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Which of the following BEST describes Glomus bodies? Select one: a.

They are arterio-venous channels found in the epidermis b. They are arterio-venous channels found in the dermis. They are arterio-venous channels found in the dermis. Dermis is very rich in blood supply. A glomus body (or glomus apparatus) is a component of the dermis layer of the skin, involved in body temperature regulation. The glomus body consists of an arterio-venous shunt surrounded by a capsule of connective tissue. Glomus bodies are most numerous in the fingers and toes. The role of the glomus body is to shunt blood away from the skin surface when exposed to cold temperature, thus preventing heat loss, and allowing maximum heat flow to the skin in warm weather to allow heat to dissipate. The glomus body has high sympathetic tone and potentiation leads to near complete vasoconstriction. c. They are arterio-venous channels found in the deep fascia. d. They are venules found in the epidermis . e. They are arterioles found in the dermis. Feedback The correct answer is: They are arterio-venous channels found in the dermis.
Question 2

Question text Which of the following BEST describes Langers lines? Select one: a. They are lines of cleavage formed due to the parallel arrangement of the collagen bundles. Langer's lines, sometimes called cleavage lines, are topological lines drawn on a map of the human body. They were historically defined by the direction in which the skin of a human cadaver will split when struck with a spike. They correspond to the natural orientation of collagen fibers in the dermis. Langer's lines have relevance to forensic science and the development of surgical techniques. Knowing the direction of Langer's lines within a specific area of the skin is important for surgical operations, particularly cosmetic surgery. If a surgeon has a choice about where and in what direction to place an incision, he or she may choose to cut in the direction of Langer's lines. Incisions made parallel to Langer's lines may heal better and produce less scarring than those that cut across. Conversely, incisions perpendicular to Langer's lines have a tendency to pucker and remain obvious, although sometimes this is unavoidable. Sometimes the exact direction of the collagen fibers are unknown, because in some regions of the body there are differences between different individuals. Also, the lines described by Kraissl differ in some ways from Langer's lines, particularly on the face. The orientation of stab wounds relative to Langer's lines can have a considerable impact upon the presentation of the wound b. They are lines of cleavage formed due to the crisscrossing arrangement of the collagen bundles.

c. Surgical incisions made across these lines heal with a keloid formation. d. Surgical incisions made along these lines heal with a heaped up broad scars. e. Surgical incisions made along these lines heal poorly. Feedback The correct answer is: They are lines of cleavage formed due to the parallel arrangement of the collagen bundles.
Question 3

Question text Which of the following tracts is called pyramidal tract? Select one: a. Reticulo-spinal tract b. Tectospinal tracts c. Rubrospinal tracts d. Vestibulo-spinal tract e. Corticospinal tract The pyramidal tracts refers to both the corticospinal and corticobulbar tracts. The corticospinal tract conducts impulses from the brain to the spinal cord. It contains mostly motor axons. The corticospinal tract is made up of two separate tracts in the spinal cord: the lateral corticospinal tract and the anterior corticospinal tract. The corticospinal tract also contains the Betz Cell (the largest pyramidal cells) that are not found in any other region of the body. An understanding of these tracts leads to an understanding of why one side of the body is controlled by the opposite side of the brain. The corticospinal tract is concerned specifically with discrete voluntary skilled movements, such as precise movement of the fingers and toes. The brain sends impulses to the spinal cord relaying the message. This is imperative in understanding that the left hemisphere of the brain controls the RIGHT side of the body, while the right hemisphere of the brain controls the LEFT side of the body. The signals cross in the medulla oblongata, this process is also known as decussation. The corticobulbar tract carries information to motor neurons of the cranial nerve nuclei, rather than the spinal cord. Corticospinal tract forms the pyramid in the medulla and hence it is called pyramidal tract. It comes from primary motor cortex. Feedback The correct answer is: Corticospinal tract
Question 4

