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COMPETITIVE ZEAL

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CONTENTS
1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 7. 8. 9. The Vice President of India London Olympics India an Under Achiever News: National/International Commonly Used Terms Test Your Knowledge An Exercise Current General Knowledge SSC Compendium FCI-Special "Recent Appointments & Meetings" 2 4 6 11 14 15 16 19 26 28 32 33 34 48 60

FIRST PAGE
Competitive Zeal for Latest Update
Dear Readers, Heartiest thanks to all of you for your faith and support for Competitive Zeal, for quite a long time. It has been the privilege of I.B.S. to cater to the needs of our students in pursuit of their goal to success in their exam/competitions. I.B.S. has always been known for its innovation and student centric teaching approach as we very well understand that exams are getting tougher will the fast changing times. In order to build an edge in the competition, one has to work with self confidence, perseverance and hard work. Infact life is like a battle, one has to fight if fearlessly. Fight with confidence, positive attitude, right aptitude and with determined efforts to achieve the success ultimately. One who tries, has a chance of victory. It is our confidence that boosts the morale and creates determination to attain a goal. It should always be remembered, a quitter can never be a winner. Please dont give up, never get frustrated by the odds and failures of the path, till the goal is reached. One step at a time and that will take you to the grandest height. So rejuvenate and re-energize yourself for your coming exams. Here again we request our dear reader for their wise suggestions and contributions to this magazine.

10. One Word Substitution 11. Reasoning Kapsule 12. Vocab Funda 13. Crossword Puzzle 14. SBI Exam -7th Oct, 2012 15. IDBI Exam Paper 16. AAO Exam Paper

Competitive ZEAL
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Obstacles are those frightful things; you see when you take your eyes off your goal HENRY FORD
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Vice President Of India

THE Vice President of India is the


second highest dignitary of India, only next to President of India. Though no formal functions are attached to the office of Vice President but still he performs some functions. The Vice President is elected by the members of an Electoral College consisting of all 790 members of both houses of Parliament (545 of the Lok Sabha and 245 of Rajya Sabha). Unlike in the Presidential election, the nominated members of both houses- Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha are also eligible to participate in the election for the post of Vice President. The election of the Vice President, like that of President shall be indirect and in accordance with the system of proportional representation be means of the single transferable vote. But the election of Vice President is infact different from that of the President as the State Legislature have no part in it. The Vice President is elected by an Electoral College consisting of the members of both Houses of Parliament. The voting is by secret ballot and voters rank the candidates in order of preference:1. 2. 3. Recording 1 opposite the name of the candidate who is their first choice. 2 to their second preference and so on. The votes should be recorded in numerals, not in words. During the counting, the numbers of first preference votes secured by each candidate is ascertained. The numbers so ascertained are added up. The total is divided by two and one is added to the quotient disregarding any remainder. The resulting number is the quota sufficient for a candidate to secure election. In case no candidate is successful to obtain the required number of first preference votes then the candidate getting least number of first preference votes will be eliminated and 2 nd preference votes of such candidate will be transferred to the respective remaining candidates for whom such second preferences have been marked. The process will be repeated till a candidate gets the requisite number of votes.

Qualifications:A person, in order to be elected as Vice President must be:Citizen of India. Has completed 35 years of age. Must not hold any office of profit under Union, State or Local Authority in their meaning of Article 66 of Indian Constitution. For a person to be elected as President, he must be qualified for election as a member of the House of People. Similarly in order to be Vice President, he must be qualified to be elected as a member of the Council of States. The purpose behind this provision is that the Vice President is normally to act as Chairman of the Council of the State. Here it is pertinent to add that there is no bar to a member of the Union or State Legislature being elected President or Vice President but a person cannot hold two offices. But once he is elected President or Vice President, he will be deemed to have vacated his seat in that House of the Legislature to which he was a member. 1. 2. 3. Term of Office:The term of the Vice President is 5 years. His office may terminate earlier to this term of five years, either by resignation or by removal. Removal:Within the meaning of the Article 67, Provision (b), a formal impeachment is not required for the removal of Vice President. He may be removed by a resolution of the Council of States passed by the majority of its members and agreed to by the House of People. Re-election:Though there is no specific provision for re-election of Vice President but the Explanation to Article 66 of Indian Constitution suggests that the sitting Vice President may go for re-election. Dr. S. Radhakrishnan was re-elected Vice President in 1957. Functions of Vice President:The function of the Vice President may be discussed as under:a) The normal function of the Vice President is to act as the ex-officio Chairman of the Council of States.

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Man is by nature a political animal

Aristotle Aristotle

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b) If there occurs any vacancy in the office of the President by reason of his death, resignation, removal or otherwise, the Vice President will act as President until a new President is acted and enters upon his office. The Vice President will discharge the functions of the President during the temporary absence of the President or any other cause by reason of which President is unable to discharge his functions. Here it is quite interesting to note that there is no mechanism under the Constitution to determine as to when the President is unable to discharge his duties. Historically speaking it was in 1960, the Vice President Dr. S.Radhakrishnan, for the first time was given the opportunity of acting as President owing to the inability of the President Dr. Rajendra Prasad to discharge his duties as he (then President) was on 15 day visit to Russia. Second time in May 1961, when Dr. Rajendra Prasad become seriously ill and incapable of discharging his duties, himself suggested that the Vice President should discharge the functions of President until he resumed his duties. In the event of the occurance of vacancy in the office of both the President and the Vice President by reason of death, resignation, removal etc. the Chief Justice of India or in his absence the senior most judge of the Supreme Court available will discharge the functions of President until a new President is elected. In 1969, Chief Justice Sh. Hidyatullah discharged the functions of the President when on the death of Dr. Zakir Hussain, the Vice President Sh. V.V.Giri resigned. Emoluments:When the Vice President discharges the functions of the President, the Vice President shall not perform the duties of the Chairman of Rajya Sabha and shall not entitled to receive the salary of the Chairman. During this period he is entitled for the salary and privileges of the President of India.

c)

FORMER VICE PRESIDENTS OF INDIA

Dr. S. Radhakrishnan

Dr.Zakir Hussain

Sh. V.V. Giri

Sh. Gopal Swarup Pathak

Sh. B.D.Jatti

Sh. M. Hidayatullah

Sh. R. Venkataraman

Dr. Shanker Dayal Sharma

Sh. K.R. Narayanan

Sh. Krishan Kant

Sh.Bhairon Singh Shekhawat

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LONDON OLYMPICS INDIA AN UNDERACHIEVER

India, the worlds largest democracy, second largest country


in the world by population (fast catching up with China though), has been under -achiever at London Olympics. With a population of over 1.2 billion and just 6 medals and none is gold. A total of six medals for India averages to one medal for roughly every 207 million inhabitants. Compare to that to China with one medal for every 15.5 million people (for a total of 87 medals). With an annual GDP of 1.848 trillion, India is worlds 10th largest economy according World Bank Data 2011. Yet its number of medals is far lower than that of countries with smaller economies. Here we may also take an example of Russia, with a marginally larger economy than India, is having won 87 medals at this Olympics. This is all disturbing for all Indians. It will be simply wrong to guess that India does not care about competing in the Olympics. We have, infact eagerly followed the games while cheering the athletes. Ironically, the question of Indias poor performance at Olympics arises only when the games are on, for only about two weeks every four years and we do not care about them for the rest of three years and more. We are torn between feeling proud for six athletes of India that brought us the medals, our best ever medal tally, and the feeling of disappointment at seeing India finish at a poor 55th rank. This rank reflects not only the state of sports infrastructure in India but also our state of mind as a country. Though we cannot deny the fact that we are a poor nation having a large majority of Indians struggling for survival yet we have a great potential to rank in the top ten countries in the world. Time has come now to build grass roots sporting culture in the country. The experts are of the view that there is lack of inclusive sports growth policy for large sections of the Indian population. So how can we count them as potential medal winners in games/athletics. They are excluded by poor childhood health, physical isolation by poor transportation from the athletic centers in the big cities or poor knowledge about the modern preparatory techniques and requirements for the Olympics or other sports competitions. Infact we need a sports infrastructure and an overhaul of the current training system in India. We need to follow Chinese system of building sporting culture which is conducive to Olympic victory. Their rise in sports has been phenomenal. Like them also we need more investment in sports and the right kind of the commitment. Undoubtedly we have an abundance of talent and that talents needs to be nurtured right from a young age in a requisite training environment. There is no denying the fact that the most of Indian parents do not value sports in their families and kids are never encouraged to join and pursue sports. Parents in India play highly significant role in children upbringing and the children

are made to follow what parents wish, not caring what they (children) themselves desire. Sports are not considered at par with other professions and are not taken as a career. Most parents themselves have no understanding of the sporting values and have a experience of life time working to just survive. The Indians poor Olympic performance cant be set right, only through pouring more money in sports but there is every need to change the mindset of the Indian parents. We should cultivate taste and culture that values fitness and ruggedness as value. The fact is that without a widespread adoption of sports within families, we have no hope for the talented kids to come forward and whole heartedly adopt and pursue sports. Otherwise sports would remain an individual pursuit and a personal choice and not a national culture. We are a nation has an obsession for cricket. The big exception to Indias poor performance in sports, is undoubtedly the cricket. But this is part of problem as we are so cricket obsessed that we have little place for other sports. Cricket has become such a lucrative and beneficial game rather business that a successful player can accumulate money for even his future generations but at the cost of other sports/game. Are we a one-sport nation? This is a big question. In India cricketers attract most of the fame in the society. Younger generation believes that cricket is quickest way to make quick money and get the fame. No importance is paid to the other sports. Even if today we ask an educated matured person to name all the six Indian Olympics medalists, hardly he would be able to do that. If we analyze the Chinese policy of sports we find that the essential object of the policy is to win glories for their nation through international competition. To achieve this goal, China has established an elite sports system and reformation of sports system is an unavoidable process for them. Mao Zedong, in 1952 gave a slogan:

Developing sport and promoting peoples physique


This slogan has strengthened the sports system in China and greatly contributes to establish the importance of sports in peoples lives. Development of elite sports system Juguo tizhi is originally a specific administrative system and mechanism of Chinese Sports. The essence of this is to utilize the administrative channels to allocate social resources and develop the level of competitive sport in order to win glories for the Chinese nation. Chinas Olympic system demands that its athletes give their all and should not expect much in return. It is a structured, planned and Government funded system especially to churn out winners. The athletic selection process begins with little children through sports academies in every major city

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and province. Olympics candidates are chosen from among children as young as five years old, often based on physical proportions alone. Tracked children later graduate to centralized sports academies and finally finish their training programmes in one of many national sports camps which compete each other for the honour placing their graduates on an Olympic team. Anyone who bow out of the system, for example due to injury, is not usually cared much. Each of these specially honed athletes is dead serious about making the gold standard, his or her only standard for success. Thus the Chinese model of sports training is an efficient system of athletic development. Now we Indians should also formulate our own new and strong sports policy with a proper focus on nurturing the young talent from a right age with world class coaching and world class infrastructure. Further the selectors should favor only the natural talent and capability of a trainee and nothing else. It is interesting to note that Chinese Gold Medal winners get more enhanced infrastructure facilities from their government than the allowance and gratitude. But in India, whenever an athlete or sportsman wins gold medal or any medal for that matter, he/she gets showered by money from all sides. The winner is given gifts worth of crores from different authorities but if he/she fails to get any medal, such sports person is often forced to get out of the game to support himself or his family. Thus an athlete has to face harsh realities and feels demoralized. Under the circumstances we need an institutionalized approach to tackle various problems of sports building within the frame work of a comprehensive and effective national sports policy. India is definitely having an amazing talent and we need to undertake an arduous task of our sports construction with reformation of our existing sports system and process should start from a village level talent to that of national level with a goal of India becoming world leader in the sports. 29 year old Mary Kom went down to Britains Nicol Adams 6-11 in a womens boxing semi-final bout to settle for a bronze in the womens fly weight category. Mary, a five time world champion, fought gallantly but was clearly out punched, much to the dismay of a sizeable Indian crowd. Gagan Narang opened Indias medal account at the 2012 London Olympics, bagging a bronze in the mens 10m Air Rifle. He shot 103.1 in a gripping ten shot finals for an aggregate of 701.1 after scoring 598 in the qualifying round in which also he stood third. Yogeswar Dutt won bronze, bouncing back in repechage. He pulled off three successive wins in mens freestyle 60 kg wrestling competition on Day 15. I have devoted 21 years of my life to this sport and this is the biggest day of my life. He said as he went to receive his medal. Saina Nehwal won the bronze in womens singles badminton, defeating Xin Wang of China 18-21, 01, the latter having retired hurt. The lone Indian shuttler to challenge Chinese domination is hoping her bronze medal will inspire at least half a dozen more to join her at the top. THE MEDAL TALLY COUNTRY USA CHINA G BRITAIN RUSSIA S. KOREA GERMANY FRANCE ITALY HUNGARY INDIA GOLD SILVER BRONZE 46 38 29 24 13 11 11 08 08 00 29 27 17 25 08 19 11 09 04 02 29 22 19 33 07 14 12 11 05 04 TOTAL 104 87 65 82 28 44 34 28 17 06

Indians at London Olympic


Wrestler Sushil Kumar won India their sixth and final medal of the games after settling for silver in the final of the mens 66kg freestyle event. Sushil looked almost unstoppable till Japanese Tatsuhiro Yonemitsu halted his charge, getting the better of him 3-1 in the final. 26 year old Vijay Kumar took the silver in the 25m Rapid Fire Pistol event with 30 out of 40 shots. He started with a perfect five, shooting his targets in four seconds in a final in which the reigning world champion Alexei Klimov went medal less.

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News Watch

NEWS WATCH

NATIONAL / INTERNATIONAL
E-Challan and Receipt (ECR) facility launched by Employees Provident Fund Organization (EPFO) Union minister of labor and employment has recently inaugurated the E-Challan and .Receipt (ECR) facility to bring transparency and accessibility for employers in depositing monthly Employees Provident Fund or EPF contributions of their workers. Employers under the ECR service would have to register their organizations online and generate challans for making monthly deposits. They can use these challan for either electronically or physically depositing the Provident Fund or PF contributions to the bank. After the bank confirms the deposit, the concerned regional offices system would be automatically notified and individual members accounts would get updated. The claim settlement process would become much easier as under the new initiative, employee details will be added and updated electronically. Also the need of annual accounts preparation at the end of the year can be done away with under this system. RBI directed Indian Banks to maintain Tier I Capital of at least 7% of their Risk Weighted Assets The Reserve Bank of India has published guidelines for implementation of the new global capital adequacy norms, called Basel III, by March 2018. Indian banks will have to maintain Tier I capital, or core capital, of at least 7 per cent of their risk weighted assets on an ongoing basis. The objective is to strengthen risk management mechanism. As per the guidelines specified by the central bank, commercial banks will have to maintain their total capital adequacy ratio at 9 percent, higher than the minimum recommended requirement of 8 percent under the Basel III norms. It has been decided that scheduled commercial banks (excluding LABs and RRBs) operating in India will have to maintain a minimum total capital (MTC) of 9 percent of total risk weighted assets (RWAs) as against a MTC of 8 percent of RWAs as prescribed in Basel III rules text of the BCBS (Basel Committee on Banking Supervision). Also banks are directed to keep a capital conservation buffer of 2.50 percent. It essentially means that banks will have to set aside more capital as buffer to avoid a 2008-like crisis again. On failing to set aside the mentioned capital, the banks will not be able to pay dividend and bonus. The RBI tightened the norms to monitor banks investments, inter-connectedness and cross-holdings in the financial sector services which are beyond the active regulatory purview of the central bank. Basel III requires banks to have a higher share of core capital - which is equity and reserves. Banks will thus require additional `1-1.5 lakh crore over the

Goa topped the List of States with Highest Per Capita Income Goa topped the list of the states with highest per capita income in the country with a total per capita income of `1, 92,652. Delhi with a total per capita income of `1.75 lakh in 2011-12 secured second spot in the list, followed by Haryana with per capita income of ` 1,09,227. The national average was estimated at ` 38,005 in 2011-12 against ` 35,993 in 2010-11. The estimates are prepared as per methodology prescribed by the Central Statistical Organization on the basis of provisional data provided by it and other government sources. Union Government decided to include Chit Funds under the Chit Fund Act of 1982 in Six States The Union government decided to include Chit funds, an informal pooling of funds from individuals for lending under the Chit Fund Act of 1982 in six states including Gujarat and Kerala. The decision is meant to help people access the dispute settlement mechanism. Nagaland, Haryana, Tripura, and Arunachal Pradesh are the other states to come under the Act, providing a cushion for small savers who are at the mercy of local operators. Of the six states brought under the central ruling, only Kerala operates under the Kerala Chit Act of 1975. The other five states have no laws to regulate chit fund operators. Registered chit funds have to follow rules laid down by the Reserve Bank of India. Industry sources say the legislation will force several unregistered chit funds to shut shop across the country. Given that the chit funds are not managed professionally, investors face difficulty in getting disputes resolved. As per the estimates projected by the chit fund industry, over 12000 registered chit funds manage in excess of `35,000 crore a year. The share of unregistered funds is possibly 80-90 times more than registered funds. The move is expected to bring about level playing field among registered and unregistered chit fund operators and make chit funds a safer product for investors. A chit scheme generally has a pre-determined value and duration. Each scheme admits a particular number of members (generally equal to the duration of the scheme), who contribute a certain sum of money every month (or everyday) to the pot. The pot is then auctioned out every month. The person bidding lowest sum gets the bid amount. The initiative to bring chit fund operators under registration is being considered a positive move as it will set systems and processes in the chit fund industry. If chit funds are registered and bound under a central Act, it will improve (legal) the recourse mechanism for investors.

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next six years for doing the same level of business. The implementation of the capital adequacy guidelines based on the Basel III capital regulations will begin on 1 January 2013. Banks are to attain a minimum Tier I capital ratio of 4.5 per cent by January 2013, 5.5 per cent by January 2014, and 6 per cent by January 2015. The new capital regulations will be fully implemented by 31 March 2018. Under the existing Basel II framework, banks are required to maintain Tier I capital of at least 6 per cent of their risk weighted assets. Under Basel III, Tier I capital will predominantly consist of common equity, defined as paid-up equity capital, share premium, surpluses arising from sale of assets, other disclosed free reserves, and balance in the profit and loss account at the end of the financial year. Competition Commission of India constituteded Eminent Persons Advisory Group The Competition Commission of India (CCI) has formed an Eminent Persons Advisory Group (EPAG). The group is constituted to provide CCI inputs and advice on issues impacting markets and competition, among others. The group comprise Infosys founder N.R. Narayana Murthy, former Comptroller and Auditor General V.N. Kaul, former Deputy Governor of Reserve Bank of India Rakesh Mohan, Biocon Chairman and MD Kiran Mazumdar-Shaw, former Director, of IIM-Ahmedabad Bakul Dholakia, former Chairman of CERC S.L Rao, former Vice-Chancellor of NLSIU, Bangalore N.L Mitra. The Group will have interaction/meetings with the Commission two to three times a year. Boosting Economy: _ RBI raises foreign investment limit in government bond The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has recently announced a series of measures, including raising limits for external commercial borrowings and government securities, that would help revive the battered currency and the economy. The Reserve Bank of India said in a statement that it has taken measures in consultation with the government to liberalize capital account transactions. It has been decided to allow Indian companies in the manufacturing and Infrastructure sector and earning foreign exchange to avail of external commercial borrowing merit of (EC3) for repay Outstanding rupee loans towards capital expenditure and/or fresh Rupee capital expenditure under the approval route, The overall ceiling for such ECBs would be $ l0 billion, The existing limit for investment by Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) registered foreign institutional investors (FIIs) in government securities (G-Secs) has been enhanced by a further amount of $5 billion. This would take the overall limit for FII investment in G-Secs from $ 15 billion to $ 20 billion. In order to broad base the non-resident investor base for GSecs, it has also been decided to allow long term investors like Sovereign Wealth Funds (SWFs), multilateral agencies, endowment funds, insurance funds, pension funds and foreign central banks to be registered with SFBI, to also invest in G-Secs for the entire limit of $ 20 billion. The sub-limit of $10 billion (existing $5 billion with residual maturity of 5 years and additional limit of $ 5 billion) would have the residual maturity of three years. Moonsoons impact on Indian economy The Indian Meteorological Department (IMD) has forecast an average monsoon in 2012, retaining its earlier forecast in April. An average or normal monsoon means rainfall between 96 and 104 percent of a 50-year average of 89 centimeters during a four-month season from June, Indias weather office says. Rainfall below 90 percent of the average is considered a drought. ARRIVAL The monsoon season starts with the arrival of the rains on the southern Kerala coast around June I. Its progress triggers planting of summer crops. PROGRESS After hitting the south coast, it takes about a week to cover the coffee, tea and rubber growing areas of South India. It spreads to the rice areas of eastern parts in the first 10 days. It usually covers half of the country in the first fortnight and enters the oilseed-producing areas of central India in the third week of June. Cotton areas in the western region get rains by the first week of July. It covers entire country by mid-July. Half of Indias farm output comes from crops planted during the first half of the June-September season. Here are some facts on tile monsoon and its impact. CROPS RICE: Farmers sow paddy at the start of the monsoon in June and the key areas are in the east and south. The crop is heavily dependent on rains for irrigation. A bumper harvest last year led the government to lift a four year ban on exports and rainfall within the average will erase any chance of a return of the export ban for the worlds second largest producer of the grain after China. SUGARCANE: An average monsoon will help the worlds top sugar producer after Brazil to keep its free export policy on sugar in the new season from October l. OTHERS: Corn, lentils, oilseeds and cotton important crops in western and central India --have some dependency on the seasonal

