Official SAT Practice Test 2013-14

Official SAT Practice Test
2013-14
Taking the Practice Test
The practice test will help you most if you take it under conditions as close as possible to
those of the actual test.

Set aside 3 hours and 20 minutes of uninterrupted time
That way you can complete the entire test in one sitting. Note: The total testing
time is 3 hours and 45 minutes, but you save 25 minutes because the unscored
section* from this practice test was omitted.

Sit at a desk or table cleared of any other papers or books
You wont be able to take a dictionary, books, notes, or scratch paper into the test
room.

Allow yourself the specified amount of time for each section
Pace yourself by using a watch (without an audible alarm), which is what you are
allowed to use on test day.

Have a calculator at hand when you take the math sections
This will help you determine how much to use a calculator the day of the test. Use a
calculator with which you are familiar----- -preferably the same calculator you will use
on test day.

Read the test instructions carefully
They are reprinted from the back cover of the test book. On test day, you will be
asked to read them before you begin answering questions.

Make sure you use a No. 2 pencil
It is very important that you fill in the entire circle on the answer sheet darkly and
completely. If you change your response, erase it as completely as possible. It is
very important that you follow these instructions when filling out your answer
sheet.

Record your answers on paper, then score your test
Use the answer sheet when completing a practice test on paper to simulate the real
testing environment. After completing the practice test, you can score the test
yourself with Scoring Your Test, or you can return to collegeboard.com

ESSAY
Time 25 minutes

Turn to page 2 of your answer sheet to write your ESSAY.

The essay gives you an opportunity to show how effectively you can develop and express ideas. You should, therefore, take
care to develop your point of view, present your ideas logically and clearly, and use language precisely.

Your essay must be written on the lines provided on your answer sheet you will receive no other paper on which to write.
You will have enough space if you write on every line, avoid wide margins, and keep your handwriting to a reasonable size.
Remember that people who are not familiar with your handwriting will read what you write. Try to write or print so that what
you are writing is legible to those readers.

Important Reminders:
A pencil is required for the essay. An essay written in ink will receive a score of zero.
Do not write your essay in your test book. You will receive credit only for what you write on your
answer sheet.
An off-topic essay will receive a score of zero.
If your essay does not reflect your original and individual work, your scores for the entire test may be canceled.
An electronic copy of your essay will be made available to each of your designated score recipients: colleges,
universities, and scholarship programs.

You have twenty-five minutes to write an essay on the topic assigned below.

Think carefully about the issue presented in the following excerpt and the assignment below.

A colleague of the great scientist James Watson remarked that Watson was always lounging
around, arguing about problems instead of doing experiments. He concluded that There is
more than one way of doing good science. It was Watsons form of idleness, the scientist
went on to say, that allowed him to solve the greatest of all biological problems: the discovery
of the structure of DNA. It is a point worth remembering in a society overly concerned with
efficiency.
Adapted from John C. Polanyi, Understanding Discovery

Assignment: Do people accomplish more when they are allowed to do things in their own way? Plan and write an essay
in which you develop your point of view on this issue. Support your position with reasoning and examples
taken from your reading, studies, experience, or observations.

BEGIN WRITING YOUR ESSAY ON PAGE 2 OF THE ANSWER SHEET.

If you finish before time is called, you may check your work on this section only.
Do not turn to any other section in the test.

SECTION 2
Time 25 minutes
20 Questions

Turn to Section 2 (page 4) of your answer sheet to answer the questions in this section.

Directions: For this section, solve each problem and decide which is the best of the choices given. Fill in the corresponding
circle on the answer sheet. You may use any available space for scratchwork.

1. When 70, 000 is written as 7.0 10 ,
n
what is the
value of n ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5

2. On a car trip Sam drove m miles, Kara drove twice as
many miles as Sam, and Darin drove 20 fewer miles
than Kara. In terms of m, how many miles did Darin
drive?
(A) 2 20 m +
(B) 2 20 m
(C) 20
2
m
+
(D)
20
2
m +

(E) 20
2
m

3. If x and y are positive integers, what are all the
solutions ( ) , x y of the equation 3 2 11? x y +
(A) ( ) 1, 4 only
(B) ( ) 3,1 only
(C) ( ) 1, 4 and ( ) 2, 2
(D) ( ) 1, 4 and ( ) 3,1
(E) ( ) 2, 2 and ( ) 3,1

4. A companys profit, P, in dollars, for producing
x machines in one day is given by
2
500 20 . P x x
If the company produces 10 machines in one day, then,
according to this formula, what is the profit for that
day?
(A) $5,000
(B) $4,000
(C) $3,000
(D) $2,000
(E) $1,000

12 , 12, 12 n n +
5. What is the average (arithmetic mean) of the
3 quantities in the list above?
(A) 4
(B) 12
(C) 18
(D) 4
3
n
+
(E) 12
3
n
+

6. In isosceles triangle ABC above, AM and CM are
the angle bisectors of angle BAC and angle BCA.
What is the measure of angle AMC ?
(A) 110
(B) 115
(C) 120
(D) 125
(E) 130
7. A fruit salad is made from pineapples, pears, and
peaches mixed in the ratio of 2 to 3 to 5, respectively,
by weight. What fraction of the mixture by weight is
pineapple?
(A)
1
5

(B)
3
10

(C)
2
5

(D)
1
2

(E)
2
3

8. In the figure above, square RSTU is inscribed in the
circle. What is the degree measure of arc
? ST
(A) 45
(B) 60
(C) 90
(D) 120
(E) 180

9. If P and Q are two sets of numbers, and if every
number in P is also in Q, which of the following
CANNOT be true?
(A) 4 is in both P and Q.
(B) 5 is in neither P nor Q.
(C) 6 is in P, but not in Q.
(D) 7 is in Q, but not in P.
(E) If 8 is not in Q, then 8 is not in P.

10. What is the maximum number of rectangular blocks
measuring 3 inches by 2 inches by 1 inch that can be
packed into a cube-shaped box whose interior measures
6 inches on an edge?
(A) 24
(B) 28
(C) 30
(D) 36
(E) 40

11. If 0 a = and
5 5
,
a
x x a
+
+
what is the value of x ?
(A) 5
(B) 1
(C) 1
(D) 2
(E) 5

12. The figure above is composed of 25 small triangles that
are congruent and equilateral. If the area of DFH is
10, what is the area of ? AFK
(A) 40
(B) 42.5
(C) 50
(D) 52.5
(E) 62.5

3 2 2 19
3 14
x y z
x y z
+ +
+ +

13. If the equations above are true, which of the following
is the value of ? y z +
(A) 5
(B) 4
(C) 0
(D) 4
(E) 5

14. A boat costs x dollars, and this cost is to be shared
equally by a group of people. In terms of x, how many
dollars less will each person contribute if there are
4 people in the group instead of 3 ?
(A)
12
x

(B)
4
x

(C)
3
x

(D)
7
12
x

(E) 7x

15. If 2 3 and 2, y x x + < which of the following
represents all the possible values for ? y
(A) 7 y <
(B) 7 y >
(C) 5 y <
(D) 5 y >
(E) 5 7 y < <

16. The graphs of the functions f and g in the interval
from 2 x to 2 x are shown above. Which of
the following could express g in terms of f ?
(A) ( ) ( ) 1 g x f x +

(B) ( ) ( ) 1 g x f x +

(C) ( ) ( ) 1 1 g x f x + +

(D) ( ) ( ) 1 g x f x

(E) ( ) ( ) 1 g x f x

17. In the figure above, a shaded polygon which has equal
sides and equal angles is partially covered with a sheet
of blank paper. If 80, x y + how many sides does
the polygon have?
(A) Ten
(B) Nine
(C) Eight
(D) Seven
(E) Six

18. If s, t, u, and v are the coordinates of the indicated
points on the number line above, which of the
following is greatest?
(A) s t +
(B) s v +
(C) s t
(D) s v
(E) s u +

19. On the day of a rainstorm, the depth of the water at a
certain location along the Winding River was recorded
hourly, and the results are indicated in the line graph
above. Each unit on the vertical axis represents 1 foot.
If the depth of the water decreased 10 percent from
3:00 P.M. to 4:00 P.M., what was the depth of the water
at 4:00 P.M.?
(A) 3 feet
(B) 15 feet
(C) 18 feet
(D) 20 feet
(E) 30 feet

20. For all numbers a and , b let a b be defined by
. a b ab a b + + For all numbers , x , y and , z
which of the following must be true?
I. x y y x
II. ( ) ( ) ( ) 1 1 1 x x x x +
III. ( ) ( ) ( ) x y z x y x z + +

(A) I only
(B) II only
(C) III only
(D) I and II only
(E) I, II, and III

S T O P

SECTION 4
Time 25 minutes
24 Questions


Directions: For each question in this section, select the best answer from among the choices given and fill in the corresponding
circle on the answer sheet.

