS: B 18. The use of flags in SDLC requires: a. "bit-stuffing" c. FEC b. different flags at either end of a frame d. ARQ ANS: A 19. The initials ARQ are used to designate: a. automatic request for resynchronization c. automatic receiver queue b. automatic request for retransmission d. automatic request for queue ANS: B 20. ARQ is used to: a. correct bit errors c. put data into a temporary buffer b. correct synchronization problems d. none of the above ANS: A 21. FEC stands for: a. Fixed Error Control c. Forward Error Correction b. Forward Error Control d. False Error Condition ANS: C 22. VRC is another name for: a. FEC c. LRC b. ARQ d. parity ANS: D 23. CRC stands for: a. Control Receiver Code c. Cyclic Redundancy Check b. Correct Received Character d. Cycle Repeat Character ANS: C 24. Huffman codes: a. allow errors to be detected but not corrected b. allow errors to be detected and corrected c. allow alphanumeric data to be corrected d. allow alphanumeric data to be compressed ANS: D 25. Run-length encoding is used to: a. encrypt data c. correct data b. compress data d. none of the above ANS: B 26. Public-key encryption: a. allows the use of digital signatures c. avoids the "password problem" b. is used to convey symmetric keys d. all of the above ANS: D 27. SDLC stands for: a. Synchronous Data Link Control c. Synchronous Data Link Character b. Synchronous Data Line Control d. Synchronous Data Line Character ANS: A 28. HDLC is: a. a bit-oriented protocol c. an ISO standard b. based on SDLC d. all of the above ANS: D 1. CSMA stands for: a. Client-Server Multi-Access c. Carrier Server Master Application b. Carrier Sense Multiple Access d. none of the above ANS: B 2. The CD in CSMA/CD stands for: a. Carrier Detection c. Collision Detection b. Carrier Delay d. Collision Delay ANS: C 3. The Internet is: a. a network of networks c. a very large CSMA/CD network b. a very large client-server network d. not really a network at all ANS: A

4. Most LANs: a. are based on Ethernet c. use UTP cable b. use CSMA/CD d. all of the above ANS: D 5. Dumb terminals are still used: a. in token-passing networks b. in networks requiring central monitoring c. in networks that cannot provide central monitoring d. none of the above ANS: B 6. In a circuit-switched network: a. communication is half-duplex only b. each channel carries only one data stream c. connection is usually done using a bus topology d. all of the above ANS: B 7. Each computer on a network is called a: a. hub c. node b. token d. circuit ANS: C 8. Compared to CSMA/CD systems, token-passing rings are: a. slower c. not as widely used b. more expensive d. all of the above ANS: D 9. The key feature of a star network is that individual workstations are connected to: a. a central ring c. a node b. a central bus d. none of the above ANS: D 10. On networks, long messages are divided into "chunks" called: a. packets c. carriers b. nodes d. tokens ANS: A 11. When two or more PCs try to access a baseband network cable at the same time, it is called: a. a collision c. excess traffic b. contention d. multiple access ANS: B 12. When two PCs send data over a baseband network cable at the same time, it is called: a. a collision c. excess traffic b. contention d. multiple access ANS: A 13. One type of network that never has a collision is: a. CSMA c. token-passing b. Ethernet d. all networks have collisions ANS: C 14. In an Ethernet-based network, a switch can be used to reduce the number of: a. nodes c. packets b. users d. collisions ANS: D 15. The effect of too many collisions is: a. the network goes down c. the cable overheats b. the network slows down d. data is lost ANS: B 16. MAU stands for: a. Multistation Access Unit c. Multiple Auxiliary Units b. Multiple Access Unit d. none of the above ANS: A 17. The standard that describes Ethernet-type networks is: a. EIA 232 c. IEEE 802.3 b. IEEE 488.1 d. CCITT ITU-E ANS: C 18. Ethernet was invented by: a. IBM c. Xerox

b. INTEL d. Digital Equipment Corporation ANS: C 19. An Ethernet running at 10 Mbits / second uses: a. Manchester encoding c. NRZ encoding b. Three-Level encoding d. AMI encoding ANS: A 20. A 100BaseT cable uses: a. fiber-optic cable c. RG-58U coaxial cable b. twisted-pair copper wires d. 50-ohm coaxial cable ANS: B 21. The word "Base" in 10BaseT means: a. the cable carries baseband signals b. the cable has a base speed of 10 Mbps c. it can be used as the base for a backbone cable system d. none of the above ANS: A 22. The reason a CSMA/CD network has a minimum length for packets is: a. to increase the data rate b. to prevent packets from reaching all other nodes during transmission c. to make sure all other nodes hear a collision in progress d. all of the above ANS: C 23. The reason a CSMA/CD network has a maximum length for cables is: a. to increase the data rate b. to prevent packets from reaching all other nodes during transmission c. to make sure all other nodes hear a collision in progress d. all of the above ANS: C 24. NIC stands for: a. Network Interface Card c. Network Interface Code b. Network Interface Cable d. Network Internal Code ANS: A 25. 10BaseT cable typically uses: a. a BNC connector c. an RJ45 connector b. a T connector d. an RS11 connector ANS: C 26. UTP stands for: a. Untwisted-Pair copper wire c. Uninterruptible Terminal Packet b. Unshielded Twisted-Pair copper wire d. Unicode Text Packet ANS: B 27. Compared to twisted-pair telephone cables, CAT-5 cables: a. are cheaper c. allow faster bit rates b. are easier to crimp connectors onto d. all of the above ANS: C 28. A hub: a. sends incoming packets out to all other terminals connected to it b. sends incoming packets out to specific ports c. cannot be used in an Ethernet-type network d. are more common in token-passing networks ANS: A 29. A switch: a. sends incoming packets out to all other terminals connected to it b. sends incoming packets out to specific ports c. cannot be used in an Ethernet-type network d. are more common in token-passing networks ANS: B 30. An advantage of using a switch instead of a hub is: a. it is cheaper when used in large networks b. it is faster when used in large networks c. it reduces the number of collisions in large networks d. all of the above ANS: C

31. Broadband LANs: a. modulate the data onto a carrier b. use coaxial cables c. are provided by cable TV companies for Internet access d. all of the above ANS: D 32. Using one node in the network to hold all the application software is done in: a. peer-to-peer networks c. both a and b b. client-server networks d. none of the above ANS: B 33. Record locking is used to: a. store records securely on a server b. prevent multiple users from looking at a document simultaneously c. prevent one user from reading a record that another user is writing to d. none of the above ANS: C 34. The software that runs a client-server network must be: a. UNIX-based c. multitasking b. WINDOWS-based d. Novell certified ANS: C 35. A "thin" client is: a. basically, a PC with no disk drives c. same as a "dumb" terminal b. a node that rarely sends data d. all of the above ANS: A 1. MAN stands for: a. Manchester Access Network c. Metropolitan-Area Network b. Multiple-Area Network d. Multiple Access Network ANS: C 2. Packet switching is based on: a. store-and-forward c. real-time delivery b. switched circuits d. all of the above ANS: A 3. SNA stands for: a. Standard Network Access c. Standard Network Architecture b. Small Network Access d. Systems Network Architecture ANS: D 4. The number of layers in ISO OSI is: a. 3 c. 7 b. 5 d. 8 ANS: C 5. The lowest-level layer in ISO OSI is called the: a. physical layer c. cable layer b. link layer d. transport layer ANS: A 6. Bad frames are usually detected by the: a. frame layer c. error-check layer b. physical layer d. link layer ANS: D 7. A virtual circuit is set up by the: a. user c. network b. link layer d. frame ANS: C 8. Frame Relay: a. is faster than X.25 c. allows for variable length packets b. does less error checking than X.25 d. all of the above ANS: D 9. ATM stands for: a. Asynchronous Transfer Mode c. Asynchronous Transmission Model b. Asynchronous Transmission Mode d. Automatic Test Mode ANS: A 10. A bridge:

a. separates a network into "collision domains" b. looks at the address of each packet c. operate at the data-link level d. all of the above ANS: D 11. IP stands for: a. Internet Process c. Interconnect Protocol b. Internet Protocol d. Interconnect Procedure ANS: B 12. TCP stands for: a. Transmission Control Process c. Transfer Connection Protocol b. Transmission Control Protocol d. none of the above ANS: B 13. Together, TCP/IP consists of: a. 5 layers c. an application and a process b. 7 layers d. datagrams ANS: A 14. IP is a: a. connection-oriented protocol c. connectionless protocol b. virtual circuit d. non-robust protocol ANS: C 15. The "lifetime" of a packet in an IP network: a. is essentially forever b. depends on elapsed time since transmission c. depends on number of "hops" between nodes d. is approximately 200 milliseconds ANS: C 16. UDP stands for: a. User Datagram Protocol c. User Data Packet b. User Data Protocol d. Universal Data Packet ANS: A 17. HTTP stands for: a. High-speed Transmission Test Procedure b. High-Level Transfer Test Procedure c. Hypertext Transmission and Transport Procedure d. Hypertext Transport Protocol ANS: D 18. HTTP allows the use of: a. dumb terminals c. browsers b. file transport d. none of the above ANS: C 19. HTML stands for: a. Hypertext Markup Language c. Hypertext Transfer-Mode Layer b. Hypertext Transfer-Mode Level d. High-speed Transfer-Mode Language ANS: A 20. HTML allows: a. telneting c. web page layout b. high-speed file transfer d. all of the above ANS: C 21. FTP stands for: a. File Transfer Protocol c. File Test Procedure b. File Transport Protocol d. Fast Transport Packet ANS: A 22. FTP is used to: a. transfer files between a server on the network and a user b. test files to see if their data has been "corrupted" c. transport packets at maximum speed through the network d. none of the above ANS: A 23. SMTP stands for: a. Short Message Transport Protocol c. Simple Mail Transport Protocol b. Simple Message Transport Protocol d. Secondary Mail Transfer Procedure

ANS: C 24. ISP stands for: a. Internet Service Protocol c. Internet Service Procedure b. Internet Service Provider d. none of the above ANS: B 25. The standard Internet address (or URL) is: a. a 32-bit binary number c. running out of available values b. four groups of base-ten numbers d. all of the above ANS: D 26. DNS stands for: a. Domain Name Server c. Domain Numbering System b. Domain Name System d. Domain Naming System ANS: A 27. A DNS: a. has become obsolete on the Internet b. translates words to numbers c. stores all domain addresses d. describes the Internet address-naming procedure ANS: B 28. An intranet connected to the Internet is often protected by: a. a DNS c. a "firewall" b. a "brick wall" d. the use of "spoofing" protocols ANS: C 29. OSI stands for: a. Open Systems Interconnection c. Open Systems Internet b. Open Standard Interconnection d. none of the above ANS: A 1. FSK stands for: a. Full-Shift Keying c. Full-Signal Keying b. Frequency-Shift Keying d. none of the above ANS: B 2. PSK stands for: a. Pulse-Signal Keying c. Phase-Signal Keying b. Pulse-Shift Keying d. Phase-Shift Keying ANS: D 3. QAM stands for: a. Quadrature Amplitude Modulation c. Quadrature Amplitude Marking b. Quadrature Amplitude Masking d. none of the above ANS: A 4. In the equation I = ktB, I is measured in: a. amperes c. bits b. amperes per second d. bits per second ANS: C 5. In the equation C = 2Blog2M, M is the: a. margin of noise c. number of possible states per symbol b. modulation index d. maximum number of symbols per second ANS: C 6. An "eye pattern" shows a good channel when: a. the eye is maximally open c. the eye is half open b. the eye is maximally closed d. the eye alternately opens and closes ANS: A 7. What you see in an eye pattern is the effect of: a. too many bits high c. intermodulation distortion b. too many bits low d. intersymbol interference ANS: D 8. High-frequency radioteletype systems commonly use: a. FSK c. PSK b. AFSK d. QAM ANS: A 9. Instead of a single bit, a QPSK symbol contains: a. a byte c. a dibit