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rains. India remains a net importer of lentils and cooking oils and domestic out-put can alter overseas purchases. An average rainfall could allow the worlds second biggest producer of cotton continue with its free policy on overseas sale. ECONOMYAND MARKETS 1. The monsoon rains are vital for farm output and economic growth in India, the worlds second-biggest producer of rice, wheat, sugar and cotton. Farm sector shares for about 15 percent of Indias nearly $2 trillion economy, Asias third biggest. India is largely Self-sufficient in major food grains such as rice and wheat, but drought can send the country to global markets. In 2009, India had to import sugar, sending global prices to record highs and pushing up inflation. Higher farm output would rein in food prices and help the government to take steps to cut the fiscal deficit and farm subsidies. Indias food inflation rose to 10.66 percent in May from 10. 18 percent in April, latest figures show. A stronger economic outlook can lift sentiment in equity markets, mainly of companies selling products in rural areas, including consumer goods and automobiles. Monsoon rains impact demand for gold in India, the worlds top consumer of the metal, as purchases get a boost when farming incomes rise amid high crop output. they have the fire-power to help developing countries pursue their developmental goals. Fitch revises Indias outlook to negative; affirms at BB B- Fitch Ratings has revised Indias Outlook to Negative from Stable in June 2012. Its Long Term Foreign and Local Currency Issuer Default Ratings ([DRs) have been affirmed at BBB- and Short Term Foreign Currency at F3. Indias Country Ceiling is also affirmed at BBB-. The Outlook revision reflects heightened risks that Indias medium- to long-term growth potential will gradually deteriorate If further structural reforms are not hastened, including measures to enhance the effectiveness of the government and create a more positive operational environment for business and private investments. The Negative Outlook also reflects Indias limited progress on fiscal consolidation and, in particular, on reducing the central government deficit despite improvement in the financial health of state governments. The rating affirmation reflects Indias diversified economy and its high domestic saving which reduce reliance on foreign investors for private investment and fiscal funding. The Indian government is able to issue long-term debt at a low cost in its own currency. Net external debt is very law and still high Foreign exchange reserves of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) provide a cushion against Potential external shocks. The underlying drivers of the last decade of rapid economic growth remain in place a fast growing pool of educated workers and an innovative private services sector. Fitch, however, notes that India faces an awkward combination of slowing growth and still--elevated inflation. Real GDP grew .just 6.5 percent yoy in FY2011-12(end-March 2012), down from an 8.4 percent rise in FY2010-11. India also faces structural challenges surrounding its investment climate in the form of corruption and inadequate economic reforms. Fitch forecasts real GDP to raise 6.5 percent yoy in FY13, down from a previous projection or 7.5 percent. Headline wholesale price index (WPI) rose 7.6 percent yoy in May 2012, up from 7.2 percent yoy in April. Fitch is projecting WPI to rise by an average of 7.5 percent in FY2012-13 which, though lower than the 8.8 percent rise in FY2011-12, continues to be higher and stickier than Fitch previously expected, diminishing scope for monetary policy flexibility. Indias public Finances are a key rating weakness compared with other BBB-rated sovereigns, which constrains scope for Fiscal policy flexibility. Fitch estimated general government debt stood at 66 percent of GDP at end-FY2011-12, against the BBB median of 39 percent. Moreover Indias government revenue in take is low at 19.4 percent of GDP. The central government fiscal deficit climbed to 5.8 percent of GDP in FY2011-12, against a target of 4.6 percent, largely reflecting an overshoot in subsidy spending. The government has

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IRRIGATION, POWER 1. Monsoon rains replenish reservoirs and lift groundwater levels, allowing better irrigation and more hydropower output. Higher rain fall can cut demand for subsidized diesel, which is used to pump water from wells for irrigation and makes up for about 40 percent of Indias oil products demand.

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European banking crisis can choke trade, Finance It has been observed that a crisis in the European banking system can choke trade and finance and in the process global economic growth. The sovereign debt crisis and the banking crisis, now on the horizon, has grave implications not only for the European economy, but also global economy as said by External Affairs Minister S.M Krishna . He further said that a crisis in European banking system can choke trade, finance and economic growth not just in the Euro Zone but in the world at large. Europe is of particular concern as it accounts for a significant share of the global economy and is also Indias major trade and investment partner. There is a need to substantially expand the resource base of Multi lateral development banks so that

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repeatedly delayed reforms to the tax and subsidy systems. The confluence of weaker economic growth and a large subsidy bill means India will likely miss its 5.1 percent of GDP deficit target for FY2012--13. Fitch expects it to be 5.6 percent 5.9 percent of GDP. General elections due in early 2014 could see politically driven pressure to loosen fiscal policy, which could further weaken Indias public finances relative to peers. Indias external financial position remains a rating strength, although this is eroding as foreign exchange reserves have fallen (11 percent since August 2011) and net external indebtedness is rising. Reserves remained at lJSD286bn as of end-May 2012, equal to six months of current external payments, which still provides the sovereign with an important buffer- during periods of elevated global risk aversion. The sovereign is a net external creditor to the tune of 10.2 percent of GDP at end-FY2011-12, against the BBB median of 3.3 percent of GDP or the BB median of negative 4.1 percent of GDP. Slowing growth should curb the current account deficit and slow the weakening of the external finances, although oil prices pose a risk. Prolonged and intensified pressure on the Currency and/or foreign reserves would be negative for the credit profile. A significant loosening of fiscal policy, which leads to an increase in the gross general Government debt/GDP ratio, would result in a downgrade of Indias sovereign ratings. In addition, a material downward revision of Fitchs assessment of the Indias medium-term growth potential along with persistent high inflationary pressure would hurt Indias sovereign creditworthiness. Conversely, an improvement in Indias investment climate, which supports greater infrastructure investment and a sharp sustained decline in inflation, would be supportive for Indias sovereign ratings. Fiscal consolidation and structural budget reform would also Support the ratings. Government flays Fitch rating action, defends banks are fully capitalized Hitting out at global rating agencies for lowering credit outlook of Indian banks, the government has said that these entities are fully capitalized and there is no cause of worry. Crisis of capital in the Indian banking system is highly over-rated. The government of India is fully behind public sector banks, whatever rating agencies may say. Public sector banks are fully capitalized, they shall Sufficiently capitalized during this year also. So there is no cause of worry. The government has proposed to Infuse Rs 15,500 crore in the public sector banks during, the current fiscal to enhance their financial strength. Infect Fitch has recently revised downward credit rating outlook of 12 financial agencies, including State Bank of India (SBI), ICICI bank, Punjab National Bank (PNB). Fitchs rating action comes within days of it lowering the credit outlook of the India from stable to negative. The list of downgraded entities include six PSUs and two private banks. These include Bank of Baroda (BOB) and its overseas subsidiary Bank of Baroda (New Zealand), Canara Bank IDBI Bank and Axis Bank. Others to be affected by the rating action include ExportImport Bank of India, Hudco, IDFC and Indian Railway Finance Corporation. Unimpressed with the rating observation, the financial services secretary has said that it is absolutely absurd for anybody to de-rate Indian institutions which are in better shape compared to their global counterparts. Reserve bank of India leaves interest rates unchanged RBI (eaves interest rates unchanged Mumbai: The Reserve Bank of India left interest rates and the cash reserve ratio for banks unchanged in its policy declaration in June 2012, defying widespread expectations for a rate cut as it warned that doing so could worsen inflation. The Reserve Bank of India kept its policy repo rate unchanged at 8 percent and left the cash reserve ratio for banks at 4.75 percent. Economists polled by Reuters had forecast a rate cut, most likely of 25 basis points, while some government officials had also been calling for a rate cut. Stop prepayment penalty on home Loans, RBI to coop banks The Reserve Bank has recently directed state and central cooperative banks to stop levying penalty on pre-payment of home loans on floating interest rates with immediate effect. It has been decided that banks will not be permitted to charge foreclosure charges /pre-payment penalties on home loans on the floating interest rate basis with immediate effect. Earlier this month, RBI had also asked the commercial banks to stop charging such penalties. RBI said that the removal of foreclosure charges or prepayment penalty on home loans will lead to reduction in the discrimination between existing and new borrowers and competition among banks will result in finer pricing of the floating rate home loans. Though many banks have in the recent past voluntarily abolished pre-payment 1penalties on floating rate home loans, there is a need to ensure uniformity across the banking system. RBI in its monitory policy for 2012-13 had proposed that banks should not be permitted to levy such charges with a view to bring uniformity across the banking system in the home loan segment. The committee on Customer Services in Banks under M Damodaran had expressed that foreclosure of charges levied by banks on prepayment of home loans was resented upon by home loan borrowers and the banks were hesitant in passing on the benefit of lower interest rates to existing borrowers in a falling interest rate scenario. As such foreclosure charges are seen as a restrictive practice deterring the borrowers from switching over to cheaper available source.

11 | COMPETITIVE ZEAL | DECEMBER 2012

COMPETITIVE ZEAL
RBI asks RRBs, coop banks to frame policy on unclaimed accounts The Reserve Bank has recently asked cooperative and regional rural banks to frame policies to locate customers with unclaimed deposits or inoperative accounts. RBI said in a circular that state and central cooperative banks or regional rural banks are advised to put in place a board-approved policy on classification of unclaimed deposits, grievance redressal mechanism for quick resolution of complaints, record keeping, and periodic review of such accounts, RBI has given detailed instructions to these banks to deal with unclaimed deposits or inoperative accounts and has advised them to find the whereabouts of the customers or their legal heirs. The central bank has also asked them for an annual review of such accounts. levy no charge for activation of inoperative accounts after due diligence. In order to identify owners of such accounts with due diligence of KYC (know your customer) norms, RBI has also asked them to display list of unclaimed deposits or inoperative accounts which were inactive or inoperative for ten years or more on their websites by June 30, 2012. The first periodic review of unclaimed deposits or inoperative accounts should be put up to their respective banks boards by September 30, 2012, RBI said. Indian economy to grow at 6.9 percent in 2012-13: World Bank The Indian economy will grow by 6.9 percent in this financial year (2012-13) notwithstanding problems like policy uncertainties, fiscal deficit and inflation, the World Bank projected in its recent report Global Economic Prospects, while cautioning that developing nations will have to face tougher times. India will see growth (measured at factor cost) increasing to 6.9, 7.2 and 7.4 percent in fiscal years 2012-13, 2013-14 and 2014-15, respectively, the World Bank has also said in the report. Referring to developments in 2010-11, the multi lateral lending agency has said that growth in India was particularly weak due to monetary policy, stalled reforms and electricity shortages. These factors, along with fiscal and inflation concerns, cut into investment activity. Indias economic growth rate in 2011-12 slipped to a nine-year low of 6.5 percent. The economy had expanded by 8.4 percent in the preceding two years. For the current fiscal the government has pegged growth at 7.6 percent. Considering global uncertainties and domestic woes, this growth rate could be tall order for the country. Growth in South Asia slowed to 7.1 percent in 2011, from 8.6 percent in 2010, as headwinds from the Euro Area crisis caused a steep deceleration in exports and a reversal of portfolio inflows the report says. Meanwhile, the global economy is expected to expand 2.5 percent this year. According to the World Bank developing nations should prepare for a long period of volatility in the global economy by re-emphasizing on medium term development strategies. Developing county growth will slow to a relatively weak 5.3 percent in 2012, before strengthening somewhat to 5.9 percent in 201 3 and six per cent in 2014, has also said. No-frills accounts rise over two-fold in last 2 years The number of no Frills or zero balance account holders more than doubled to 103.21 million in the year to March 31, 2012 from 49.33 million in March 2010, RBI has said in its financial inclusion update. During March 2010-March 2012, total number of banking outlets grew to 1, 47,534 from 54,258 Outlets, the Reserve Bank said in the update on financial inclusion. The Reserve Bank (RBI) has launched the financial inclusion programme to provide financial services to people in banked areas. RBIs approach to financial inclusion is aimed at connecting people with the mainstream financial institutions like banks, the apex bank said. Goal of financial inclusion is better served through mainstream banking institutions as only they have the ability to offer the Suite of products required to bring in effective meaningful financial inclusion. The number of Business correspondents (BCs), who carry out banking operations on behalf of banks increased to 96,828 From 33,042. The number of hank branches opened through banking outlets rose to 24,701 in FY12 from 21,475 while number of banking Outlets opened through BCs rose significantly to 1,20,355 in FY 12, from 32,G84 in FY 10. Meanwhile, as many as 2.478 banking) Outlets were opened through other modes from just 99 outlets two years ago. During the period, total of 3,171 rural branches were opened. For effective dissemination of financial services, RBI has allowed technology partners such as mobile companies to partner with banks in offering the services collaboratively. Also, it has permitted banks to freely open branches in tier 2 to tier 6 centers, have mandated banks to open 25 per cent of all new branches in unbaked rural centers and has relaxed know your customer (KYC) norms for opening small bank accounts.

Facts are facts and will not disappear on account of your likes. Jawahar Lal Nehru
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COMPETITIVE ZEAL

COMMONLY USED TERMS


Decentralization means the establishment of various unit of the same industry at different places. Large scale Organization or Industry cannot be run at one particular place or territory. In order to increase the efficiency of the industry, various units at different places are located.

death of the former.

Credit Squeeze: Monetary Authorities restrict credit as and when required. This credit restriction is called credit squeeze. Monetary Authorities adopt the policy of credit squeeze to control inflationary pressure in the economy. PQLI: PQLI is known as physical quality of life Index which is used to assess the level of social development. This index was developed by Jim Grant. PQLI is calculated by using indices of (1) Adult Literacy Rate (2) IMR (3) Life Expectancy. Ad-Valorem Tax: Ad-valorem tax is a kind of Indirect Tax in which goods are taxed by their values. In the case of ad valorem tax, the tax amount is calculated as the proportion of the prices of the goods. VAT is an Ad -Valorem Tax. Autarchy: if a country is self sufficient, it doesnt require the imports for the country. Autarchy is an indicator of self sufficiency. It means that the country itself can satisfy the needs of its population without making Imports from other countries. Marxism: is the name given to socio-economic theories put forward by Kar l Marx, a German born Jew and his friend Friedrich Engels. According to them, feudalism is dethroned by capitalism. In turn capitalism yields place to socialism and a classless society. They held that changes in the social order are caused by technical and economic progress, because the poor are always trying to improve their lot. They favored state ownership of land, industry, banking, transport and other means of production. May Day: the day of workers of the world celebrated throughout the world on the 1st May every year with the slogan Workers of the World, Unite. A mid-term poll: is an election held out of schedule as a result of the dissolution of a state legislature before it has been in existence for its normal span of life. Mixed Economy: is that system of economic planning under which both private as well as public sectors are afforded adequate opportunities of self-growth within their respective spheres. Monrce Doetri: A principle of American policy declining any European in entervention in political affairs of the American continent, outlined by President Monroe in 1823. Motel: is type of a hotel built for touring motorists. It provides individual al self-contained sleeping quarters with bath, toilet facilities and garage, the meals being generally obtainable at a nearby restaurant. Naxalites: The term has come into use recently to describe

Laissez Faire: It is a French word meaning non interference. This doctrine was popularized by classical economists who gave the view that government should interface as little as possible in the economic activities of the individuals. Buoyancy: When the government fails to check inflation. It raises Income Tax and the Corporate Tax. Such a tax is called buoyancy. It concerns with the revenue from taxation in the period of inflation. Cheap Money: It refers to that money which is made available to the borrowers at a low rate of interest. It accelerates the process of credit expansion by the banks. It is used as a measure to combat depression and revive the economy. Diversification: It refers to the situation is which a firm starts production of a new product without giving up the production of previous products. It is done with a view to grow faster and earn greater profit. Greshams Law: When bad money drives out good money from circulation. This statement was given by Sir Thomas Gresham, the economic advisor of queen Elizabeth. This law states that people always want to hoard good money and spend bad money when two forms of money are in circulation at the same time. GEM: (Gender Empowerment Measure) is a composite index measuring gender inequality in three basic dimension of empowerment economic, participation and decision making, political participation and decision making and power over economic resources. Cost Push Inflation: It arise due to increase in the production cost. Such type of inflation is caused by three factors. (1) An increase in wages, (2) An increase in the project margin, (3) Imposition of heavy taxation. Dear Money: Dear money is that money which can only the borrowed at a light rate of Interest. In dear money policy bank rate and other rate of interest are light and as a result borrowing becomes expensive. Dear money policy is a deliberate policy which is adopted by the monetary authorities to check inflation in the economy. Death Duty: It is a direct tax which is imposed on the estate of deceased person. Death duly or death tax is a form of personal tax on property which is levied when property passes from one person to other at the time of

13 | COMPETITIVE ZEAL | DECEMBER 2012

COMPETITIVE ZEAL
radical communists who believe in the type of revolution preached by Mao Tse-Tung of China.

Need-based Wages: means wages determined so as to cover the basic needs Need-based of wage-earners as distinguished from wages determined having regard purely to availability of labour productivity and profitability. Net Aid: The term foreign aid is used to describe goods, services or money made available by one country to another on non-commercial terms. Out of such aid the recipient countries have to pay interest on loans obtained in the past and other debt-servicing charges. The balance of foreign aid left in hand for actual utilization after such charges have been defrayed is referred to as net aid. NON-aggression Pact: an agreement between countries not to wage war with each other in case of any aggression from outside Nuclear Umbrella:- means protection or guarantee of protection against nuclear attack. Open-door Policy: the policy according to which trade with a country should be open on equal terms to all nations. Open University: differs from the regular university in that entry into the former is open o everyone whether or not he has had any formal education. Indias Education Ministry recently set up a working group to consider the feasibility of establishing an open university in this country. Such a university will provide opportunities for under graduate and post graduate education to all who were prevented from finishing their formal schooling. Ordinance: a measure promulgated by the head of a State in his own authority of to meet an emergency. Pentagon: Government offices in Washington (the largest in the world), housing many thousands of military and civilian workers in the War Department of the United States (Army, Navy and Air Force). Plebiscite: direct vote by all electors of a state on a controversial question. Police State: when citizens of a particular state are deprived of the basic civil liberties like freedom of thought, expression and belief, they are said to be living in a police state. Poverty line: is to be found at the level of income at which a person or a family can barely subsist. Anyone having an income below that level is said to be below poverty line. Power Politics: In the game of power politics, the players sole aim becomes acquisition of power to the exclusion of every other object e.g., the welfare of the masses, the good of the country etc. Every move of theirs is inspired by a desire to capture power somehow.

Preamble: Preliminary or introductory part of the Constitution of a country embodies a brief statement of the need and advisability having a particular constitutional law passed. Preference share: are shares which are entitled to a fixed dividend before any distribution of profits can be made amongst the holders of ordinary shares. Preventive detention: an act providing measures by which an undesirable person may be without trial. Price Index: A figure which discloses the relative change if any of prices, cost or some similar phenomena between one period of time and some other period of time selected as the base year is called index number. The base year or period is assigned the index number of 100. If a comparison is drawn between the cost of living of-one period with that of another, the resultant, figure will represent the cost of living index number. If it represents the wholesale or retail prices, the index number obtained will be so designated. Previlege Motion: is a motion moved by an M.L.A. or an M.P. as the case may be, if he feels that a Minister has committed a breach of privilege of the House by withholding the facts of a case or by giving a distorted version of facts etc. Privy Purses: These were certain privileges and annual payments granted by the Indian Government to Rulers (hereditary monarchs or Princes) of states in India before independence. These Princes had agreed to surrender their states to the Indian Union in return for Privy Purses. There were nearly 280 former princes receiving Privy Purses ranging between Rs. 5 lakhs to Rs. 26 lakhs per annum. These Privy Purses and Privileges have been abolished vide the Constitution (26th Amendment) Act, 1971. Prize Court: is a court which adjudicates upon ships or goods captured by one of the parties to a war in the course of the fighting. The prize court can either release or condemn the prize. In the latter case, the property is vested in the captor thereof. Prohibition: a measure barring the sale and consumption of alcoholic drinks. Proportional Representation: in the context of electing a President of India is the system under which a college of voters represents the wider base of the electorate, each member of the college commanding a number of votes in proportion to the number of electors he represents. Protocol: the first draft of a diplomatic document used especially in treaties and agreements before their definitive signature. Public Debt: The money which is invested with the government of a country by her people in the shape of different funds, it is a government funded debt.