Each sentence below has one or two blanks, each blank
indicating that something has been omitted. Beneath
the sentence are five words or sets of words labeled A
through E. Choose the word or set of words that, when
inserted in the sentence, best fits the meaning of the
sentence as a whole.
Example:
Hoping to ------- the dispute, negotiators proposed
a compromise that they felt would be ------- to both
labor and management.
(A) enforce . . useful
(B) end . . divisive
(C) overcome . . unattractive
(D) extend . . satisfactory
(E) resolve . . acceptable

1. Some fans feel that sports events are ------- only when
the competitors are of equal ability, making the
outcome of the game -------.
(A) successful . . assured
(B) boring . . questionable
(C) dull . . foreseen
(D) interesting . . predictable
(E) exciting . . uncertain

2. Alfred Schnittkes musical compositions are -------:
phrases are clipped, broken into sections, and split
apart by long rests.
(A) garnished (B) improvisational
(C) fragmented (D) cautious (E) uniform

3. The consumer advocate claimed that while drug
manufacturers ------- the supposed advantages
of their proprietary brands, generic versions of
the same medications are often equally -------.
(A) tout . . efficacious
(B) research . . innocuous
(C) market . . prohibitive
(D) laud . . counterproductive
(E) extract . . prescriptive

4. Latoyas ------- is shown by her ability to be -------:
she can see her own faults more clearly than anyone
else can.
(A) perceptiveness . . self-centered
(B) objectivity . . restrictive
(C) cynicism . . self-destructive
(D) open-mindedness . . complacent
(E) insightfulness . . self-critical

5. The bearded dragon lizard is a voracious eater, so -------
that it will consume as many insects as possible.
(A) abstemious (B) cannibalistic (C) slovenly
(D) insatiable (E) unpalatable

6. Because drummer Tony Williams paved the way for
later jazz-fusion musicians, he is considered a -------
of that style.
(A) connoisseur (B) revivalist (C) beneficiary
(D) disparager (E) progenitor

7. The politicians speech to the crowd was composed of
nothing but -------, a bitter railing against the partys
opponents.
(A) digressions (B) diatribes (C) platitudes
(D) machinations (E) acclamations

8. Favoring economy of expression in writing, the
professor urged students toward a ------- rather
than an ------- prose style.
(A) spare . . ornate
(B) terse . . opinionated
(C) personal . . academic
(D) baroque . . embellished
(E) repetitive . . intricate

The passages below are followed by questions based on their content; questions following a pair of related passages may also
be based on the relationship between the paired passages. Answer the questions on the basis of what is stated or implied in the
passages and in any introductory material that may be provided.

Questions 9-12 are based on the following passages.
Passage 1
Food has always been considered one of the most salient
markers of cultural traditions. When I was a small child,
food was the only thing that helped identify my family as
Filipino American. We ate pansit lug-lug (a noodle dish)
and my father put patis (salty fish sauce) on everything. 5
However, even this connection lessened as I grew older.
As my parents became more acculturated, we ate less
typically Filipino food. When I was twelve, my mother
took cooking classes and learned to make French and
Italian dishes. When I was in high school, we ate chicken 10
marsala and shrimp fra diablo more often than Filipino
dishes like pansit lug-lug.
Passage 2
Jean Anthelme Brillat-Savarinwho in 1825 confi-
dently announced, Tell me what you eat, and I will tell
you who you arewould have no trouble describing 15
cultural identities of the United States. Our food reveals
us as tolerant adventurers who do not feel constrained
by tradition. We play with our food far more readily
than we preserve the culinary rules of our varied ancestors.
Americans have no single national cuisine. What unites 20
American eaters culturally is how we eat, not what we
eat. As eaters, Americans mingle the culinary traditions
of many regions and cultures. We are multiethnic eaters

9. Which of the following statements best captures
the relationship between the two passages?
(A) Passage 1 notes problems for which Passage 2
proposes solutions.
(B) Passage 1 presents claims that are debunked
by Passage 2.
(C) Passage 2 furnishes a larger context for
the experiences described in Passage 1.
(D) Passage 2 provides an update of the situation
depicted in Passage 1.
(E) Passage 2 uses material presented in Passage 1
to correct a popular misconception.

10. The author of Passage 2 would most likely regard
the mothers willingness to make French and
Italian dishes (lines 9-10, Passage 1) as
(A) laughably pretentious
(B) understandably conservative
(C) typically American
(D) a regrettable compromise
(E) a surprising attitude

11. The two passages differ in their discussions of food
primarily in that Passage 1
(A) considers specific dishes eaten by particular
people, whereas Passage 2 comments on
a cultures general attitude toward eating
(B) contrasts the cuisines of different cultures,
whereas Passage 2 emphasizes culinary
practices common to all cultures
(C) presents an abstract theory of food, whereas
Passage 2 offers a historical analysis of
consumption
(D) emphasizes the role of nostalgia in food
preferences, whereas Passage 2 rejects
that approach as overly sentimental
(E) outlines some popular choices in cuisine,
whereas Passage 2 underscores those
that are more unusual

12. Unlike the author of Passage 2, the author of
Passage 1 makes significant use of
(A) direct quotation
(B) sociological analysis
(C) hypothetical assumptions
(D) historical sources
(E) personal experience

Line

Questions 13-24 are based on the following passages.
The passages below discuss the possibility of locating
intelligent life on other planets. Passage 1 has been
adapted from a 1999 book on the history of the universe.
Passage 2 was excerpted from a 2000 book on the
scientific quest for extraterrestrial life.
Passage 1
Generations of science-fiction movies have conditioned
us to consider bug-eyed monsters, large-brained intellectual
humanoids, and other rather sophisticated extraterrestrial
creatures as typical examples of life outside Earth. The
reality, however, is that finding any kind of life at all, even 5
something as simple as bacteria, would be one of the most
exciting discoveries ever made.
The consensus within the scientific community seems to
be that we eventually will find not only life in other parts of
the galaxy but also intelligent and technologically advanced 10
life. I have to say that I disagree. While I believe we will
find other forms of life in other solar systems (if not in
our own), I also feel it is extremely unlikely that a large
number of advanced technological civilizations are out
there, waiting to be discovered. The most succinct support 15
for my view comes from Nobel laureate physicist
Enrico Fermi, the man who ran the first nuclear reaction
ever controlled by human beings. Confronted at a 1950
luncheon with scientific arguments for the ubiquity of
technologically advanced civilizations, he supposedly 20
said, So where is everybody?
This so-called Fermi Paradox embodies a simple logic.
Human beings have had modern science only a few hun-
dred years, and already we have moved into space. It is not
hard to imagine that in a few hundred more years we will 25
be a starfaring people, colonizing other systems. Fermis
argument maintains that it is extremely unlikely that many
other civilizations discovered science at exactly the same
time we did. Had they acquired science even a thousand
years earlier than we, they now could be so much more 30
advanced that they would already be colonizing our solar
system.
If, on the other hand, they are a thousand years behind
us, we will likely arrive at their home planet before they
even begin sending us radio signals. Technological 35
advances build upon each other, increasing technological
abilities faster than most people anticipate. Imagine, for
example, how astounded even a great seventeenth-century
scientist like Isaac Newton would be by our current global
communication system, were he alive today. Where are 40
those highly developed extraterrestrial civilizations so dear
to the hearts of science-fiction writers? Their existence is
far from a foregone conclusion.
Passage 2
Although posed in the most casual of circumstances,
the Fermi Paradox has reverberated through the decades 45
and has at times threatened to destroy the credibility
of those scientists seriously engaged in the Search for
Extraterrestrial Intelligence (SETI) research program.
One possible answer to Fermis question (If there are
extraterrestrials, where are they?) is that extraterrestrials 50
have in fact often visited Earth, and continue to do so.
This is the answer of those who believe in the existence
of unidentified flying objects, or UFOs. But few scien-
tists, even those engaged in SETI, take the UFO claims
seriously. You wont find anyone around here who 55
believes in UFOs, says Frank Drake, a well-known
SETI scientist. If one discounts the UFO claims, yet still
believes that there are many technological civilizations in
the galaxy, why have they not visited us? Drakes answer
is straightforward: High-speed interstellar travel is so 60
demanding of resources and so hazardous that intelligent
civilizations dont attempt it. And why should they
attempt it, when radio communication can supply all
the information they might want?
At first glance, Drakes argument seems very persua- 65
sive. The distances between stars are truly immense.
To get from Earth to the nearest star and back, traveling
at 99 percent of the speed of light, would take 8 years.
And SETI researchers have shown that, to accelerate
a spacecraft to such a speed, to bring it to a stop, and 70
to repeat the process in the reverse direction, would
take almost unimaginable amounts of energy.
Astronomer Ben Zuckerman challenges Drakes
notion that technological beings would be satisfied with
radio communication. Drakes implicit assumption is 75
that the only thing were going to care about is intelli-
gent life. But what if we have an interest in simpler
life-forms? If you turn the picture around and you have
some advanced extraterrestrials looking at the Earth, until
the last hundred years there was no evidence of intelligent 80
life but for billions of years before that they could have
deduced that this was a very unusual world and that there
were probably living creatures on it. They would have had
billions of years to come investigate. Zuckerman contends
that the reason extraterrestrials havent visited us is that so 85
few exist.