b. 4 bits d. a Q-bit ANS: C 10. To reduce the need for linearity, p/4 DQPSK uses: a. angles of 0, 90, 180, and 270 degrees c. angles of p/4, 2p/4, 3p/4, and 4p/4 b. angles of 45, 135, 225, and 315 degrees d. double phase-shift angles ANS: B 11. For QAM, a "constellation diagram" shows: a. location of symbols in "symbol space" c. effects of noise on symbols b. separation of symbols in "symbol space" d. all of the above ANS: D 12. For QAM, the two dimensions of its symbol space are: a. amplitude and frequency c. frequency and phase angle b. amplitude and phase angle d. I-bits and Q-bits ANS: B 13. The specs of the old Bell type 103 modem were: a. 300 bps, full-duplex, FSK c. 1200 bps, full-duplex, FSK b. 600 bps, full-duplex, FSK d. 1200 bps, half-duplex, FSK ANS: A 14. ITU is an abbreviation for: a. International Telephony Unit c. International Telecommunications Union b. International Telephony Union d. International Telecommunications Units ANS: C 15. The ITU is under the auspices of: a. CCITT c. IEEE b. the U.N. d. ANSI ANS: B 16. High-speed modems equalize the line to compensate for: a. noise and interference b. uneven phase and frequency response c. low SNR d. inconsistent bit rates at either end of channel ANS: B 17. The bits sent to allow equalization are called: a. Gaussian bits c. a training sequence b. random bits d. a random sequence ANS: C 18. The V.90 standard is issued by: a. the EIA c. the ITU b. the TIA d. the ISO ANS: C 19. MNP2, MNP3, MNP4, and MNP10 are all: a. data-compression schemes c. both a and b b. error-correction protocols d. none of the above ANS: B 20. MNP5 and V.42 bis are both: a. data-compression schemes c. both a and b b. error-correction protocols d. none of the above ANS: A 21. In RS-232, flow control is done using: a. RTS/CTS handshake c. both a and b b. XON/XOFF characters d. none of the above ANS: C 22. The official name for RS-232C is: a. RS-232C c. ISO-232C/D b. EIA-232D d. ANSI-232C ANS: B 23. In RS-232, a modem would be: a. a DTR c. a DCE b. a DSR d. a DTE ANS: C 24. In RS-232, a personal computer would be: a. a DTR c. a DCE

b. a DSR d. a DTE ANS: D 25. On a DB-9 RS-232 connector, signal ground is pin: a. 1 c. 5 b. 3 d. 7 ANS: C 26. On a DB-25 RS-232 connector, signal ground is pin: a. 1 c. 5 b. 3 d. 7 ANS: D 27. The minimum lines required for RS-232 are: a. TD and RD c. TD, RD, DSR, and signal ground b. TD, RD, and signal ground d. TD, RD, RTS, CTS, and signal ground ANS: B 28. Hardware flow control uses: a. XON and XOFF c. RTS and CTS b. TD and RD d. DSR and DCD ANS: C 29. Software flow control uses: a. XON and XOFF c. RTS and CTS b. TD and RD d. DSR and DCD ANS: A 30. Which voltage represents a binary zero on an RS-232 data pin: a. +15 volts c. +9 volts b. +12 volts d. all of the above ANS: D 31. DSL stands for: a. Data Signal Line c. Digital Subscriber Line b. Digital Signal Line d. Double-Speed Loop ANS: C 32. ADSL stands for: a. Asynchronous DSL c. Analog DSL b. Asymmetrical DSL d. All DSL ANS: B 33. In a CATV system, HFC stands for: a. Head Frequency Control c. Hybrid Fiber-Coax b. Hybrid Frequency Control d. Hybrid Fiber Control ANS: C 34. In a CATV system, CMTS stands for: a. Cable Modem Terminal Server c. Cable Modem Terminal System b. Cable Modem Transmission System d. Cable Modem Transmission Server ANS: A 35. A "splitter" at the subscriber end is not required for: a. Any DSL scheme c. ADSL Lite b. ADSL d. none of the above ANS: C 1. TDMA stands for: a. Time Domain Multiple Access c. Tone Division Multiple Access b. Time-Division Multiple Access d. none of the above ANS: B 2. CDMA stands for: a. Code-Division Multiple Access c. Compact Digital Multiplex Arrangement b. Carrier Division Multiple Access d. none of the above ANS: A 3. TDMA is used instead of TDM when: a. all the signals come from the same source b. the signals come from different sources c. TDM is used in RF communications d. they mean the same thing ANS: B 4. When calculating the maximum number of users, a limiting factor in FDM is:

a. the type of media used c. the bandwidth of each signal b. the length of the channel d. all of the above ANS: C 5. A DS-1 signal contains: a. 12 channels c. 32 channels b. 24 channels d. 64 channels ANS: B 6. The bit-rate of a DS-1 signal over a T-1 line is: a. 64 kbps c. 1.536 Mbps b. 256 kbps d. 1.544 Mbps ANS: D 7. Besides data bits, a DS-1 frame contains a: a. timing bit c. signaling bit b. T-bit d. framing bit ANS: D 8. In DS-1, a bit is "stolen" out of each channel: a. every frame c. every sixth frame b. every other frame d. every twelfth frame ANS: C 9. Moving signals from one line to another is called: a. time switching c. line switching b. space switching d. cross-point switching ANS: B 10. Moving PCM samples from one time-slot to another is called: a. time switching c. signal switching b. space switching d. crosspoint switching ANS: A 11. A digital space switch is a: a. multiplexer c. computerized Strowger switch b. TDM switch d. crosspoint switch ANS: D 12. Spread-spectrum can be done by using: a. computer-controlled frequency reuse c. direct-sequence method b. frequency-hopping d. all of the above ANS: D 13. The term "chip rate" is used in describing: a. computer-controlled frequency reuse c. direct-sequence method b. frequency-hopping d. all of the above ANS: C 14. For a given data rate, direct-sequence systems, compared to standard RF systems, use: a. about the same bandwidth c. much less bandwidth b. much more bandwidth d. approximately double the bandwidth ANS: B 15. "Processing gain" is another term for: a. RF gain c. spreading gain b. computer speed d. improved signal-to-noise ratio ANS: C 16. To calculate processing gain, divide the transmitted RF bandwidth by: a. the digital data bit rate c. the S/N ratio b. bandwidth of original baseband d. the chip size ANS: B 17. A receiver for frequency-hopping spread-spectrum would be: a. a narrowband receiver c. a direct-conversion receiver b. a wideband receiver d. a CDMA receiver ANS: A 18. A receiver for direct-sequence spread-spectrum would be: a. a narrowband receiver c. a direct-conversion receiver b. a wideband receiver d. a "chip-rate" receiver ANS: B 19. CDMA: a. cannot be used with frequency-hopping spread-spectrum b. cannot be used with direct-sequence spread-spectrum

c. cannot be used on an RF channel d. allows many transmitters to use a band simultaneously ANS: D 20. For optimal performance, CDMA requires the use of: a. orthogonal PN sequences c. true-random PN sequences b. non-orthogonal PN sequences d. none of the above ANS: A 1. SWR stands for: a. Shorted Wave Radiation c. Shorted Wire Region b. Sine Wave Response d. none of the above ANS: D 2. TDR stands for: a. Total Distance of Reflection c. Time-Domain Response b. Time-Domain Reflectometer d. Transmission Delay Ratio ANS: B 3. An example of an unbalanced line is: a. a coaxial cable c. an open-wire-line cable b. 300-ohm twin-lead TV cable d. all of the above ANS: A 4. When analyzing a transmission line, its inductance and capacitance are considered to be: a. lumped c. equal reactances b. distributed d. ideal elements ANS: B 5. As frequency increases, the resistance of a wire: a. increases c. stays the same b. decreases d. changes periodically ANS: A 6. The effect of frequency on the resistance of a wire is called: a. I2R loss c. the skin effect b. the Ohmic effect d. there is no such effect ANS: C 7. As frequency increases, the loss in a cable's dielectric: a. increases c. stays the same b. decreases d. there is no loss in a dielectric ANS: A 8. The characteristic impedance of a cable depends on: a. the resistance per foot of the wire used b. the resistance per foot and the inductance per foot c. the resistance per foot and the capacitance per foot d. the inductance per foot and the capacitance per foot ANS: D 9. For best matching, the load on a cable should be: a. lower than Z0 c. equal to Z0 b. higher than Z0 d. 50 ohms ANS: C 10. The characteristic impedance of a cable: a. increases with length c. increases with voltage b. increases with frequency d. none of the above ANS: D 11. The velocity factor of a cable depends mostly on: a. the wire resistance c. the inductance per foot b. the dielectric constant d. all of the above ANS: B 12. A positive voltage pulse sent down a transmission line terminated in a short-circuit: a. would reflect as a positive pulse b. would reflect as a negative pulse c. would reflect as a positive pulse followed by a negative pulse d. would not reflect at all ANS: B 13. A positive voltage pulse sent down a transmission line terminated with its characteristic impedance: a. would reflect as a positive pulse

b. would reflect as a negative pulse c. would reflect as a positive pulse followed by a negative pulse d. would not reflect at all ANS: D 14. A positive voltage-pulse sent down a transmission line terminated in an open-circuit: a. would reflect as a positive pulse b. would reflect as a negative pulse c. would reflect as a positive pulse followed by a negative pulse d. would not reflect at all ANS: A 15. The optimum value for SWR is: a. zero c. as large as possible b. one d. there is no optimum value ANS: B 16. A non-optimum value for SWR will cause: a. standing waves c. higher voltage peaks on cable b. loss of power to load d. all of the above ANS: D 17. VSWR stands for: a. variable SWR c. voltage SWR b. vacuum SWR d. none of the above ANS: C 18. The impedance "looking into" a matched line: a. is infinite c. is the characteristic impedance b. is zero d. 50 ohms ANS: C 19. A Smith Chart is used to calculate: a. transmission line impedances c. optimum length of a transmission line b. propagation velocity d. transmission line losses ANS: A 20. Compared to a 300-ohm line, the loss of a 50-ohm cable carrying the same power: a. would be less c. would be the same b. would be more d. cannot be compared ANS: B 21. A balanced load can be connected to an unbalanced cable: a. directly c. by using a "balun" b. by using a filter d. cannot be connected ANS: C 22. On a Smith Chart, you "normalize" the impedance by: a. assuming it to be zero c. multiplying it by 2p b. dividing it by 2p d. dividing it by Z0 ANS: D 23. The radius of the circle you draw on a Smith Chart represents: a. the voltage c. the impedance b. the current d. none of the above ANS: D 24. The center of the Smith Chart always represents: a. zero c. the characteristic impedance b. one d. none of the above ANS: C 25. A TDR is commonly used to: a. measure the characteristic impedance of a cable b. find the position of a defect in a cable c. replace a slotted-line d. all of the above ANS: B 1. Radio waves were first predicted mathematically by: a. Armstrong c. Maxwell b. Hertz d. Marconi ANS: C 2. Radio waves were first demonstrated experimentally by:

a. Armstrong c. Maxwell b. Hertz d. Marconi ANS: B 3. The technology that made cell phones practical was: a. the microprocessor chip c. high-power microwave transmitters b. the miniature cell-site d. all of the above ANS: A 4. Cell phones reduce much of the problems of mobile communications with: a. high power levels c. reuse of frequencies b. high antennas d. all of the above ANS: C 5. Which of the following are electromagnetic: a. radio waves c. gamma waves b. light d. all of the above ANS: D 6. The electric and magnetic fields of a radio wave are: a. perpendicular to each other c. both a and b b. perpendicular to the direction of travel d. none of the above ANS: C 7. TEM stands for: a. Transverse Electromagnetic c. True Electromagnetic b. Transmitted Electromagnetic d. none of the above ANS: A 8. In free space, radio waves travel at a speed of: a. 3 106 meters per second c. 3 106 miles per second b. 300 106 meters per second d. 300 106 miles per second ANS: B 9. Which is a possible polarization for an electromagnetic wave: a. vertical c. circular b. horizontal d. all of the above ANS: D 10. Which polarization can be reasonably well received by a circularly polarized antenna: a. vertical c. circular b. horizontal d. all of the above ANS: D 11. The number of circular polarization modes (directions) is: a. 1 c. 3 b. 2 d. many ANS: B 12. An antenna has "gain" as compared to: a. an isotropic radiator c. a ground-wave antenna b. a vertically polarized radiator d. none of the above ANS: A 13. EIRP stands for: a. the E and I fields of the Radiated Power b. the Effective Isotropic Radiated Power c. the Effective Internal Reflected Power d. the Electric-field Intensity of the Radiated Power ANS: B 14. The "attenuation of free space" is due to: a. losses in the characteristic impedance of free space b. losses due to absorption in the upper atmosphere c. the decrease in energy per square meter due to expansion of the wavefront d. the decrease in energy per square meter due to absorption of the wavefront ANS: C 15. Ground waves are most effective: a. below about 2 MHz c. at microwave frequencies b. above about 20 MHz d. when using horizontally polarized waves ANS: A 16. Radio waves would most strongly reflect off: a. a flat insulating surface of the right size c. a flat metallic surface of the right size b. a flat dielectric surface of the right size d. a flat body of water