14 | COMPETITIVE ZEAL | DECEMBER 2012

COMPETITIVE ZEAL

Public Sector: All undertakings financed and controlled by the Government. Quarantine: period of isolation imposed on travelers or ships etc. which may possibly become a source of spreading contagious or infectious disease. Quorum: minimum essential of members to be present in order to constitute a house to transact proceedings. Red Tapes: official formality or routing delay or obstruction. Referendum: When there is a controversial question requiring opinion of the general messes, that question is put to vote for deciding the opinion of the people. Repatriation: to restore or return to the native land. (Generally used in the case of prisoners of war) Republic; a political community which is not governed by any king and the -supreme authority is vested m the representatives elected by the people. Secular State: state which treats alike all communities inhabiting its territory an in-which all citizens have equal rights without distinction of caste, creed, sex and race. Sine die: postponed without a day appointed or indefinitely. Sjt down strike: is a form of strike in which workers do not absent themselves from work but do nothing and sit idle. It is also called pen-down strike. Socialistic Pattern of society: even distribution of economic power or reduction of inequalities m income and wealth in a country. The resolution for a Socialistic Pattern of Society was adopted at the Avadi Session of the Indian National Congress. Stars and Stripes: it signifies U.S.A,s flag showing 13 stripes and stars equal to the number of states in the U.S.A. Time Capsule: The term has been used to describe metallic cylinders filled with memorabilia and buried deep in the earth so that after a few thousand years, if somebody discovers such a capsule, he should be reminded of what life and times were like when the time capsule had been initially buried. Trade Mark: a distinctive mark or sign, or, a name given to a product which is register in order to safeguard the manufacturers rights. Trade mark cannot be copied by anyone under the law. Universal Suffirage: right of vote for all without distinction of caste, creed, religion, se-place of birth. Yeto: right of the executive head to refuse to approve any

legislation.

War Crimes: The victorious allies in the second world war viz, the Soviet won, the S.A, Britain and France had signed on August 8, 1945 an agreement setting up an International Military Tribunal to try major war criminals among Axis prisoners. The charter setting out the jurisdiction and functions of the Tribunal set out offences for which an individual could be considered responsible. Among these offences were murder, extermination, enslavements, deportation and other inhuman acts committed against any civilian population before or during the war or persecution on a political racial or religious basis, whether or not in violation of domestic laws. It was agreed that the plea of having acted on orders from superiors could only be treated as an extenuating circumstance but not as a complete defense. Wealth Tax: It is a tax levied on wealth possessed by an individual or by a Hindu Undivided Family in excess of certain prescribed limits. The object is to keep even distribution of wealth in society. Whip: (in the legislature) an M.P. responsible to his party for the organization of the members to carry the, vote through. White Flag: a sign of surrender in a battle by any of the opposing armies. Womens Liberation Movement: or Womens Lib is a movement which has originated in the U.S.A. as a revolt against what is referred to as male chauvinism or the myth of male superiority in any and every sphere of human activity. Yellow Journalism: Any newspaper giving sensational news or features with lavish use of pictures or pseudo scientific articles is said to be divulging in yellow journalism. Yoga: literally means union (or in unison with the divine spirit) a Hindu Discipline which teaches a technique of freeing the mind from attachment to the senses, so that once freed the soul may become fused with universal spirit (Atman or Brahman) which is its goal. Young Turks: youthful dissidents and hardliners in a party are sometimes referrers to as Young Turks. Zero Net Aid: means a stage where a country becomes self-reliant so that it does no need any foreign aid, or reaches a situation where the foreign aid it receives just covers its liabilities and no part of such aid actually comes into play in its economy.

The memories of tomorrow depend on your attitude today . Dave Weinbaum


15 | COMPETITIVE ZEAL | DECEMBER 2012

COMPETITIVE ZEAL

TEST YOUR KNOWLEDGE an exercise


1. The missile defence shield developed by ___________ can destroy an incoming ballistic missile with a range of 2000 kms. ________ is the Capital of Myanmar. ___________ is celebrated as World Press Freedom Day. A variety of ancient artifacts have been discovered recently in the village ________ of Tamil Nadu. GSPA stands for ______________. ___________ has announced its plan to setup 1000 ATMs. Worlds top milk producer is ____________. ____________ Central Public Enterprises have been given Maharatna Status. SIM stands for _________. its population is considered fat. 28. __________ addressed the first Parliament on May 13, 1952. 29. China has recently allowed import of _________ from India. 30. __________ is the Head quarter of International Court of Justice. 31. In ________ Indian banks have opened largest number of branches. 32. SHADE stands for ____________. 33. _________ is the organization which issues Aadhar cards. 34. Dhanbad express Train, introduced in October, 2011 is Indias first __________. 35. International Kite Flying Festival was recently held in ____________. 36. __________ is a para-military force to guard the frontiers in peace time and assist the Govt. in the maintenance of internal security. 37. The branch of science that deals with tumours is known as __________. 38. ____________ is the study of Epidemic diseases. 39. The science dealing with life or possibility of life existing beyond the earth is called__________. 40. The shape of earth is _________. 41. The first Governor General of Free India was ___________. 42. Article 370 of Indian Constitution is related to __________. 43. _____________ is the minimum age required for an Indian citizen to become a member of Lok Sabha. 44. Indian Constitution abolishes ___________ in every from. 45. ___________ was the first and the last Indian to be the Governor General of India. 46. ___________ was the first Indian Commander in Chief of India. 47. _________ is called the father of Indian Renaissance. 48. India celebrates National Science Day on _________ to commemorate the day on which Sir CV. Raman discovered the Raman Effect a phenomenon is spectroscopy in 1928. 49. 15th world Sanskrit Conference was held in _________ on 5th January 2012. 50. ___________ is the official slogan of the London Olympics.

2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9.

10. CRAR stands for ____________. 11. _________ is the Parliament of Maldives. 12. _________ is the most intelligent and deadliest commando force of U.S.A that killed Osama. 13. _________ is a Railway Magazine. 14. ___________ is the highest battle field of the world. 15. ________ is the new name of West Bengal. 16. _________ is known as Mozart of Madras. 17. Grammy Awards are given in the field of ___________. 18. _________ International Women day was celebrated on 8th March 2012. 19. _________ was the Chief Guest at Republic Day. 20. Recently Railways has launched _______ to track movements of trains. 21. _________ is the writer of the famous short story Tobha Tek Singh. 22. ___________ State has signed a MOU with Mizuho Corporate Bank, Japan to attack investment from Japanese Companies. 23. ___________ is the flagship employment generation programme of Government of India. 24. Govt. has decided to amend the ________ to provide for life time royalty to song writers, artistes and performers for their work. 25. ________ is the currency of Myanmar. 26. ___________ is the tallest residential building of the world. 27. ____________ is the Obese capital of the world as half of

16 | COMPETITIVE ZEAL | DECEMBER 2012

COMPETITIVE ZEAL

Current General Knowledge


1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14. 15. SARFESI act related with. SDR is a term related with. The Annual world economic summit on India will be held in. The 11th Pravasi Bhartiya Divas will be held at. Rajiv Gandhi National Sadbhavana Puraskar 2012. Who has won the International title of Miss Asia pacific 2012. Highest Authority in India for Indirect Taxes. World blood donor day observed on. Moodys is a credit Rating agency from which country. Jet Airways tied up with which Bank & launched credit cards. Syed Nasim Ahmed Zaidi Appointed as the new. Which company bagged UN award for world business development. Venue of the Non Aligned Movement (NAM) Summit 2012. The 14th International Braille chess association chess Olympiad 2012. PMEAC pegged Indias growth at what % in the year 2012-13. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20. 21. 22. 23. 24. 25. 26. 27. 28. 29. 30. New wise president of Rajya Sabha. Who in the new head of Khel Ratna awards committee. Parimarjan Negi in a famous player of which game. What in the percentage share capital of the sponsored bank in its own gramin bank. Senkaku Islands became the bone of contention between. Fourth International junior shotgun cup held at. What is Lakshya 1. What is the Rank of Sonia Gandhi in forbes list. In the context with Agriculture 2012 is being launched as the year of. Who among the following has won the best actor award in the 59th National Film Award. Which committee is related with Railway Modernization. Saina Nehwal begged the Bronze after which Chinese opponent conceded the match due to knee injury. RBI has recently revamped the FAIR PRACTICES CODE for which of the following companies. Who is appointed as the new chairman of CBDT. Which company was the sponsor of Indian contingent in London Olympics 2012.

ANSWER FOR TEST YOUR KNOWLEDGE


1. 2. 3. 4. 5. DRDO Naypydaw 3rd May Kodumanal Distt. Erode Gas Sale Purchase Agreement Department of Post India 5 Subscriber Identity Modules Capital to Risk Weighted Assets Ratio Majlis SEAL-Team 6 Rail Bandhu Saichen 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. Paschim Banga A R Rehman Music 100th Ms Yingluck Shinawatera, PM of Thailand Simran Project Sadat Hassan Manto Karnatka MGNREGS Copyright Act Myanma Kyat Princess Tower, Dubai Qatar Dr. Rajinder Prasad Basmati Rice Hague, Netherland U.K. 32. Shared Awareness and Deconfliction 33. UIDAI 34. Double Decker Train 35. Ahmadabad, Gujarat 36. Border Security Force 37. Oncology 38. Epidemiology 39. Exbiology 40. An Oblate Spheroid 41. Lord Mountbatten 42. Jammu & Kashmir 43. 25 Years 44. Untouchability 45. C. Rajgopalachari 46. General Cariappa 47. Raja Ram Mohan Rai 48. 28th February 49. New Delhi 50 Inspire a Generation 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7.

Answer for Current General Knowledge


NPAS IMF Gurgaon Cochin D. R. Metha Hinangini Singh CBEC (Central Board of Exise & customs) 14 June USA HDFC E l e c t i o n Commissioner ITC Tehran (Iran) Chennai 6.7% PJ Kurean 17. Rajyawardhan Singh Rathore 18. Chess 19. 35% 20. China & Japan 21. Finland 22. Pilotless Aircarft 23. 6st 24. Horticulture 25. Girish Kulkarni 26. Sam Pitroda Committee 27. Xin Wang 28. None Banking Financial Companies 29. Poonam Kishore Saxena 30. Samsung

6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

20. 21. 22. 23. 24. 25. 26. 27. 28. 29. 30. 31.

8. 9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16.

11. 12. 13. 14.

17 | COMPETITIVE ZEAL | DECEMBER 2012

COMPETITIVE ZEAL

SSC COMPENDIUM
History of India
Satyashodhak Samaj was founded by Jyoti Rao Phule in 1873 AD The prominent leaders who were associated with the formation of the swaraj party in 1923 included Deshbandhu Chittranjan Daas and Motilal Nehru Which year is associated with Kheda Satyagraha of Mahatma Gandhi Year 1918 Gandhi ji recorded his initial thoughts in 1909 in Hind Swaraj The most well known and greatest of all Kushan King was Kanishk Ashoka the Great pronounces his policy of equal respect to all religious sects more clearly in Rock Edict XII The period of early harrapan phase is 3500-2600 BC Defence of India regulation act was passed in The year 1915 Who founded servants of India society in the year 1905 Gopal Krishna Gokhle At independence in 1947 British India had Seventeen Provinces In 1829 which important event took place - Lord William Bentick abolished Sati Practice The series of plans formulated between 1914 and 1917 to initiate a pan indian rebillion against the British raj during world war 1 came to be known as Hindu German Conspiracy The constitutional article that defined the scheduled cast and scheduled tribes Article 341 & 342 respectively From which the Indian constitution borrow the doctrine of Judicial review USA Which amendment to the constitution deals with the recognisation of states 7th constitutional amendment act 1956 For a no confidence to be introduced in the Lok Sabha it must have the support of at least 50 Members The provision of Vote on Account has been mentioned in Article 116

Geography
The Total forest area in India 678333 sq.km. (20.64%) Coal Mines in Jharkhand are located in Jharia Ozone Layer protects the earths surface from High Energy Radiations Kaveri is the longest river of Tamilnadu Which State in India has the largest % of its geographical area under forest cover Mizoram Tehri Dam is located on which River Bhagirathi Sea Cost of which state is the longest Andhra Pradesh Sardar Sarovar Dam is located on which River Narmada The cities situated on the banks of the Cauvery are Thiruchirapalli & Erode Pochampat irrigation project lies on The Godavari River India s First Marine National Park is located in The Gulf of Mannar Singreni Coal Fields is located in Godavari Valley

Indian Polity and Constitution


In the table of the precedence , the Governor Occupies Forth Position The Preamble to the constitution of India proclaims India as A Sovereign Socialist Secular Democratic Republic The Union Minister India are appointed by The President on the basis of the advice of the Prime Minister The constituent assembly of India held its first meeting on December 19, 1946 Which amendment of the constitution made it mandatory for the president to accept the advice given by council of ministers 42nd Amendment 1976 Which constitutional authority is responsible for constituting the Finance Commission President of India To whom should a notice is writing be given for raising a half an hour discussion in an house of parliament Secretary General of the house

Indian Economy
The Planning Commission of India is An advisory body gives advice to the Government. Central Statistical Office (CSO) New Base Rate 1993-94 Production Function explains the relationship between Initial Inputs & Ultimate Outputs An instrument of qualitative credit control in India is Credit Rationing Laissez Faire is a feature of Capitalism The Central Nodal Agency for implementing the price support operations for commercial crops NAFED (National Agricultural Co-operative Marketing Federation of India Limited) The Growth Rate of Indian Economy during 2011-12 was 6.9%

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COMPETITIVE ZEAL
Which State is the largest producer of Soya Bean in India Madhya Pradesh Which are the two Nations , Indias largest trading partners , 1st & 2nd Respectively UAE & China Aam Aadmi Bima Yojna (AABY) was launched in which year 2007 Maximum Share in Indias total external debt is of which currency US Dollar Which Service recently (2011) celebrated the Golden Jubilee Indian Economic Service (Launched in 1961) Asia cup Hockey 2013 will be held in Malaysia New President of ICC (International Cricket Council) Allan Issac (New Zealand) Who won Chinese Grand Prix in 2012 Nico Roseberg (Germany) Bula Chaudhary is related with which Sport Swimming

Miscellaneous
It has been observed that astronauts lose substantial quality of calcium through urine during space flight , This is due to Microgravity If we sprinkle common salt on an earthworm , it die due to osmotic shock Cutting and peeling of onions brings tears to the eyes because of the presence of Sulphur in the cell The cat can survive fall from height much more than human or any other animal. It is because the cat Has elastic Bones The Largest exporter of Rice in the world Thailand The distribution of fertilizers by aircraft is widely practiced in New Zealand The material used for electrical fuse is an alloy of tin and lead. This alloy should have High specific resistance and low melting point The idea of establishing Insurance Regulation Authority was suggested by Malhotra Committee National Institute of Ocean Technology Chennai The oil and natural gas commission of India was set up in 1956 The first Indian women to reach south pole Reena Kaushal SIMBEX is the Naval Exercise between India & Singapore The human organs which is responsible for detoxication of alcohol is Liver Angstorm is the unit for measuring the wavelength of Light Renewable energy can be obtained from Biomass Largest flower in the world Rafflesia The opening up of direct communication between the two countries is called Hot Line International Merlin Awards related with Music Heavy Water is used in Nuclear Power The original name of Mahabharatha Jai Samitha

Science & Technology


The Value of acceleration due to gravity is - Minimum at equator & Maximum at Poles The ideal fluid which is hypothetical fluid should contain Zero viscosity & Zero Compressibility A molecule is a smallest part of matter which possesses all properties of all matter. A molecule is electrically Neutral The Principal is used by bats SONAR (Sound Navigation & Ranging) Full Form of LASER Light Amplification by Stimulated Emission of Radiation The focal length of a concave lens is - Negative Ohm is a unit of measuring Resistance Graphite , Carbon & Diamonds are Allotropes Bleaching Powder is a Compound of - Calcium Sodium Alkyl Sulphate and Benzene Sulphate are examples of Synthetic Detergents Cobalt Oxide is used to impart which color to glass Blue Calcium Magnesium Silicate is commonly called as Asbestos

Sports
International Olympics Committee Headquarters Lausanne (Switzerland) Stanley Cup is associated with Ice Hockey Who made Fastest Hundred in 20-20 Cricket -Richard Levi ( South Africa ) Who won French Open Mens Single in 2012 Rafel Nadal ( Spain ) Saara Irrani was defeated in finals by which Russian Player in French Open 2012 Maria Sharapova Winter youth Olympics 2016 will be held in Lillehammer (Norway) FIFA World Cup 2022 will be held in Qatar World athletic championship 2017 will be held in London

19 | COMPETITIVE ZEAL | DECEMBER 2012

COMPETITIVE ZEAL Current Banking Awareness


1. Which Bank of India has recently announced formation of an Indias Mortgage Guarantee Company, Indias first Mortgage Gurantee Entity National Housing Bank Which banking giant of England was recently making news in context with the LIBOR interest rate scandal Barclays Interest payble on saving bank accounts in India Not Regulated Locker Plaza Scheme is related with which bank Canara Bank Maximum FDI in private banks in India is allowed upto the limit of 74% Which account requires either nil minimum balance or very low mimimum balance No Frills Account The First Indian Bank to open a branch in Saudi Arabia State Bnak of India Full Form of WLA White Label Automated Teller Machines Central Bank of India launched a special scheme CENT VAYUSHAKTI for promoting Defence Salary Package to bank customers to resolution of complaints relating to certain services rendered by banks Banking Ombudsman Scheme 21. Name of the capital in which the money is provided by an outside investor to finance a new , growing or troubled Business Venture Capital 22. Who decides the quantity of coins to be minted The GOI on the basis of indents received from the RBI . 23. Availability of cheap credits through appropriately designed loans for poor and low income households and small enterpreneurs Financial Inclusion 24. RBIs Long Term outlook on Interest Rate Bank Rate 25. In Banking Terminology what does write off means Bad and Uncollectable Loans 26. A Bank normally doest have to deal with an issue related to Intellectual Property Rights 27. YH Malegam committee related to Micro Finance Institution 28. Who is the head of the committee related with Customer Services in Banks M Damodaran 29. How much percentage of new banks should be there in unbanked rural areas with population not more than 9999 as per RBI 25% 30. Name the Banking System where no interest is being taken or given Islamic Banking

2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9.