Line

13. Which statement about the Fermi Paradox is supported
by both passages?
(A) It articulates a crucial question for those interested
in the existence of extraterrestrials.
(B) It clarifies the astronomical conditions required
to sustain life on other planets.
(C) It reveals the limitations of traditional ideas
about the pace of technological change.
(D) It demonstrates the scientific communitys
fascination with the concept of interstellar
travel.
(E) It suggests that advanced extraterrestrial
civilizations may be uninterested in our
culture.

14. Which statement best describes a significant difference
between the two passages?
(A) Passage 1 analyzes a literary form, while
Passage 2 argues that literature has little
bearing on science.
(B) Passage 1 presents an argument, while Passage 2
surveys current opinion in a debate.
(C) Passage 1 concludes by rejecting the Fermi
Paradox, while Passage 2 opens by
embracing it.
(D) Passage 1 describes a phenomenon, while
Passage 2 details a belief system that would
reject such a phenomenon.
(E) Passage 1 defends a viewpoint, while Passage 2
questions that viewpoints place in scientific
research.

15. The author of Passage 1 mentions monsters,
humanoids, and creatures (lines 2-4)
primarily to
(A) question the literary value of science fiction
(B) contrast fictional notions with a scientific
perspective
(C) offer examples of the human fear of the unknown
(D) criticize science fiction for being unduly alarmist
(E) suggest that scientific research has been influ-
enced by science fiction

16. In line 17, ran most nearly means
(A) fled
(B) accumulated
(C) traversed
(D) managed
(E) incurred

17. Passage 1 suggests that the Fermi Paradox depends
most directly on which assumption?
(A) Extraterrestrial civilizations may not wish to be
discovered by human beings.
(B) Extraterrestrial civilizations would most likely
have discovered technology at about the same
time human beings discovered it.
(C) Extraterrestrial technology would develop at
roughly the same rate as human technology.
(D) Extraterrestrial civilizations would inevitably
use technology for aggressive ends.
(E) Science is a more powerful form of human
knowledge than are art and literature.

18. The claim made in Passage 1 that a consensus
exists (lines 8-11) would most likely be interpreted
by the author of Passage 2 as
(A) evidence of compromise in the scientific
community
(B) an attack on SETI researchers
(C) support for Fermis analysis
(D) a revelation of an unexpected truth
(E) an oversimplification of a complex debate

19. The author of Passage 1 mentions Isaac Newton
(lines 37-40) in order to
(A) emphasize the rapid rate of technological
innovation
(B) acknowledge the impact of a profound thinker
(C) criticize the inflexibility of Newtons
contemporaries
(D) speculate about Newtons influence on current
research
(E) highlight the value of scientific curiosity

20. In lines 44-48, the author of Passage 2 indicates that
the Fermi Paradox has been
(A) thoroughly misunderstood
(B) surprisingly influential
(C) overwhelmingly perplexing
(D) intermittently popular
(E) frequently misquoted

21. How would Frank Drake (line 56, Passage 2) most
likely respond to the statement by the author of
Passage 1 about humans colonizing other systems
(line 26) ?
(A) The means to accomplish such a project may be
beyond our reach.
(B) Interstellar colonization is as morally problematic
as was colonization on Earth.
(C) We would do better to study indigenous life-forms
rather than search for extraterrestrial creatures.
(D) Humans would be wise to consider that they
themselves are subject to colonization.
(E) Funding for such an undertaking would pose
a thorny political issue for any government.

22. In line 57, claims most nearly means
(A) demands
(B) assertions
(C) rights
(D) territories
(E) compensations

23. In line 63, radio communication is cited as a
(A) complex interaction
(B) technological relic
(C) common occurrence
(D) practical alternative
(E) dramatic advance

24. Both the author of Passage 1 and Ben Zuckerman
(line 73, Passage 2) imply that researchers seeking life
on another planet should focus on which of the
following?
(A) Seasonal variations in color due to plant life
(B) Evidence of the most basic forms of life
(C) Signs of artificially created structures
(D) Signals that might be radio communications
(E) Changes in geological surface features

NOTE: The reading passages in this test are generally drawn from
published works, and this material is sometimes adapted for testing
purposes. The ideas contained in the passages do not necessarily
represent the opinions of the College Board.

S T O P

SECTION 5
Time 25 minutes
35 Questions



The following sentences test correctness and effectiveness
of expression. Part of each sentence or the entire sentence
is underlined; beneath each sentence are five ways of
phrasing the underlined material. Choice A repeats the
original phrasing; the other four choices are different. If
you think the original phrasing produces a better sentence
than any of the alternatives, select choice A; if not, select
one of the other choices.
In making your selection, follow the requirements of
standard written English; that is, pay attention to grammar,
choice of words, sentence construction, and punctuation.
Your selection should result in the most effective
sentenceclear and precise, without awkwardness or
ambiguity.

EXAMPLE:
Laura Ingalls Wilder published her first book
and she was sixty-five years old then.
(A) and she was sixty-five years old then
(B) when she was sixty-five
(C) at age sixty-five years old
(D) upon the reaching of sixty-five years
(E) at the time when she was sixty-five

1. The library is older than it but still just as beautiful as
the courthouse.
(A) older than it but still just as beautiful as the
courthouse
(B) older and it is just as beautiful as the courthouse
(C) older than the courthouse; it is just as beautiful as it
(D) older than the courthouse but just as beautiful
(E) just as beautiful as the courthouse and it is older
than it

2. Winslow Homer, one of Americas foremost artists,
spent his last 27 years and painted on the scenic Maine
coast.
(A) spent his last 27 years and painted
(B) spent his last 27 years having painted
(C) spent his last 27 years painting
(D) having spent his last 27 years doing his painting
(E) spending his last 27 years painting

3. Researchers are experimenting with various techniques
for preventing the accumulation in water of high levels
of nitrogen, which can kill plants and animals.
(A) nitrogen, which can kill plants and animals
(B) nitrogen; plants and animals can be killed
(C) nitrogen, that is what can kill plants and animals
(D) nitrogen, they could kill plants and animals
(E) nitrogen, and they can kill plants and animals

4. When the news spread how new goldfields were
discovered in Nome, Alaska, thousands abandoned
Dawson, the site of the previous gold rush.
(A) how new goldfields were discovered
(B) how there was discovery of new goldfields
(C) about new goldfields, which they discovered
(D) about new goldfields, and they were discovered
(E) about new goldfields that had been discovered

5. When the Berlin Wall, long a symbol of the Cold War,
began to be torn down in 1989, five million people
went to Berlin to celebrate that.
(A) to celebrate that
(B) for its celebration
(C) to celebrate
(D) in celebration of that
(E) in celebrating

6. To complete the music program, a student must present
one vocal performance, one instrumental performance,
and composing one original work.
(A) and composing one original work
(B) and one original composition
(C) with one original composition
(D) and to compose one original work
(E) as well as the students original composition

7. Zookeepers have expanded ones definition of care to
include concern for the animals mental state as well as
for its physical well-being.
(A) have expanded ones definition of care to include
(B) have expanded ones definition of care, including
(C) expand their definition of care, they include
(D) expanding the definition of care to include
(E) have expanded their definition of care to include

8. The time and the place for such a large event is subject
to approving from the mayors office.
(A) The time and the place for such a large event is
subject to approving from the mayors office.
(B) For such a large event, the time and the place are
subject to the mayors offices approving them.
(C) The time and the place for such a large event are
subject to the approval of the mayors office.
(D) The time and place for such a large event are
subject to be approved by the office of the
mayor.
(E) Subject to the approval of the mayors office are
the time and place for such a large event taking
place.