Question text

Where will you feel for the femoral artery? Select one: a. Femoral artery is palpated 1 cm above the mid-inguinal point in the groin b. Femoral artery is palpated 1 cm below the mid-inguinal point in the groin c. Femoral artery is palpated 1 cm lateral to the mid-inguinal point in the groin d. Femoral artery is palpated 1 cm medial to the mid-inguinal point in the groin e. Femoral artery is palpated 1 cm below the mid point of the inguinal ligament in the groin Femoral artery is palpated 1 cm below not the mid point of the inguinal ligament, but the mid-inguinal point in the groin. Feedback The correct answer is: Femoral artery is palpated 1 cm below the mid-inguinal point in the groin
Question 5

Question text Which of the following occurs within the submucosa in most regions of the GI tract? Select one: a. Several layers of smooth muscles The submucosa is comprised of dense irregular connective tissue. Within the submucosa are numerous blood vessels, lymphatic vessels, scattered lymphocytes and nerve plexuses. b. Meissners plexus c. Myenteric (Auerbachs) plexus d. Relatively few blood vessels e. Numerous lymph nodes Feedback The correct answer is: Meissners plexus
Question 6

Question text One of the retroperitoneal parts of the large intestine is Select one: a. caecum b. appendix

c. transverse colon d. descending colon The descending colon of humans passes downward through the left hypochondrium and lumbar regions, along the lateral border of the left kidney. The descending colon is part of the large intestine. The large intestine includes the vermiform appendix, the cecum and the colon. The descending colon is part of the colon, which is made up of several parts. They include the ascending colon, hepatic flexure, transverse colon, splenic flexure, descending colon, and sigmoid colon. The descending colon passes down through the upper back portion of the abdomen and along the side of the left kidney.This is retroperitoneal in location. Retroperitoneal Organs: organs without a mesentery and associated with posterior body wall, such as the aorta, inferior vena cava, kidneys and suprarenal glands descending and ascending colon etc. e. sigmoid colon Feedback The correct answer is: descending colon
Question 7

Question text Liver contains millions of classic hepatic lobules. At almost every corner of the hepatic lobule is a portal triad which contains which of the following three main structures? Select one: a. central vein, portal arteriole, bile duct. b. branch of hepatic artery, branch of bile ductule, branch of Portal vein Hepatic lobule is the hexagonal shaped liver parenchyma around the central vein. Portal triads are at the periphery of hepatic lobule. Portal triad consists of 3 structures branch of hepatic artery, branch of portal vein and a branch of bile ductule. c. central vein, branch of hepatic artery, branch of portal vein d. central vein, inferior vena cava, portal vein. e. inferior vena cava, central vein, hepatic artery Feedback The correct answer is: branch of hepatic artery, branch of bile ductule, branch of Portal vein
Question 8

Question text The nine regions of the abdomen is used to describe the exact location of internal abdominal structures. In view with this the normal position of the liver is

Select one: a. Epigastric, right hypochondrium, left hypochondrium and right lumbar b. Epigastric, right lumbar and umbilical region c. Epigastric , right hypochondrium, left hypochondrium and umbilical region The option is incorrect as it does not reflect the normal position of the liver.The liver is located in the Epigastric, right hypochondrium, left hypochondrium and right lumbar regions. d. Epigastric, left hypochondrium and right lumbar region e. Epigastric, umbilical and left hypochondrium region Feedback The correct answer is: Epigastric, right hypochondrium, left hypochondrium and right lumbar
Question 9

Question text During skeletal muscle contraction Select one: a. M line and A band remain constant M line = anchor myosin myofilaments, A band = length of myosin myofilaments. These dont change during contraction. b. A band and H zone become narrower c. Ca2+ ions diffuse to the myofilaments and bind to tropomyosin d. Action potentials move into the T tubule causing the voltage-gated Ca2+ ion channels to open to allow influx of extracellular Ca2+ ions e. ATP is used to move myosins head during power stroke Feedback The correct answer is: M line and A band remain constant
Question 10

