Third singular -s, past (-ed), other present tense forms (unmarked) -ing participle, -ed participle, (to) infinitive
of main verbs.
NONFINITE VERB FORMS:
FINITE/NONFINITE VPS/CLAUSES
The terms FINITE and NONFINITE are also applied to VPs2 and clauses. And the problem I think is that there is not a one-to-one correspondence between verb forms and the (finite) VPs or clauses that they may occur in. So, for example, in (1), was beginning is a finite VP even though the VP contains a nonfinite verb form (beginning, the -ing participle). The phrase is finite because it is tensed on the auxiliary (was is PAST); furthermore because the auxiliary is the verb be, person/number marking is apparent as well (was vs. were). (1) The doorbell rang as Pat was beginning his new novel
In other words, many finite VPs/clauses in English contain nonfinite forms (e.g. the PROGRESSIVE illustrated in (1) is composed of be + -ing participle; PERFECT constructions are formed with have + -ed participle). Note that the auxiliaries in these two constructionsthe PROGRESSIVE and the PERFECTare finite (minimally they carry tense). Huddleston (1988: 44) suggests that since the only reliable grammatical contrast present in English finite verbs is in fact tense (person and number being distinctions with limited distributions), then perhaps tensed would be a more appropriate term than finite for English. What about NONFINITE VPs/clauses? These would be VPs that do NOT contain verb forms that are tensed (or personed, or numbered, etc.). In (2) below, leaving is the -ing participle. There is no tensed auxiliary (or even a modal auxiliary; see below). In this case, then, both the verb form and the VP/clause are NONFINITE.
This handout is intended to clarify information in GQ: 41-43. Remember that VPs consist of a main verb standing alone as the entire VP, or can be preceded by one or multiple auxiliaries (e.g. The ship sank vs. The ship must have been sinking.)
2
(2)
If the nonfinite VP in (2) were having left instead of leaving, then the nonfinite VP would be composed of two nonfinite formsthe -ing participle having and the -ed participle left. What about VPs/clauses that contain modal auxiliaries which are not marked for tense (e.g. *musted)? Modal auxiliaries, nonetheless, are considered finite, and their lack of overt tense or any other inflectional distinction is treated as a property of the modal auxiliary group. In summary, regarding VPs and clauses: The distinction between finite and nonfinite in English refers to the presence or absence of a tensed verb or auxiliary. Clauses [or VPs] that contain a tensed verb or auxiliary are considered finite clauses [or VPs]. Clauses [or VPs] that do not contain a tensed verb or auxiliary, but only an -ing form or an infinitive such as to leave, are considered nonfinite. (Hopper 1999: 16) Here is a link to a page on finite/nonfinite clauses with exercises http://www.ucl.ac.uk/internet-grammar/clauses/finite.htm
Exercises: Indicate whether the italicized VPs are finite (F) or nonfinite (N). 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. After hovering ( ) overhead, the helicopter suddenly descended ( ). The house had been painted ( ) a bright red before it was sold ( ). Murphy, beaten ( ) by the challenger, has retired ( ) from the ring. Overcome ( ) by grief, she sat ( ) silently. They dared to divorce ( ) before their children died ( ). Having been invited ( ), he should have arrived ( ) on time.
Answers 1. N, F 2. F, F 3. N, F 4. N, F 5. F, F 6. N, F
______________________
References Hopper, Paul J. 1999. A short course in grammar. NY: W.W. Norton. Huddleston, Rodney. 1988. English grammar: An outline. Cambridge: Cambridge UP.