10. Outsourced ATM services by banks in which the ATM name under a brand sponsored bank but ATM machine not owned by the bank Brown ATMs 11. A Service in which ATM not owned by the banks but by private ATM service providers White ATMs. 12. A bank offers a low introductry rate in the beginning on a home loan which increases after a certain period and higher than the normal rate Teasers Rate 13. The banking company has restrictions to sanction a loan to Director of the Bank 14. Banking Ombudsman Scheme is applicable to the Business of All scheduled commercial banks including RRBs. 15. What is the full form of DICGC Deposit Insurance & Credit Gurantee Corporation 16. What is the full form of SWIFT Society for worldwide interbank financial telecommunication 17. A person had filled a complaint with Banking Ombudsman but is not satisfied with the decision . What is the next option before him for getting his matter resolved File an appeal before the Banking Ombudsman again 18. In which circumstance Dear Money policy will be adopted by RBI Inflation. 19. The opportunity to buy an asset at a low price then immediately selling it on a different market for a higher price Arbitrage. 20. A scheme enables an expeditious and inexpensive forum

20 | COMPETITIVE ZEAL | DECEMBER 2012

COMPETITIVE ZEAL

FCI SPECIAL
APPOINTMENTS
Indias Governor on the board of Governors of the African development bank Attorney General of India Minister of Science and Technology (India) Chief Economist and senior vice President of World Bank Director General of Assam rifles UN Deputy Secretary General President of international cricket council Chairman of SAIL Revenue Secretary of Central Govt. Union commerce secretary Chief justice of India Chief selector in the national selection committee of the BCCI Chief of BCCI Senior Selection Committee Indian Envoy to Canada Defence Minister of China Norway Cultural Minister President of India President of Mexico President of Yemen Prime Minister of Yemen Supreme leader of North Korea President of Germany President of Galawi Prime Minister of greece Finance Minister of Greece President of Guyana President of Nigeria President of Russia Prime minister of Russia President of Albania President of Saiwan President of Syria President of France Prime minister of France President of Serbia President of Egypt Prime minister of Egypt President of Maldives President of Iraq Prime minister of Iraq Prime minister of Greece
21 | COMPETITIVE ZEAL | DECEMBER 2012

P.Chidambaram Goolam e vahanvati Vayalar ravi Kaushik basu Ranbir singh Jan Eliasson Alan isaac C.S. verma Sumit bose S R Rrao Altamas kabir Roger binny Sandeep patil Nirmal verma (former navy chief) General liang Guanglie Hadia Tajik Pranab mukherjee Enrique pena nie nieto Abd-rabbuh mansour hade Mohammed basindwa Kim jong un Joachim gauck Joyce banda Antonis samaras Yannis stournaras Donald ramotar Goodluck jonathan Vladimir putin Dmitry medvedev Bujar nishani Ma ying jeou Bashar al assad Francois hollande Jean maec ayrault Tomislav nikolic Mohammed mursi Hesham qandil Waheed hassan Jalal talabani Nouri al-maliki Antonis samaras

COMPETITIVE ZEAL

President, democratic republic of Congo Prime minister of Pakistan CM of Karnataka CM of Uttar-pradesh CM of Uttrakhand CM of Manipur CM of Goa CM of Punjab Controller General of Accounts (CGA) Chairman of Indian banks Association Chief election commissioner of India Home Minister of India Secretary of President of India Governor of Goa Governor of Andhra Pradesh Governor of Maharashtra Governor of Rajasthan Election Commissioner of India Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha New Chief Economic Advisory in Finance Ministry Chief of Indian Navy Wef Sept-1 Chief of Indian Army Head of African union commission Indian banks Association-Chairman SEBI Chairman President of Asian development bank (ADB) Asean Secretary-General Opec Secretary General Chief prosecutor of internatonal criminal court Attorney General of India CEO of international cricket council Chairman of cbdt Director of bhabha atomic research centre Judge of Supreme Court Chairman of TRAI Brand Ambassador of national sanitation compaign Judge of international court of justice Communication Advisor in the Pmo President of world Bank US ambassador to India Indian ambassador to USA President of Assocham
22 | COMPETITIVE ZEAL | DECEMBER 2012

Joseph kabila Raja parvez ashraf Jagadish shettar Akhilesh yadav Vijay bahuguna Okram ibobi singh Manohar parikar Parkash singh badal Jawahar thakur Alok Misra V.S. Sampath Sushil Kumar Shinde Omita paul B V Vanchoo Esl Narasimhan K Sankaranarayan Margaret Alva Syed Nasim Ahmed Zaidi P.J. Kurien Raghuram rajan D.K. Joshi Gen. Bikram Singh Nkosazana Damini-Zumal M.d. mallya U.k. sinha Haruhiko Kuroda Surin pitsuwan Abdalla salem el-badri Fatou bensouda Goolam e. vahanvati David richardson Poonam kishore saxena Shekhar basu Justice madan bhimarao lokur Rahul khullar Vidya ballan Justice dalveer bhandari Pankaj pachouri Jim yong kim Nancy j powell Nirupama rao Rajkumar dhoot

COMPETITIVE ZEAL

Senior Vice President and Chief Economist of World Bank 39th Chief Justice of India Chief Justice of Panjab and Haryana High Court Chief Justice of Madhya Pradesh New Chief Sec. of West Bengal Chair man of ICC Cricket Committee President of Venezuala President of International Cricket council UN Deputy Secretary General Union Minister of Science and Technology Chief Selector in National Selection Committee of the BCCI Chairman of National Selection Committee of Cricket Attorney General of India President of Somalia
ORGANISATON HEAD QUARTER ORGANISATON HEAD QUARTER

Kaushik Basu Altamas Kabir A.K. Sikri Sharad Arvind Sanjay Mitra Anil Kumble Hugo Chavez Alan Issac Jan Eliasson Vayalar Ravi Roger Binny Sandeep Patil Goolam E. Jahanvati Hassan Sheikh Mohammed
ORGANISATON

Bobde

HEAD QUARTER

Vijaya Bank United bank of India UCO bank PNB Punjab and Sind bank Corporation bank OBC bank Canara bank Indian bank Indian overseas bank Bank of maharastra

Bangalore Kolkatta kolkatta New delhi New delhi Mangalore New delhi Bangalore Chennai Phennai Pune

Bank of baroda Andhra bank Allahabad bank Syndicate bank Union bank of india SIDBI (est. in 1990) Nabard (est. in 1982) EXIM (est. in 1982) IDBI (est. in 1964) NHB(est. in 1988) WHO

Vadodara Hyderabad Kolkatta Manipal Mumbai Lucknow Mumbai Mumbai Mumbai New-delhi Newyork

UNESCO ICC (International Criminal Court)

Paris Hague (Netherland) United Nations Newyork ICC (Cricket) Dubai IMF Washington World bank Washington CERN Geneva ILO (International Labour Organization) Geneva WTO (World Trade Organization) Geneva

NAME
Summit of Non-aligned movement World Hindi Conference G-20 summit G-8 summit Asean summit Brics summit SAARCH summit OPEC summit Rio+20 summit RIC Ecowas summit Commonwealth summit Asia-Europe (Asem) summit World future Energy summit 7th Asia gas partnership summit

MEETING VENUE 2012


Tehran (Iran) Johannesburg Los Cabos (Mexico) Camp David, Maryland (United States) Phnom Penh (Combodia) New -Delhi Male (Maldives) Libya Rio de Janeiro (Brazil) Wuhan city of China Yamoussoukro Perth (Australia)-2011 (it held after every two years) Brussels (Belgium)-2010 (this organisation have no specific time for summit) UAE New Delhi
23 | COMPETITIVE ZEAL | DECEMBER 2012

NEXT MEETING VENUE

St. Petersburg (Russia) United Kingdom South Africa Nepal

Hambantota (Sri-lanka)

COMPETITIVE ZEAL
NAME
Shanghai cooperation organisation summit Mini Pravasi Bhartiya Divas-2012 International Conference on Afghanistan Internationals Donors Conferenece India Celac foreign Ministers Meeting World Economic summit World Eonomic forum Arab League summit Board of Governer of Asian Development bank Olympics Cricket World Cup (ODI) Cricket World Cup T-20 Commonwealth Games Football World Cup Russia (2018) Qatar (2022) Euro Cup-2012 U-19 Cricket World Cup Sultan Azlan Shah Cup NAM SUMMIT FICCI IMFF World Bank T20-Mens World Cup T20-Females World Cup G-20 Summit 2015

MEETING VENUE 2012


Beijing Dubai Tokya Tokyo New Delhi Gurgaon (Haryana) Davos, Switzerland Baghdad London (2012) India (2011) Srilanka New Delhi 2010 (India) South Africa (2010)

NEXT MEETING VENUE

India Rio di Janeiro (2016) Australia (2015) Bangladesh (2014) Glasgow 2014 (Scotland) Brazil (2014)

Poland and Ukraine Australia Malaysia Tehtran(Iran) Mumbai Tokyo (Japan) Srilanka Srilanka Turkey

ORBITUARY
Lakshmi Sehgal Neil Armstrong Rajesh Khanna Dara Singh Stephen R. Covey Freedom fighter,an officer in the indian national army and a close associate of subhash chandra bose American astonaut- first man to set foot upon the moon. Famous fiilm star , first superstar of the bollywood. Wrestler turned actor. also known as Rustam-e-hind, Rustam-e-punjab, Ironman of indian cinema Famous writer. author of motivational books like the 7 habbits of highly Effective people, First things first,the 8th habbit:from effectiveness to greatness,The speed of trust,the leader in me. Famous punjabi writer Singer actress A noted scholar of foreign policy, writer and diplomat Noted urdu poet Bollywood filmmaker Indian lyricist,poet,musician and film maker Pakistani ghazal singer. also known as kings of ghazals.
24 | COMPETITIVE ZEAL | DECEMBER 2012

Kartar Singh Duggal Whitney houstan A K Damadaran Akhlaq Mohd Khan Shaharyar O.P. Dutta Bhupen hazarika Mehdi Hasan

COMPETITIVE ZEAL
Jagjit Singh Prof P N Dhar Hiren bhattacharya Vshok Mehta Joy Mukherjee Vilasrao Deshmukh A.K. Hangal Nikhat Kazmi Indian ghazal singer. also known as ghazal king An eminent economist Assamese poet Cinematographer Hindi film actor Union minister for science and Technology Hindi film actor Film critic

AWARDS
Dadasaheb Phalke Award-2011 (highest award in Indian cinema) Saraswati samman-2011 Saraswati samman-2010 Jnanpith Awards winner-2010 Banker of the year-2011 Banker of the year-2010 Sydney peace prize Man booker prize-2011 Man booker international prize-2011 World food prize Templeton prize-2012 National medal of arts and humanities award (USA) 21 Vyas samman Kalidas Samman Oscar Awards Best PictureBest ActorBest ActressBest Directorth 59 National film awards Best Film Best Actor Best Actress Best Director 54th Grammy awards Record of the year Song of the year Grammy award 65th Bafta awards Best film Best actor Best actress Best director DSC prize for South Asia literature-2012 Pulitzer prize- 2012 Mr. Soumitra Chattrejee A.A. Manavalan (Irama Kathaiyun Iramayakulum) S.L. Bhyrappa (Mundra) Chandrashekhara Kambara (Kannada) M.D. Mallya Vikram pandit Julian Assange Julian Barnes Philip Roth Daniel Hillel Dalai Lama Amartya Sen Prof. Ramdarash Mishra CV Chandrashekher The artist Jean dujardin Meryl Streep Michel hazanavicius Deool (Marathi) & Byari (Byari) Girish Kulkarni Vidya Balan Gurvinder Singh Rolling in the deep Rolling in the deep Steve Jobs (posth) The artist Jean Dujardin Meryl Streep Michel Hazanavicius Sheham karunatilaka Philadelphia inquirer
25 | COMPETITIVE ZEAL | DECEMBER 2012

COMPETITIVE ZEAL

AWARDS
Germanys Order of Merit Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratan Award-2012 Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratan Award-2011 Wisden India Outstanding Achievement Award Seoul Peace Prize-2012 Gandhi Peace Award -2011 Nobel Prize in Physics 2012 Nobel Prize in Chemistry 2012 Nobel Prize in Medicine 2012 Nobel Prize for Peace 2012 Nobel Prize in Literature Sudhir kakkar Vijay kumar and Yogehswar dutt Gagan narang Sachin Tendulkar Ban ki moon Dr. Binayak and Balu imam Serge Haroche and David Wineland Robert Lefkowitz and Brian Kolbika John Gurdan and Shinga Yamanaka European Union Mo Yon 25. 26. 27. 28. 29. 30. 31. The Emblem of Vardhman Mahovira is Lion Samudragupta was also called the Napolean of India Sun temple at Konark constructed by King Narsimhadeva The Old name of Myanmar was Suvarnabhumi Akbar was born at Amarkot in 1542 The first Viceroy of india was Lord Canning The Territory of Porus who offered strong resistance to Alexander was Situated between the rivers of Jhelum and Chenab Under Akbar, the Miv Baksh was required look after Military Affairs Tribitakas are sacred books of Buddhists C.R. Das and Motilal Nehru formed the Swaraj Party afterNon Cooperation Movement What is name of Fort Built by English Rulers in Kolkatta?Fort William ChandraGupta-II also known as Vikramaditya First General Election held in India in 1952 Treaty of Amritsar was held in 1809 between Maharaja Ranjit singh and Lord Minto Arya Samaj was found by Swami Dayanand Which Governor General of India made English the medium of higher Education in India Lord William Bentick The old name of Combodia was Kamboja Rigveda contains how many hymns 1028 hymns The Somnath Temple located in the Kathiarwar region of Gujarat First Battle of Panipat was held in 1526 A Ploughed field was found in which city of Indus valley Kalibangan Which valley created the Indian Forest Department- Lord

Important History
1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20. 21. 22. 23. 24. The Father of Ancient History is Herodotus Indus Valley Civilization is also known as SaraswatiSindhu Civilization and Harappan Civilization Atharva Veda deals with Music In Indus Valley Civilization, the script is Pictographic The Great Batti was found at MohenJo-daro Channu-daro was the only city of Indus Valley Civilization without Citadel The Rigvedic Name of River Ravi is Purushni Gayatri Mantra is contained in the third Mandala Fourth Buddhist council was held at Kashmir The first discipline of Vardhman mahavira was Jamali Tripitakas are sacred books of Buddhists The Pioneer of higher Education for Muslims in India was Sir Syed Ahmed Khan First Council of Jainism was held at Pataliputra Nalanda University was founded by Kumaro Gupta-I First Instance of Sati Took place at Eran (MP) Doctrine of Laps was introduced by Lord Dal Housie First Round table conference was held in Nov 12, 1930 Who Laid the foundation of Qulab Minar- Qutab-ud-dinaibak The English East India Company was formed in 1599 Jinnah Celebrated Pakistan day on March 27, 1947 Defence of India Regulations Act was Passed in 1915 The Madras Presidency was officially known as Presidency of Fort .St.George The Harappan Culture belongs to Bronze Age Sindhu was the Rigvedic name of Indus River

32. 33. 34. 35. 36. 37. 38. 39. 40. 41. 42. 43. 44. 45. 46.

26 | COMPETITIVE ZEAL | DECEMBER 2012

COMPETITIVE ZEAL
Lawrence Aligarh Movement was started by the sir Syyed Ahmed Khan Who was the first and the last Muslim woman ruler in Medeival India Raziya sulatan Battle of Hydaspas fought on the banks of Jhelum Jain Literature is in which language- Avdh Magadhi and Prakrit dialects. 33. 34. 35. 36. 37. 38. 39. 40. 41. 42. 43. 44. 45. 46. 47. 48. 49. 50. Eiffel tower is situated at Paris Downing street is situated at London The Largest sea of world is Mediterranean The Largest Ocean of World of Pacific Ocean The Rainiest Place of World is Mausinram (Meghalaya) The Hottest Place of world is Azizia(Libya) Maginot Line boundary is in between France and Germany 49th Parallel boundary is in between USA and Canada The Biggest country of North America is Canada Automobile Capital of the World is Detroit (USA) The Largest (Areawise) State of USA is Alaska Coffee Pot of the World is Brazil The Country where Highest Death Rate and Minimum Life Chances Sierra Leone (Africa) Captain James Cook discovered the which country Australia The Largest Man-made Lake in India is Indira Sagar Lake Black Soil is also Known as Regur The Largest National Highway of India NH-7 Kaziranga Sanctuary is located at Assam

47. 48. 49. 50.

Important Geography
1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20. 21. 22. 23. 24. 25. 26. 27. 28. 29. 30. 31. 32. The Shape of Milky ways galaxy is Spiral If a stars is of sun size it becomes a white Dwarf Venus is also known as Earths Twin Mars is also known as Red Planet Jupiter is also known as Lord of the Heavens Earth is known as Blue Planet Nearest position of earth to sun Perihelion Furthest position of earth from sun Aphelion India is located in North Hemisphere Largest day on North Hemisphere June 21 Shortest day on North Hemisphere 22 Dec The Dates when days and Nights are equal Equinoxes The dates when difference between the length of days and length of nights is largest - solstice The Earth Rotates from- West to East Outermost Layer of Earth is Crust Sky Layer nearest to Earths surface- Troposphere Changing the Vapors to Liquid State is condensation Smog is the combination of Smoke + fog Largest river of World is Amazon Longest River of World is Nile Largest lake of World is Caspian Sea Indias Largest Lake Chilka Lake Finland is also known as The Lord of Thousand Lakes The US States of Minnesota is known as The Land of Ten thousand Lakes Area wise Biggest Country of World Russia Areawise smallest country of World Vatican City New York is situated on which river Hudson Largest Island of India is - Middle Andaman The sorrow of Bengal is Damodar River The Sorrow of Bihar is Kosi City of Seven Hills- Rome Hwang Ho is known as Chinas Sorrow

Important Indian Polity


1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14. Constituent Assembly of India was setup under which Mission Cabinet Mission Plan Chairman of Drafting committee- Dr. B.R. Ambedkar Total Number of Committees for Framing the constitution 13 The Supreme court of India is Established in 1774 The Supreme court of India is Established at Calcutta Indian Council Act 1909 is also known as Morley Minto Reforms Govt. of India Act, 1914 is also known as Montaque Chamesford Reforms In which Amendment the words Socialist, Secular and integrity were added 42nd Amendment India Borrowed the feature of Fundamental rights from which Country USA How many Schedules in constitution 12 Andhra Pradesh is formed in the year of 1953 Goa was separated from the UT of Goa, Daman and Diu in 1987 The First Citizen of India is President Only President who won the Election as an Independent Candidate V.V.Giri

27 | COMPETITIVE ZEAL | DECEMBER 2012

COMPETITIVE ZEAL
15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20. 21. 22. 23. 24. 25. 26. 27. 28. 29. 30. 31. 32. 33. The President who elected Unopposed Neelam Sanjeeva Reddy Financial Emergency is under which Article Article 360 Ex-officio Chairman of Rajya Sabha- Vice President of India Ex-officio Chairman of National Integration Council PM of India Maximum Strength of Lok Sabha 552 Maximum Numbers of seats of Lok Sabha is in which state UP (80) The Ist hour of every sitting in both houses is Question hour How many states of India have Bi-Camera States Six Which State have the maximum Number of seats of Legislature Assembly UP(403 Seats) How many Seats of High Courts situated in India 21 The Judge who decide Civil Cases Known as District Judge The Retirement Age of CAG of India 65 Years Highest Legal Officer of Union Govt Attorney General The chief Election commissioner is appointed by President of India National Song of India is Vande Mataram Ratio of Width of Flag to its length 2:3 The Idea of Lokpal is taken from Scandinavian Countries Satyameva Jayata engraved on the Indian Emblem is taken from Mundakopanished The Name of the Lavvadive Minicoy and Admindivi island was changed to Lakshadweep by an act of Parliament in 1973 The member of the Rajya Sabha are elected by Elected members of Legislative assembly The members of Panchayats are The electorates of the respective territorial constituencies The present Lok Sabha is 15th Lok Sabha The minimum age to qualify for election to the Lok- Sabha is 25years The Pension of High court Judge. Judge is charged to the Consolidated Fund of India The President addresses both the Houses of Parliament assembled together first session after each general election and the first session of each year. The President can dissolve the Lok sabha on the advice of Prime Minister The President can expend out of the contingency Fund of India without the approval of India The member of Rajya Sabha are elected for a term of Six years The office of President Vacant due to Registration, Death and Removal The President can dismiss a member of the council of minister on the recommendation of Prime minister The office of Prime Minister of India has a constitutional Basis Preamble enshrines the ideas of Liberty, Equality, and Fraternity- ideals inspired by the French Revolution The minimum no of members that must be present to hold the meeting of the Lok Sabha is One tenth of total membership of Houses The Phrase Bicameral Legislature means- a legislature consisting of a lower and an upper chamber The member of the UPSC are appointed for a term of 6 years or they attain 56 years of age Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) is appointed by the President

36. 37. 38. 39.

40. 41. 42. 43. 44. 45. 46. 47.

48. 49. 50.

34. 35.