Question text Which of these events is associated with repolarization? Select one: a. permeability of plasma membrane to potassium ions decreases b. sodium channels are activated

c. membrane potential gets hyperpolarised d. efflux of sodium ions causes the membrane potential to become more negative e. chloride ions and negatively charged proteins are not involved proteins dont move due to their large size, chlorides are repelled by proteins hence do not influx into the cell. Feedback The correct answer is: chloride ions and negatively charged proteins are not involved
Question 11

Question text Total lung capacity is Select one: a. Tidal volume plus residual volume b. Residual volume plus vital capacity vital capacity = IRV + TV + ERV. Hence TLC = VC + RV IRV=Inspiratory reserve volume TV= Tidal volume ERV= Expiratory reserve volume TLC= Total lung capacity VC= Vital capacity RV= Residual volume

c. Expiratory reserve volume plus residual volume d. Tidal volume plus functional residual capacity e. Inspiratory reserve volume plus functional residual capacity Feedback The correct answer is: Residual volume plus vital capacity
Question 12

Question text The surface tension of the alveolar fluid Select one: a. increases lung compliance. b. reduces the work of breathing.

c. is increased by the presence of surfactant. d. decreases as alveoli shrink. According to Law of Laplace, to maintain constant distending pressure, tension is proportional to the size of alveolus. When the size is small, the tension decreases. e. is inversely proportional to the size of alveolus Feedback The correct answer is: decreases as alveoli shrink.
Question 13

Question text Which of the following is TRUE regarding the lacrimal apparatus? Select one: a. Lacrimal gland is located over the medial aspect of the eyeball. b. Lacrimal sac is located over the lateral wall of the eyeball. c. Nasolacrimal duct drains tears into the inferior meatus of the nose. d. Lacrimal secretion has no role in refraction of light rays. Lacrimal secretion (tear) has mild refractory function. e. Sympathetic nerves are responsible for the secretion from the lacrimal gland. Feedback The correct answer is: Nasolacrimal duct drains tears into the inferior meatus of the nose.
Question 14

Question text Which of the following statements is INCORRECT? Select one: a. Oxyntic cells secrete hydrochloric acid. b. Zymogen cells secrete pepsinogen c. Parietal cells secrete intrinsic factors Statement C is incorrect. d. Pepsinogens are required for iron absorption e. HCl is required to activate pepsinogen

Feedback The correct answer is: Pepsinogens are required for iron absorption
Question 15

Question text Which of the following statements is TRUE for gastrin? Select one: a. It stimulates pepsinogen secretion by chief cells. This is factual recall. The presence of gastrin stimulates parietal cells of the stomach to secrete hydrochloric acid (HCl)/gastric acid. This is done both directly on the parietal cell and indirectly via binding onto CCK2/gastrin receptors on ECL cells in the stomach, which then responds by releasing histamine, which in turn acts in a paracrine manner on parietal cells stimulating them to secrete H+ ions. This is the major stimulus for acid secretion by parietal cells. Along with the above mentioned function, gastrin has been shown to have additional functions as well:

Stimulates parietal cell maturation and fundal growth. Causes chief cells to secrete pepsinogen, the zymogen (inactive) form of the digestive enzyme pepsin. Increases antral muscle mobility and promotes stomach contractions. Strengthens antral contractions against the pylorus, and relaxes the pyloric sphincter, which stimulates gastric emptying. Plays a role in the relaxation of the ileocecal valve. Induces pancreatic secretions and gallbladder emptying. Impacts lower esophageal sphincter (LES) tone, causing it to relax.Taking this into consideration, high levels of gastrin may play a role in the development of some of the more common LES disorders such as acid reflux disease.

b. Its release is inhibited by stomach distension c. As stomach pH lowers, gastrin secretion increases d. Its release is inhibited in response to end products of protein digestion e. It is released in response to sympathetic stimulation of stomach Feedback The correct answer is: It stimulates pepsinogen secretion by chief cells.
Question 16