ANS: C 17. Radio waves sometimes "bend" around a corner because of: a. reflection c. refraction b. diffusion d. diffraction ANS: D 18. Space waves are: a. line-of-sight b. reflected off the ionosphere c. same as sky waves d. radio waves used for satellite communications ANS: A 19. Sky waves: a. are line-of-sight b. "bounce" off the ionosphere c. are same as space waves d. are radio waves used for satellite communications ANS: B 20. Sky waves cannot be "heard": a. close to the transmitter c. in the "silent" zone b. far from the transmitter d. in the "skip" zone ANS: D 21. A 20-dB reduction in the strength of a radio wave due to reflection is called: a. fading c. frequency diversity b. diffraction d. spatial diversity ANS: A 22. "Ghosts" on a TV screen are an example of: a. fading c. multipath distortion b. diffraction d. cancellation due to reflection ANS: C 23. A "repeater" is used to: a. send a message multiple times over a channel b. send a message over multiple channels at the same time c. extend the range of a radio communications system d. cancel the effects of fading ANS: C 24. Cellular phone systems rely on: a. high power c. the radio horizon b. repeaters d. the reuse of frequencies ANS: D 25. If the number of cell-phone users within a cell increases above some limit: a. the cell area is increased c. the power levels are increased b. the cell area is split d. the number of channels is reduced ANS: B 26. As a cell-phone user passes from one cell to another: a. a "handoff" process occurs c. both cells will handle the call b. a "sectoring" process occurs d. nothing occurs ANS: A 27. To receive several data streams at once, a CDMA spread-spectrum system uses: a. a "funnel" receiver c. multiple receivers b. a "rake" receiver d. none of the above ANS: B 28. The troposphere is the: a. highest layer of the atmosphere c. lowest layer of the atmosphere b. middle layer of the atmosphere d. the most ionized layer of the atmosphere ANS: C 29. Meteor-trail propagation is: a. used for radio telephony c. also called "ducting" b. used to send data by radio d. not possible ANS: B 1. The real part of an antenna's input impedance is due to: a. the radiated signal c. the SWR

b. the reflected signal d. all of the above ANS: A 2. A half-wave dipole is sometimes called: a. a Marconi antenna c. a Yagi antenna b. a Hertz antenna d. none of the above ANS: B 3. The end-to-end length of a half-wave dipole antenna is actually: a. one wavelength c. slightly longer than a half-wavelength b. one half-wavelength d. slightly shorter than a half-wavelength ANS: D 4. The radiation of energy from an antenna can be seen in the: a. standing wave pattern around the antenna c. radiation resistance of the antenna b. SWR along the feed cable d. I2R loss of the antenna ANS: C 5. Measured on the ground, the field strength of a horizontally polarized half-wave dipole antenna is strongest: a. in one direction c. in all directions b. in two directions d. depends on the number of elements ANS: B 6. The ability of an antenna to radiate more energy in one direction than in other directions is called: a. directivity c. active antenna b. selectivity d. resonance ANS: A 7. The front-to-back ratio of a half-wave dipole antenna is: a. 0 dB c. 10 dB b. 3 dB d. infinite ANS: A 8. An antenna's beamwidth is measured: a. from +90 to 90 c. between half-power points b. from front to back d. between the minor side-lobes ANS: C 9. ERP stands for: a. Equivalent Radiation Pattern c. Equivalent Radiated Power b. Effective Radiation Pattern d. Effective Radiated Power ANS: D 10. "Ground Effects" refers to the effects on an antenna's radiation pattern caused by: a. radio signals reflecting off the ground b. buildings and other structures on the ground c. fading d. faulty connection of the feed cable ground ANS: A 11. A 1-MHz monopole antenna must be: a. mounted vertically c. at least one half-wavelength long b. mounted horizontally d. at least one wavelength long ANS: A 12. The typical antenna in an AM radio is a: a. dipole c. ferrite "loop-stick" b. folded dipole d. none of the above ANS: C 13. The polarization of plane waves received from a satellite is changed by: a. gamma rays c. helical rotation b. Faraday Rotation d. the distance traveled ANS: B 14. A nonresonant antenna: a. will not transmit c. will cause SWR on the feed cable b. will not receive d. all of the above ANS: C 15. At resonance, the input impedance to a lossless antenna should be: a. resistive c. capacitive b. inductive d. infinite ANS: A 16. An antenna can be matched to a feed line using:

a. a shorted stub c. an LC network b. a loading coil d. all of the above ANS: D 17. As the length of a "long-wire" antenna is increased: a. the number of lobes increases c. efficiency decreases b. the number of nodes decreases d. none of the above ANS: A 18. Arrays can be: a. phased c. parasitic b. driven d. all of the above ANS: D 19. An array with one driven element, a reflector, and one or more directors is called a: a. Marconi c. Log-Periodic Dipole b. Yagi d. stacked array ANS: B 20. LPDA stands for: a. Low-Power Dipole Array c. Log-Periodic Dipole Array b. Low-Power Directed Array d. Log Power Dipole Array ANS: C 21. The radiated beam from a parabolic "dish" transmitting antenna is: a. collimated c. dispersed b. phased d. none of the above ANS: A 22. The energy picked up by a parabolic antenna is concentrated at the: a. center c. focus b. edges d. horn ANS: C 23. Antennas are often tested in: a. an echo chamber c. a vacuum chamber b. an anechoic chamber d. an RF reflective chamber ANS: B 24. Field strength at a distance from an antenna is measured with: a. a slotted line c. an EIRP meter b. a dipole d. a field-strength meter ANS: D 1. The microwave frequency range is considered to start at: a. 100 MHz c. 10 GHz b. 1 GHz d. 100 GHz ANS: B 2. The UHF range is: a. below the microwave range c. above the microwave range b. inside the microwave range d. same as the microwave range ANS: A 3. The dominant mode of a waveguide depends on: a. the shape of the waveguide c. the point of signal injection b. the power level of the signal d. none of the above ANS: A 4. The dominant mode of a rectangular waveguide is: a. TE 01 c. TE 10 b. TM 01 d. TM10 ANS: C 5. The dominant mode of a circular waveguide is: a. TE 01 c. TE 11 b. TM 01 d. TM11 ANS: C 6. Circular waveguides use TM 01 mode because: a. it is dominant c. it is the only mode possible b. of its circular symmetry d. it is more efficient ANS: B 7. The characteristic impedance of a waveguide: a. is fixed

b. depends on the frequency it carries c. depends on the longer dimension of its cross section d. both b and c ANS: D 8. Power can be coupled into or out of a waveguide: a. with a magnetic field probe c. through a hole in the waveguide b. with an electric field probe d. all of the above ANS: D 9. Directional couplers for waveguides are characterized by: a. their insertion loss c. their directivity b. their coupling specification d. all of the above ANS: D 10. Striplines and microstrips are used to: a. couple sections of waveguide c. couple components on a circuit board b. couple waveguides to antennas d. none of the above ANS: C 11. A resonant cavity is a type of: a. tuned circuit c. antenna b. defect in a waveguide d. none of the above ANS: A 12. A TEE connector used with waveguides is: a. an H-plane TEE c. a "magic" TEE b. an E-plane TEE d. all of the above ANS: D 13. TWT stands for: a. Transverse Wave Transmission c. Traveling-Wave Tube b. Transverse-Wave Tube d. Traveling-Wave Transmission ANS: C 14. An "isolator" is a device that: a. isolates frequencies in a waveguide b. allows a signal to pass in one direction only c. separates signals among various ports d. prevents microwaves from leaking out of a waveguide ANS: B 15. A "circulator" is a device that: a. rotates signal polarity in a waveguide b. allows a signal to pass in one direction only c. separates signals among various ports d. prevents microwaves from being "trapped" in a waveguide ANS: C 16. GaAs stands for: a. gallium arsenide c. gallium astenite b. gallium assembly d. none of the above ANS: A 17. IMPATT stands for: a. impact avalanche and transit time c. implied power at transmission terminal b. induced mobility at transmission time d. none of the above ANS: A 18. YIG stands for: a. Yttrium-Iron-Gallium c. Yttrium-Iron-Garnet b. Yttrium-Iron-Germanium d. none of the above ANS: C 19. A YIG can be tuned by applying: a. an electric field c. mechanical pressure b. a magnetic field d. an "exciter" signal ANS: B 20. The device commonly used in microwave ovens is the: a. TWT c. magnetron b. klystron d. YIG ANS: C 21. The device commonly used in satellite communications is the: a. TWT c. magnetron

b. klystron d. YIG ANS: A 22. The device commonly used in UHF transmitters is the: a. TWT c. magnetron b. klystron d. YIG ANS: B 23. A microwave phased array is often made using: a. slots c. Fresnel lenses b. Yagis d. all of the above ANS: A 24. RADAR stands for: a. radio ranging c. radio detection and ranging b. radio depth and ranging d. remote detection and ranging ANS: C 25. RADAR uses: a. pulsed transmission c. the Doppler effect b. continuous transmission d. all of the above ANS: D 26. The maximum effective range for pulsed radar: a. increases with increasing repetition rate c. decreases with increasing pulse period b. decreases with increasing repetition rate d. none of the above ANS: B 27. The minimum effective range for pulsed radar: a. increases with increasing pulse duration c. is always a tenth of the maximum range b. decreases with increasing pulse duration d. none of the above ANS: A 1. Another term for a single microwave link is a: a. section c. skip b. hop d. jump ANS: B 2. Microwave systems use: a. FM c. QAM b. SSB d. all of the above ANS: D 3. The typical reliability of a microwave system is: a. 90% c. 99.9% b. 99% d. 99.99% ANS: D 4. A typical microwave system uses a transmitted power of about: a. 2 watts c. 200 watts b. 20 watts d. none of the above ANS: A 5. In analog microwave systems, additional repeaters increase the: a. reliability c. jitter b. noise level d. all of the above ANS: B 6. In digital microwave systems, additional repeaters increase the: a. reliability c. jitter b. noise level d. all of the above ANS: C 7. LOS stands for: a. Loss Of Skip c. Line-Of-Sight b. Loss Of Signal d. Line-Of-Signal ANS: C 8. Too much antenna gain causes: a. a very narrow microwave beam c. excessive noise b. a very wide microwave beam d. jitter ANS: A 9. The microwave signal path should clear obstacles by at least: a. 60% of the Faraday zone c. 60% of the height of the antenna tower b. 60% of the Fresnel zone d. 60% of the highest obstacle height