One Word Substitution


1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. One who is out to subvert a government Ore who is recovering from illness One who is all powerful One who is present everywhere One who knows everything One who is easily deceived One who does not make mistakes One who can do anything for money One who has no money Anarchist Convalescent Omnipotent Omnipresent Omniscient Gullible Infallible Mercenary Pauper Turncoat Volunteer 12. One who loves books 13. One who can speak two languages 14. One who loves mankind 15. One who hates mankind Bibliophile Bilingual Philanthropist Misanthrope

16. One who looks on the bright side of thingsOptimist 17. One who looks on the dark side of things Pessimist 18. One who doubts the existence of god 19. One who pretends to be what he is not 20. One incapable of being tired 21. One who helps others Good 22. One who copies from other writers Agnostic Hypocrite Indefatigable Samaritan Plagiarist

10. One who changes sides 11. One who works for free

28 | COMPETITIVE ZEAL | DECEMBER 2012

COMPETITIVE ZEAL
23. One who hates women 24. One who knows many languages 25. One who is fond of sensuous pleasures 26. One who thinks only of himself Misogynist Polyglot Epicure Egoist 63. A life history written by somebody else 64. People who work together 65. One who eats too much 66. That which cannot be satisfied 67. One who questions everything 68. A flesh eating animal 69. A grass eating animal 70. One who lives in a foreign country 71. To transfer ones authority to another 72. One who, is a newcomer 73. That which a lawful 74. That which is against law 75. One who is unmarred 78. A game in which no one wins 77. A study of man 78. A study of races 79. A study of the body 80. A study of annuals 81. A study of birds 82. A study of ancient things 83. A study of derivation of words 84. Murder of a human being 85. Murder of a father 86. Murder of a mother 87. Murder of an brother 88. Murder of an infant 89. Murder of self 90. Murder of the king 91. To free somebody from al blame 92. To write under a different name 93. A thing no longer n use 94. A handwriting that cannot be read 95. Words written on the tomb of a person 96. One who is greedy for money Biography Colleagues Glutton Insatiable Cynic Carnivorous Herbivorous Immigrant Delegate Neophyte Legal Illegal Celibate Draw Anthropology Ethnology Physiology Zoology Ornithology Archaeology Etymology Homicide Patricide Matricide Fratricide Infanticide Suicide Regicide Exonerate Pseudonym Obsolete Illegible Epitaph Avaricious

27. One who thinks only of welfare of women Feminist 28. One who is indifferent to pleasure or pain Stoic 29. One who is quite like a woman 30. One who has strange habits 31. One who speaks less 32. One who goes on foot 33. One who believes in fate 34. One who dies without a Will 35. One who always thinks himself to be ill 36. A Government by the people 37. A Government by a king or queen 38. A Government by the officials 39. A Government by the rich 40. A Government by the few 41. A Government by the Nobles 42. A Government by one 43. Rule by the mob 44. That through which light can pass 45. That through which light cannot pass 46. That though which light can partly pass 47. A sentence whose meaning is unclear 48. A place where orphans live 49. That which cannot be described 50. That which cannot be imitated 51. That which cannot be avoided 52. A position for which no salary Is paid 53. That which cannot be defended 54. Practice of having several wives 55. Practice of having several husbands 56. Practice of having one wife or husband 58. That which is not likely to happen 59. People living at the same time Effeminate Eccentric Reticent Pedestrian Fatalist Intestate Valetudinarian Democracy Monarchy Bureaucracy Plutocracy Oligarchy Aristocracy Autocracy Mobocracy Transparent Opaque Translucent Ambiguous Orphanage Indescribable Inimitable Inevitable Honorary Indefensible Polygamy Polyandry Monogamy Improbable Contemporaries

57. Practice of having two wives or husbands Bigamy

97. One who doesnt know how to read and write Illiterate 98. A persons peculiar habit 99. An animal who preys on other animals 100. Violating the sanctity of a church 101. One who can throw his voice Idiosyncrasy Predator Sacrilege Ventriloquist

60. A book published after the death of its author Posthumas 61. A book written by an unknown author 62. A life history written by oneself Anonymous Autobiography

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COMPETITIVE ZEAL

Reasoning Kapsule - 2
Direction for (1- 4): The HR department of a company has to select two teams of its staff for the training for a month, one team will go to France in January and other to Germany in March. Teams must be selected from the only six qualified persons : A, B, C, D, E, and F. Each team must have exactly three members. If E is selected for a team, F must also be selected for that team. For purposes of communication, the two teams must have at least one member in common E and A refuse to go in the same team. 1. Which of the following could be the members of the teams? Team 1 Team 2 (a) A, D, and E C, A, and B (b) F, A, and D B, C, and E (c) A, F, and E D, C, and F (d) C, E, and F F, A, and D If A, B, and C make up one of the teams, and D, F and B make up the other, which member of either team could give up his position to E without violating any of the rules? (a) D (b) F (c) B (d) C If E and C are two members of one team, and if B is one member of the other team, which of the following could be the other two members of Bs team? (a) A and D (b) E and C (c) E and A (d) F and A If D is the only person selected for both teams, and if both E and A are selected as team members, all of the following could be true EXCEPT: (a) F and A serve on different teams. (b) C and E serve on different teams. (c) F is selected for the same team as A. (d) C is selected for the same team as A. following must be on a team with only one other member? (a) U (b) V (c) W (d) X 7. If U is on the same team as V, which of the following pairs must be on a team together? (a) S and Y (b) S and Z (c) T and W (d) T and Y If S is on the same team as U, which of the following could be true ? (a) The two women are on a team together (b) Two of the men are on a team together (c) S is on a team with V (d) T is on a team with Z If S is on the same team as Y, which of the following could be true? (a) U is on a team with only one other member (b) T is on a team with only one other member (c) T is on the same team as V (d) Z is on the same team as U If two of the men are on a team together, which of the following must be on a team that has 3 members? (a) S (b) T (c) V (d) Y

8.

9.

2.

10.

3.

4.

Direction (11-15): A shopkeeper is preparing gift boxes of candy, Each box will contain exactly two kinds of hard candy to be selected from F, G and H and exactly three kinds of soft candy to be selected from P, Q, R, S and T, with the following restrictions. (i) G cannot be in the same gift box as T, (ii) P cannot be in the same gift box as S. (iii) Q cannot be in the same gift box as T. 11. If G is included in a gift box, which of the following is a kind of candy that must also be included? (a) F (b) H (c) P (d) Q If H is not included in a particular gift box, any of the following kinds of candies can be included except (a) P (b) Q (c) R (d) T Which of the following kinds of candies be included in each of the gift boxes? (a) F (b) G (c) H (d) R If T is included in a gift box, the box must also include which of the following kinds of candy? (a) F and G (b) F and H (c) G and H (d) P and R In a gift box that contains an acceptable assortment of candies, which of the following substitutions will always result in another acceptable assortment? (a) P for S (b) Q for R (c) S for R (d) T for P

Direction for (5-10): A certain group of eight people is made of two women S and T; Three Men U, V and W; and three children X, Y and Z. Each of the eight must be on one, and only one, of the three teams being formed according to the following conditions. (i) Each team must have either two or three members. (ii) Each team must have at last one child. (iii) S and X cannot be on the same team. (iv) V and W cannot be on the same team. (v) U and Y must be on the same team. 5. If one man is on each team, any of the following pairs could be together on a team except (a) S and T (b) S and W (c) T and U (d) T and W If the two women are on a team together, which of the

12.

13.

14.

15.

6.

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Direction for (16-18): Ankur is both taller and older next to Balwinder. Chand is not as tall as Balwinder but he is taller than Dilip. The oldest child amongst them is the one who is the shortest. Dilip is taller than both Elisha and Fatima. Chand is on third position if the students are standing either agewisee or heightwise in descending order. Elisha is older next to Ankur but he is quite younger Fatima. The youngest child is on second position heeightwise, starting from the tallest 16. 17. 18. Who is the tallest amongst all ? (a) Balwinder (b) Elisha (c) Dilip Who is the youngest amongst all ? (a) Balwinder (b) Elisha (c) Dilip (d) Ankur (d) Ankur 24. the alphabet, starting at the northernmost streets as A Street. M Street is one-way going east. N street is a two-way street. O street is one-way going west. There are traffic signals at the intersections of Tenth and O, Eleventh and O, and twelfth and N. Drivers always obey the traffic laws. A driver who is travelling west on an east-west street could not be at the intersection of (a) Tenth and O (b) Eleventh and M (c) Eleventh and N (d) Eleventh and O A driver travelling west on an east-west street may make a right turn at any of the following intersections EXCEPT (a) Tenth and N (b) Tenth and O (c) Eleventh and O (d) Twelfth and N A driver at the corner of twelfth and O could go to Tenth and M and pass through only one intersection with a traffic signal if she took which of the following routes ? (a) North on Twelfth and west on M (b) North on Twelfth and west on N, and north on Tenth (c) North on Twelfth, west on N, north on Eleventh, and west on M (d) West on O, and north on Tenth

23.

Who among the following is at the third position if the students are arranged in the ascending order of their heights (a) Balwinder (b) Chand (c) Elisha (d) None of these

25.

Direction for (19-22): Pradeep, Rohit, Sahil, Tanvi, Uma, Varun, and Zenith are all born on the same date in six consecutive years and range in age from five years to ten years. Exactly one child is both a year older than Varun and a year younger than Uma. Rohit is younger than Uma. Exactly one child is both a year older than Uma and a year younger than Pradeep. Zenith is the twin of one of the other children, both on the exact same day as that child. 19. If Pradeep is ten years old, all of the following could be true EXCEPT: (a) Rohit is five years old (b) Rohit is eight years old. (c) Sandeepis five years old (d) Sandeepis seven years old. If Tanvi is both older than Varun, and younger than Uma, then Rohit could be how old ? (a) Only five years old (b) Only six years old (c) Only seven years old (d) Either five or six years old Which of the following CANNOT be Sahils age ? (a) Five years old (b) Six years old (c) Seven years old (d) Eight years old If Varun is Six years old, then all of the following could be Zeniths age EXCEPT (a) Five (b) Six (c) Seven (d) Eight 1 d 11 d 21 b

Reasoning Kapsule -2 Solution


ANSWERS
2 a 12 d 22 c 3 d 13 d 23 b 4 c 14 b 24 c 5 a 15 a 25 c 6 d 16 d 7 b 17 a 8 d 18 d 9 d 19 b 10 d 20 a

20.

Answer (1-4): Problem can be visualized with following diagram:Team 1 (T1) (France) Six Persons (A,B,C,D,E,F) Team 1 (T2) (Germany) Common Member

21.

22.

Direction for (23-25): All north-south streets are numbered consecutively, starting at the westernmost streets as First Street. All even-numbered streets are one-way going north. All odd-numbered streets are one-way going south. All east-west streets are named by consecutive letters of

Other restrictions are:- Rule I EF ( in same team of F only) and Rule II EA (not in same team)

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1. (d) Option (a) & (c) is not possible because E and A cant be in same team. Option (b) does not have E and F together. Only option left is (d) which could be possible. Team 1 ABC 2. Team 2 DFB 8. 7. (b) U, V, Y one team U V Y X S (d) S, U, Y one team S V or W W or V U T Y X or Z Z or X Z

As S is not with X; therefore S must be with Z.

(a) As E and A are to in a same team so B and C could not be person who give up his position to E. Also A or F cant given his position because if A or F give his position to E then E will be separated from F, hence violating the rule (I). So could not be person who give up his position to E. If E and C are two members of team 1. Third person of team 1 must be F. Team 1 ECF Team 2 B

T is on a team with Z could be true. 9. (d) S, U, Y One team From the above figure, T is in the same team with V could be true.

10. (d) Two men on same team U V or W Y

3.

(d) E could not be the member of Bs team, because If E then F must be in that team. Option (a) is not possible, because both team should have a common member. So F and A could be the other two members of Bs team

Y must be on team with 3 members. Answer (11-15): Entities : (a) 2 kinds from hard candy F, G, H (b) 3 kinds from soft candy P, Q, R, S, T Rules: (i) GT (ii) PS (iii) OT Analysis : Number of possibilities : (a) Hard Candy : FG, FH, GH (b) Soft Candy : PQR, PQS, PQT, PRS, PRT, PST, QRS, QRT, QST RST

4.

(c) Possible teams can be:Team 1 EFD Team 2 DA

Third person in team 2 can either be B or C. All the option except (c) could be true. Answer (5-10): Entities are:(a) 2 women S, T. (b) 3 men U, V, W (c) 3 Children X, Y, Z. Rules: (I) Team = 2 or 3 members. (II) Each team at last one child (III) SX (IV) VW (V) UY 5. (a) M M M W W C C C

5x4x3 Total possibilies = 5C3 = 3 x 2 x 1 = 10

Applying conditions (ii) and (iii) the possibilities left are PQR, PRT, QRS, RST. Combining two :
FG PQR PRT QRS RST FH PQR PRT QRS RST GH PQR PRT QRS RST

Applying condition (i), the possibilities left are The possibilities are
F G P Q R F G Q R S F H P Q F H P R F H Q R F H R S G H P Q G H Q R

The two women must be on different teams. Option (a) is false because S and T must be on different teams (from above table) 6. (d) M M M W W C C C S V or W W or V T U Z Y X

X is in team with one other member (V or W can be true but not must be true)

R T S T R S

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11. (d) if G is included, then
F P Q R F Q R S F P Q H P Q H Q R

must be younger than U, so R must be seven of five and not eight as the second choice says. 20. (a) If T is both older than V and younger than U then T must fill the place between V and U (Rule I). There we have the string :- V T U _ P Also R is younger than V. and we have only one place for R, before V 5 6 7 8 9 10 R V T U _ P Hence R age is five. 21. (b) Different possible arrangements are:5 6 7 8 9 10 V R U _ P _ _ V _ U _ P

Q and R must be included. 12. (d) if H is not included, then

R are others. R S

are possibilities. F G Q R S Except T others can be included.


13. (d) R must be included in all. 14. (b) If T is included, then
F H R S

F G P Q R

R Rule II tell is R must be 6 in option (I) & 5 or 7 in option II. IN either of these option, there is no way for S to be 6 year old. 22. (c) If V is 6, U is 8 and P is 10. We know Z cant be 7 cant be 7 or 9 because then two child would have to be exactly between V and U or U and P, violating rule I & III which says there is only one child between V & U or U & P. Answer (23-25): Draw the following diagram consistent with the given conditions. Since the given data relate to the streets M, N, O and 10, 11, 12, the diagram need cover only these streets.
10 11 12

F H P

must be included. R

F and H must be included. 15. (a) If P and S interchanged in the above possibilities, then we get possible assortments only. Answer (16-18): Sr. Name No. 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 16. (d) 17. (a) 18. (d) Dilip is at the third position if the students are arranged in the ascending order of their heights. Answer (19-22): A very straight forward sequencing game in which are arranging six entities not in space numbered. # 16 but in space #5-10 (representing ages) Rule I :- V U (exactly one child between V & U) Rule I :- R < U (R is younger than U) Rule I :- U _ P (exactly one child between U & P) Rule I :- Z with another (same age) We can combine Rule I & Rule III. Then we can add rule II to this combined rule by indicating that R must come to the left of U. V __ U __ P R 19. (b) If P is ten , then U must be eight & V must be six. R Ankur Balwinder Chand Dilip Elisha Fatima Rank Rank Note (Agewise) (Heightwise) 2 1 4 5 3 6 6 5 4 3 2 1 (1) Agewise Rank 1 Youngest 6 Oldest (2) Heightwise Rank 1 Shortest 6 Tallest

M N

M N

O 10 11 12

Note that NN is a two-way streets along which one can travel both eastwards and westwards. The circles represent the traffic lights at the junctions. 23. (b) Since the M street is a one-way street going east, a motorist travelling west cannot be on this street. So, (b) is not possible. You can easily verify that all the other choices are possible. 24. (c) Since the 11th street is a one-way street going south, a person travelling on O westwards cannot take a right turn towards the north along the 11th street. 25. (c) You can easily see that (c) is the only route through which one can reach form the junction of 12th and O to the junction of 10th and O after passing through only one traffic signal.

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Vocab Funda
1. 2. 3. a thing joined or added, but subordinate or not essentially a part adjure (v) command; direct adjutant (n) an officer who assists superior officers by communicating orders, conducting correspondence admonish (v) to warn; to reprove mildly adnauseam to the point of producing disgust (phrase) adove (n) a sun-dried brick adore (v) to worship; to love or revere in adorn (v) to dress; to embellish; to decorate adroit (adj) dexterous; skillful; ingenious adulation (n) praise (excessive); worship adulterate (v) to debase by mixing with something inferior (n: adulteration) or suprious advent (n) a coming or arrival adventitious (adj) additional; developed out of order or place adversary (n) an opponent adverse (adj) contrary (with to); opposed; unfavourable adversity (n) hardship; misfortune; poverty advert (v) to turn ones attention; to refer advocate (n/v) defender; attorney; lawyer; promote aegis (n) patronage; protection aeon (n) a vast age; eternity aerialist (n) a high-wise or trapeze artist aesthete (n) a person who has or professes to have a special appreciation of beauty aesthete (adj) artistic; exquisite aesthetician a person versed in or devoted to aesthetics aestival pertaining to summer aestivate (v) spend the summer or dry season in a state of torpor. aficionado a devotee of a sport or pass time affable (adj) courteous; pleasant or friendly affect (v) to infect or attack; to influence affidavit (n) a written declaration on oath affiliate (v/n) to attach as a member or branch; an (n: affiliation) associate affinity (n) attraction; liking; proclivity affirmation (n) assertion; declaration (v: affirm) affluence (n) abundance; wealth (adj: affluent) affray (n) a brawl, fight or fray adjunct (n)

4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20. 21. 22. 23. 24. 25. 26. 27. 28. 29. 30. 31. 32. 33. 34. 35.

36. agape (adj) with gaping mouth; dumbrounded 37. agenda (n.pl) (a list of) things to be done; a programme of business for discussion 38. agglomeration (n) accumulation; collection; gather 39. aggrandize (v) augment; increase 40. aggregate (n/adj) to amount (to); total 41. aggravate increase the gravity of (an illness, offence, etc) 42. aghast (adv) stupefied with horror 43. agile quick moving, nimble, active 44. agility (n) nimbleness; swiftness and suppleness 45. agitation (n) tumult; turmoil; distraction (in work) 46. agnostic (n) cynic; a sceptic 47. agrarian (adj) agricultural; relating to land 48. alacrity (n) briskness; cheerful readiness; promptness 49. albeit (conj) whereas; although it be 50. albino (n) a person with abnormally while skin and hair and pink irises 51. alchemy (n) the infant stage of chemistry, aimed towards transmuting of other metals into gold, and discovering the the elixir of life 52. alga (n) the seasweeds and related forms 53. alias (n/adv) otherwise known as; an assumed name 54. alibi (n) the fact of being elsewhere; an excuse for failure 55. alienate (v) to estrange 56. alimentary (adj)nutritive; pertaining to nourishment 57. alimony (n) an allowance for support made by one spouse to the other after their divorce or legal separation 58. allay (v) to clam; to alleviate; to lessen or reduce 59. allegory (n) symbol; symbolical narration 60. alleviate (v) to lessen or reduce; to mitigate 61. alliteration (n) the recurrence of the same initial sound in words in close succession 62. allude (v) to convey an indirect reference; to refer without explicit mention 63. allure (v) to entice; to bait; to seduce or attract 64. alluvial (adj) soil deposited by rivers or floods with matter transported in suspension 65. aloft (adj) on high; on the top 66. aloof (adv) detached; same way off (from); without participation 67. altercation (n) heated dispute; argument 68. altruism (n) benevolence; humanitarianism; munificence 69. altruistic (adj) regard for others as a principle f action, unselfishness, regard for other people

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70. alumna (n) a former female pupil or student 71. amateur (n/adj) beginner or dilettante; a novice 72. amalgamate combine or unite to form one structure, organisation, etc. 73. amazon (n) a female soldier; a strong, vigorous or aggressive woman 74. ambidextrous (adv) able to use both hands equally well 75. ambience (n) atmosphere; surrounding infleuence 76. ambiguous (adj) doubtful; indistinct; having more than one possible meaning 77. amble (n) to move at an easy pace 78. ameliorate (v) to make better; to improve 79. amen (interjection) so let it be, (said at the end of a prayer) 80. amenable (adj) agreeable; open

CROSSWORD PUZZLE
(1) (12) (2) (7) (5) (8) (3)


(9) (13)


(4)


(11)


(10) (6)

SUBSCRIPTION FORM
Subscriber's Name: Mr./Mrs. .................................... Address .................................................................... city ........................................................................... State ........................................ Pin........................... Telephone: ............................................................... E-mail: ...................................................................... Subscriptions: 1 Year 12 Issue ` 200 2 Year 24 Issue ` 350 3 Year 36 Issue ` 450

HINTS Left to Right 1. Quality which makes something what it is 4. State of being wrong 6. Past form of do 9. Correct and revise written material 13. Extreme fear Top to bottom 1. Cause to feel drained of energy 2. Something that reduces guilty feelings 12. Something that is superior to others 3. Experience and cope with prolonged pain or difficulty 5. Lowering and raising head, briefly to show agreement or greeting signal 7. Informal or formal sponse or partner 8. Plant with edible leaves and root which can be used instead of coffee 10. Wide track with a hard surface for vehicles to travel on 11. Condense moisture taking spheres from the atmosphere in separate drops. Solution of Crossword Puzzle
(1) (12) (2) (7) (5) (8) (3)

Enclosed herewith is Cheque/DD No........................ Or Rs. .................................. Dated.......................... Drawn On. ....................... Branch.............................

Date ..................