9. New Zealands Kaikoura Peninsula, a ruggedly
beautiful spit of land, borders an undersea canyon that
is home to the sperm whale and the giant squid.
(A) borders an undersea canyon that is
(B) bordering an undersea canyon,
(C) and it borders an undersea canyon, which is
(D) which borders an undersea canyon,
(E) is the border of an undersea canyon, being

10. In similarity with some other great works, the enduring
horror tale Frankenstein was first published
anonymously; its author, Mary Shelley, wrote the
novel when she was not quite nineteen years old.
(A) In similarity with
(B) As
(C) Like what happened with
(D) Like the case with
(E) Like

11. The book is useful because it offers not just phi-
losophy and theory but also tells you what and how to
live every day.
(A) but also tells you what and how to live every day
(B) but also it gives ways of everyday living
(C) but also advice for everyday living
(D) but also it gives practical advice for everyday life
(E) and also tells you what to do and how to live
every day

The following sentences test your ability to recognize
grammar and usage errors. Each sentence contains either
a single error or no error at all. No sentence contains more
than one error. The error, if there is one, is underlined
and lettered. If the sentence contains an error, select the
one underlined part that must be changed to make the
sentence correct. If the sentence is correct, select choice E.
In choosing answers, follow the requirements of standard
written English.

EXAMPLE:

The other
A
delegates and him
B
immediately
C

accepted the resolution drafted by
D
the
neutral states. No error
E

12. The country found that its economy was growing
A

, more stronger
B
with an improved
C
outlook and more
opportunities for training
D
and employment. No error
E

13. The iris, the colored part of the eye, contains
A
delicate
patterns that are
B
unique to
C
each person, offering a
powerful means of
D
identification. No error
E

14. The newly elected
A
Prime Minister, to the dismay
B

of opponents from other parties, have argued
C
for
the strict regulation of
D
campaign financing. No error
E

15. Studies have suggested
A
that eating nutsalmonds
in particularmight help to lower
B
blood cholesterol
levels in humans and reducing
C
the risk of heart disease
by protecting
D
the blood vessels. No error
E

16. In
A
English literature James Boswell is the prime
example of a biographer who, by ensuring
B
the
immortality of another
C
author, has achieved
immortality for himself .
D
No error
E

17. Because the garden was untended
A
, the windows
had no
B
shutters, and the lawn overrun
C
by weeds,
people passing by
D
the old house assumed that
it was unoccupied. No error
E

18. Until recently, most people entering
A
politics feel
B
that
loss of privacy was a fair price
C
to pay for
D
the chance
to participate in policy making. No error
E

19. Only by tapping
A
their last reserves of energy were
B
the
team members able to salvage
C
what was beginning
D

to look like a lost cause. No error
E

20. When Doris Lessing published The Golden Notebook
in 1962, it
A
instantly established
B
herself as one
C
of
the most important
D
literary voices of her generation.
No error
E

21. Not many
A
authors have described
B
the effects
of environmental pollution as effective as
C

Rachel Carson, whose work is still a model for
D

nature writers. No error
E

22. It was
A
a Chinese American grower who finally
succeeded with adapting
B
the now familiar
C

orange tree to
D
the American climate. No error
E

23. The survey indicated that workers in the United States
hope
A

that his or her
B
wages will keep pace with
C

the rising
D
cost of living. No error
E

24. In Angkor, Cambodias ancient city, a clever
A

designed reservoir, five miles long and one mile wide,
supplied fish
B
and
C
helped farmers to produce
D

three crops of rice annually. No error
E

25. Last summer, when Marys aunt and uncle
flew from
A
Turkey to visit their relatives and tour
B

the United States, Mary invited Sandhya and I
C
to
her house to meet
D
them. No error
E

26. Ongoing
A
research by several scientists suggest
B
that
regular periods of meditation reduce
C
blood pressure
and are likely to
D
contribute to other improvements
in health. No error
E

27. Because the American Indian rodeo includes games
and exhibitions developed as early as
A
the seventeenth
century, they predate
B
by
C
a few hundred years
the form
D
of rodeo now seen on television. No error
E

28. Five years in , the writing
A
her new book is
both a response
B
to her critics mistrust with
C

her earlier findings and an elaboration
D
of her
original thesis. No error
E

29. Despite
A
its cultural importance, the Daily Gazette
lost
B
70 percent of its subscribers since 1920 and,
by 1955, was losing
C
as much as
D
$200,000 a year.
No error
E

Directions: The following passage is an early draft of an
essay. Some parts of the passage need to be rewritten.
Read the passage and select the best answers for the
questions that follow. Some questions are about particular
sentences or parts of sentences and ask you to improve
sentence structure or word choice. Other questions ask you
to consider organization and development. In choosing
answers, follow the requirements of standard written
English.

Questions 30-35 are based on the following passage.
(1) No one owns Antarctica. (2) The nations of
the world agreedsome of them reluctantlythat all
countries would share the continent for the purposes of
scientific research. (3) Governed by the Antarctic Treaty,
written in 1959 and adopted in 1961, which has been
signed by 27 countries. (4) Another 17 countries have
agreed to abide by the treaty in order to participate in
research being done in Antarctica.
(5) In Antarctica, relations among the researchers and
their countries are both simpler and more complicated than
in the rest of the world. (6) Relations are simpler because
each country has only a few scientists on this isolated
continent. (7) Treaty clauses assure that the research there
is nonmilitary. (8) On the other hand, when conflicts do
arise, there is no clear process for dealing with them.
(9) Decisions that can make or break the preservation
of Antarcticas unique environment and its scientific
opportunities depend on a political system designed to
have nobody in command.
(10) Clear decision making has become a more urgent
challenge as more tourists are attracted to Antarctica.
(11) Scientists living on Antarctica were not always as
careful to preserve the pristine environment as they are
now. (12) Tour operators are working with treaty members
to devise regulations, and there are plans to assess the
environmental impacts of tours. (13) But regulations
and assessment plans may prove difficult to settle on
and enforce in a place where jurisdiction is unclear.

30. What must be done to sentence 3 ?
(A) Combine it with sentence 2, putting a comma
after research.
(B) Begin it with the words Antarctica is.
(C) Replace the comma after 1961 with a
semicolon.
(D) Place the words it was before written.
(E) Change 1961, which to 1961. It.

31. What should be done with sentence 7 ?
(A) Change assure to make sure.
(B) Change Treaty clauses to The clauses agreed
to by the diverse countries represented there.
(C) Place sentence 7 before sentence 6.
(D) Combine sentence 7 with sentence 6 by changing
the period after continent to a comma.
(E) Combine sentence 7 with sentence 6 by changing
continent. Treaty to continent and also
because treaty.

32. In context, which is the best revision of the underlined
portion of sentence 9 (reproduced below) ?
Decisions that can make or break the preser-
vation of Antarcticas unique environment and
its scientific opportunities depend on a political system
designed to have nobody in command.
(A) create or destroy
(B) support or dispute
(C) be determined by
(D) be critical to
(E) be an adjustment to

33. The purpose of the second paragraph is to
(A) present a situation that has contradictory elements
(B) offer a solution to a problem discussed in the first
paragraph
(C) present an argument and its final resolution
(D) examine a theory in light of new discoveries
(E) discuss a theory that will be refuted in the third
paragraph

34. Which sentence should be deleted?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 11
(D) 12
(E) 13

35. The third paragraph would be improved if which of the
following sentences were added?
(A) Scientists collect ice cores by driving a hollow
tube deep into the miles-thick ice sheets.
(B) If the West Antarctic ice sheet melted,
global seas would rise by 15 to 20 feet.
(C) It is the driest place in the world, yet it contains
70 percent of Earths freshwater.
(D) One cruise ship encountered 30-foot waves all the
way across the Drake Passage.
(E) Last year, more than 10,000 tourists visited
Antarctica, bringing soiled boots, climbing gear,
and trash to many locations.

S T O P

SECTION 6
Time 25 minutes
18 Questions


Directions: This section contains two types of questions. You have 25 minutes to complete both types. For questions 1-8, solve
each problem and decide which is the best of the choices given. Fill in the corresponding circle on the answer sheet. You may
use any available space for scratchwork.