Question text Prolonged retention of ileal content in the ileum is prevented by

Select one: a. vagotomy b. low fluidity of the ileal content c. gastrin produced in the jejunum d. distension of the colon e. increasing pressure in the ileum Increasing pressure in ileum promotes ileal emptying into the caecum. Feedback The correct answer is: increasing pressure in the ileum
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Question text The Glomerular Filtration Rate (GFR) of Mr. A was found to be decreased. What could have contributed to this observation? Select one: a. Rise in arterial blood pressure b. Decrease in colloid osmotic pressure of glomerular blood c. Increase in colloid osmotic pressure in the Bowmans capsule d. Rise in tubular pressure e. Decrease in hydrostatic pressure in the Bowmans capsule A decrease in hydrostatic pressure in the Bowmans capsule increases GFR. Feedback The correct answer is: Rise in tubular pressure
Question 18

Question text

Our forefathers in medicine have made great contributions towards the advancement of science, and it is difficult to choose which particular discovery was most important. However, the millions of diabetics in the world today owe their lives to which of the following person(s)? Select one: a. Pierre & Marie Curie b. Burke & Hare c. Watson & Crick d. Banting & Best Banting & Best discovered insulin.In 1923 Banting and John James Rickard Macleod received the Nobel Prize in Medicine. Banting shared the award money with his colleague, Dr. Charles Best. As of September 2011, Banting, who received the Nobel Prize at age 32, remains the youngest Nobel laureate in the area of Physiology/Medicine. The Canadian government gave him a lifetime annuity to work on his research. In 1934 he was knighted by King George V. In 2004, Frederick Banting was voted 4th place on The Greatest Canadian. e. Bayliss & Starling Feedback The correct answer is: Banting & Best
Question 19

Question text A young man who likes reading health articles on the net was worried because his urine output was increased. Tests done on his urine showed the presence of only four of the following substances in his urine and he was reassured that there was nothing wrong with him, Which of the following was NOT detected in his urine? Select one: a. Urea b. sodium c. Glucose Glucose is not detected in normal urine by routine tests because the amount present is very small. d. Water e. Potassium Feedback The correct answer is: Glucose
Question 20

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Question text The following reaction shows the binding of haemoglobin with oxygen: HHb + O2 HbO2 + H+ The reaction will shift to the left when there is Select one: a. increased PO2 b. increased PCO2 c. decreased temperature d. decreased concentration of 2,3-bisphosphoglycerate (2,3-BPG) e. decreased concentration of H+ decreased concentration of H+ increase the affinity of Hb for oxygen shifts the reaction to the right. Feedback The correct answer is: increased PCO2
Question 21

Question text Fatty acid synthesis occurs mainly in the Select one: a. adipose tissue b. liver This is the correct response.Fatty acid synthesis is the creation of fatty acids from acetyl-CoA and malonyl-CoA precursors through action of enzymes called fatty acid synthases. It is an important part of the lipogenesis process, which - together with glycolysis - stands behind creating fats from blood sugar in living organisms. In humans, fatty acids are formed predominantly in the liver and followed by the lactating mammary glands, and, to a lesser extent, the adipose tissue. Most acetyl-CoA is formed from pyruvate by pyruvate dehydrogenase in the mitochondria. Acetyl-CoA produced in the mitochondria is condensed with oxaloacetate by citrate synthase to form citrate, which is then transported into the cytosol and broken down to yield acetyl-CoA and oxaloacetate by ATP citrate lyase. Oxaloacetate in

the cytosol is reduced to malate by cytoplasmic malate dehydrogenase, and malate is transported back into the mitochondria to participate in the Citric acid cycle. c. lactating mammary gland d. kidney e. brain Feedback The correct answer is: liver
Question 22

Question text Which of the following catalyses the breakdown of triglycerides in the adipose cell? Select one: a. Lipoprotein lipase b. Hormone sensitive lipase Hormone-sensitive lipase (HSL) also previously known as cholesteryl ester hydrolase (CEH) is an enzyme that, in humans, is encoded by the LIPE gene. HSL is an intracellular neutral lipase that is capable of hydrolyzing a variety of esters. The enzyme has a long and a short form. The long form is expressed in steroidogenic tissues such as testis, where it converts cholesteryl esters to free cholesterol for steroid hormone production. The short form is expressed in adipose tissue, among others, where it hydrolyzes stored triglycerides to free fatty acids. c. Acetyl CoA carboxylase d. Fatty acid synthase e. Glycerol kinase Feedback The correct answer is: Hormone sensitive lipase
Question 23

Question text Physiological responses are generated when messages are transmitted in the form of action potentials. With respect to action potentials, which of the following statements is TRUE? Select one: a. Saltatory conduction occurs in unmyelinated fibres. b. Transmission across the synaptic cleft is delayed.