ANS: B 10. Satisfactory performance of an analog microwave system is defined as: a. a carrier-to-noise ratio that exceeds a given value b. an ERP level that exceeds a given value c. an energy-per-hertz level that exceeds a given value d. none of the above ANS: A 11. Satisfactory performance of a digital microwave system requires a: a. low level of transmitted power b. high level of ERP c. good energy per bit per transmitted Watt ratio d. good energy per bit per noise density ratio ANS: D 12. Fading is caused by: a. multipath reception c. ducting b. attenuation due to weather d. all of the above ANS: D 13. The effects of fading due to multipath reception are often reduced using: a. diversity c. high-gain antennas b. power d. all of the above ANS: A 14. Repeaters are used in a microwave system: a. always c. above 10 GHz b. when distance exceeds line-of-sight d. below 10 GHz ANS: B 15. Microwave repeaters can be: a. IF type c. regenerative type b. baseband type d. all of the above ANS: D 16. An advantage of digital techniques over analog in a microwave system is: a. less bandwidth is required c. it requires less power b. accumulation of noise is reduced d. all of the above ANS: B 17. MMDS stands for: a. Multichannel Microwave Distribution System b. Multipoint Microwave Distribution System c. Multichannel Multipoint Distribution System d. Multiple Microwave Distribution Systems ANS: C 18. LMDS stands for: a. Local Microwave Distribution System b. Local Multipoint Distribution System c. Local Multichannel Distribution System d. Low-power Microwave Distribution System ANS: B 19. LMDS is: a. bidirectional c. multidirectional b. unidirectional d. none of the above ANS: A 1. NTSC stands for: a. National Television Systems Commission b. National Television Systems Committee c. National Television Systems Council d. Nippon Television Systems Commission ANS: B 2. The NTSC specification was drawn up by the: a. FCC c. EIA b. IRE d. IEEE ANS: C 3. RGB stands for: a. Red-Green Burst c. Red-Green Bandwidth

b. Red-Green Brightness d. Red-Green-Blue ANS: D 4. The number of scan lines in an NTSC signal is: a. 525 c. 1024 b. 625 d. 1250 ANS: A 5. The number of NTSC frames sent per second is: a. 25 c. 50 b. 30 d. 60 ANS: B 6. The number of NTSC fields sent per second is: a. 25 c. 50 b. 30 d. 60 ANS: D 7. The aspect ratio of a standard TV receiver is: a. 3 : 4 c. 525 : 625 b. 4 : 3 d. 625 : 525 ANS: B 8. Luminance refers to: a. brightness c. chroma b. contrast d. raster ANS: A 9. Luminance is measured in: a. foot-candles c. IRE units b. lumins d. NTSC units ANS: C 10. The maximum luminance level is called: a. max white c. all white b. peak white d. whiter than white ANS: B 11. The blanking level corresponds to a luminance of: a. white c. whiter than white b. black d. blacker than black ANS: B 12. The sync pulse level corresponds to a luminance of: a. white c. whiter than white b. black d. blacker than black ANS: D 13. The vertical blanking pulse is serrated to: a. maintain horizontal sync c. equalize the DC level b. maintain vertical sync d. all of the above ANS: A 14. When measured in lines, horizontal resolution: a. is greater than vertical resolution b. is about the same as vertical resolution c. is less than vertical resolution d. horizontal resolution is not measured in lines ANS: B 15. The smallest picture element is called a: a. dot c. pixel b. pic d. none of the above ANS: C 16. In a color TV receiver, Y I Q refers to: a. luminance signal, in-phase color component, quadrature phase color component b. composite color signal, in-phase color component, quadrature phase color component c. composite video signal, in-phase video component, quadrature video color component d. a method of demodulating stereo sound ANS: A 17. Compared to the luminance signal, the horizontal resolution for color is: a. much greater c. much less b. about the same d. resolution does not apply to color ANS: C

18. The modulation used for the video signal in a standard NTSC color TV receiver is: a. SSB c. suppressed-carrier AM b. vestigial sideband AM d. FM ANS: B 19. The modulation used for the audio signal in a standard NTSC color TV receiver is: a. SSB c. suppressed-carrier AM b. vestigial sideband AM d. FM ANS: D 20. The modulation used for the chroma signal in a standard NTSC color TV receiver is: a. SSB c. suppressed-carrier AM b. vestigial sideband AM d. FM ANS: C 21. The function of the "color burst" is to: a. detect the presence of a color video signal b. regenerate the color sub-carrier c. to synchronize the color demodulation line by line d. all of the above ANS: D 22. SAP stands for: a. separate audio program c. sync amplitude pulse b. separate audio pulse d. sync audio pulse ANS: A 23. The horizontal output transformer is also called: a. the isolation transformer c. the flyback transformer b. the video transformer d. the yoke ANS: C 24. Compared to a monochrome CRT, the accelerating voltage on a color CRT is: a. about the same c. much lower b. much higher d. color CRTs use magnetic acceleration ANS: B 25. Deflection in CRTs used in TV receivers is done: a. magnetically for both vertical and horizontal b. electrostatically for both vertical and horizontal c. electrostatically for vertical and magnetically for horizontal d. magnetically for vertical and electrostatically for horizontal ANS: A 26. AFPC stands for: a. allowed full picture chroma c. automatic frequency and picture control b. automatic frequency and phase control d. none of the above ANS: B 1. The height of the geosynchronous orbit above the equator is about: a. 3,578 km c. 357,800 km b. 35,780 km d. depends on satellite velocity ANS: B 2. The high and low points of a satellite's orbit are called, respectively,: a. apogee and perigee c. uplink and downlink b. perigee and apogee d. downlink and uplink ANS: A 3. The area on the earth that is "covered" by a satellite is called its: a. earth station c. footprint b. downlink d. plate ANS: C 4. The velocity required to stay in orbit: a. is constant b. is zero (freefall) c. is lower close to the earth than far from the earth d. is higher close to the earth than far from the earth ANS: D 5. An antenna is aimed by adjusting the two "look angles" called: a. azimuth and elevation c. declination and elevation b. azimuth and declination d. apogee and perigee

ANS: A 6. The power per transponder of a typical Ku-band satellite is in the range: a. 5 to 25 watts c. 500 to 2500 watts b. 50 to 250 watts d. depends on its orbit ANS: B 7. The power level for an earth station to transmit to a satellite is on the order of: a. 101 watts c. 103 watts b. 102 watts d. 104 watts ANS: C 8. The "payload" on a communications satellite consists of: a. transponders c. solar cells b. batteries d. all of the above ANS: A 9. "Station-keeping" refers to: a. antenna maintenance c. orbital adjustments b. power-level adjustments d. none of the above ANS: C 10. DBS stands for: a. decibels of signal c. direct-broadcast system b. down-beam signal d. direct-broadcast satellite ANS: D 11. LNA stands for: a. low-noise amplifier c. low-noise amplitude b. low north angle d. low-noise array ANS: A 12. A reduction in TWT power for linearity is called: a. backdown c. power-down b. backoff d. EIRP drop ANS: B 13. TVRO stands for: a. television receive only c. television remote origin b. television repeater only d. none of the above ANS: A 14. TDMA stands for: a. transponder-directed multiple antennas c. time-division multiple access b. television distribution master antenna d. transmit delay minimum aperture ANS: C 15. VSAT stands for: a. video satellite c. very small antenna terminal b. video signal antenna terminal d. very small aperture terminal ANS: D 16. On the uplink from a terminal, a VSAT system uses: a. high power to a small antenna c. low power to a large antenna b. low power to a small antenna d. LEO satellites ANS: B 17. A typical VSAT system is configured as a: a. star c. ring b. mesh d. repeater ANS: A 18. LEO stands for: a. long elliptic orbit c. lateral earth orbit b. low-earth orbit d. longitudinal earth orbit ANS: B 19. For real-time communication, LEO systems require: a. a constellation of satellites c. very high power b. tracking dish antennas d. all of the above ANS: A 20. The frequency bands used by Ku-band satellites are: a. 4 GHz and 6 GHz c. 20 GHz and 30 GHz b. 12 GHz and 14 GHz d. none of the above ANS: B

1. AMPS stand for: a. American Mobile Phone System c. Advanced Mobile Phone System b. Analog Mobile Phone Service d. Advanced Mobile Phone Service ANS: D 2. PCS stands for: a. Personal Communications Service c. Personal Cell phone Service b. Personal Communications Systems d. Portable Communications Systems ANS: B 3. RCC stands for: a. Radio Common Carrier c. Regional Cellular Carrier b. Radio Cellular Carrier d. none of the above ANS: A 4. MSC stands for: a. Mobile Switching Center c. Maximum Signal Carrier b. Mobile Service Cellular d. Minimum Signal Carrier ANS: A 5. MTSO stands for: a. Minimum Transmitted Signal Output c. Mobile Telephone Switching Office b. Maximum Transmitted Signal Output d. Mobile Transmission Time-Out ANS: C 6. MIN stands for: a. Manual Identification Number c. Maximum In-band Noise b. Mobile Identification Number d. Minimum In-band Noise ANS: B 7. NAM stands for: a. Numerical Access Mode c. Number Access Module b. Numerical Assignment Mode d. Number Assignment Module ANS: D 8. ESN stands for: a. Electronic Serial Number c. Emission Strength Number b. Emitted Signal Number d. none of the above ANS: A 9. SCM stands for: a. Service Class Mark c. Signal Class Mark b. Station Class Mark d. Serial-Code Mode ANS: B 10. SCM identifies the: a. code number of a cell phone c. signal classification (analog or digital) b. base-station class d. maximum power level of a cell phone ANS: D 11. SID stands for: a. Sequential Interrupt Demand c. System Identification Number b. Standard Identification Number d. Signal Intensity Descriptor ANS: C 12. The SID is used by a cell phone to: a. identify the type of system (analog or digital) b. recognize an AMPS system c. set its transmitted power level d. recognize that it is "roaming" ANS: D 13. DCC stands for: a. Digital Color Code c. Digital Communications Carrier b. Digital Communications Code d. Direct Channel Code ANS: A 14. SAT stands for: a. Station Antenna Tower c. Supervisory Access Tone b. Supervisory Audio Tone d. none of the above ANS: B 15. CMAC stands for: a. Control Mobile Attenuation Code c. Central Mobile Access Control b. Control Mobile Access Code d. Carrier Mode Attenuation Control ANS: A

16. The CMAC is used to: a. control access to the cell site b. set the access code of the cell phone c. set the transmit power of the cell phone d. select the transmit channel for the cell phone ANS: C 17. In an AMPS system, voice is sent using: a. AM c. FSK b. FM d. CDMA ANS: B 18. In an AMPS system, control-channel signals are sent using: a. AM c. FSK b. FM d. CDMA ANS: C 19. The ERP of a typical handheld AMPS cell phone is: a. less than 600 mW. c. between 1 and 2 watts b. less than 600 mW. d. 4 watts ANS: B 20. BSC stands for: a. Base Station Controller c. Basic Service Contract b. Base Signal Controller d. Basic Service Code ANS: A 21. The combination of the mobile cell phone and the cell site radio equipment is called the: a. BSC c. RF interface b. MTSO d. air interface ANS: D 22. The optimum cell-site radius is: a. 2 km c. as small as possible b. 0.5 km d. none of the above ANS: D 23. Phone traffic is measured in: a. calls c. number of users b. erlangs d. number of blocked calls ANS: B 24. One way to increase the capacity of a cell phone system is: a. increase the number of cells c. increase the ERP b. decrease the number of cells d. decrease the ERP ANS: A 25. CDPD stands for: a. Code-Division Packet Data c. Coded Digital Packet Data b. Cellular Digital Packet Data d. Cellular Digital Pulse Data ANS: B 1. Current PCS systems are referred to as: a. first-generation c. third-generation b. second-generation d. digital-generation ANS: B 2. The frequency band designated for PCS in North America is: a. 800 MHz c. 1.9 GHz b. 900 MHz d. 12 GHz ANS: C 3. The "forward" PCS channel is: a. from the base to the mobile c. from mobile to mobile b. from the mobile to the base d. same as the uplink ANS: A 4. Compared to AMPS, PCS cell sites are: a. bigger c. distributed b. smaller d. higher-power ANS: B 5. AMPS was designed for: a. POTS c. use built into an automobile b. voice d. all of the above