1. If 12 x k + and ( ) 36, p x k + what is the value
of ? p
(A) 3
(B) 4
(C) 6
(D) 9
(E) 12

2. If 13 is added to one-half of a certain number, the
result is 37. What is the original number?
(A) 24
(B) 40
(C) 48
(D) 61
(E) 80

3. In the figure above, the usual route from Town A to
Town D is indicated by the solid line. The broken line
indicates a detour route from B to C through E.
Each line segment is labeled with its length in miles.
How many more miles is the trip from Town A to
Town D via the detour than via the usual route?
(A) 4
(B) 8
(C) 10
(D) 12
(E) 18

x y
1 7.5
2 13.0
3 18.5
4 24.0

4. Which of the following equations expresses
y in terms of x for each of the four pairs of values
shown in the table above?
(A) 5 7.5 y x +
(B) 5.5 2 y x +
(C) 5.5 7.5 y x +
(D) 7.5 y x
(E) 7.5 5.5 y x +

5. In the figure above, point B lies on . AC If x and y
are integers, which of the following is a possible value
of x ?
(A) 30
(B) 35
(C) 40
(D) 50
(E) 55

6. The least and greatest numbers in a list of 7 real
numbers are 2 and 20, respectively. The median of the
list is 6, and the number 3 occurs most often in the list.
Which of the following could be the average (arithmetic
mean) of the numbers in the list?
I. 7
II. 8.5
III. 10

(A) I only
(B) I and II only
(C) I and III only
(D) II and III only
(E) I, II, and III

7. In the xy-coordinate plane, how many points are a
distance of 4 units from the origin?
(A) One
(B) Two
(C) Three
(D) Four
(E) More than four

Family
Number of
Consecutive
Nights
Jackson 10
Callan 5
Epstein 8
Liu 6
Benton 8

8. The table above shows the number of consecutive
nights that each of five families stayed at a certain
hotel during a 14-night period. If the Liu familys stay
did not overlap with the Benton familys stay, which of
the 14 nights could be a night on which only one of the
five families stayed at the hotel?
(A) The 3rd
(B) The 5th
(C) The 6th
(D) The 8th
(E) The 10th

9. If a cake is cut into thirds and each third is cut into
fourths, how many pieces of cake are there?

10. If ,
h
y
x
where h is a constant, and if 3 y when
4, x what does y equal when 6 ? x

11. In the figure above, point B lies on side . AC If
55 60, x < < what is one possible value of y ?

12. The price of a certain item was $10 in 1990 and it
has gone up by $2 per year since 1990. If this trend
continues, in what year will the price be $100 ?

13. The figure above shows the graph of a quadratic
function in the xy-plane. Of all the points ( ) , x y on the
graph, for what value of x is the value of y greatest?

14. The number n is a 2-digit number. When n is divided
by 10, the remainder is 9, and when n is divided by 9,
the remainder is 8. What is the value of n ?

15. The area of the figure above is
9
.
4
What is the
perimeter of the figure?

16. If j is chosen at random from the set { } 4, 5, 6 and
k is chosen at random from the set { } 10, 11, 12 , what
is the probability that the product of j and k is divisible
by 5 ?

17. Tom and Alison are both salespeople. Toms weekly
compensation consists of $300 plus 20 percent of his
sales. Alisons weekly compensation consists of $200
plus 25 percent of her sales. If they both had the same
amount of sales and the same compensation for a
particular week, what was that compensation, in
dollars? (Disregard the dollar sign when gridding your
answer.)

12 3 tx y +
18. The equation above is the equation of a line in the
xy-plane, and t is a constant. If the slope of the line
is 10, what is the value of t ?

S T O P

SECTION 7
Time 25 minutes
24 Questions



Example:

1. Black Americans in Flight, a mural honoring several
aviation pioneers, also ------- the 1992 spaceflight of
astronaut Mae Jemison.
(A) discerns (B) introduces (C) approximates
(D) commemorates (E) asserts

2. The new antifungal agent has such ------- uses, from
treating Dutch elm disease to rescuing water-damaged
works of art from molds, that it is considered one of
the more ------- antibiotics.
(A) disturbing . . explicit
(B) innovative . . precipitous
(C) mysterious . . recognized
(D) varied . . versatile
(E) similar . . discriminating

3. The child had a tendency toward aggressive behavior,
a ------- fighting rather than resolving differences
amicably.
(A) propensity for (B) confusion about
(C) disregard of (D) hostility toward
(E) compunction about

4. Physical exercise often has a ------- effect, releasing
emotional tension and refreshing the spirit.
(A) pejorative (B) debilitating (C) cathartic
(D) retentive (E) tenacious

5. Because rap and hip-hop offer such ------- commentary
on contemporary issues, they are often said to be
sharp-edged musical genres.
(A) nebulous (B) trenchant (C) circumspect
(D) prosaic (E) benign

Each passage below is followed by questions based on its content. Answer the questions on the basis of what is stated or implied
in each passage and in any introductory material that may be provided.

Mechanical pencils rule, my fifteen-year-old
grandniece, Genevieve, declared when I invited her to
be her generations voice on school supplies. Nobody
sharpens anymore. Then, continuing with a fashion
mavens hyperbole and arbitrary imperatives, she gave 5
a passionate disquisition on types of clickers, new grips,
smaller lead sizes, and other niceties of pencil selection.
As she consigned the yellow-painted wooden pencil to
the wastebasket of history, I felt a rush of nostalgia for
the perfumed sharpener shavings of my youth. 10

6. In lines 4-5, the author refers to a fashion mavens
tone primarily in order to
(A) imply that Genevieve has only a superficial
appreciation of mechanical pencils
(B) suggest that Genevieve is excessively concerned
about her clothing
(C) illustrate some of the exaggerated claims made
by mechanical pencil manufacturers
(D) emphasize the unpredictability of trends in con-
sumer tastes
(E) indicate that Genevieve expresses her opinions
with authority and flair

7. The author mentions sharpener shavings (line 10)
in order to portray a mood of
(A) unrestrained joy
(B) sentimental reminiscence
(C) bitter disappointment
(D) cautious optimism
(E) dark foreboding

Black holes are the most efficient engines of destruction
known to humanity. Their intense gravity is a one-way
ticket to oblivion, and material spiraling into them can
heat up to millions of degrees and glow brightly. Yet, they
are not all-powerful. Even supermassive black holes are 5
minuscule by cosmic standards. They typically account for
less than one percent of their galaxys mass. Accordingly,
astronomers long assumed that supermassive holes, let
alone their smaller cousins, would have little effect beyond
their immediate neighborhoods. So it has come as a sur- 10
prise over the past decade that black hole activity is closely
intertwined with star formation occurring farther out in the
galaxy.

8. Which best describes the function of the statement
in lines 10-13 (So it . . . galaxy) ?
(A) It summarizes the points made in the first
four lines of the passage.
(B) It provides support for the argument asserted
in the preceding statement.
(C) It introduces a new view of information
presented earlier in the passage.
(D) It challenges recent scientific findings.
(E) It offers examples to support a theory.

9. Which of the following most resembles the relationship
between black hole activity and star formation
(lines 11-12) as described in the passage?
(A) A volcanic eruption on one continent results
in higher rainfall totals on another continent.
(B) Industrial emissions in one region lead to an
increase in airborne pollutants in adjacent
regions.
(C) A drought in a wilderness area causes a
significant loss of vegetation in that area.
(D) Decreased oil production in one country results
in higher gas prices in oil-dependent countries.
(E) Overfishing in a gulf leads to an increase in
the population of smaller aquatic organisms.

Line Line

The following passage is an excerpt from a 1909 novel.
Georgia, the main character, is a reporter in an otherwise
all-male newsroom.
Georgia was to be married. It was the week before
Christmas, and on the last day of the year she would
become Mrs. Joseph Tank. She had told Joe that if
they were to be married at all they might as well get it
over with this year, and still there was no need of being 5
married any earlier in the year than was necessary. She
assured him that she married him simply because she was
tired of having paper bags waved before her eyes every-
where she went and she thought if she were once officially
associated with him people would not flaunt his idiosyn- 10
crasies at her that way. And then Ernestine, her best friend,
approved of getting married, and Ernestines ideas were
usually good. To all of which Joe responded that she
certainly had a splendid head to figure it out that way.
Joe said that to his mind reasons for doing things werent 15
very important anyhow; it was doing them that counted.
Yesterday had been her last day on the paper. She had
felt queer about that thing of taking her last assignment,
though it was hard to reach just the proper state, for the
last story related to pork-packers, and pork-packing is 20
not a setting favorable to sentimental regrets. It was just
like the newspaper business not even to allow one a little
sentimental harrowing over ones exodus from it. But the
time for gentle melancholy came later on when she was
sorting her things at her desk just before leaving, and 25
was wondering what girl would have that old deskif
they cared to risk another girl, and whether the other poor
girl would slave through the years she should have been
frivolous, only to have some man step in at the end and
induce her to surrender the things she had gained through 30
sacrifice and toil.
As she wrote a final letter on her typewritershe did
hate letting the old machine goGeorgia did considerable
philosophizing about the irony of working for things only
to the end of giving them up. She had waded through snow- 35
drifts and been drenched in pouring rains, she had been
frozen with the cold and prostrated with the heat, she had
been blown about by Chicago wind until it was strange
there was any of her left in one piece, she had had front
doorsyes, and back doors tooslammed in her face, 40
she had been the butt of the alleged wit of menials and
hirelings, she had been patronized by vapid women as
the poor girl who must make her living some way, she
had been roasted bybut never mindshe had had
a beat* or two! And now she was to wind it all up by 45
marrying Joseph Tank, who had made a great deal of
money out of the manufacture of paper bags. This from
herwho had always believed she would end her days
in New York, or perhaps write a realistic novel exposing
some mighty evil! 50