Signature

E N E R V A T
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E X
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N O
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C H I C O R Y

E N D U R E

Please send the complete form with cheque/DD to Subscription Office

D
(10)

T Y M

E E

R A I N

R O A D

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COMPETITIVE ZEAL

SBI Exam - 7th October 2012


(Based on Memory)
TEST -I GENERAL AWARENESS
1. Shri Mukul Roy who was inducted in the Union Cabinet belongs to which of the following political parties? (1) Communist Party (M) (2) Samajwadi Party (3) All India Trinamool Congress (4) Congress (I) (5) Janata Dal Providing bank finance to Self Help Groups (SHGs) is considered a part of (1) Micro Credit (2) Agricultural Finance (3) Mobile Banking (4) Rural Banking (5) None of these Which of the following is a function of the Reserve Bank of India? (1) Issuing Kisan Credit Cards (2) Issuing Aadhar Cards (3) Acting as Bankers Bank (4) Deciding the slabs of personal income tax (5) Issuing National Savings Certificates The only way Greece can survive is to dramatically boost trade with Turkey was the headline in a major newspaper. Why Turkey has to advice Greece like this? (1) Greece is passing through an economic crisis. Turkey wants to help it by more imports. (2) Turkey which is a powerful nation has attacked Greece to settle a long pending border dispute with it. (3) Greece and Turkey are partners in a plan launched by the IMF to rescue Greece from economic crisis. (4) Greece has refused to honour an old trade agreement with Turkey. Hence Turkey is threatening Greece (5) Turkeys survival depends on Greece Who among the following represented India in Conventional Indo-Russia Meet, organized in December 2011? (1) Mrs. Pratibha Patil (2) Smt. Sonia Gandhi (3) Mr. S. M. Krishna (4) Mr. P. Chidambaram (5) None of these Which of the following is the purpose of creating Euro zone Financial Stability Facility (EFSF) created by European Union (EU)? (1) To provide financial aid to member countries in case of crisis (2) To ensure that the EURO does not get depreciated against pound sterling and/or yen (3) To ensure that no non-euro member country enters into any currency swap agreement with euro members. (4) To ensure that there is no shortage of essential goods and food products in euro zone countries. (5) To pressurize UK to adopt Euro as its official currency 7. Which of the following countries had shown interest in purchasing nuclear reactors from India? (The efforts are/were being made to finalize the deal)? (1) Russia (2) China (3) Turkey (4) Kazakhstan (5) Bangladesh Which of the following countries has launched a new index Comparative Rating, Index of Sovereigns (CRIS)? (1) USA (2) India (3) China (4) Japan (5) Britain Which of the following is the literacy rate in India as per new data released by the census commission? About ___ (1) 60% (2) 68% (3) 70% (4) 75% (5) 83% Which of the following countries in Indias neighborhood has agreed that Indians staying in the border areas will be allowed to visit up to 16 km inside its boundary without obtaining visa/permits? (1) Bangladesh (2) Nepal (3) China (4) Myanmar (5) Pakistan Sheikh Hasina who was on a two day visit to Tripura in January 2012 is the present (1) President of Bangladesh (2) Prime Minister of Bangladesh (3) President of Indonesia (4) Prime Minister of Indonesia (5) None of these Who among the following is designated as the next Army General of India and will take charge in July 2012? (1) Gen. V. K. Singh (2) Gen. Bikram Singh (3) Gen. Deepak Kapoor (4) Gen. Joginder J. Singh (5) None of these Who among the following is the Minister of Foreign Affairs of India at present? (1) Dr. Manmohan Singh (2) Shri Kapil Sibal (3) Shri Kamal Nath (4) Shri S.M. Krishna (5) None of these India got Olympic 2012 berth in Hockey after defeating which of the following countries in qualifying rounds held in February 2012 ? (1) Pakistan (2) France (3) Spain (4) England (5) S. Korea

2.

8.

9.

3.

10.

4.

11.

12.

5.

13.

6.

14.

36 | COMPETITIVE ZEAL | DECEMBER 2012

COMPETITIVE ZEAL
15. Who among the following won the Australian Open 2012 Mens Singles title? (1) David Ferrer (2) Rafael Nadal (3) Novak Djokovic (4) Leander Paes (5) Radek Stepanek Who among the following won the Best Actress Award in 57th Film fare Awards Function held in January 2012? (1) Vidya Balan (2) Priyanka Chopra (3) Parineeti Chopra (4) Rani Mukherjee (5) Neha Dhupia Anup Jalota who was awarded Padmashri in 2012 is a well known (1) Industrialist (2) medical professional (3) social worker (4) playback singer (5) politician The members of the Rajya Sabha are elected for a period of (1) 4 years (2) 5 years (3) 6 years (4) 2years (5) till the age of 65 Who represented India in 17th Summit of South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation (SAARC) held in November 2011 in Maldives? (1) Smt. Pratibha Patil (2) Smt. Sonia Gandhi (3) Dr. Manmohan Singh (4) Shri Pranab Mukherjee (5) Shri P Chidambaram Victoria Azarenkas name was in news recently. She is a well known (1) Cine actress (2) Lawn Tennis Player (3) Author (4) Politician of Spain (5) Chess Player Which among the following agencies/organizations will act as Regulator of Micro-finance Institutions in India? (1) RBI (2) NABARD (3) SIDBI (4) SEBI (5) IBA The 3rd Summit of BRICS was organized in 2011 in (1) China (2) India (3) Brazil (4) South Africa (5) Russia Which of the following days is observed as World Population Day every year? (1) 11th March (2) 11th July (3) 11th August (4) 10th January (5) 10th July The 38th Summit of G-8 is being organized in which of the following countries in May 2012? (1) Canada (2) Germany (3) China (4) France (5) USA What is the Bank Rate at present? (1) 5% (2) 5.5% (3) 6% (4) 6.5% (5) None of these 32. 29. 26. Which of the following schemes/programmes is launched to develop rural infrastructure in India? (1) MG National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (2) Bharat Nirman (3) Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana (4) Total Sanitation Campaign (5) lndira Awas Yojana Which of the following terms is NOT used in the field of banking and finance? (1) Real Time Gross Settlement (2) Special Drawing Rights (3) Ways and Means Advance (4) Amplitude (5) Open Market Operations Who among the following is the winner of Pulitzer Prize for literature in 2011? (1) Bob Dylan (2) Hank Williams (3) Janathan Deb (4) Lee C. Bollinger (5) Jennifer Egan Who among the following is the Chief Election Commissioner of India at present? (1) Shri Navin Chawla (2) Shri S.V. Qurashi (3) S.hri Ajif Seth (4) Shri Vinod Rai (5) None of these Which of the following is true about the Railway Budget 2012-13 finally passed by the Parliament? (1) No hike in passenger fares up to 3rd AC (2) 30 new trains introduced on Delhi/Mumbai route (3) Three new Shatabdi trains introduced last year withdrawn (4) A new zone created as Central Railway divided in two zones South Central and Central Main (5) All of these Which of the following countries is NOT a member of Organization of the Petroleum Exporting Countries (OPEC)? (1) Angola (2) Libya (3) Bangladesh (4) Venezuela (5) Qatar Which of the following books is written by Vikram Seth? (1) The Golden Gate (2) A Peep into the Past (3) Between the Lines (4) City of Joy (5) Revolution 2020 Which of the following awards is given for contribution in the field of literature? (1) Kirti Chakra (2) Jamnalal Bajaj Award (3) S. S. Bhatnagar Award (4) Saraswati Samman (5) Kalidas Samman Which of the following combinations of the States and their Chief Ministers (at present) is NOT correct? (1) Uttar Pradesh -Akhilesh Yadav

16.

27.

17.

28.

18.

19.

30.

20.

21.

31.

22.

23.

24.

33.

25.

34.

37 | COMPETITIVE ZEAL | DECEMBER 2012

COMPETITIVE ZEAL
(2) Rajasthan -Ashok Gehlot (3) Himachal Pradesh - Shanta Kumar (4) West Bengal - Mamta Banerjee (5) All are correct 35. Which of the following terms is NOT used in the game of cricket? (1) Bouncer (2) Hit wicket (3) Cover Point (4) Leg Spinner (5) Jockey Which of the following is the Unit of work? (1) Ohm (2) Ampere (3) Coulomb (4) Newton (5) Joule When the expenditure of the government exceeds the revenue, the difference of balance between the two is called (1) Balance of payment (2) Deflation (3) Devaluation (4) Budget deficit (5) Depreciation What does the letter C denote in the term ECB as used in the banking and financial operations? (1) Cartel (2) Credit (3) Control (4) Caution (5) Commercial Who among the following is the Secretary of State (Foreign Minister) of USA at present? (1) M. Barak Obama (2) Mr. Jean Claude (3) Mrs. Hillary Clinton (4) Mr. David Cameron (5) None of these Which of the following cups/trophies is used in the game of Lawn Tennis? (1) Duleep Trophy (2) D C M Trophy (3) Ryder Cup (4) Merdeka Cup (5) Wimbledon Cup oldest and the most trustworthy servant. Hold this and be careful. This is the most precious necklace in the whole world, she said. The servant was an old woman: She sat under a tree, holding the ornament tightly and waited for the princess. It was a hot afternoon and the servant was very tired so she dozed off under the tree: Suddenly the servant felt that someone was tugging at the necklace and she woke up with a start. She looked around but no one was there and the necklace was gone. Scared out of her wits, the old servant started screaming. On .hearing her scream the royal guards rushed to her. She pointed towards the direction in which the thief may have gone and the guards ran off that way. There was a poor and dim-witted farmer walking on the same road. As soon as he saw the royal guards running towards him, he thought that they wanted to catch him and started running. But he was not a strong man and could not outrun the hefty guards. The royal guards caught him in no time. Where is it? They demanded, shaking him. Where is what? the poor farmer stammered back. The necklace you stole! thundered one of the royal guards. The farmer had no idea what they were talking about. He only understood that some precious necklace was lost and he was supposed to have it. He quickly replied, I dont know where it is now. I gave it to my landlord. The guards ran towards the landlords house. Give us the necklace right now! the guards demanded of the fat landlord Necklace? I dont have any! the stunned landlord replied. Then tell us quickly who does, demanded the soldiers. In order to get the royal guards off his back, the landlord pointed towards a priest who was walking by his house and said, He does. The guards now caught hold of the priest who was walking towards the temple and thinking about the lunch he had just eaten. The priest was stunned when one of the burly guards jumped on him and asked about the necklace. He remembered that the minister, Bhupati, was at the temple. He took the guards to the temple and pointed towards the praying minister, I gave it to him, he said. Bhupati too was caught and all four men were thrown in jail. The chief minister of the kingdom knew Bhupati well and was sure that Bhupati would never steal. He decided to find out who the culprit was. He hid near the jail where all four men were put and heard them talking. First, Bhupati asked the priest, Pandiiji, why did you say that you gave the necklace to me? I was quietly praying at the temple and now you have landed me in jail for no fault of mine. The priest looked apologetic. He pointed towards the landlord and said, I didnt know what to say: He set the guards on me. I was simply passing by his house and was on my way to the temple. The land lord looked at the priest sheepishly. Then he turned towards the poor farmer and yelled, You lazy good-for-nothing man! Why did you say that l had the necklace? The farmer, trembling under the angry gaze of all three men, said, I was just walking home. The guards caught me and I did not know what to say. On hearing this conversation; the chief minister

36.

37.

38.

39.

40.

TEST II GENERAL ENGLISH


41-55. Read the following passage carefully and answers the questions given below it. Certain words/phrases have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions. Princess Chandravati was very beautiful. She loved all kinds of ornaments and always wanted to wear the most precious and lovely jewels. Once a jeweller came to the palace and gifted the king a wonderful diamond necklace. It glittered with big and small diamonds. It was certainly a very expensive necklace. The princess fell in love with it as soon as she saw it. So the king presented it to her. From that day on, the princess always wore that necklace, wherever she went. One day before going for a swim in the pond, she took the necklace off and put in the hands of her

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COMPETITIVE ZEAL
understood that all the four men were innocent. He immediately ordered the royal guards to search thoroughly, near the pond. The guards searched high and low till they saw something glinting on the tree. On the tree sat a monkey with the princess favorite necklace around his neck. It took a lot of coaxing and bananas before the monkey threw the necklace on the ground. The king apologized to all the four men and gave them gold coins as compensation. He requested his daughter to wear the necklace only indoors. 41. Why did the king present the diamond necklace to his daughter? (1) She liked ornaments and had grown very fond of the diamond necklace (2) The king did not like ornaments and had no use of the necklace (3) She had demanded the necklace from him (4) The king liked to give expensive gifts to his daughter (5) The king wanted to test the princess ability of handling expensive things What did the old servant realize when she woke up? (1) That there were monkeys in the palace garden (2) That the princess necklace was missing from her hands (3) That a poor farmer had stolen the necklace (4) That the princess had snatched the necklace from her hands (5) That the princess had already left Why did the poor farmer run? (1) He was in a hurry to reach home and hide the stolen necklace (2) He was worried that the guards would reach his house before him (3) He had stolen the necklace: and did not want to be interrogated by the guards (4) He wanted to reach the landlords house before the guards reached there (5) He saw the royal guards running after him and thought they would arrest him Why did the landlord lie about the necklace? (1) He wanted to prove that the old servant was lying (2) It was a conspiracy between him and the poor farmer (3) He did not like the priest and wanted to get him punished (4) Bhupati Had ordered him to lie about the necklace (5) He didnt know anything about it and wanted to get rid of the guards Why did the chief minister decide to intervene in the case of the stolen, necklace? (1) He suspected that the old servant was the actual culprit (2) He knew that the poor farmer was dim-witted and that he had created all the confusion (3) He knew that Bhupati was an honest minister and would never do such a thing (4) He suspected that the landlord was the actual culprit and wanted to get him punished (5) He already knew that all four men were innocent 46. What did the chief minster do in order to find out who the actual culprit was? (1) He sent a spy and asked him to find out the actual culprit (2) He directly asked Bhupati if he had stolen the princess necklace (3) He asked the soldiers to keep a thorough watch on the old servant (4) He hid near the jail and overheard the conversation among the four men (5) He interrogated all the four men Who among the following was the actual culprit? (1) The monkey (2) Bhupati, the minister (3) The poor dimwitted farmer (4) The old and trusted servant (5) One of the royal guards Which of the following is true according to the passage? (1) The necklace-was made of big and small rubies (2) The royal guards did not hear the old servant scream (3) The royal guards were polite to all four men (4) The priest was on his way to the temple (5) None is true Arrange the following incidents in a chronological order as they occurred in the passage. (A) The landlord pointed towards the priest (B) The old servant dozed off (C) The monkeys were offered bananas (D) A jeweller visited the king (1) DBCA (2) DBAC (3) BDAC (4) DABC (5) BDCA What did the king do after the necklace was found? (1) He rewarded the chief minister and thanked him (2) He rewarded the guards (3) He took the necklace away from the princess (4) He apologized to all the four men (5) Not mentioned in the passage

47.

42.

48.

43.

49.

50.

44.

51-53. Choose the word/group of words which is most similar in the meaning to the word/group of words printed in bold as used in the passage. 51. Dozed off (1) Waited (4) Nodded Tugging (1) Tearing (4) Pushing (2) Dreamt (5) Sat (2) Stealing (5) Pulling (3) Slept

45.

52.

(3) Cheating

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COMPETITIVE ZEAL
53. Precious (1) Valuable (2) Best (3) Biggest (4) Ordinary (5) Worthless 62. Ajay was adamant / on finishing the / work before leaving (1) (2) (3) / by the day. No Error (4) (5) His teacher was pleasantly / surprised when she learned / (1) (2) that despite the all problems / he participated. No Error (3) (4) (5) His brother is / not only a good / guitarist but also / a (1) (2) (3) good singer. No Error (4) (5) The priest then request / all the wealthy men to / donate at (1) (2) least some money / for building a new temple. No Error (3) (4) (5)

54-55. Choose the word/group of words which is most opposite in meaning to the word/group of words printed in bold as used in the passage. 54. Caught hold (1) Nabbed (2) Picked up (3) Let go (4) Plunged (5) Slipped off Trembling (1) Scared (4) Quite (2) Tensed (5) Shaking (3) Calm

63.

64.

55.

56-60. Each sentence below has two blanks, each blank indicating that something has been omitted. Choose the set of words for each blank which best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole. 56. They ______ invited all the members of the association _______ the inauguration. (1) had, by (2) has, at (3) can, in (4) have, for (5) want, by They ______ their best, but were _______ to retrieve any data from that computer. (1) gave, sorry (2) showed, able (3) thought, happy (4) sent, unsuccessful (5) tried, unable The ______ of rural schools is poor as ______ to their urban counterparts. (1) functions, like (2) progress, unlike (3) condition, compared (4) state, matched (5) situation, contrast She would prefer ______ travel early rather _________ during peak hours. (1) for, to (2) to, than (3) in, so (4) not, if (5) at, about Her purse was _______ at the bus stop so she ________ a complaint at the nearest police station. (1) taken, did (2) stolen, filed (3) given, gave (4) left, register (5) sneaked, put

65.

57.

66-70. Which of the phrases (1), (2), (3) and (4) given below should replace the phrase given in bold in the following sentence to make the sentence grammatically meaningful and correct? If the sentence is correct as it is and No correction is required mark (5) as the answer. 66. The painter never let anyone sneaks a peek at his work before it was finished. (1) sneak a peeks (2) sneak a peek (3) sneak and peek (4) Sneaking and peeking (5) No correction required Came what may; she never missed a single sermon. (1) Come whatever may (2) Come what may (3) Come what maybe (4) Came what maybe (5) No correction required Peter won the race fair and square. (1) Fare and square (2) fairly and square (3) fair square (4) fair not square (5) No correction required He decided to play in time in the hope that the prices would decrease. (1) play the time (2) played for time (3) play for time (4) play the timing (5) No correction required Instead of going through the preliminaries we must get to the heart in the matter. (1) Heart for the matter (2) heart that mattered (3) heart of matters (4) heart of the matter (5) No correction required

58.

67.

59.

68.

60.

69.

61-65. Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error or idiomatic error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is No error the answer is (5). (Ignore errors of punctuation if any.) 61. He have started / making a note of / his appointments as (1) (2) (3) / he tends to forget them. No Error (4) (5)

70.

71-80. In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage, against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the

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COMPETITIVE ZEAL
appropriate word in each case. Once upon a time a foolish brahmin (71) to Birbal with a strange request. He wanted to be (72) as pandit. Now the term pandit (73) to a man of knowledge but unfortunately this poor brahmin was uneducated. Birbal tried to explain the difference to him saying that it was not correct to call an uneducated man a pandit and because of this very reason it would be improper to call him so. But the silly brahmin had his heart (74) on this title. Birbal came up with a brilliant solution and said that as the brahmin was an uneducated man he should (75) abuses and stones at anyone who dared to address him by the very same title. Then Birbal called all his servants and ordered them to call this brahmin a pandit. The brahmin was very pleased. But the moment the servants started calling out to him as `pandit he pretended to be very angry and (76) abusing them loudly. Then he picked up a few stones and hurled them in their direction. All this shouting and screaming (77) a crowd. When people realised that this brahmin was erupting every time someone called him pandit they all started to (78) him. Over the next couple of days, he would constantly hear the word pandit wherever he went. Very soon the whole town started referring to him as pandit much to his (79). The foolish brahmin never realised why people were calling him a pandit. He was extremely pleased with the result. He (80) Birbal from the bottom of his heart. 71. 72. 73. 74. 75. 76. 77. 78. 79. 80. (1) came (4) visited (1) call (4) knows (1) is (4) refers (1) give (4) steal (1) hurl (4) keep (1) telling (4) push (1) drew (4) saw (2) got (5) asked (2) referring (5) written (2) given (5) said (2) set (5) broken (2) give (5) say (2) finish (5) started (2) selected (5) scared (3) reached (3) addressed (3) told 88. (3) put (3) stick (3) hit (3) get (3) watch 91. 89. 87.

TEST III QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE


81-95. What value should come in the place of question mark (?) in the following questions? 81. (11)2 + (9)2 - (14)2 + ? = 32 (1) 6 (2) 7 (3) 1 (4) 3 (5) None of these 0.5 3.9 1.3 = ? + 0.5 (1) .01 (2) 0.1 (3) 0.2 (4) 1.0 (5) None of these

82.

83.

15 90 729 = (?) 2 31 186 9 (1) 1 (2) 3 (3) 9 (4) 6 (5) None of these
81 % of 2300 - 34% of 596 = ? (1) 1060.63 (2) 1060.36 (3) 1660.36 (4) 1006.63 (5) None of these 3.1 2.6 1.5=? (1) 12.09 (2) 12.05 (3) 12.03 (4) 12.07 (5) None of these

84.

85.

86.

144 828 = ? + 325 9 16 (1) 530 (2) 535 (3) 505 (4) 513 (5) None of these
9352 - 2569 + 7153 = 13900 + ? (1) 9 (2) 81 (3) 25 (4) 30 (5) None of these 23% of 1630 = ? (1) 394.7 (2) 347.9 (3) 379.4 (4) 374.9 (5) None of these 73+238+14-71 =? (1) 16 (2) 15 (3) 13 (4) 19 (5) None of these (1) 53 (4) 43

90.

576 + 841 = ? (2) 41 (3) 51 (5) None of these

(1) remember (2) help (4) tease (5) hurl (1) plight (4) sadness (1) yelled (4) smiled

71 + 897 13 3 = ? (1) 276 (2) 273 (3) 278 (4) 271 (5) None of these 190 38 4 = ? (1) 1850 (2) 1508 (3) 1805 (4) 1085 (5) None of these

(2) delight (3) happiness (5) indifference (2) cursed (5) thanked (3) called

92.

93.