ANS: D 6. The number of competing PCS systems in North America is: a. 2 c. 4 b. 3 d. many ANS: B 7. CDMA technology was invented by: a. AT&T c. Bell Labs b. Lucent d. Qualcomm ANS: D 8. GSM is used in: a. Asia c. North America b. Europe d. all of the above ANS: D 9. In GSM, voice channels are called: a. traffic channels c. bearer channels b. voice channels d. talking channels ANS: A 10. AMPS uses: a. CDMA c. spread-spectrum b. TDMA d. none of the above ANS: D 11. Other things being equal, battery life in a GSM phone should be: a. less than in a TDMA phone c. greater than in a TDMA phone b. no better than in an AMPS phone d. no better than a TDMA phone ANS: C 12. It is necessary to send control information on traffic channels in: a. no PCS system c. TDMA only b. GSM only d. both GSM and TDMA ANS: D 13. GSM uses: a. frequency hopping c. CDMA b. direct-sequence modulation d. all of the above ANS: A 14. In GSM, SIM stands for: a. Short Inbound Message c. Subscriber ID Module b. Subscriber-Initiated Message d. Subscriber ID Method ANS: C 15. IMSI stands for: a. Integrated Mobile Subscriber Identification b. International Mobile Subscriber Identification c. Interim Mobile Subscriber Identification d. Intermodulation System Interference ANS: B 16. IS-95 uses: a. frequency hopping c. CDMA b. TDMA d. all of the above ANS: C 17. IS-136 uses: a. frequency hopping c. CDMA b. TDMA d. all of the above ANS: B 18. In CDMA: a. all frequencies are used in all cells b. each cell uses half the available frequencies c. each cell is assigned a frequency by the base d. the frequency is selected by the mobile phone ANS: A 19. CDMA uses a set of PN sequences that are: a. common c. rotating b. unique d. orthogonal ANS: D 20. The next generation of PCS is expected to have:

a. faster data rates c. wider roaming area b. Internet access d. all of the above ANS: D 1. Pagers use: a. the VHF band only b. the UHF band only c. both the VHF and UHF bands d. the VHF band, the UHF band, and the ISM band ANS: C 2. ISM stands for: a. IEEE Standard Message c. Industrial, Scientific, and Messaging b. IEEE Secure Message d. Industrial, Scientific, and Medical ANS: D 3. CAPCODE is: a. an encryption scheme used for pagers b. an addressing scheme used for pagers c. an error-detection scheme used for pagers d. a digital modulation scheme used for pagers ANS: B 4. In a one-way pager system: a. all pages are sent from all transmitters b. each transmitting antenna covers a wide area c. transmitters use relatively high power d. all of the above ANS: D 5. POCSAG stands for: a. Pager Operations Common Standards Advisory Group b. Pager Operations Code Standardization Advisory Group c. Post Office Code Standardization Advisory Group d. Post Office Common Standards Advisory Group ANS: C 6. A typical pager system does not: a. require "handoffs" c. require error detection b. allow "roaming" d. all of the above ANS: A 7. The IEEE specification covering wireless LANs is: a. 802.10 c. 802.12 b. 802.11 d. 802.13 ANS: B 8. The IEEE 802 spec for wireless LANs uses the: a. VHF band c. ISM band b. UHF band d. infrared band ANS: C 9. The IEEE 802 document for wireless LANs specifies the use of: a. CSMA/CA c. CDMA b. CSMA/CD d. all of the above ANS: A 10. BSS stands for: a. Basic Service Set c. Bluetooth Service System b. Basic Service System d. none of the above ANS: A 11. Bluetooth uses: a. CDMA c. QPSK b. frequency hopping d. all of the above ANS: B 12. Bluetooth uses the: a. VHF band c. ISM band b. UHF band d. infrared band ANS: C 13. TDD stands for: a. Time-Division Duplex c. Time Delay Difference

b. Time-Delayed Duplex d. Total Distance Delay ANS: A 14. A Bluetooth "piconet" has: a. 2 nodes c. 2 to 8 nodes b. 2 to 4 nodes d. 2 to 16 nodes ANS: C 15. Two or more connected piconets forms a: a. micronet c. TDD net b. multinet d. scatternet ANS: D 16. The basic range of a Bluetooth device is: a. 10 cm to 1 meter c. 10 cm to 100 meters b. 10 cm to 10 meters d. within 10 feet ANS: B 17. IRDA stands for: a. Infrared Data Association c. Infrared Restricted Data Area b. Infrared Digital Association d. Infrared Roaming Data Area ANS: A 18. The range of an IRDA system is: a. 1 meter c. 1 foot b. 10 meters d. 10 feet ANS: A 19. Infrared networks: a. cannot penetrate walls c. can use reflected infrared beams b. can use diffused infrared beams d. all of the above ANS: D 20. The maximum range of a typical wireless modem is: a. 1 meter c. several hundred meters b. several meters d. several thousand meters. ANS: D 1. Compared to the core, the index of refraction of the cladding must be: a. the same c. less b. greater d. doesn't have an index of refraction ANS: C 2. Fiber-optic cables do not: a. carry current c. generate EMI b. cause crosstalk d. all of the above ANS: D 3. Single-mode fiber is made from: a. glass c. both a and b b. plastic d. none of the above ANS: A 4. Fiber-optic cable cannot be used: a. in an explosive environment b. to connect a transmitter to an antenna c. to isolate a medical patient from a shock hazard d. none of the above ANS: B 5. A single-mode cable does not suffer from: a. modal dispersion c. waveguide dispersion b. chromatic dispersion d. all of the above ANS: A 6. Scattering causes: a. loss c. intersymbol interference b. dispersion d. all of the above ANS: A 7. The loss in single-mode fiber-optic cable due to the glass is about: a. 40 dB per km c. 0.4 dB per km b. 4 db per km d. zero loss ANS: C 8. The loss in single-mode fiber-optic cable due to a splice is about:

a. 0.02 dB c. 1 dB b. 0.2 db d. 3 dB ANS: A 9. The loss in single-mode fiber-optic cable due to a connector is about: a. 0.02 dB c. 1 dB b. 0.2 db d. 3 dB ANS: B 10. Which of the following is a type of fiber connector: a. ST c. SMA b. SC d. all of the above ANS: D 11. The quantum of light is called: a. an erg c. a photon b. an e-v d. a phonon ANS: C 12. LASER stands for: a. Light Amplification by Simulated Emission of Radiation b. Light Amplification by Stimulated Emission of Radiation c. Light Amplification by Simulated Emitted Rays d. Light Amplification by Stimulated Emitted Rays ANS: B 13. APD stands for: a. Avalanche Photodiode c. Avalanche Photo Detector b. Advanced Photodiode d. Advanced Photo Detector ANS: A 14. In a PIN diode, leakage current in the absence of light is called: a. baseline current c. dark current b. zero-point current d. E-H current ANS: C 15. For a light detector, responsivity is measured in: a. amps per watt c. mA per joule b. mW per amp d. msec per mW ANS: A 1. FDDI stands for: a. Fiber Digital Data Interface c. Fiber Distribution Delay Interface b. Fiber Distributed Data Interface d. Frequency-Division Data Interface ANS: B 2. FITL stands for: a. Fiber In The Loop c. Frequency Input to The Loop b. Fiber Input Timing Loss d. Fiber Input Timing Loop ANS: A 3. FTTC stands for: a. Fiber Transmission Timing Constraint b. Fiber Transmission Technology Committee c. Fiber Telephone Transmission Cable d. Fiber To The Curb ANS: D 4. SONET stands for: a. Simple Optical Network c. Synchronous Optical Network b. Standard Optical Network d. none of the above ANS: C 5. DWDM stands for: a. Digital Wavelength-Division Modulation b. Dense Wavelength-Division Modulation c. Double Wavelength-Division Modulation d. Dense Wavelength-Division Multiplexing ANS: D 6. A Soliton is a: a. defect in the glass c. type of pulse b. type of particle d. type of optical network ANS: C

7. Adding bits to synchronize one digital signal to another is called: a. bit stuffing c. SDH b. bit-synch d. WDM ANS: A 8. Power above the minimum required by an optical receiver is called: a. gain margin c. excess gain b. system margin d. overdrive ANS: B 9. Typically, repeaters are not required for fiber-optic cable lengths up to: a. 1000 miles c. 100 km b. 100 miles d. 10 km ANS: C 10. In SONET, OC-1 stands for: a. Optical Carrier level one c. Optical Channel one b. Optical Coupler unidirectional d. Optical Cable type 1 ANS: A 11. In SONET, STS stands for: a. Synchronous Transport Signal c. Synchronous Transmission Signal b. Synchronous Transport System d. Synchronous Transmission System ANS: A 12. A commonly used fiber-based system for LANs is: a. FDDI c. gigabit Ethernet b. high-speed Ethernet d. all of the above ANS: D 13. The use of solitons on fiber-optic cables is: a. common c. obsolete b. experimental d. not possible ANS: B 14. OTDR stands for: a. Optical Time-Delay Response c. Optical Time-Domain Reflectometer b. Optical Timing Delay Requirement d. Optical Time-Division Relay ANS: C 15. Using fiber-optic cable in a telephone system except for the connection to the subscriber's phone is called: a. FDDI c. FITL b. FTTC d. SONET ANS: B 1. According to the NTC memorandum circular, a spectrum user fee of Php 1000 per indoor radio station used for Wireless Data Network shall be paid by Public Telecom Entity (PTE) with a data rate in excess of _______Mbps. a. 0.64 b. 4.8 c. 1.44 d. 11 Answer d. 11 2. Under RA 9292, Electronics technicians may apply for registration without examination within ________years upon the effectivity of the Republic Act. a. 7 b. 12 c. 10 d. 5 Answer d. 5 3. Which among the IEEE standards refers to the global specifications for wireless LANs? a. 802.3 b. 802.11x c. 802.14 d. 802.11b Answer d. 802.11b 4. In telecommunications, short haul connection refers to a connection not exceeding _____kilometers. a. 200 b. 250 c. 150 d. 300 Answer c. 150

5. The meaning of MP3 is ________-. a. Motion Picture Production Layer 3 b. Motion Picture Experts Group, Audio Layer 3 c. Music Program Layer 3 Answer b. Motion Picture Experts Group, Audio Layer 3

d. Motion Picture Experts Group, Video Layer 3

6. In data communications network, coaxial cable RG 11 is used for what type of application? a. IBM 3270 computer terminals b. thick ethernet c. thin ethernet d. cable TV systems Answer b. thick ethernet 7. In a CMTS, the most important database in a GSM network is ________________. a. VLR b. AuC c. BSC d. HLR Answer d. HLR 8. How many voice channels are there in a DS-2 Digital Signal Hierarchy for TDM signals? a. 672 b. 48 c. 24 d. 96 Answer d. 96 9. A signal which varies between three levels. a. alternate mark inversion c. RZ Answer b. bipolar code 10. Right now, GSM is the accepted cellular standard in______________. a. Philippines b. North America c. Southeast Asia d. all of the above Answer d. all of the above

b. bipolar code d. NRZ

11. Which area of the world first deployed cellular services for commercial use? a. Scandinavia b. Central America c. Central Asia d. Western Europe Answer a. Scandinavia 12. The most important services for a. T11 c. T21 Answer a. T11 13. GSM specifications code for SM-MO a. T11 c. T21 Answer c. T21 14. What is the basic service of cellular telephony? a. location area c. PLMN service area d. MSC service area mobile systems, normal speech service including emergency calls. b. T12 d. T22

b. T12 d. T22

b. cell

Answer b. cell 15. GSMs channel separation. a. 200 KHz c. 500 KHz Answer a. 200 KHz 16. GSM modulation a. GMSK b. BPSK c. QPSK Answer a. GMSK 17. GSM uses which of the following access methods a. TDM c. TDM and FDM Answer c. TDM and FDM 18. GSM uses which of the following speech coding methods. a. LPC c. CELP Answer a. LPC 19. A 3G terminology for Network Monitoring System a. Operations and Maintenance Center b. Operation and Support System c. Network Monitoring Center d. Network Operations Center Answer b. Operation and Support System 20.Considered as the most important database as it stores permanent data about subscribers including subscribers service p rofile, location information and activity status a. VLR b. HLR c. MSC d. AuC Answer b. HLR 21. The first GSM call in the world took place in Finland on a. October 4, 1983 b. July 1, 1991 c. November 23, 1990 Answer b. July 1, 1991 22. A network element acting as a bridge between a mobile network and a fixed network is called a. MSC b. trunk line c. GMSC d. EIR Answer c. GMSC 23. This term is used for describing the signalling between the MS and the MSC when a disconnected mobile station is switched on. a. IMSI attach b. IMSI detach c. De-registration d. handover Answer a. IMSI attach

b. 300 KHz d. 600 KHz

d. 8-PSK

b. FDM d. CDMA and TDMA

b. APC d. TEC

d. November 4, 2006

24. Maximum GPRS throughput a. 64 Kbps b. 144 Kbps c. 171 Kbps Answer c. 171 Kbps

d. 384 Kbps

25. Under the NTC circular for 3G guidelines, public telecommunications entities will be required to deploy the infrastructure for their 3G networks within a. 12 months b. 18 months c. 24 months d. 6 months Answer b. 18 months 26. How many radio frequency bands will become available for 3G services in the country? a. 3 b. 5 c. 9 d. 12 Answer b. 5 27. NTC approved the operator breakdown of the following 3G technologies. a. 3 WCDMA, 1 CDMA 2000, 1 TDD b. 1 WCDMA, 1 CDMA 2000,1 TDD c. 3 WCDMA, 3 CDMA 2000, 3 TDD d. 6 WCDMA,. 3 CDMA 2000, 3 TDD Answer a. 3 WCDMA, 1 CDMA. 1 TDD