* the area regularly covered by a reporter

10. Based on information presented in the passage, which
best describes what Georgia was tired of (line 8) ?
(A) Being forced to earn a living
(B) Being teased about Joseph Tank
(C) Being considered a hack writer by some
of her colleagues
(D) Being betrayed by her supposed friends
(E) Being the only woman in the newsroom

11. The second paragraph suggests that Georgia believes
the proper state (line 19) would be one of
(A) excitement
(B) wistfulness
(C) amusement
(D) annoyance
(E) relief

12. In line 27, poor most nearly means
(A) pitiable
(B) indigent
(C) inferior
(D) humble
(E) petty

13. Which most resembles the irony mentioned
in line 34 ?
(A) A worker moving to a distant state to take
a job, only to be fired without warning
(B) An executive making an important decision,
only to regret it later
(C) An athlete earning a starting position on
a good team, only to quit in midseason
(D) A student studying for a major exam, only
to learn that it has been postponed
(E) A person purchasing an expensive umbrella,
only to lose it on the first rainy day

Line

14. The description in lines 35-45 (She . . . two!)
primarily serves to
(A) suggest that Georgia envied those women
who did not have to work
(B) imply that Georgia would be unlikely ever
to consider working as a reporter again
(C) indicate the role that weather plays in the
everyday life of a reporter
(D) exaggerate Georgias reluctance to relinquish
her job
(E) show the adversities Georgia had to overcome
as a reporter

15. In context, the phrase This from her (lines 47-48)
helps to suggest that a
(A) specific feeling is quite heartfelt
(B) stated viewpoint is highly personal
(C) certain decision is out of character
(D) particular behavior is extremely upsetting
(E) given attitude is unsurprising

The following passage is adapted from a book about
television and popular culture.
Ridiculing television, and warning about its inherent
evils, is nothing new. It has been that way since the
medium was invented, and television hasnt exactly
been lavished with respect as the decades have passed.
I suspect, though, that a lot of the fear and loathing 5
directed at television comes out of a time-honored,
reflexive overreaction to the dominant medium of the
moment. For the past several decades, television has
been blamed for corrupting our youth and exciting
our adults, distorting reality, and basically being a 10
big, perhaps dangerous, waste of time. Before TV,
radio and film were accused of the same things. And
long before that in fact, some 2,500 years earlier
philosophers were arguing that poetry and drama
should be excluded from any ideal city on much the 15
same grounds.
In Book 10 of the Republic, Plato (428-348 B.C.)
attacks epic poet Homer (c. 850 B.C.) and the trage-
dians on several grounds, all of which have a familiar
ring. Their productions are appearances and not realities, 20
he gripes. Drawing, and in fact all imitation . . . [is] quite
removed from the truth. The audience, as well as the art
form, troubled Plato, whose remarks are colored by an
implied disdain for the popularity of public performances.
The common people, as Plato so charitably calls them, 25
are drawn to peevish and diverse characterssuch as
Odysseus and other heroes in the Iliad and the Odyssey
who (to Plato, anyway) engage in such questionable
displays of emotion as spinning out a long melancholy
lamentation or disfiguring themselves in grief. To 30
Plato, baring such intimate sorrows is not to be condoned.
(Clearly, he would have given thumbs down to the central
characters of Shakespeares Hamlet and Macbeth.) If you
receive the pleasure-seasoned Muse
1
of song and epic,
Plato warns, pleasure and pain will be kings in your city, 35
instead of law. Finally, Plato sums up his anti-arts argu-
ment with the cold, sweeping pronouncement that poetry
is not to be taken seriously.
One academic who has studied and written extensively
about both Plato and television suggests that Plato, rather 40
than being anti-arts, was merely an elitist. Plato wanted
to ban poetry readings and live theater, the argument
goes, because, being free and accessible and raucous and
extremely popular, they were the mass entertainment
of that era. If, instead of tragedy and poetry, and 45
Homer and Aeschylus,
2
you read mass entertainment
or popular media, youll recognize Platos arguments as
the ancestor of all the reasons we have today for being
suspicious of television.
To wit: poetry, by which Plato means drama, confuses 50
us between appearance and reality. The action it presents
is too extreme and violent. Most important, its a corrupt-
ing influence, perverting its audience by bombarding it
with inferior characters and vulgar subjectsand con-
stituting, in Platos own words, a harm to the mind of 55
its audience.
If Platos Republic had become reality, it would have
been a republic with a lot of empty libraries, theaters, and
museumsif, indeed, those repositories of the arts would
have survived at all. Platos personal utopia never came to 60
passbut throughout the centuries, wherever and when-
ever a new medium of artistic expression attracted a lot
of people, someone has been ready, waiting, and eager to
attack its content and fear its impact.

1
The Muses inspired poetry and song in Greek mythology.
2
Aeschylus (525-456 B.C.) was a Greek tragic dramatist.

16. The opening paragraph primarily serves to
(A) criticize the way television distorts the truth
(B) examine the evolution of television as a medium
(C) place contemporary criticism of television in a
historical context
(D) directly compare television and drama as art
forms
(E) explain why television, radio, and drama appeal
to the masses

17. Which of the following television shows would
be LEAST vulnerable to the criticism expressed
in lines 8-11 (For . . . time) ?
(A) A melodrama in which police detectives attempt
to solve crimes
(B) A soap opera depicting interpersonal conflicts in
a fictional law firm
(C) A comedy whose primary characters are
supernatural
(D) A documentary on the state of education in
the nation
(E) A talk show that encourages people to confront
each other in front of a studio audience

18. In line 26, drawn most nearly means
(A) brought
(B) depicted
(C) selected
(D) attracted
(E) shaped

Line

19. Which of the following best characterizes Platos view
of the heroes mentioned in line 27 ?
(A) Admiration
(B) Curiosity
(C) Distrust
(D) Disappointment
(E) Contempt

20. The academic (line 39) indicates that Plato was
primarily characterized by his
(A) insight
(B) artistry
(C) cynicism
(D) irreverence
(E) snobbishness

21. The primary purpose of the statements in lines 39-45
(One . . . that era) is to
(A) provide an interpretation of a viewpoint
described in the previous paragraph
(B) show how Platos view of politics should
be understood in todays terms
(C) put divergent interpretations of Plato into
historical perspective
(D) account for the appeal of Platos writings
(E) signal a digression in the passage

22. The fourth paragraph (lines 50-56) indicates that
Platos principal objection to poetry (line 50)
was its
(A) confusing language
(B) widespread popularity
(C) depiction of turbulent events
(D) influence on peoples morals
(E) misrepresentation of historical figures

23. The author of the passage would probably agree with
which of the following statements about the utopia
referred to in line 60 ?
(A) It would have encouraged new artistic ventures.
(B) It would have stifled human creativity.
(C) It is an ideal that we should continue to work
towards.
(D) It may come to pass because of the popularity
of television.
(E) It was a notion rejected by Greek philosophers.

24. The comment about a new medium of artistic
expression (line 62) primarily suggests that
(A) the author holds a fatalistic view of the
future for artistic expression
(B) certain societies in the past have been
slow to accept new art forms
(C) people often disguise their true feelings
when it comes to art
(D) the popular response to a new art form
will often overcome opposition to it
(E) a popular new art form will always
receive some form of negative response

S T O P

SECTION 8
Time 20 minutes
19 Questions



Example:

1. As a child, Mary ------- her stringent upbringing;
however, as she grew older she began to appreciate
her grandmothers strict -------.
(A) tolerated . . autonomy
(B) despised . . discipline
(C) embraced . . authority
(D) disavowed . . abstinence
(E) loathed . . liberality

2. His mouth stinging and burning, Virgil hurried to the
kitchen for water to wash away the dishs ------- taste.
(A) earthy (B) exotic (C) cloying
(D) acrid (E) succulent

3. Since other seabirds customarily nest in colonies on
ocean cliffs and islands, the marbled murrelets -------
nesting in forests many miles from the sea must be
considered -------.
(A) ambivalence about . . hypothetical
(B) indifference to . . bold
(C) insistence upon . . evident
(D) aversion to . . dangerous
(E) predilection for . . atypical

4. The cause of Mozarts ------- is a long-standing
medical -------: over the years, physicians have
suggested more than 100 possibilities, including
poisoning, malnutrition, kidney disease, and
heart failure.
(A) mortality . . phenomenon
(B) bereavement . . controversy
(C) genius . . enigma
(D) demise . . mystery
(E) death . . trial

5. At first the children were -------, but as the morning
progressed they began to laugh and talk eagerly.
(A) ostentatious (B) myopic (C) solicitous
(D) puerile (E) reticent

6. Oren missed the plays overarching significance,
focusing instead on details so minor that they would
best be described as -------.
(A) pragmatic (B) indelible (C) moribund
(D) picayune (E) impervious

The passage below is followed by questions based on its content. Answer the questions on the basis of what is stated or implied
in the passage and in any introductory material that may be provided.