The transmission is delayed because electrical impulse has to be converted to chemical messages before the action potential can resume again. c. Transmission occurs at the same speed in small and large neurons. d. Repolarisation is caused by increased permeability to sodium ions. e. Begins with a change of the positive resting potential to a negative potential. Feedback The correct answer is: Transmission across the synaptic cleft is delayed.
Question 24

Question text Which of the following is a disorder due to X-linked recessive inheritance? Select one: a. Albinism b. Cystic fibrosis c. Colour blindness Colour blindness is a disorder due to X-linked recessive inheritance. d. Vitamin D-resistant rickets e. Hypophosphataemia Feedback The correct answer is: Colour blindness
Question 25

Question text A drop of blood is mixed with a drop of urine. Which of the following is MOST likely to occur? Select one: a. Lysis of the red blood cells b. Crenation of the red blood cells Urine is hypertonic due to the high concentration of urea. Water tends to move out from the RBC, which is hypotonic compared to urine. This will cause the RBC membrane to shrink, resulting in crenation. c. Stacking up of the red blood cells d. Increase in the diameter of the red blood cells

e. Change of the red blood cells from biconcave to spherical shape Feedback The correct answer is: Crenation of the red blood cells
Question 26

Question text The function of tropomyosin in a contractile unit includes Select one: a. releasing calcium ions. b. binding to myosin during contraction. c. acting as a relaxing protein when the muscle is at rest. Tropomyosin is a regulatory protein. Tropomyosin is an actin-binding protein that regulates actin mechanics. It is important, among other things, for muscle contraction. Tropomyosin, along with the troponin complex, associate with actin in muscle fibers and regulate muscle contraction by regulating the binding of myosin. In resting muscle, tropomyosin overlays the myosin binding sites on actin, with a single tropomyosin molecule spanning 7 actin subunits, and is "locked" down in this position by troponin T (tropomyosin binding troponin) and troponin I (inhibitory troponin). Upon release of calcium from the sarcoplasmic reticulum calcium binds to troponin C (calcium binding troponin). This "unlocks" tropomyosin from actin, allowing it to move away from the binding groove. Myosin heads can now access the binding sites on actin. Once one myosin head binds, this fully displaces tropomyosin and allows additional myosin heads to bind, initiating muscle shortening and contraction. Once calcium is pumped out of the cytoplasm and calcium levels return to normal, tropomyosin again binds to actin, preventing myosin from binding. d. generating ATP for contraction. e. covers the sites where actin binds with troponin. Feedback The correct answer is: acting as a relaxing protein when the muscle is at rest.
Question 27

Question text Vmax is defined as the maximum initial velocity of the enzyme catalyzed reaction under the given conditions. Which of the following statements regarding Vmax of an enzyme catalyzed reaction is TRUE? Select one: a. The value for Vmax is independent of temperature b. Vmax increases in the presence of competitive inhibitor

c. Vmax is unchanged in the presence of noncompetitive inhibitor d. Vmax is twice the rate observed when concentration of substrate equal to the Km e. Vmax is limited by the amount of substrate supplied A point is reached at which every enzyme molecule is saturated with substrate, and further addition of substrate has no effect. Feedback The correct answer is: Vmax is twice the rate observed when concentration of substrate equal to the Km
Question 28

Question text Which of these leucocytes are normally found among connective tissues? Select one: a. Neutrophil Neutrophils are found mainly in blood and take an active part in acute inflammatory response. b. Monocytes c. Mast cell d. Erythrocytes e. Eosinophils Feedback The correct answer is: Mast cell
Question 29