7 30 558 of of =? 5 63 3 (1) 122 (2) 142

(3) 144

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COMPETITIVE ZEAL
(4) 128 94. (5) None of these Q R S T 410 430 350 370 540 610 210 590 280 570 480 380 580 530 320 250 380 730 410 180 550 570 310 510 530 480 480 610 460 370 590 660

4.3 + 43.34 + 34.43 + 43.43 + 3.4 = ? (1) 189.2 (2) 129.8 (3) 128.9 (4) 182.9 (5) None of these

95.

3 497 of of ? = 639 7 249 (1) 474 (2) 774 (3) 477 (4) 747 (5) None of these

96-98. Study the following information and answer the questions that follow: A sum of Rs. 7,740/- is to be divided amongst A, B and C in the ratio 7:5:8 respectively: 96. What is the difference between Cs and Bs share? (1) Rs. 387/- (2) Rs. 774/(3) Rs. 1,021/(4) Rs. 591/- (5) Rs. 1,161/What is the sum of 8s and As share? (1) Rs. 4,931/- (2) Rs. 4,644/- (3) Rs. 5,580/(4) Rs. 5,805/- (5) Rs. 5031/How much is As share? (1) Rs. 2,709/- (2) Rs. 3,096/- (3) Rs. 1,935/(4) Rs. 2,851/- (5) Rs. 3,190/In how many different ways can the letters of the word FRANCE be arranged? (1) 2400 (2) 720 (3) 2005 (4) 5040 (5) None of these

103. What is the respective ratio between the total number of students studying in institute A and the total number of students studying in institute H? (1) 52: 59 (2) 52: 55 (3) 55: 59 (4) 59: 61 (5) None of these 104. The number of students studying course Q in institute B forms what percent of the total number of students in institute C? (1) 14 (2) 17 (3) 11 (4) 8 (5) 20 105. What is the total number of students who are studying course T across all institutes? (1) 3480 (2) 3280 (3) 3420 (4) 3840 (5) None of these 106. The number of students studying course P in institute A forms what percent of the total number of students in institute A? (1) 27 (2) 23 (3) 25 (4) 20 (5) 29 107. What is the average number of students studying in institute D? (1) 446 (2) 426 (3) 540 (4) 454 (5) None of these 108. What will be the average of the followings set of scores (Rounded off to the nearest integer)? 46, 54, 62, 68, 56, 29, 58 (1) 45 (2) 59 (3) 62 (4) 48 (5) 53 109. The area of a circle is 3850 square meters. What will be its circumference? (1) 233 meters (2) 226 meters (3) 230 meters (4) 220 meters (5) 249 meters 110. The product of three consecutive numbers is 4080. What is the least number? (1) 17 (2) 14 (3) 13 (4) 16 (5) None of these 111. If the perimeter of a rectangle is 180 meters and the difference between the length: and the breadth is 8 meters, what is the area of the rectangle? (1) 2116 square meters (2) 2047 square meters (3) 2090 square meters (4) 2178 square meters (5) None of these 112. A and B together can complete a particular task in 6 days. If A alone can complete the same task in 10 days, how many days will B take to complete the task if he works alone? (1) 15 (2) 16 (3) 14 (4) 12

97.

98.

99.

100. How much will a sum of Rs. 7,250 amount to in a span of 2 years, at 6 p.c.p.a. rate of compound interest (Rounded off to the nearest integer)? (1) Rs. 8,176/- (2) Rs. 8,146/- (3) Rs. 8,216/(4) Rs. 8,170/- (5) Rs. 8,190/101. At what rate of simple interest will Rs. 4,200% amount to Rs. 6,216/- in a span of 8 years? (1) 5 (2) 3 (3) 6 (4) 4 (5) None of these 102. Cost of 20 pens and 17 pencils is Rs. 418/-. What is the cost of 60 pens and 51 pencils? (1) Rs. 1,251/- (2) Rs. 1,257/- (3) Rs. 1,227/(4) Rs. 1,221 /-(5) None of these 103-107. Study the following table carefully and answer the questions that follow. The table represents the total number of students studying courses P, Q, R, S and T, across eight institutes i.e. A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H. Courses A P 520 B C 410 550 Institutes D 450 E 570 F G H 210 750 450

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COMPETITIVE ZEAL
(5) None of these 113-117. What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following number series? 113. 7 33 137 553 ? 8873 (1) 1217 (2) 2217 (3) 2117 (4) 2127 (5) None of these 114. 8 56 336 2352 14112 ? (1) 98874 (2) 98784 (3) 87894 (4) 84672 (5) None of these 115. 5963 ? (1) 5932 (4) 5954 116. 2916 972 (1) 324 (4) 391 5938 5913 5877 5828 (2) 5940 (3) 5951 (5) None of these ? 108 36 12 (2) 234 (3) 248 (5) None of these 122. Statements : Conclusions : 123. Statements : Conclusions : : 124. Statements : Conclusions : : 125. Statements : Conclusions : : II. R < P F>O=L<W=S I. O < S II. L < F S>P=O>T<R=B I. B > O II. S > T K=F>R>O=M>T I. O > K II. F > T G>N>O<P<Q=R I. G > P II. R > N

117. 9 15 27 45 69 ? (1) 109 (2) 99 (3) 91 (4) 81 (5) None of these 118. The cost price of an article is Rs. 390%. If it is to be sold at a profit of 3.12 percent, how much would be its approximate selling price? (1) Rs. 410/- (2) Rs. 402/(3) Rs. 417/(4) Rs. 420/- (5) Rs. 442/119. 17 articles were bought for Rs. 3,910% and sold for Rs. 4,590/-. How much was the approximate profit percentage per article? (1) 17% (2)12% (3) 9% (4) 21% (5) 25% 120. 12 years ago, the ages of A and B were in the ratio 15:13 respectively. 19 years from now the respective ratio of their ages will be 23:22. What is the sum of their ages at present? (1) 57 years (2) 54 years (3) 52 years (4) 59 years (5) None of these

126-130. Study the following information to answer the given questions: A, B; C, D, E, F and G are seated in a straight line facing North but not necessarily in the same order. Only three people sit between F and A. Neither F nor A sits at an extreme end of the line. Only two people sit between A and G. E is not an immediate neighbor of either A or F. E sits third to left of B. B is not an immediate neighbor of A. E is not an immediate neighbor of C. 126. What is the position of E with respect to C? (1) Third to the left (2) Fourth to the right (3) Second to the right (4) Second to the left (5) Third to the right 127. Which of the following pairs represents persons seated of the two extreme ends of the line? (1) D, E (2) B, G (3) B, C (4) E, G (5) C, E 128. How many persons are seated between B and A? (1) One (2) Two (3) Three (4) Four (5) More than four 129. Which of the following is true with respect to the given arrangement? (1) Two people sit to the left of D (2) E sits to the immediate left of F (3) A and D sit between F and B (4) Only one person sits to the right of B (5) None is true 130. Who amongst the following sit exactly between A and G? (1) B, C (2) D, E (3) E, F (4) C, D (5) B, D 131-133. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on the English alphabetical series and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group? 131. (1) TOQR (2) YTUV (3) KFHI (4) WRTU

TEST IV REASONING ABILITY


121-125. In these questions, relationship between different elements is shown in the statements. The statements are followed by two, conclusions. Give answer (1) if only Conclusion I is true. Give answer (2) if only Conclusion II is true. Give answer (3) if either Conclusion I or II is true. Give answer (4) if neither Conclusion I nor II is true: Give answer (5) if both, Conclusions I and II are true: 121. Statements : Conclusions : I = P< Q <A> R I. A > I

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COMPETITIVE ZEAL
(5) OLNO 132. (1) LOK (5) ILH 133. (1) XZTV (5) MOIK (2) WZV (2) OSMO (3) RUQ (3) VXSU (4) DFC (4) FHBD (1) M (2) O (3) L (4) S (5) O

143. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group? (1) M S (2) O M (3) OQ (4) RP (5) SO 144. M is related to R in a certain way based on the given seating arrangement. In the same way P is related to M. To whom amongst the following is, L related to, following the same pattern? (1) N (2) Q (3) O (4) P (5) S 145. What is the position of L with respect to P in the above arrangement? (1) Fifth to the left (2) Immediate left (3) Fifth to the right (4) Immediate right (5) Second to the right 146-150. In each question of below are two/three statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the two/three given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts. Give answer (1) if only conclusion I follows Give answer (2) if only conclusion II follows Give answer (3) if either conclusion I or conclusion II follows Give answer (4) if neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows Give answer (5) if both conclusion I and conclusion II follow 146. Statements : All lines are circles. Some circles are squares. Conclusions: I No square is a line. II Some squares are definitely not circles. 147. Statements : All kites are birds. No kite is a glider. Conclusions: I Some gliders are definitely not birds. II At least some birds are kites. 148. Statements : No fern is a plant. All roots are ferns. Conclusions: I No plant is a root. II All ferns are roots. 149. Statements : Some planets are stars. Some orbits are stars. Conclusions: I No orbit is a planet. II At least some stars are planets. 150. Statements : All solids are liquids. All liquids are gases. No gas is plasma. Conclusions: I All solids are gases. II No liquid is plasma.

134-135. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group? 134. (1) Triumph (5) Victory 135. (1) Fast (5) Speedy (2) Win (2) Quick (3) Success (3) Sudden (4) Growth (4) Rapid

136-140. Study the following information to answer the given questions: In a certain code lend me money is written as ve ka ro, money for him is written as se ve di, for various matters is written as ba di la and matters to me is written as ro ba yo 136. What is the code for various? (1) ba (2) di (3) la (5) Cannot be determined 137. What does the code ro stand for? (1) me (2) matters (3) money (5) Either to or lend (4) yo

(4) lend

138. Which of the following may represent money matters most? (1) ve ba yo (2) ve se ba (3) ba zi di (4) ba ka zi (5) ba fe ve 139. What is the code for lend? (1) ve (2) ka (3) ro (5) Either di or ro 140. What is the code for to? (1) ba (2) ro (5) Cannot be determined (3) yo (4) di

(4) se

141-145. Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions. L, M, N, O, P, O, R and S are sitting around a circular table facing the centre but not necessarily in the same order. P sits third to left of M. P is an immediate neighbor of both O and S. Only one person sits between O and Q. R is an immediate neighbor of O. Only one person sits between R and N. 141. Who amongst the following sits exactly between R and N? (1) L (2) M (3) O (4) P (5) O 42. Who sits third to the left of N?

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COMPETITIVE ZEAL
151-160. In each of the questions given below which one of the five answer figures on the right should come after the problem figures on the left, if the sequence were continued? Problem Figures 151. Answer Figures (3) Supply equals demand (5) There is monopoly (4) Staff is in excess

163. The traditional Marketing style involves __________ (1) Door-to-door campaigns (2) Sending e-mails (3) Tele-marketing (4) SMS campaigns (5) Virtual marketing 164. Telemarketing campaigns are resorted to __________ (1) Avoid face-to-face interactions (2) Avoid buyer resistance (3) Reach a larger clientele (4) Increase cold calls (5) Reduce profits 165. The most essential quality of a good sales person is ____ (1) Questioning skills (2) Goad appearance (3) Production skills (4) Good Communication skills (5) Curiosity 166. Direct Marketing means ________________ (1) Seminars and Conferences (2) Face-to-face selling (3) Banners (4) Cold calls (5) Sales presentations 167. Selling process includes ____________ (1) Publicity (2) Lead generation (3) Data collection (4) Product Designing (5) Product Re-designing 168. Web marketing involves _____________ (1) Selling websites (2) Door-to-door canvassing (3) E-mail chatting (4) Browsing the Yellow Pages (5) Web advertisements 169. Marketing strategies mean ______________ (1) Ideas for new employment (2) Techniques for mergers (3) Methods to improve marketing activities (4) More hits per ATM (5) Networking 170. The first step in Marketing is ____________ (1) Production work (2) Planning work (3) Receiving feedback (4) Telephone calls (5) Sending e-mails 171. Good competition helps in ____________ (1) Better technology (2) More market share (3) Rise in profits (4) Bigger branch network (5) Improved customer service 172. Push marketing style requires ___________ (1) Collective effort (2) Good pushing strength

152. 153.

154. 155.

156.

157.

158.

159.

160.

TEST V MARKETING APTITUDE / COMPUTER KNOWLEDGE


161. Marketing has taken a prominent position during the last decade due to _________ (1) Increased competition (2) Better literacy rate (3) Foreign compulsions (4) Government instructions (5) Reserve Bank of India Policy guidelines 162. Marketing is definitely required when __________ (1) Demand exceeds supply (2) Supply exceeds demand

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COMPETITIVE ZEAL
(3) Lengthy talks (4) Ability to identify the leads (5) Aggressive marketing 173. Communication skills in the case of a DSA means _______ (1) Giving Lengthy speeches (2) Sending Good SMS messages (3) Being Talkative (4) Ability to convince the customer with the right choice of words (5) Being Multi linguist 174. Effective selling skills depend on ______________ (1) Good dress sense (2) Territory Allocation (3) Sales Call Planning (4) Good eye-contact (5) Past performance 175. Buyer Resistance means _________ (1) Buyers dislike for the product (2) Fight between buyer and the seller (3) Buyers hesitation in buying the product (4) Exchange of products (5) Buyer retracting the sale 176. Buyer Resistance can be overcome by (1) Good friendship between buyer and seller (2) Good after sales service (3) Good arguments (4) Good technology (5) Persuasive communication 177. Benchmark means ____________ (1) Sales performance measurement (2) Marks given to sales persons (3) Appraisal (4) Standard values for comparison (5) Automation 178. Innovation in marketing means __________ (1) New technology (2) Globalization (3) Intense competition (4) New business models (5) Internal marketing 179. Marketing Opportunities mean __________ (1) Scope for marketing (2) Proper and effective training (3) Market planning (4) Availability of sales outlets (5) Market data 180. The USP of a Current Account is ____________ (1) No restrictions on transactions (2) Low TDS (3) High minimum balance (4) High interest payable (5) No need for KYC norms fulfillment 181. The advantage of a LAPIS ____________ (1) Sharing peripherals (2) Backing up your data (3) Saving all your data (4) Accessing the Web (5) Automatic printing of data 182. ....of the 5 words listed below which one is the odd one out? (1) Applications (2) Peripherals (3) Programs (4) Software (5) Operating System 183. What type of device is a computer printer? (1) Input (2) Input / Output (3) Software (4) Storage (5) Output 184. What is the biggest number you can get with 8 bits? (1) 256 (2) 128 (3) 1000 (4) 255 (5) 124 185. What type of device is a digital camera? (1) Input (2) Output (3) Software (4) Storage (5) Input / Output 186. What is a mailing list? (1) (2) (4) (5) (3)

187. Hardware attached to a tower is known as; (1) CPU (2) Software (3) Peripheral (4) Storage (5) None of these 188. What is the format of text files? (1) JPEG (.jpg) (2) Bitmap (.bmp) (3) Word (.doc) (4) Text (.txt) (5) .xls 189. Which devices were used in first generation of computers? (1) Integrating circuit (2) processor (3) micro processor (4) vacuum tube (5) None of these 190. Which part of the hardware compensates the difference between the speed of CPU and peripheral? (1) Scanner (2) printer (3) video card (4) mother board (5) interface 191. Computers designed for specialized work and specific instructions? (1) Mainframe computer (2) special purpose (3) portable computer (4) super computer (5) None of these 192. Which of the following is a portable computer? (1) Minicomputer (2) mainframe computer (3) desktop (4) workstation (5) None of these 193. Who manages for computer resources? (1) ALU (2) BUS (3) control unit (4) I/O unit

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COMPETITIVE ZEAL
(5) secondary memory 194. Which of the following statement is right for RAM? (1) (2) (3) (4) it is a peripheral (5) it means to Read Access Memory 195. What is the full form of MB? (1) Micro Bytes (2) Mega Bytes (3) Mini Bytes (4) Milli Bytes (5) Midi Bytes 196. Identify the fastest memory: (1) Hard disk (2) DVD ROMs (3) cash memory (4) RAM (5) None of these 197. To start a computer system, which memory is optional? (1) RAM (2) ROM (3) cash (4) secondary memory (5) RAM or ROM 198. Translator program used in assembly language is known as; (1) Compiler (2) interpreter (3) translation (4) translator (5) assembler 199. Which part of the CPU co-ordinates all the activities of the computer system? (1) Cache (2) PROM (3) EPROM (4) SRAM (5) None of these 200. Which high speed memory co-ordinate with the speed gap between processor and main memory? (1) Cache (2) PROM (3) EPROM (4) SRAM (5) None of these

SBI Exam Evening Paper Answer Keys


SECTION I (GENERAL AWARENESS) 1 3 21 2 41 1 61 1 81 4 2 1 22 1 42 2 62 4 82 4 3 3 23 2 43 5 63 3 83 3 4 1 24 5 44 5 64 5 84 3 5 5 25 5 45 3 65 1 85 1 6 1 26 5 46 4 66 3 86 5 7 4 27 4 47 1 67 4 87 4 8 2 28 5 48 4 68 5 88 4 9 4 29 2 49 2 69 5 89 4 10 4 30 1 50 4 70 4 90 1 11 2 31 3 51 3 71 1 91 3 12 2 32 1 52 5 72 3 92 3 13 4 33 4 53 1 73 2 93 5 14 2 34 3 54 1 74 2 94 3 15 3 35 5 55 1 75 1 95 4 16 1 36 5 56 4 76 5 96 5 17 4 37 4 57 5 77 5 97 2 18 3 38 5 58 3 78 4 98 1 19 3 39 3 59 2 79 3 99 2 20 2 40 5 60 2 80 5 100 2

SECTION II (GENERAL ENGLISH)

SECTION III (QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE)

101 102 103 104 3 5 1 5 121 122 123 124 1 5 2 2 141 142 143 144 5 4 4 2 161 162 163 164 1 2 1 1 181 182 183 184 1 2 5 5

105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 2 3 2 5 4 5 5 1 2 2 4 125 126 127 128 129 130 131 132 133 134 135 4 5 3 4 1 2 2 4 3 4 3 145 146 147 148 149 150 151 152 153 154 155 5 4 5 1 2 5 4 5 3 5 2 165 166 167 168 169 170 171 172 173 174 175 4 4 1 5 3 2 5 1 4 4 3 185 186 187 188 189 190 191 192 193 194 195 1 1 3 3 4 4 4 5 3 3 2
47 | COMPETITIVE ZEAL | DECEMBER 2012

116 117 1 2 136 137 3 1 156 157 3 5 176 177 5 4 196 197 3 2

118 119 120 2 1 3 138 139 140 5 2 3 158 159 160 2 4 4 178 179 180 4 1 1 198 199 200 5 1 1

SECTION IV (REASONING ABILITY)

SECTION V (MARKETING APTITUDE/COMPUTER KNOWLEDGE)

COMPETITIVE ZEAL

SBI Exam Evening Paper Solutions


61. (1): have is replaced by has 62. (4): by is replaced by for 63. (3): despite all the problems 64. (5): No Error. 65. (1): Request is replaced by Requested 66. (3) 67. (4) 68. (5) 69. (5) 70. (4) 71 (1) 72. (3) 73. (2) 74. (2) 75. (1) 76. (5) 77. (5) 78. (4) 79. (3) 80. (5) 81. (4) 82. (4) 83. (3) 84. (3) 85. (1) 86. (5) 503. 87. (4) 88. (4) 89. (4) 90. (1) 91. (3) 92. (3) 93. (5); 124. 94. (3) 95. (4).

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COMPETITIVE ZEAL

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COMPETITIVE ZEAL

IDBI Exam Paper


(Based on Memory)

TEST - I ENGLISH LANGUAGE


1-10. In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are -printed below the passage and against each, five words/phrases are suggested, one of which fits the, blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word/phrase in each case. A mobile phone is no (1) a simple device to make calls. It has (2) the hub for all your activities, from e-mailing and browsing to paying bills and transferring money. Banks may have been the first to (3) their feet into this technological pool, but telecom companies have (4) to catch up. The RBIs step, to remove the 50,000 cap that it had (5)earlier on daily mobile transactions has also provided the much-needed (6) to mobile banking. Mobile banking (7) in you to conduct financial transactions on your phone just as you would at a bank branch or through Net banking. Banks are now evolving this facility as they launch innovative products. For (8) a Banks cash-to-mobile service (9) customers to transfer money to anybody, including those who do not have a bank account. A bank customer can download the banks application on his phone and then put in the phone number of the person to whom he wants to send the money, along with the transaction amount: The bank will send a message to the remitter and the beneficiary along with different PINs to each. The remitter will have to message his PIN to the beneficiary, who can then use both PINs and his mobile number to withdraw cash from the respective Bank ATM. The service is (10) but operator charges will apply. Also, the sender will need a Java-enabled handset. 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. (1) longer (4) doubt (1) become (4) made (1) dip (4) touch (1) try (4) made (2) much (5) sooner (3) anymore

(4) allows 8. 9. 10.