The following passage is from a 1979 essay by a Native
American writer.
An understanding of any national literature depends
very much on an awareness of the larger cultural context.
Without some knowledge of language, of history, of
inflection, of the position of the storyteller within the
group, without a hint of the social roles played by males 5
and females in the culture, without a sense of the societys
humor or prioritieswithout such knowledge, how can
we, as reader or listener, penetrate to the core of meaning
in an expression of art?
The difficulty of gaining access to the literature of a 10
different culture may be illustrated by an exemplary folk-
tale (in translation) from the Tanaina (Athabaskan) culture
of south-central Alaska. It would typically be told to a
general audience within the society, including the full range
of ages from young children to grandparents; it would be 15
recounted with gesticulation and exaggeration by a perfor-
mance specialist. It would be expected to have different
meanings to the various categories of listeners instructive,
entertaining, reinforcing, or all three. Here is a brief version
of the story: 20
Once upon a time there was a porcupine woman who
decided to do some hunting on the far side of the river. She
went to the bank, where she met a beaver.
Hello, she said to him. I need to do some hunting over
there. Will you ride me across on your back? 25
Id be glad to, replied the beaver. Hop on.
So the porcupine woman climbed on his back, and he
started swimming for the other side. When he had almost
made it, the porcupine woman said, Oh my! Ive forgotten
to bring my sack. Ill need to go back to the other bank and 30
get it.
All right, said the beaver, and swam back. He was
panting while the porcupine woman went to get her sack.
Okay, she said. Lets go. So they started across
again. The beaver was swimming much more slowly. When 35
they had practically reached the other side, she said, Oh
my! Ive forgotten to bring my needle. Well have to go
back and get it.
This time the beaver didnt say anythinghe didnt
have enough breath! But he turned around and pulled them 40
back to the shore and nearly passed out while she got her
needle.
Hurry up, now, the porcupine woman said as she
climbed back on his back. He could hardly keep his nose
above water, but he had almost made it to the far bank 45
again when she said, Oh my! Ive forgotten my staff.
Well have to . . . .
Before she had finished her sentence the beaver had
flipped over in the water and dragged himself onto the
bank, where he lay half dead. The porcupine woman 50
managed to make the shore too, and climbed up onto a bear
path. When she had caught her breath, she turned on the
beaver and quilled him to death.
The Tanaina live in an environment that could euphe-
mistically be described as difficult. Survival, especially 55
in the wild, is always precarious. Further, they were, in the
precontact period, a nonliterate people. Oral communica-
tion was therefore the method of cultural transmission,
legal understanding, and meaningful communication. It is
also necessary to know that a staff, as mentioned in the 60
story, functions as both a walking stick and a weapon, and
that in the Tanaina symbol system, porcupines were
supposed to be rather ponderous, dull-witted creatures, and
beavers were thought to be energetic and industrious but
overly spontaneous and erratic. 65
For the reader armed with these data, the story becomes
more accessible as a lesson in contract law, with several
additional minor themes. A culturally attuned listener
would notice, for instance, that when the porcupine woman
proposed passage to the beaver, he agreed without any 70
stipulations or clarifications of the terms. He gave a
basically open-ended agreement made a contract and
hence the porcupine woman was perfectly within her rights
both in demanding that he return three times and in quilling
him to death when he reneged. 75
The story is not, however, without its moral for the por-
cupine women of this world. Her stated aim is to go
hunting, and yet she sets out without the three essentials of
that endeavor: a sack in which to carry home her game, a
needle with which to sew up the intestines, and, most 80
important, an implement with which to hunt and defend
herself. True, she had an open-ended contract, but where
does she wind up at the conclusion of the story? Sitting,
exhausted, quills used up, weaponless, and not only on the
wrong side of the river from her home but on a bear path! 85
The hunter is about to become the hunted, and all because
of her own improvidence.

Line

7. In the opening paragraph, the author assumes that the
meaning (line 8) is
(A) culturally determined
(B) intensely personal
(C) essentially moralistic
(D) permanently inscrutable
(E) uniquely artistic

8. In the context of the passage, which expression of art
(line 9) would be the most difficult to interpret?
(A) A contemporary play written by a prolific play-
wright
(B) A fable from a nonliterate society with which
anthropologists are very familiar
(C) A single text produced by a previously unknown
society
(D) A sitcom from the early days of television
(E) A single myth from an ancient culture with a well-
documented mythological structure

9. How does the author respond to the question posed in
lines 3-9 ?
(A) By proposing an innovative strategy
(B) By confirming the futility of such analysis
(C) By describing a personal experience with the
problem
(D) By illustrating his point within a particular context
(E) By documenting a traditional approach to the
problem

10. The author discusses Tanaina culture from the
perspective of
(A) a concerned parent
(B) a bewildered visitor
(C) a performance artist
(D) an informed outsider
(E) an indignant reader

11. The sentence in which difficult appears (lines 54-55)
indicates that the author considers the word to be
(A) an exaggeration
(B) an estimate
(C) an understatement
(D) a contradiction
(E) a preconception

12. In relation to the passage, the statements in lines 59-65
serve a function most similar to which of the following
items?
(A) A menu in a restaurant
(B) The key or legend to a map
(C) A department store directory
(D) The outline of a term paper
(E) An illustration of a fairytale

13. The authors analysis of the folktale offers which
insight into Tanaina beliefs?
(A) A fanciful story is most suitable for an audience
of children.
(B) A verbal exchange can establish a binding
contract.
(C) A person who behaves impulsively is most often
sincere.
(D) A shared task should be divided fairly between
two people.
(E) A painstaking plan may nonetheless fail to
anticipate all problems.

14. The porcupine women of this world (lines 76-77) are
best described as people who
(A) plan inadequately for their own needs
(B) postpone necessary work in favor of leisure
(C) depend heavily upon help from their close friends
(D) return repeatedly to their favorite places
(E) flee quickly from any laborious task

15. The final paragraph (lines 76-87) suggests that the bear
path mentioned in lines 51-52 is significant because it
(A) foreshadows the arrival of a benevolent character
from Tanaina folklore
(B) suggests an alarming alternative to crossing
the river
(C) marks the boundary of the beavers natural
surroundings
(D) explains the porcupine womans fear of
unfamiliar territory
(E) poses a new peril for the porcupine woman

16. In lines 83-87, the description of the porcupine woman
emphasizes the discrepancy between her
(A) social position and her private feelings
(B) physical wealth and her moral poverty
(C) hostile action and her ultimate gratitude
(D) original goal and her actual situation
(E) grandiose ambition and her real needs

17. As a commentary on legal relations, this folktale is best
described as
(A) an example of traditional practices
(B) an outline for social behavior
(C) a warning about ill-conceived assent
(D) a criticism of obsolete customs
(E) a parody of actual situations

18. The authors attitude toward the Tanaina folktale is
best described as
(A) excitement at an unexpected discovery
(B) admiration of the storytellers performance
(C) appreciation of the folktale as a means of commu-
nicating values
(D) enthusiasm for the Tanaina cultures concept of
legality
(E) enjoyment of the comical aspects of the folktale

19. Which statement is most consistent with the authors
argument?
(A) Translating a literary text requires formal lin-
guistic training.
(B) Tales transmitted by a nonliterate society elude
transcription in later eras.
(C) Listening to a skilled storyteller is more instruc-
tive than entertaining.
(D) Simple enjoyment of a tale is incompatible with
scholarly analysis.
(E) To read a text is not necessarily to understand it.

S T O P

SECTION 9
Time 20 minutes
16 Questions


Directions: For this section, solve each problem and decide which is the best of the choices given. Fill in the corresponding
circle on the answer sheet. You may use any available space for scratchwork.

1. If
1
9 0,
3
y + then y
(A) 27
(B) 9
(C) 3
(D) 3
(E) 27

2. In the figure above, P, Q, and R lie on the same line.
P is the center of the larger circle, and Q is the center
of the smaller circle. If the radius of the larger circle
is 4, what is the radius of the smaller circle?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 4
(D) 8
(E) 16

3. Roy planted corn on
1
5
of his land. If he planted
45 acres of corn, how many acres of land does
he have?
(A) 90

(B)
1
112
2

(C) 135

(D) 225

(E)
1
337
2

6, 10, 18, 34, 66
4. The first number in the list above is 6. Which of the
following gives a rule for finding each successive
number in the list?
(A) Add 4 to the preceding number.
(B) Take
1
2
of the preceding number and then add 7
to that result.
(C) Double the preceding number and then subtract 2
from that result.
(D) Subtract 2 from the preceding number and then
double that result.
(E) Triple the preceding number and then subtract 8
from that result.