28. Qualified 3G applicants must post a performance bond of__________. a. P300 million b. P 450 million c. P600 million d. P 1 billion Answer d. P 300 million 29. Once the licensed is granted, how much is the upfront payment for 3G service providers? a. P300 million b. P450 million c. P600 million d. P1 billion Answer d. P 1 billion 30. If there are more qualified applicants than the allocated frequency bands, the NTC will hold a bidding with a floor price set at________. a. P 300 million b. P 450 million c. P 600 million d. P 1 billion Answer b. P 450 million 31.The government will also charge annual spectrum user fees of ______________for each band. a. p 100 million b. P 450 million c. P 300 million d. P10 million Answer a. P 100 million 32. Authorized 3G network operators will also have to pay an additional P 2 million for every_________ subscribers above the first four million users. a. 100 000 b. 250 000 c. 500 000 d. 750 000 Answer a. 100 000

33. Qualified applicants must build and install their 3G network facilities not later than ______-from the date of the award. a. 12 months b. 18 months c. 24 months d. 30 months Answer b. 18 months 34. NTC orders that within 5 years of the award date, the 3G networks must cover at least _______of the countrys provincial capital cities, towns and chartered cities. a. 50% b. 75% c. 80% d. 90% Answer c. 80% 35.Wi-fi is based on which of the following specifications? a. IEEE802.11b c. IEEE802.15c Answer a. IEEE802.11b 36. WiMax has a guaranteed range of a. 500 meters c. 5 km Answer d. 30 miles 37. Bluetooth is standardized by_____________. a. 3GPP c. SIG Answer c. SIG 38. GSM is standardized by_____________. a. 3GPP c. SIG Answer b. ETSI 39. 3G is standardized by_______________. a. 3GPP c. SIG Answer a. 3GPP 40. WAP is standardized by _______________. a. 3GPP c. WSL Answer d. WAP Forum 41. MMS is standardized by _______________. a. 3GPP c. MMS interest Group Answer a. 3GPP 42. What is the maximum bluetooth data rate? a. 514 Kbps c. 1.544 Mbps Answer b. 721 Kbps 43. Bluetooth technology was first proposed by

b. IEEE802.13 d. IEEE802.3c

b. 1 km d. 30 miles

b. ETSI d. WAP Forum

b. ETSI d. GSM Forum

b. ETSI d. 3G Groups

b. ETSI d. WAP Forum

b. MSM d. GSM Forum

b. 721 Kbps d. 2.048 Mbps

a. Nokia c. Ericsson Answer c. Ericsson 44. What does the Bluetooth specification aims to met? a. Convenient elimination of interconnecting wires b. high speed data transfer c. efficient use of the ISM band d. reduced noise Answer a. Convenient elimination of interconnecting wires 45. Guaranteed Bluetooth range. a. 5 m c. 20 m Answer d. 30 m 46. Who coined the name Bluetooth? a. Jaime Licuanan b. Jim Kardach c. Harald Blatand Answer b. Jim Kardach 47. The title of RA 9292. a. ECE Act of the Philipines b. The New ECE Law c. Electronics Engg Law of 2004 d. Electronics Engg Act of the Philippines Answer. c Electronics Engg Law of 2004

b. Samsung d. IBM

b. 10 m d. 30 m

d. Jay Lo

48. This is a new DVD disc with 25 GB for single layer of storage capacity for holding video and other data as compared to current DVD discs that have 8.5 GB of storage at most. a. Sting Ray b. Blue Ray c. Sun Ray d. Sugar Ray Answer b. Blue Ray 49. What company is responsible for the development of the worldwide popular iPod? a. Apple b. Guava c. Banana Republic d. Mango Answer a. Apple 50. It is tech industry term that describes the demise of a company caused by the premature announcement of new products while their predecessor models are still being sold in the market. a. market effect b. Osborne effect c. hall effect d. MAC effect Answer b. Osborne effect 51. He is the present CEO of Apple who made a shocking announcement that their company will start producing Mac computers with Intel microprocessors. a. Steve Jobs b. Paul Allen c. Paul Ang d. John Volhem Answer a. Steve Jobs

52. According to the recent survey, it is the number 1 mobile units producer in the world sharing the largest market share. a. Nokia b. Samsung c. LG d. Sony Ericcson Answer a. Nokia 53. Bluetooth technology is being operated in the ISM band in what particular frequency? a. 2.4 MHz b. 2.4 GHz c. 2.4 KHZ d. 2.4 THz Answer b. 2.4 GHz 54. What kind of connection Bluetooth supports 1. point to point 2. point to multipoint 3. multipoint to point 4. multipoint to multipoint a. 1 and 2 only c. 1, 2 and 4 only Answer a. 1 and 2 only 55. Bluetooth was named after 10th century Danish King who loves eating blueberries very much who unified Denmark. Who was he? a. Harald Blatand b. George Devol c. Harold Blaine d. Herald Bland Answer a. Harald Blatand 56. The protocol used by Bluetooth for carrying data over low power radio transmission a. TCP/IP b. WAP c. PPP d. PIP Answer a. TCP/IP 57. It is a network topology of Bluetooth wherein there is one master and several salves a. Micronet b. Internet c. Piconet d. Scatternet Answer c. Piconet 58. What is the scenario being represented by having two piconets very close together that they have overlapping coverage areas a. closenet b. scatternet c. crosstalk d. associatenet Answer b. scatternet 59. Bluetooth has the following characteristics except______. a. wireless b. low power c. robustness Answer d. Long range 60. It is the fastest peripheral standards ever developed. a. Firewall b. Finewire c. Firewire

b. 1, 2 and 3 only d. 1, 2, 3 and 4

d. long range

d. DSL

Answer c. Firewire 61. A new non voice value added service that allows information to be sent and received across a mobile telephone system network. It supplements todays circuit switched data and short message service. a. GPS b. GPRS c. WAP d. FTP Answer b. GPRS 62. What is the meaning of GPRS? a. General Packet Radio Service b. Global Positioning Radio System c. Global Packet Radio Service d. General Phone Radio System Answer a. General Packet Radio Service 63. The following are applications of GPRS except: a. BISDN b. visual information c. Still pictures Answer a. BISDN 64. In computer networking media, 10Base2 and 10Base5 uses BNC connectors as media attachments units, what is the meaning of BNC? a. BIOS network connector b. Bias Network Connector c. Bayonet Neill Concelman d. British Naval Connector Answer c. Bayonet Neill Concelman / d. British Naval Connector 65. An application environment for wireless devices designed to enable manufacturer, vendor and technology independent access to the internet and value added services. a.TCP b. WAP c. PIP d. PPP Answer b. WAP 66. Firewire speeds up the movement of multimedia data and large files at a transfer speed up to_____. a. 700 Mbps b. 800 Mbps c. 900 Mbps d. 1000 Mbps Answer b. 800 Mbps 67. By its simplest sense, it is a transmission technique that carries several data channel over a common wire. a. Wideband technology b. Broadband c. Ultra Wide Band d. Narrowband Answer b. Broadband 68. It is a service platform that acts as a gateway between the wireless network and WAP applications residing in the Internet and corporate intranets. a. WAP gateway b. WAP interface c. WTP d. HTTP interface Answer a. WAP gateway 69. AN intermediary between the internet and the mobile network. It converts WAP request into a Web request when we send information from a mobile phone to the internet and vice versa.

d. Chat

a. WAP gateway c. WTP Answer a. WAP gateway

b. WAP interface d. HTTP interface

70. The WAP gateway transport layer that sends and receives messages via any available bearer network a. WTLS b. WTP c. WDP d. WSP Answer c. WDP 71. Used to create pages that can be delivered using WAP. a. WAE c. WTLS Answer d. WML 72. What is the maximum speed of a dial up connection? a. 28.8 Kbps c. 64 Kbps Answer b. 56.6 Kbps 73. It is a high speed symmetric connection for Internet Access over a dedicated line. a. VDSL b. ADSL c. SDSL d. HDSL Answer c. SDSL 74. What is the modulation scheme for Symmetric Digital Subscriber Line? a. Discrete MultiTone b. 2B1Q c. FDMA d. TDMA Answer b. 2B1Q 75. What is the theoretical maximum downstream transmission speed of ADSL? a. 8 Mbps b. 16 Mbps c. 32 Mbps d. 64 Mbps Answer a. 8 Mbps 76. A new technology which offers both internet access and interactive television programming. a. Interactive TV b. Web TV c. Satellite TV d. both a and b Answer d. both a and b 77. A packet switched data network protocol which defines an international recommendation for the exchange of data as well as control information between a user device and a network node. a. X.1 b. X.2 c. X.25 d. X.52 Answer c. X.25 78. This technology is an extension of a wired LAN and uses RF to transmit and receive data over the air minimizing the need for wired connections. a. Wap b. Wireless LAN c. Satellite Internet Access d. Direct PC

b. WSP d. WML

b. 56.6 Kbps d. 128 Kbps

Answer b. Wireless LAN 79. In a LAN configuration, this connects the wired network from a fixed location, receives, buffers and transmits data between the wireless LAN and the wired network infrastructure. a. Extension point b. LAN card c. Access point d. Demarcation point Answer c. Access point 80. It is a wireless communications technology that can currently transmit data at speeds between 40 to 60 Mbps even up to 1 Gbps. a. Bluetooth b. Zigbee c. Ultra Wide Band d. Wi Max Answer c. Ultra Wide Band 81. It is a wireless communications technology that is very difficult to detect because it transmits ultra-low power radio signals with very short electrical pulses across all frequencies. a. Bluetooth b. Zigbee c. Ultra Wide Band d. Wi Max Answer c. Ultra Wide Band 82. It is a high performance, cell oriented switching and multiplexing technology that utilizes fixed length packets to carry different types of traffic. a. X.25 b. Frame relay c. ATM d. BISDN Answer c. ATM 83. The basic unit in ATM which carries a single stream of cells in order from user to user. a. PVC b. Virtual Channel c. Virtual Path d. trunk lines Answer b. Virtual Channel 84. An ATM cell has ____bytes. a. 48 b. 53 c. 128 Answer b. 53 85. The ATM layer which defines the cell format, how cells are transported and how congestion is handled, virtual circuit creation and termination a. physical b. network c. adaptation d. application Answer b. network 86. The meaning of MP3 is_______. a. Motion Picture Production Layer 3 b. Motion Picture Experts Group, Audio Layer3 c. Music Production Layer3 d. Motion Picture Experts Group, Video Layer3 Answer b. Motion Picture Experts Group, Audio Layer3

d. 133

87. Bluetooth wireless technology uses_____technique to produce the spreading function of spectrum signals. a. hybrid direct sequence b. direct sequence c. hybrid-frequency hopping d. frequency hopping Answer d. frequency hopping 88. In data communications network, coaxial cable RG 11 is used for what type of application? a. IBM 3270 computer terminals b. thick Ethernet c. thin Ethernet d. cable TV systems Answer b. thick Ethernet 89. What term is used in asynchronous transfer mode (ATM) system to describe a byte? a. harmonics b. octet c. octave d. bit Answer b. octet 90. it is the simplest construction format of DVD being single sided and single layered. a. DVD-5 b. DVD -9 c. DVD-10 d. DVD-18 Answer a. DVD-5 91. A nickname given to a family of international standards used for coding audio visual information in a digital compressed format. a. JPEG b. MPEG c. DCT d. DAB Answer b. MPEG 92. He is the founder of the MPEG group. a. Charlemagne c. Ampego