Question text Which of the following is an example of innate defense mechanism? Select one: a. Effective vaccination against hepatitis B virus. b. Phagocytosis This process is part of the innate defence mechanisms that is used mainly by neutrophils, monocytes and macrophages. c. Production of antibodies against harmful pathogens. d. Antigen presentation to T-lymphocytes.

e. Generation of memory B-lymphocytes. Feedback The correct answer is: Phagocytosis


Question 30

Question text How many chromosomes arranged in how many pairs would be seen in normal human karyotype? Select one: a. 48,24 b. 44,23 c. 23,23 d. 46,23 Normal human cells have 46 chromosomes arranged in 23 pairs.A karyotype (Greek karyon = kernel, seed or nucleus) is the number and appearance of chromosomes in the nucleus of a eukaryotic cell. The term is also used for the complete set of chromosomes in a species, or an individual organism. Karyotypes describe the number of chromosomes, and what they look like under a light microscope. Attention is paid to their length, the position of the centromeres, banding pattern, any differences between the sex chromosomes, and any other physical characteristics. The preparation and study of karyotypes is part of cytogenetics.

Karyogram of human male using Giemsastaining The study of whole sets of chromosomes is sometimes known as karyology. The chromosomes are depicted (by rearranging a microphotograph) in a standard format known as a karyogram or idiogram: in pairs, ordered by size and position of centromere for chromosomes of the same size. The basic number of chromosomes in the somatic cells of an individual or a species is called the somatic number and is designated2n. Thus, in humans 2n = 46. In the germ-line (the sex cells) the chromosome number is n (humans: n = 23). So, in normal diploid organisms, autosomal chromosomes are present in two copies. There may, or may not, be sex chromosomes. Polyploid cells have multiple copies of chromosomes and haploid cells have single copies.

e. 1,22 Feedback The correct answer is: 46,23


Question 31

Question text These days human insulin and hepatitis B vaccine are produced for therapeutic use using microorganism such as bacteria and yeast. Which of the technologies listed below is a valuable method for mass-producing drugs and other useful proteins? Select one: a. Recombinant DNA technology Recombinant DNA technology is used for human insulin production by bacterial cells and hepatitis B vaccine production using yeast cells. b. Transgenic technology c. Gene targeting d. Gene therapy e. Western blotting Feedback The correct answer is: Recombinant DNA technology
Question 32

Question text Aplasia is a failure of development of tissue or organ, which is a developmental abnormality that presumably develops early in intra uterine life. Aplasia of which organ is incompatible with life? Select one: a. Kidney b. Lung c. Adrenal d. Pituitary Aplasia or Agenesisis failure of development of tissue or organ, which is a developmental abnormality that presumably develops early in intra uterine life. Aplastic organs are either totally absent or represented by small mass of fibrous or fatty tissue containing a few rudimentary cells. In unpaired organs like aplasia of aorta or pituitary, it is incompatible with life.

e. Testis Feedback The correct answer is: Pituitary


Question 33

Question text Rudimentary organs, smaller than normal, which lack the full complement of cells, are seen in Select one: a. hyperplasia. b. neoplasia. c. metaplasia. d. hypoplasia. Hypoplasia is failure of organ to attain full size. This is a less severe abnormality than aplasia. There are rudimentary organs, smaller than normal that lack the full complement of cells, so function may be reduced. Usually affects same paired & unpaired organs as aplasia. e. dysplasia. Feedback The correct answer is: hypoplasia.
Question 34

Question text Hypoxia is an imminent cause of ischaemic cell injury. The major mechanism of damage to plasma membrane in ischaemia is Select one: a. reduced intracellular pH b. increased intracellular accumulation of sodium When there is cell death, the pH is increased, aerobic respiration, ATP and sodium are reduced. c. increased calcium ions in the cytosol d. increased aerobic respiration e. increase in ATP levels of mitochondria Feedback