5. The two semicircles in the figure above have centers
R and S, respectively. If 12, RS what is the total
length of the darkened curve?
(A) 8
(B) 9
(C) 12
(D) 15
(E) 16

6. If h and k are positive numbers and 7, h k +
then
7 k
h

(A) 1
(B) 0
(C) 1
(D) h
(E) 1 k

Country
Total
Population
Population
Density
A 6,500,000 people
600 people
per square mile
B 7,600,000 people
400 people
per square mile

7. The table above shows the populations of two
countries and their population densities. The
number of square miles in the area of Country B
is approximately how much greater than the
number of square miles in the area of Country A ?
(A) 200
(B) 3,600
(C) 5,000
(D) 8,000
(E) 905,000,000

8. If
2
6, x x + which of the following must be true?
(A) 6 x

(B) 3 x <

(C) 0 x >
(D)
2
x x <
(E)
2
x x >

9. Let the function f be defined by ( ) 5 2 , f x x a
where a is a constant. If ( ) ( ) 10 5 55, f f + what
is the value of a ?
(A) 5
(B) 0
(C) 5
(D) 10
(E) 20

10. A number is called even-odd if it is halfway between
an even integer and an odd integer. If x is an even-odd
number, which of the following must be true?
I. 2x is an integer.
II. 2x is even-odd.
III. x is halfway between two even integers.

(A) I only
(B) II only
(C) I and II only
(D) II and III only
(E) I, II, and III

11. If m is a positive integer, which of the following is
NOT equal to
( )
4
2 ?
m

(A)
4
2
m

(B)
2
4
m

(C)
( )
3
2 2
m m

(D)
( )
4 2
m m

(E) 16
m

12. According to the graph above, in which year was the
ratio of the number of students enrolled at School B
to the number of students enrolled at School A the
greatest?
(A) 1990
(B) 1991
(C) 1992
(D) 1993
(E) 1994

13. In the figure above, || . m Which of the following
must equal 180 ?
(A) k n r + +
(B) k p s + +
(C) n p s + +
(D) n p t + +
(E) r s t + +

14. How many different ordered pairs ( , ) x y are there such
that x is an even integer, where 4 10, x s s and y is
an integer, where 4 10 ? y < <
(A) 8
(B) 12
(C) 20
(D) 30
(E) 36

( ) ( ) 500 0.81
t
n t
15. The function above can be used to model the
population of a certain endangered species of
animal. If ( ) n t gives the number of the species
living t decades after the year 1900, which of the
following is true about the population of the species
from 1900 to 1920 ?
(A) It increased by about 1,000.
(B) It increased by about 320.
(C) It decreased by about 180.
(D) It decreased by about 320.
(E) It decreased by about 1,000.

16. A sphere of radius r inside a cube touches each one
of the six sides of the cube. What is the volume of the
cube, in terms of r ?
(A)
3
r

(B)
3
2r

(C)
3
4r

(D)
3
4
3
r

(E)
3
8r

S T O P

SECTION 10
Time 10 minutes
14 Questions



The following sentences test correctness and effectiveness
of expression. Part of each sentence or the entire sentence
is underlined; beneath each sentence are five ways of
phrasing the underlined material. Choice A repeats the
original phrasing; the other four choices are different. If
you think the original phrasing produces a better sentence
than any of the alternatives, select choice A; if not, select
one of the other choices.
In making your selection, follow the requirements of
standard written English; that is, pay attention to grammar,
choice of words, sentence construction, and punctuation.
Your selection should result in the most effective
sentenceclear and precise, without awkwardness or
ambiguity.

EXAMPLE:
Laura Ingalls Wilder published her first book
and she was sixty-five years old then.
(A) and she was sixty-five years old then
(B) when she was sixty-five
(C) at age sixty-five years old
(D) upon the reaching of sixty-five years
(E) at the time when she was sixty-five

1. The Amazon River carries more water than the water
carried in any of the worlds other rivers.
(A) the water carried in any of the worlds other rivers
(B) the water elsewhere in the worlds rivers
(C) any other river in the world
(D) all rivers in the world
(E) any of the worlds rivers elsewhere

2. The owners of stadiums that bear the names of now
bankrupt companies have a problem what to do about
the names.
(A) what to do about the names
(B) what they should do about the names
(C) deciding what to do about those names
(D) to decide as to whether the names should stay
(E) should they change those names or not
3. During the Fourth of July weekend in 1947, about six
million people crowded onto the beach and into the
amusements at Coney Island, Americas Playground,
in Brooklyn, New York.
(A) During the Fourth of July weekend in 1947,
(B) It was the Fourth of July weekend in 1947 that
(C) The Fourth of July weekend that occurred in 1947
was when
(D) The Fourth of July weekend in 1947,
(E) Occurring in 1947 over the Fourth of July
weekend,

4. Because fiscal problems will force some cities to lay
off firefighters, and so the state legislature must decide
whether to provide those cities with financial aid.
(A) firefighters, and so
(B) firefighters is a matter
(C) firefighters,
(D) firefighters; then
(E) firefighters; this is a problem

5. A recently published history of comic books reveal that
Batman was begun as an experiment but became an
institution.
(A) recently published history of comic books reveal
that Batman was begun as an experiment
(B) recently published history of comic books reveals
that Batman began as an experiment
(C) recent published history of comic books revealed
that Batman, who began as an experiment
(D) history of comic books, recently published,
revealing Batman first began as an experiment
(E) history of comic books having been recently
published, it reveals how Batman began as an
experiment

6. A discovery in New Jersey actually contributed to the
early economic development of America and, in 1714,
a worker uncovered a green rock containing copper.
(A) America and, in 1714, a worker uncovered
(B) America when, in 1714, a worker uncovered
(C) America, thus, in 1714, a worker uncovered
(D) America, that being a worker in 1714 uncovering
(E) America, it was in 1714 a worker uncovered

7. Selected as an astronaut by NASA in 1990, over
719 hours in space were spent by Dr. Ellen Ochoa
on three flights by 2001.
(A) over 719 hours in space were spent by
Dr. Ellen Ochoa on three flights by 2001
(B) by 2001, and on three flights, Dr. Ellen Ochoa
spent over 719 hours in space
(C) three flights and 719 hours were spent by
Dr. Ellen Ochoa in space by 2001
(D) Dr. Ellen Ochoa, by 2001 spending over
719 hours in space on three flights
(E) Dr. Ellen Ochoa had spent over 719 hours
in space on three flights by 2001

8. The old maxim Let the buyer beware suggests that as
a buyer we are responsible for inspecting merchandise
for flaws before paying for it.
(A) as a buyer we are responsible
(B) as a buyer it is their responsibility
(C) the buyer is the responsible one
(D) buyers are responsible
(E) buyers are to be the ones responsible

9. The same analysts who once favored public-opinion
polls now see them as hampering representative
government.
(A) The same analysts who once favored public-
opinion polls now see them
(B) The same analysts which were once in favor of
public-opinion polls now have come to see them
(C) Public-opinion polls, once favored by
analysts, but now seen by these same analysts
(D) As for favoring public-opinion polls, the same
analysts now see them
(E) Analysts once were in favor of public-opinion
polls, which these same analysts now see

10. Santa Fe is one of the oldest cities in the United States,
its adobe architecture, spectacular setting, and clear,
radiant light have long made it a magnet for artists.
(A) Santa Fe is one of the oldest cities in the United
States, its
(B) Santa Fe, which is one of the oldest cities in the
United States, its
(C) Santa Fe, which is one of the oldest cities in the
United States, has
(D) Santa Fe is one of the oldest cities in the United
States; its
(E) Santa Fe, one of the oldest cities in the United
States, and its

11. Dime novels, known in nineteenth-century England
as penny dreadfuls, flourished because increased
mechanization of printing and increased literacy rates
made production of large numbers of these books
profitable.
(A) and increased literacy rates made
(B) with increased literacy rates also made
(C) and also literacy rates increased and made
(D) as well as increased literacy rates, making
(E) and literacy rates increased, making

12. Frequently on tour, a band called the Chieftains
revered internationally as spirited performers of
traditional Irish music.
(A) revered internationally as spirited performers
(B) revered internationally and they are spirited
performers
(C) is revered internationally for its spirited
performances
(D) is revered internationally as giving spirited
performances
(E) are revered internationally as being spirited
performers

13. Psychologists advise that before making any major
changes in your life, a person needs to focus on ones
goals.
(A) your life, a person needs to focus on ones goals
(B) their life, a person needs to focus on their goals
(C) their lives, focus on the goals
(D) ones life, you should focus on your goals
(E) their lives, people should focus on their goals

14. Some beaches are frequently contaminated by
untreated sewage that flows into the ocean, which can
last for several days.
(A) ocean, which can last for several days
(B) ocean that can last for several days
(C) ocean, it can last for several days
(D) ocean, while contamination can last several days
(E) ocean; the contamination can last for several days

S T O P

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