b. Chiariglione d. Ma. Pedrosa Enriquez Galvez

Answer b. Chiariglione 93. This is responsible in translating the pixel integer into 8-bit unsigned information that is used for further processing of the picture data. a. quantizer b. Encoder c. vocoder d. Discrete cosine transform Answer d. Discrete cosine transform 94. DOLBY is a lossy audio compression technology by Dolby laboratories. One popular system of Dolby is Dolby Digital System 5.1. What is the .1 signify or emphasize? a. subwoofer b. overhead c. stereo d. center Answer a. subwoofer 95. Analog television systems includes NTSC, PAL and SECAM. What is SECAM stands for? a. Sequential Color and Memory b .Sequence Coding and Multiplexing c. Selection and Color Amplitude Modulation d. Sequence of Codes and Mapping Answer a. Sequential Color and Memory 96. It is a special adapted television set designed to allow internet connection connects to a standard TV a. spider WEB b. WEB TV

c. WEB, Jason Answer b. WEB TV

d. WEB Channel

97. The technology that caters service like mobile multimedia and supports packet data at very high bit rates, 2 Mbps or higher for indoor traffic a. EDGE b. GPRS c. 3G d. 4G Answer c. 3G 98. HDTV is a digital TV system that allows higher resolution, what is the resolution if the HDTV is 720i? a. 1280x 720 interlaced b. 1280 x 720 progressive c. 720 x 1280 interlaced d. 720 x 1280 progressive Answer a. 1280x 720 interlaced 99. According to NTC these refers to areas where industries require high speed networks, services and connectivity. a Hotspots b. IT Hub areas c. White Spots d. IT Hot areas Answer b. IT Hub areas 100. It is the provision of voice communication using Internet protocol instead of traditional circuit switched technology. a. VoIP b. Public Telecommunications entity c. Customer Premise Equipment d. Value Added Service Answer a. VoIP 1. Which organization has authority over interstate and international commerce in the communications field? a.ITU-T b. IEEE c. FCC d. ISOC

2. They are special-interest groups that quickly test, evaluate, and standardize new technologies. a. Forums b. Regulatory agencies d. All of the above

c. Standards organizations

3. Which agency developed standards for physical connection interfaces and electronic signaling specifications? a.EIA b. ITU-T c. ANSI d. ISO

4. It is a collection of many separate networks. a.A WAN c. A LAN b. An internet d. None of the above

5.A set of rules that govern data communications. a.timing b.syntax c.semantics d. protocol d 6. It is an idea or concept that is a precursor to an Internet standard. a.RCF b. RFC c. ID d. none of the above

7. A mechanism used by hosts and gateways to send notification of datagram problems back to the sender. a. ICMP b. IGMP c. UDP d. TCP/IP

8. It provides support for newer applications such as voice over the Internet. a.ICMP b.IGMP c. SCTP d. TCP

9.A measure of how fast we can actually send data through a network. a.latency b. throughput c.propagation time d. transmission time 10.A problem if different packets of data encounter different delays and the application using the data at the receiver site is timesensitive. a.queue b. jitter c.jammer d.bummer

11.A digital interface standard for optical transmission. a.ETSI b. ITU c. SDH d. SONET

12.The adding of control information on either side of the data text of a block. a.encapsulation c. reassembly b. segmentation d. disassembly

13. If 5 devices are going to be connected in a mesh topology, determine the number of duplex-mode links. a. 4 b. 5 c. 10 d. 13 SOLUTION ( IF PROBLEM -SOLVING) (n (n-1))/2 = (5 (5-1))/2 = 10 14.If 5 devices are going to be connected in a mesh topology, determine the number of I/O ports that must be connected to every device. a. 4 b. 5 c. 10 d. 13

SOLUTION ( IF PROBLEM -SOLVING) n-1 = 5-1 = 4 15.What makes optical fibers immune to EMI? a. b. c. d. They transmit signals in as light rather than electric current. They are too small for magnetic fields to introduce current in them. Magnetic fields cannot penetrate the glass of the fiber. They are readily shielded by outer conductors in cable.

16.For long distance communication we often make use of fibre-optic cable. Which of the following statements is correct? a. b. c. d. Fibres made from optical polymer can be used over distances of several hundred kilometers. Fibres made from glass can be used over distances of several hundred kilometers. Fibres made from glass are only suitable for short range communication Fibres made from optical polymer can be used over short distances.

17.A network topology wherein the whole network will goes down when a computers network cable is broken. a.star b. mesh c. ring d. bus

18.What is the central device in star topology? a.STP server c. PDC b. Hub/switch d. Router

19. What OSI layer does a network cable lies. a.data link b. transport c. physical d. network

20.A network topology wherein terminators are used. a. star b. mesh c. ring d. bus

21.It is a joint effort of several standardization, organizations around the world targeting to produce specifications for a global 3G cellular system. A. B. C. D. 3GS 3GPP 3G 3.5G

22.Which technical specification group does not belong to 3GPP working organizations? A. B. C. D. TSG SA Service and System Aspects TSG CN Core Network TSG EFA Error Function Aspects TSG T Terminals

23.The main benefit of the HSCSD feature compared to other data enhancements introduced is that it is A. B. C. D. the maximum data rate is limited to 64 kbps up to eight times the bit rate on the single-slot full-rate traffic channel the maximum data rate in these early networks an inexpensive way to implement higher data rates

24.is permanently allocated for one subscriber. A. B. C. D. static address id address home address location address

25.is a main component of the GPRS network, which handles the mobility management and authentication and has register function. A. B. C. SGSN LLC BSC

D.SNDCP

26 .Layer that provides services for information transfer over a physical channel between the MS and the network A. B. C. D. physical link data link linkage link physical channel

27.will enhance the throughput per timeslot for both HSCSD and GPRS.. A. EDGE B. EGPRS C. HSDSC D. ECSD 28. Are intended to carry either encoded speech or user data. A. B. Multiplexed channel Traffic channels

C. Allocation channel D. Control channel 29. Are intended to carry signaling or synchronization data A. B. C. D. Multiplexed channel Traffic channels Allocation channel Control channel

30.Which category does not belong to control channel? A. broadcast B. common control channel C. dedicated control channel D. targeted control channe 31. is used mainly for the transmission of the radio measurement data needed for radio resource management algorithms Slow associated control channel (SACCH) Fast associated control channel (FACCH) packet associated control channel (PACCH) Packet timing advance control channel uplink (PTCCH/U) A 32.it is also possible that new calls are blocked even though there are time slots available to support it. this is called A. B. C. D. Soft blocking hard blocking medium blocking simple blocking A. B. C. D.

33.Are the most delay-sensitive applications, hence retransmissions are not normally performed. A. B. C. D. private services timing services Conversational services Public services

34. Which represents the amount of data traffic that generates same interference levels than the original voice Erlangs? A. Complex Erlangs B. Simple Erlangs C. Equivalent Data Erlangs D. Total Data Erlangs 35. is a protocol originally designed and optimized for fixed-PS networks and may not be optimal for mobile networks without a certain degree of optimization. A. B. C. D. IPv4 IPv6 TCP IP Address

36. Effect which refers to the payload (throughput) offered by the radio access network to the transport and application layers. A. B. C. D. Data Link Throughput Payload effect Physical link effect Positive Throughput

37is measured from the PTT press to the indication of the speak permission, it is the time the user has to wait before starting to speak. A. B. Start to Speak (StS) Time Turn Around Time (TAT)

C. D.

Push to talk time (PTT) Push To Start (PTS)

37.A scheme in which the transmitter alternately uses the two antennas to transmit bursts or to decorrelate the fading profile of each alternate burst A. Frequency hopping B. Frame hopping C. Antenna hopping D. Time Hopping 38.refers to a spatial diversity where transmission or reception is performed simultaneously at two or more base station sites and used to combat fast fading.

A. B. C. D.

Macrodiversity Microdiversity Spacediversity Spatial diversity

39.is the work-effort that is required to provide a given spectral efficiency at a given grade of service. A. B. C. D. Spectral efficiency Operational efficiency Strategical efficiency Light Efficiency

40.The ITU-R vision for 4G also calls for integration of technologies, commonly known as A. B3G systems B. homogeneous systems C. FWA systems D. 3G.9 systems 41. is a special case of multicarrier transmission, where a single data stream is transmitted over a number of lower-rate subcarriers (SCs). A. CSMA B. WCDMA C. DFT D. OFDM 42. the variable-rate data modem in KATHRYN was built for the high-frequency band. It used up to 34 parallel low-rate phasemodulated channels with a spacing of 82 Hz A. 88 KHz B. 82 Hz C. 86 MHz D. 84 KHz 43. Guard interval of OFDM A. 80us B. 800 ns C. 800 KHz D. 80 KHz 44. OFDM symbol duration A. 4 us B. 40 us C. 400 us

D. 0.4 us 45. is responsible for channel allocation procedures, protocol data unit (PDU) addressing, frame formatting, error checking, and fragmentation and reassembly. A. Data Link Layer B. Presentation layer C. MAC sublayer D. TCP/IP 46. provides MAC enhancements to support LAN applications with QoS requirements A. IEEE 802.16 B. IEEE 802.11e C. IEEE 802.16.2 D. IEEE 802.12a/b

47.suffers a known plaintext attack; recovering the pseudorandom string by XORing the plaintext and ciphertext of challenge, which can be eavesdropped from the air A. Deciphering B. Key management: C. Mutual authentication: D. Shared-key authentication 48. makes extensive use of protocols above the IEEE 802.11 MAC layer to provide authentication and key management A. Wireless Robust Authenticated Protocol (WRAP) B. Advanced Encryption Standard (AES) C. Authentication server (AS) D. robust security network (RSN) 49. introduced the term PAN to denote a communication between proximal electronic devices by using the body as a conduit for information A. Zimmerman B. Shockley C. Shannon D. Torricelli 50. is a point-to-point, narrow-angle (30 cone), ad hoc data transmission standard designed to operate over a distance of 0 to 1m and at speeds of 9,600 bps to 16 Mbps A. extended LAN B. IrDA C. LAN D. WPAN 51. Routing through a tandem switch is an important economic expedient for a telephone company or administration. We could call a tandem switch a A. trunk B. toll C. traffic concentrator D. exchange

52. The unit for measuring how well we can hear a distant party on the telephone is A. Erlang C B. volume C. Erlang B D. loudness rating 53. is a location within a LATA that has been designated by an access customer for the connection of its facilities with those of a LEC. A. point of presence (POP) B. point of termination (POT) C. cross connect D. retrieval bus 54.The reference equivalent value, called the ___ was indicative of how loud a telephone signal is A. bit error rate (BER) B. grade of service (GoS) C. phon D. overall reference equivalent (ORE)

55. TASO stands for A. Television Allocations Standards Office B. Television Allocations Standards Organization C. Television Allocations Study Organization D. Television Assignment Study Office 56.Phase distortion is often measured by a parameter called A. envelope delay distortion B. phase angle difference C. indirect dispersion D. buffer angle delay 57. is one method of improving the traffic-handling capabilities of switching configurations with limited availability A. Multiplexing B. Grading C. Routing D. Improving 58.The method by which a waiting call is selected to be served from the pool of waiting calls is called A. standby choice B. call waiting C. queue discipline D. resuming

59. The SONET STS-1 SPE with a channel capacity of ___ has been designed specifically to transport a DS3 tributary signal A. 50.11 Mbps B. 60.11 Mbps

C. 70.11 Mbps D. 80.11 Mbps 60. The payload pointer is contained in the ___ octets in the line overhead (LOH) and designates the location of the octet where the STS SPE begins A. P1 and P2 B. X1 and X2 C. Q1 and Q2 D. H1 and H2 61. The __ (like the SONET pointer) allows flexible and dynamic alignment of the VC-n within the AU-n frame A. Container-n B. AU-n pointer C. Tributary Unit-n D. VC-n pointer 62. This is the amount of time required to fill a cell at a rate of 64 kbps that is, the rate required to fill the cell with digitized (PCM) voice samples A. byte delay B. segmentization delay C. packetization delay D. overhead delay