The correct answer is: increased calcium ions in the cytosol


Question 35

Question text Enzymatic digestion leading to pus formation is the prominent event in which of the following types of necrosis? Select one: a. Coagulative b. Liquefactive Liquefactive necrosis is characteristic of focal bacterial or occasionally fungal infections. In brain hypoxic death cells invokes this type of necrosis. There is complete digestion of dead cells& transformation of tissue into a liquid viscous mass. If initiated by acute inflammation,the material is frequently creamy yellow because of the presence of dead white cells and is called pus. c. Fat d. Caseous e. Gangrenous Feedback The correct answer is: Liquefactive
Question 36

Question text Apoptosis is programmed cell death. Which of the following features LEAST describes this phenomenon? Select one: a. Cell shrinkage is seen. b. Absence of inflammatory cells surrounding the area. c. It affects both single cells and clusters. d. It is predominantly a physiological process. e. The apoptotic bodies are eaten by basophils. The apoptotic bodies are eaten by macrophages. Feedback The correct answer is: The apoptotic bodies are eaten by basophils.
Question 37

Question text Necrosis is a sequence of events following irreversible injury. Which of the following features BEST describes this phenomenon? Select one: a. Cytoplasmic shrinkage is seen b. Absence of inflammatory cells surrounding the area c. It affects both single cells and clusters d. It is predominantly a physiological process e. The nucleus undergoes pyknosis, karyorrhexis and karyolysis The nucleus either condenses or shrinks or breaks into bits in necrosis Feedback The correct answer is: The nucleus undergoes pyknosis, karyorrhexis and karyolysis Question text A 35-year-old man living in a southern region of Africa presents with increasing abdominal pain and jaundice. He has worked as a farmer for many years, and sometimes his grain has become moldy. Physical examination reveals a large mass involving the right side of his liver, and a biopsy specimen from this mass confirms the diagnosis of liver cancer (hepatocellular carcinoma).Which of the following substances is MOST closely associated with the pathogenesis of this tumour? Select one: a. Aflatoxin B1 Aflatoxin B1,a natural product of the fungus Aspergillus flavus,is metabolized to an epoxide. The fungus can grow on improperly stored peanuts and grains and is associated with the high incidence of hepatocellular carcinoma in some areas of the Africa and the Far East. Hepatitis B virus is also highly associated with liver cancer in these regions. b. Direct-acting Alkylating agents c. Vinyl chloride d. Azo dyes e. Beta-naphthylamine Feedback The correct answer is: Aflatoxin B1
Question 39

Question text

A 59-year-old man is found to have a 3.5cm mass in the right upper lobe of his lung. A biopsy of this mass is diagnosed as a moderately differentiated squamous cell carcinoma. Workup reveals that no bone metastases are present, but laboratory examination reveals that the mans serum calcium level is 11.5mg/dl. This patients paraneoplastic syndrome is MOST likely the result of ectopic production of which of the following substances? Select one: a. Parathyroid hormone b. Parathyroid hormone-related peptide c. Calcitonin d. Calcitonin-related peptide Calcitonin gene related peptide (CGRP) is a member of the calcitonin family of peptides, which in humans exists in two forms, -CGRP and -CGRP. -CGRP is a 37-amino acid peptide and is formed from the alternative splicing of the calcitonin/CGRP gene located on chromosome 11. The less-studied -CGRP differs in three amino acids (in humans) and is encoded in a separate gene in the same vicinity. CGRP is produced in both peripheral and central neurons. It is a potent peptide vasodilator and can function in the transmission of pain. CGRP is thought to play a role in cardiovascular homeostasis and nociception. e. Erythropoietin Feedback The correct answer is: Parathyroid hormone-related peptide
Question 40

Question text Gross examination of a tissue during autopsy shows evidence of red infarct. Which of the following is TRUE regarding this pattern of infarction? Select one: a. Always occurs with arterial occlusion b. Commonly seen in tissues with dual blood supply Organs and tissue with dual blood supply like lungs, intestines show red or haemorrhagic infarction. c. Solid organs like spleen and kidney show red infarct d. Tissues with end arteries show this infarct e. There is a clear line of demarcation between infarct and normal tissue Feedback The correct answer is: Commonly seen in tissues with dual blood supply