63.is used to provide transport for synchronous bit streams. Its primary application is to adapt ATM cell transmission to typically E1/DS1 and SDH/SONET circuits A. AAL-1 B. overhead bits C. SAR-PDU D. nXDS0 64. potentially prevents overflow traffic from a selected trunk group from advancing to any alternate route A. Code-block control B. Cancel To C. Skip route control D. Cancel From 65. The telephone receiver, as a converter of electrical energy to acoustic energy, has a comparatively low efficiency, on the order of A. 2% to 3% B. 10% to 15% C. 20 to 35% D. 40 to 50% A 66. Signaling limits of a subscriber loop are based on A. transmission line distance B. atmospheric condition C. dc resistance D. bandwidth

67. Attenuation at 1000 Hz (dB/km) of H88 type of loading

A. 0.69 B. 0.88 C. 1.88 D. 1.16 68. is a change of state in the bit stream, a change from a binary 1 to a binary 0, and vice versa A. inversion B. alternation C. translation D. transition 69. The theoretical long-term mean rate of occurrence of controlled frame or octet (time slot) slips under ideal conditions in any 64-kbps channel is consequently not greater than__ in 70 days per international digital link. A. 1 B. 7 C. 10 D. 2 70.In Digital Network Performance Requirements, a blocking probability of ___ is the quality of service (QoS) objective. With judicious use of alternative routing, a blocking probability of 0.005 might be expected. A. B = 1 B. B = 0.01 C. B = 0 D. B = infinity

71. Address signaling between switches is called A. interaddress signaling B. interregister signaling C. intertrunk signaling D. intercircuit signaling 72.For North American Push-Button Codes, the digit 2 has ___ multifrequency Push-Button Tone A. 852,1477 Hz B. 852,1209 Hz C. 524,1776 Hz D. 697,1336 Hz D 73. The CCITT recommends that if the mean round-trip propagation time exceeds ___ for a particular circuit, an echo suppressor or echo canceler should be used A. 75 ms B. 50 ms C. 25 us D. 70 us 74. refers to traffic from VSAT(s) to hub A. inbound B. forward C. backward D. rout

75. A light source, perhaps more properly called a ____ , has the fundamental function in a fiber-optic communication system to efficiently convert electrical energy (current) into optical energy (light) in a manner that permits the light output to be effectively launched into the optical fiber A. electroluminescence B. photon source C. spectral line source D. photovoltaic light source 76. typically show a standard organization of bits and octets and describe the function of each to achieve a certain objective A. Packets B. Segments C. Protocols D. Formats 77. is a multiport device that allows centralization A. hub B. router C. bridge D. modem 78. For class B operation, the collector current flows for a. The whole cycle b. Half the cycle c. Less than half a cycle d. Less than a quarter of a cycle

79. Transformer coupling is an example of a. Direct coupling b. AC coupling c. DC coupling d. Impedance coupling 80. An audio amplifier operates in the frequency range of a. 0 to 20 Hz b. 20 Hz to 2 kHz c. 20 to 20 kHz d. Above 20 kHz 81. A tuned RF amplifier is a. Narrowband c. Direct-coupled b. Wideband d. A dc amplifier

82.He is The Prophet of the Integrated Circuit. a. Jack Kilby b. Robert Noyce c. Geoffrey Dummer d. None of the above 83. _____________________ is a harmful group of bacteria which can live inside cooling towers as well as in hot water systems, warm freshwater ponds, and creeks a. pneumophila b. mesophilic c. Legionella d.All of the above

84.He developed the oldest type of fuel cells which is the Alkaline Fuel Cells a. Francis Bacon b.Apollo c.Cygnus atratus Group d. None of the above 85. There are few major tidal energy generating power plants in operation. The main one is the __________________ in Northern France built in 1966 and has a capacity of 240 MW a. Ce Rance River b. Ge Rance River c. Je Rance River d. Le Rance River b 86. What is an impulse commutated inverter which relies on LC circuit and on auxilary thyristor for commutation in the load circuit? a. Auxiliary commutated inverter b. Line commutated inverter c.Load commutated inverter d. None of the above 87. What is the project that the Computer Society of the IEEE started in 1985 in order to set standards to enable intercommunication among equipment from a variety of manufacturers? a. Project 802 a b. Project 800 c.Project 803 d. Project 805

88.What is the mechanism used by hosts and gateways to send notification of datagram problems back to the sender? a. b. c. d. Internet Control Message Protocol Internet Group Message Protocol Reverse Address Resolution Protocol Internet Group Message Protocol

89.Assume we need to download text documents at the rate of 100 pages per minute. What is the required bit rate of the channel? a.1.345Mbps c. 1. 213 Mbps b. 1.453 Mbps d. 1.636 Mbps

A page is an average of 24 lines with 80 characters in each line. If we assume that one character requires 8 bits, the bit rate is 100 x 24 x 80 x 8 = 1,636,000 bps = 1.636 Mbps 90. Who designed a switch that comes before the banyan switch and sorts the incoming packets according to their final destinations. a.K.E. Bucher c. K.E. Batcher b. K.E. Buncher d. K.E. Brunch

91. How can we represent the number 21 in ones complement arithmetic using only four bits? a. 5 b. 6 c. 7 d. 8

SOLUTION ( IF PROBLEM -SOLVING) The number 21 in binary is 10101 (it needs five bits). We can wrap the leftmost bit and add it to the four rightmost bits. We have (0101 + 1) = 0110 or 6

92. What layer enables the user, whether human or software, to access the network and provides user interfaces and support for services such as electronic mail, remote file access and transfer, shared database management, and other types of distributed information services? a. Transport Layer b. Application Layer c. Network Layer d. Presentation Layer 93. What layer in the OSI model that is responsible for process-to-process delivery of the entire message? a. Session Layer b. Transport Layer c. Data Link Layer d. Presentation Layer 94. What OSI layer is responsible for the delivery of individual packets from the source host to the destination host? a. Session Layer b. Transport Layer c. Data Link Layer d. Network Layer D 96.What ISO layer is responsible for dialog control and synchronization? a. Session Layer b. Transport Layer c. Data Link Layer d. Network Layer 97. In a digital transmission, the receiver clock is 0.1 percent faster than the sender clock. How many extra bits per second does the receiver receive if the data rate is 1 kbps? a.1 bps b.2 bps c. 3 bps d. 4 bps

SOLUTION ( IF PROBLEM -SOLVING) At 1 kbps, the receiver receives 1001 bps instead of 1000 bps. 1000 bits sent 1001 bits received 1 extra bps

98. What results when the analog waveform rises or drops too quickly and the codec may not be able to keep up with the change? a. Quantizing Noise b. Slope Overload Noise c. Delta Noise d. White Noise 99. What is the modern standard for interconnecting many types of peripheral devices to computers which is also a digital interface that uses a standardized connector (plug) for all serial and parallel type devices? a. Unified Serial Bus (USB) b. Universal Serial Bus (USB) c. User Serial Bus (USB) d. Unified Series Bus

100. What is a 56,000-bps dial-up modem standard approved by a standards-making organization rather than a single company; it is slightly incompatible with both x2 and k56flex? a. V.90 b. V.92 c. V.54 d. V.57

101.What standard is an improvement of the V.90 standard that provides a higher upstream data transfer rate and also provides a call waiting service, in which a users data connection is put on hold when someone calls the users telephone number? a. V.92 standard b. V.93 standard a c. V.94 standard d. V.95 standard

102. What is the combination of IP address and TCP port number which is used to recognize an application on a server? a. socket b. sniffer c. listserv d.Kerberos 103. What is an action that occurs when a transmitting or receiving workstation has not received data or a response in a specified period of time a. timeout c. tunneling b. spoofing d. delay

104. What is an electronic document, similar to a passport, that establishes your credentials when you are performing transactions on the World Wide Web? a. Certificate b. Certificate Authority c. Certificate Revocation d. Centrex 105. What pertains to a person who tries to pick up someone elses wireless LAN signals? a. war driver c. wire tapper b. war detector d. tapper

106. What is a large, complex program that can manage the common resources on most local area networks, in addition to performing the standard operating system services? a. Network Operating System b. Novell Netware c. Network Monitoring Program d. Network Management Program

107. What bridge is capable of passing a data frame from one local area network to another when the two local area networks are separated by long distance and there is a wide area network connecting them? a. Remote bridge b. Transparent bridge c. Tele bridge d. External Bridge 108. The baseband bandwidth for a voice-grade (telephone) signal is: a. approximately 3 kHz b. 20 Hz to 15,000 Hz c. at least 5 kHz d. none of the above

109. Thermal noise is generated in: a. transistors and diodes

b. resistors c. copper wire d. all of the above 110. "Pink" noise has: a. equal power per Hertz b. equal power per octave c. constant power d. none of the above 111. The bit rate for each channel in DS-1 is: a. 1.544 Mb/s b. 64 kb/s c. 56 kb/s d. 8 kb/s

112. Manchester coding: a. is a biphase code b. has a level transition in the middle of every bit period c. provides strong timing information d. all of the above 113. Compared to standard PCM systems, the quality of the output of a vocoder is: a. much better b. somewhat better c. about the same d. not as good

114. The reference noise level for telephony is: a. 1 mW b. 0 dBm c. 1 pW d. 0 dBr

115. The cable used for local loops is mainly: a. twisted-pair copper wire b. shielded twisted-pair copper wire c. coaxial cable d. fiber-optic

116. The specs of the old Bell type 103 modem were: a. 300 bps, full-duplex, FSK b. 600 bps, full-duplex, FSK c. 1200 bps, full-duplex, FSK d. 1200 bps, half-duplex, FSK a 117. MNP2, MNP3, MNP4, and MNP10 are all: a. data-compression schemes b. error-correction protocols c. both a and b d. none of the above b 118.The official name for RS-232C is: a. RS-232C b. EIA-232D c. ISO-232C/D d. ANSI-232C

119. Hardware flow control uses:

a. XON and XOFF b. TD and RD c. RTS and CTS d. DSR and DCD 220.

a. 10

b. 20

c. 30

d. 40

CS = 2 Fdev = 100KHz Fdev = 50KHz mf = Fdev/fm mf = 50KHz/5KHz mf =10 221.A BER tester sends bits at 2000 baud for 10 s. There are total of 50 errors. What is the BER? a. 1 in 1000 bits c. 1 in 400 bits b. 1 in 2000 bits d. 1 in 500 bits

BER= 50/(2000*10) BER = 5/2000 BER = 1/400 222.The minimum number of geostationary satellites required for a global coverage is _____. a. 4 b. 3 c. 1 d. 10

223.A traffic of 720 Erlang is also equal to _____ CSS. a. 25920 b. 20 a Traffic = 720 erlang * 36ccs/erlang Traffic = 25920 c. 15 d. 21210

224.It is an elliptical zone between two microwave antennas, where the total path distance nowhere varies by more than half of the operating wavelength. a. Skip Zone c. Dellinger Zone b. Optimum Zone d. Fresnel Zone

225.The minimum number of geostationary satellites required for a global coverage is _____. a. 4 b. 3 c. 1 d. 10 b 228. A packet switch type devices that operate at the OSI network layer? a. Router b. Switch c. Hub d. Intelligent Hub 229. What is IEEE 802.6 protocol? a. MAN c.LAN b. WAN d.FDDI a 230. A sublayer that defines how different stations can access transmission medium? a. LLC c. GAN b. MAC d. HLDC

231. Designated at IEEE 802.3? a. LAN b. WAN c. MAN d. PAN 232.Network that will fell between LAN and MAN? a. CAN b. PAN c. WAN d. GAN 233.DSB Signals occupy ______ the bandwidth of SSB signals a. b. c. d. Twice Double Triple Half

234.HSDPA is _______ a. b. c. d. A specific implementation of GPRS A specific implementation of EDGE A Up-link high speed W-CDMA connection A specific implementation of W-CDMA

235.The first stage of a preamp is a. A tuned RF stage b. Large signal c. Small signal d. A dc amplifier