(5) makes (3) together (3) facilitated

(1) examples (2) instance (4) now (5) today (1) permit (2) suggests (4) attempts (5) enables

(1) expensive (2) there (3) costly (4) free (5) inaccessible

11-15. Each question below has two blanks, each blank indicating that something has been omitted. Choose the set of words for each blank which best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole. 11. For the last three months, the dengue _____ has put southern districts on high alert and has been Keeping local administrations and the health department on their ________. (1) outbreak -toes (2) fever - hinges (3) epidemic feet (4) mosquito - ground (5) disease -beds The new-age scooter is perfect __________ just as a commute option for women, but is functional enough for men _________. (1) vehicle - also (2) not - too (3) for well (4) neither-nor (5) either-additionally The police ________ a gang _________ in duping telebanking customers and arrested 10 persons. (1) told - mastering (2) busted - specializing (3) seized innovating (4) caught - dealing (5) arrested - setting The arrested persons were _________ in court and ________ in judicial custody. (1) demanded - persuaded (2) questioned - sentenced (3) taken left (4) produced = remanded (5) sent - kept All the school students___________ the vicinity will be taken to the nearby theaters _________the festival. (1) in -during (2) on -for (3) at - in (4) among -at (5) around on

12.

13.

14.

(2) been (3) changed (5) transformed (2) stand (5) pick (2) not (5) soon (3) wash (3) begun (2) festered (5) built (3) pushed (3) remits (3) imposed

15.

(1) sanctioned (4) cooked (1) breaking (2) fact (4) drop (5) boost (1) forces (2) places

16-25. Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error or idiomatic error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is No error, the answer is (5). (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any). 16. Although a doctor said that the test results / of five (1)

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COMPETITIVE ZEAL
persons confirmed the disease, hospital authorities /did (2) not give an official statement said / they were still awaiting (3) (4) results of the rest of the patients. No error (5) 17. Lightweight and / easy to handle, / automatic scooters (1) (2) (3) have been / a godsend for women commuters. No error (4) (5) The gang members has/confessed that they had been/ (1) (2) obtaining bank account details/of their victim from a (3) (4) source based in Nigeria. No error (5) Weather officials said that/there is likely to be/wide (1) (2) spreading rainfall all over the region/over the next few (3) (4) weeks. No error (5) Police said that/the seized counterfeit currency notes (1) (2) looked/so genuine that /anyone could have been misled. (3) (4) No error (5) The committee has/asked for more information and/will (1) (2) again consider/the entries on the next meeting. No error (3) (4) (5) Looking for/a house on rent/in the city has/never been an (1) (2) (3) (4) easy job. No error. (5) One could not/imagine striking / this kind of a bargain / (1) (2) (3) last year or the year early. No error (4) (5) The monsoon showers and / the fell in temperature /have (1) (2) brought a smile/on many faces. No error (3) (4) (5) Schoolchildren in the city / were in for a surprise as they (1) (2) were / treated to a feast of some childrens films / being (3) screen in local theatres. No error (5) 26-40. Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words/group of words have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions: Unemployment is the problem of every modern nation. Even industrialized nations are not able to ensure a job for everyone. Following the conventional strategy of creating employment, governments of many developing countries try to attract employers (business houses/ industrialists)by offering tax rebates and many other facilities so that they locate their upcoming plants on their soil, and thereby create industrial employment. But there is a limit to what industry can bring. Also, industrial plants often create toxic waste which results in air and water pollution and environmental problems which can outweigh whatever employment benefit industrial employment brings. In addition; they dont bring as substantial relief to the dwindling economy of the host country as they seem to promise, as the profits of such foreign investments are carried back to the parent company and foreign shareholders abroad. Self-employment has none of these drawbacks. The problem is that self-employment is not as obviously glamorous as a shiny new factory. But profits from selfemployment remain in the country where they are produced. It is too small to create environmental hazards. It also puts the poor Person in charge of his or her own working hours and conditions: The hours are flexible and can adapt to fit any family situation. It allows people to choose between running a business full-time or part-time when they face a crisis, or to put their business on hold and work full-time for a salary. Self employment is tailormade for anyone who is street-smart and has many acquired and inherited traditional skills, rather than learning acquired from books and technical schools. This means the illiterate and the poor can exploit their strengths, rather than be held back by their weaknesses. It allows a person to turn their hobbies into gainful employment. It allows individuals who cannot work well in a rigid hierarchy to run their own show. Financing the poor to start their own little ventures elevates their sense of pride and self-respect. It offers a way out of welfare dependency, not just to become wage slaves, but to open a store or start a manufacturing business. It can help those who have found a job and are still nonetheless poor. It gives the victims of prejudice who would not be hired because of their colour or national origin a chance to earn a living. The average cost of creating self-employment is ten, twenty or hundred times

18.

19.

20.

21.

22.

23.

24.

25.

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lesser than creating industry based employment. It helps isolated poor people gain self-confidence, step-by-step. Obviously self-employment has limits, but in many cases it is the only solution to help those whom economies refuse to hire and taxpayers do not want to carry on their shoulders. The policy needed for the eradication of poverty must be much wider and deeper than the policy for the provision of mere employment. The real eradication of poverty begins when people are able to control their own fate. Poor people are like bonsai trees. When you plant the best seed of the tallest tree in a flower-pot; you get a replica of the tallest tree, only inches tall. There is nothing wrong with the seed you planted; only the soilbase that is too inadequate. Poor people are bonsai people. There is nothing wrong in their seeds. Simply, society never gave them the base to grow on. All it takes to get the poor people out of poverty is for us to create an enabling environment for them. Once the poor can unleash their energy and creativity, poverty will disappear very quickly. 26-28. Choose the word/group of words which is MOST OPPOSITE in MEANING to the word/group of words printed in bold as used in the passage. 26. RIGID (1) Unstructured (4) Gentle STEP-BY-STEP (1) All at once (3) In slow motion (5) Once and for all OFFERING (1) Stealing (3) Refusing (5) Questioning (2) Flexible (5) Calm (3) Soft not strengthen the economies of host nations? (1) The parent company pays all the profit as tax to its nation. (2) The profit of such enterprises does not remain in the host nation; rather it goes back to the share holders and owners of the parent company. (3) The employees of the parent company demand extra pay from profits that the companies earn from factories in another nation. (4) The profit earned by such enterprises is too less to provide for anything beyond the salaries of employees. (5) None of these 33. What is the tone of the passage? (1) Offensive (2) Satirical (3) Analytical (4) Humorous (5) Speculative Which of the following is an advantage that selfemployment has over industry based employment? (A) The work timings are highly flexible: (B) Starting ones own venture is an easy task and needs no investment as financers are readily available. (C) Self-employment makes one a master of other people and thus satisfies their need to control others. (1) Only (C) (2) Only (A) (3) Only (B) (4) Only (A) and (B) (5) All (A), (B) and (C) Which of the following may be inferred about selfemployment? (A)Self-employment slowly but steadily strengthens the economy of the country (B) Self-employment checks unemployment. (C) As a strategy of providing employment, selfemployment is still unexplored. (1) Only (B) (2) Only (B) and (C) (3) Only (A) (4) Only (A) and (B) (5) Only (A) and (C) What does the author indicate by the example of a bonsai tree? (A)When provided the right kind of financial help, poor people can flourish. (B) The poor people are as capable as the well-to-do class. (C) Conventional (Industrial) employment can help the poor people create their own base. (1) Only (A) (2) only (B) (3) Only (A) and (B) (4) Only (A),and (C) (5) Only (B) and (C) The author claims that self employment is tailor-made for people with certain qualities. Which of the following are the qualities of such people?

34.

27.

(2) In quick succession (4) In a nutshell

35.

28.

(2) Permitting (4) Protesting

29-31. Choose the word/group of words which is MOST SIMILAR in MEANING to the word printed in bald as used in the passage. 29. REMAIN (1) Left-over (3) Stagnate HIRED (1) Allowed (3) Authorized (5) Delegated LIMIT (1) Maximum (4) Decrease (2) Stay (4) Continue (2) Rented (4) Employed

36.

(5) Linger

30.

31.

(2) Finish (5) Barrier

(3) Cap 37.

32.

Which of the following is a reason foreign investment do

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COMPETITIVE ZEAL
(A) They have an unconventional approach to all things. (B) They are street-smart. (C) They possess many acquired and traditional skills. (1) Only (A) (2) Only (C) (3) Only (B) and (C) (4) Only (A) and (C) (5) Only (B) 38. Which of the following outweighs the employment benefits that foreign industrialists bring? (1) Huge industries set up by them cause environmental pollution. (2) They employ more number of people belonging to their native nations, than the host nations unemployed. (3) They evade many taxes that could be a source of revenue for the host nation. (4) They manufacture products that have no market in the host nation. (5) They practice discrimination on grounds of gender when providing employment to host nations residents. Which of the following may be an appropriate title for the passage? (1) Addressing conventional employment in developed nations (2) Varied strategies and approaches to eradicating poverty (3) Limitations of industrial employment (4) How is poverty linked to conventional (industrial) employment? (5) Role of self employment in battling unemployment and eradication of poverty Which of the following is TRUE as per the passage? (1) Self employment is beneficial only for developing economies. (2) Self- employment is not as glamorous as conventional (industrial) employment. (3) Finance for poor is readily available in the developed nations of the world: (4) Small- scale industries produce as much toxic waste as big industries. (5) None is true 42. The business group needs to reform not only its business and marketing strategies, but also its organizational structure. (1) needed to reforming (2) needs to reforming (3) needs for reform (4) needed for reform (5) No Correction required I challenged him to produce the authority letter which I knew had not been issued to him. (1) was not been issued to (2) had not being issued to (3) had not been issued for (4) have not been issued to (5) No Correction required

43.

44-45. In each of the sentences given below a phrase has been underlined. Which of the words / group of words (1), (2), (3) and (4) given below each sentence represents the meaning of the underlined phrase , as used in the sentence. If none of the words / group of words represents the meaning, give the answer (5), None of these. 44. The old woman lied about her husband behind his back. (1) in his absence (2) in his presence (3) in anyones absence (4) in everyones presence (5) None of these He was called upon to iron out differences and bring about reconciliation between conflicting points of view. (1) settle (2) create (3) manipulate (4) vote out (5) None of these

39.

45.

40.

41-43. Which of the phrases (1), (2), (3) and (4) given below each sentence should replace the phrase printed in bold in the sentence to make it grammatically correct ? If the sentence is correct as it is given and No correction is required, mark (5) as the answer. 41. Cultivating good hobbies are an excellent way of reducing the stress of daily living. (1) is an excellence way of (2) is an excellent way of (3) be an excellent way of (4) are excellent way for (5) No Correction required

46-50. Rearrange the following six sentences (A), (B), (C), (D), (E) and (F) in a proper sequence so as to form a meaningful paragraph, and then answer the questions given below : (A)Owing to these difficulties, the prospects of the banking sector became very uncertain and caused recession. (B) A progressively growing balance sheet, higher pace of credit expansion, and focus on financial inclusion have contributed to making Indian banking vibrant and strong. (C) However, amidst all this chaos Indias banking sector has been amongst the few to maintain resilience. (D) Indian banks have already begun to revise their growth approach to take advantage of these new opportunities. (E) In the recent times the world economy has witnessed many serious difficulties, the prominent of these being collapse of banking & financial institutions. (F) The way forward for the Indian banks is to innovate to take advantage of the new business opportunities and at the same time ensure continuous assessment of risks. 46. Which of the following should be the FOURTH sentence after the rearrangement? (1) A (2) C (3) D (4) F (5) B

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47. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after the rearrangement? (1) E (2) F (3) D (4) C (5) A Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after the rearrangement? (1) C (2) A (3) F (4) D (5) B Which of the following should be the LAST (SIXTH) sentence after the rearrangement? (1) B (2) D (3) C (4) E (5) F Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after the rearrangement? (1) D (2) F (3) C (4) E (5) A 59. expected to calculate the exact value)

48.

5 1/ 2 (1) ( of 1250) 9
(3) (

5 of 3221)1 / 2 19 17 of 3444)1/ 2 13

7 of 4112)1/ 2 13 15 1/ 2 (4) ( of 412) 11


(2) (

49.

(5) (

50.

TEST - II QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE


51-55. What should come in place of question mark (?) in the following questions? 51. 85% of (1) 1586 (4) 1582 52.
1/3

The cost of 8 dozen of eggs is Rs. 256/-. Which calculation is needed to find the cost of 9 eggs? (1) (9 256) (8 12) (2) (12 256) (89) (3) (8256) (912) (4) (9 256) (8 12) (5) (9 256) (8 12) 24% of 4568 8 % of 246 is approximately equal to (1) 32 (2) 43 (3) 89 (4) 78 (5) 55

60.

61-65. What will come in place of question mark (?) in the following number series? 61. 123 277 (1) 1179 (4) 1169 459 669 907 ? (2) 1173 (3) 1167 (5) None of these

of 6755 = ? + 1687 (2) 1592 (3) 1594 (5) None of these


1/2 1/2

62.
4 7

(5568 87) + (72 2) = (?) (1) 256 (4) 16

(2) 4 (3) (5) None of these

456.5 407 368.5 341 324.5 ? (1) 321 (2) 319 (3) 317 (4) 323 (5) None of these 23 42.2 (1) 618.2 (4) 616.6 36 154 (1) 304 (4) 307 24 536 (1) 768 (4) 742 80.6 157.4 311 ? (2) 623.6 (3) 624.2 (5) None of these 232 278 300 ? (2) 313 (3) 308 (5) None of these 487 703 678 ? (2) 748 (8)764 (5) None of these

63.

53.

132 + 28 4 (3) 2 +107 = (?) 2


(1) 2 (4) 4 (2) 16 (5) (256)2 (3) 256 64.

54.

(0.49)4 (0.343)4 (0.2401)4 = (70 100)? + 3 (1) 3 (2) 1 (3) 4 (4) 7 (5) None of these 45% of (1) 3 (4) 9

65.

55.

2025 0.01 = (?)2 25


(2) (15)2 (5) 12 (3) 81

56.

Which of the following is second largest? (1) 138.6 - 38.4 + 479.3 (2) 36.5 - 844.6 + 1289 (3) 931 - 564 + 156 (4) 564 - 213 + 120 (5) 130 - 461 + 888 Which of the following is the largest? (You are not expected to calculate the exact value) (1) (56 15) 42 (2) (25 72) 62 (3) (6 441) 72 (4) (28 78) 56 (5) (32 48) 26 Which of the following is the smallest? (You are not

57.

66-70. In the following questions two equations numbered I and II are given. You have to solve both the equations and Give answer If (1) x >y (2) x>y (3) x < y (4) x < y (5) x = y or the relationship cannot be established

66.

I.

15

58.

x x II. y10 (36)5 = 0

= (x) 2

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67. 68. I. 5x + 2y = 96 II. 3 (7x + 5y) = 489 I. (441)1/22 - 111 (15)2 II. 69. 70. 71.
2 3 121 y + (6) = 260

I. 17x = (13)2+

196 + (5)2 + 4x

II. 9y - 345 = 4y - 260 I. 3x2 - 13x + 14 = 0 II. y2 - 7y + 12 = 0 A man sells calculator at the rate of Rs. 250/- each which includes a profit of 14 percent. What amount of profit will he earn in 19 days if he sells seven calculators per day? (1) Rs. 4665/- (2) Rs. 4565/- (3) Rs. 4545/(4) Rs. 4655/- (5) None of these Circumference of a Circle-A is 1

sufficient to answer the question. Give answer (2) if the data in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, write the data in Statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question. Give answer (3) if the data in either Statement I alone or in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question. Give answer (4) if the data in both the Statements I and II are not sufficient to answer the question. Give answer (5) if the data in both the Statements f and II together are necessary to answer the question. 76: What is the minimum passing percentage in a test? I. Ramari scored 25% marks in the test and Sunil scored 288 marks which is 128 more than Raman. II. Raman scored 64 marks less than the minimum passing marks. What is the value of x2 + y + z? I. 4x + 3y + 5z = 60 and 2x = y, 2y = z II. 3x + 3y +2z = 34, 2x + 5y + 6z = 72 Whose body weight is second highest among the five boys Arun, Vinay, Suraj, Raju and Pratap? I. Average weight of Arun, Suraj and Vinay is 68 kg and average weight of Raju and Pratap is 72 kg. Also Suraj is 78 kg; Raju is 68 kg and Vinay is 46 kg. II. Average weight of Arun, Suraj, Vinay and Raju is 68 kg and also Suraj is 78 kg, Raju is 68 kg and Vinay is 46 kg. All of them have different weight. What is the respective ratio between the length of a rectangle and side of a square? I. Area of the square is 576 sq cm and the area of the rectangle is 600 sq cm. II. Breadth of the rectangle is half the side of the square. What is the smaller angle of a parallelogram? I. Ratio between the angles of a triangle is 3: 5: 4 and the larger angle of the parallelogram is 34 more than the largest angle of the triangle. II. Larger angle of the parallelogram is 38 more than its smaller angle.

72.

4 times perimeter of a 7 square. Area of the square is 784 sqcm. What is the area of another Circle-B whose diameter is half the radius of the Circle-A? (1) 38.5 sq. cm. (2) 156 sq. cm. (3) 35.8 sq. cm. (4) 616-sq. cm. (5) None of these
Amits present age is three times Pratibhas present age and nine-thirteenth of his fathers present age. The sum of the present ages of all of them is 150 years. What is the difference between Pratibhas present age and Amits fathers present age? (1) 56 years (2) 64 years (3) 60 years (4) Cannot be determined (5) None of these What value will you obtain if twenty five percent of 2340 is subtracted from four-ninth of square of 36? (1) 9 (2) -18 (3) 18 (4) -9 (5) 3 Varun got a monthly increment of 12 percent of Pujas monthly salary. Pujas monthly salary is Rs. 7800/-. Varuns monthly salary before increment was Rs. 6400/-. What amount will he earn in four months after his increment? (1) Rs. 29344/(2) Rs. 29434/(3) Rs. 28434/(4) Rs. 28344/(5) None of these

77.

78.

73.

79.

74.

75.

80.

76-80. Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and Give answer (1) if the data in Statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement II alone are not

81-85. Study the following pie-chart and answer the following questions.

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COMPETITIVE ZEAL
Percentagewise distribution of employees in six departments of an Institution Total number of Employees = 12600 Percentagewise distribution of Employees 86-90. Study the table carefully to answer the questions that follow:

Number of Research papers and Articles published by six different scholars (Person) in five different Journals 86. 81. Number of employees in the department of Academic affairs is approximately what percent more than the number of employees in Examination department? (1) 39 (2) 29 (3) 12 (4) 139 (5) 112 If 30 percent of the number of employees of research department is females. Then what is the number of male employees in the research department? (1) 1343 (2) 1232 (3) 1323 (4) 1242 (5) None of these Number of employees in Examination department is approximately what percentage of the total number of employees in the department of HR and Academic affairs together (1) 69 (2) 65 (3) 61 (4) 55 (5) 51 What is the average number of employees in Accounts, Admission and Research department together? (1) 1722 (2) 1742 (3) 1786 (4) 1784 (5) None of these What is the difference between the total number of employees in the department of HR and Admission together and the total number of employees in Accounts and Examination department together? (1) 2268 (2) 2464 (3) 2286 (4) 2644 (5) None of these 88. How much more approximate percentage of the number of Research papers that were published by Neeta in Educon as compared to the number of Research papers that were published by Vijay in Eduforms? (1) 52 (2) 42 (3) 152 (4) 147 (5) 47 What is the difference between the total number of Research papers published by Anand, Vijay and Neeta together in Educon and the total number of Articles published by Mohan, Naidu and Ronit together in Edutrack? (1) 33 (2) 27 (3) 32 (4) 29 (5) None of these Who published third highest number of Research papers and Article together in Eduforms? (1) Anand (2) Vijay (3) Neeta (4) Mohan (5) Naidu What is the average number of Research papers published by all the six scholars together in Frontier? (1) 14 (2) 16 (3) 17 (4) 15 (5) None of these Total number of Research papers and Articles together published by Mohan in Edutrack is approximately what percentage of the total number of Articles published by all the six scholars together in New Era? (1) 145 (2) 117 (3) 137 (4) 132 (5) 124

87.

82.

83.

89.

84.

90.

85.

91-95. Study the following graph carefully to answer the questions that follow

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COMPETITIVE ZEAL
Runs scored by three different teams in five different cricket matches 96. What is the difference between the number of boys (student) who can speak both Hindi and English and the number of girls (student) who can speak both Hindi and English? (1) 164 (2) 178 (3) 188 (4) 174 (5) None of these Total number of girls (student) is what percentage of the total number of staff members in the school? (1) 350 (2) 300 (3) 400 (4) 450 (5) None of these What is the difference between the total number of female administrative officials and female teachers together and the number of male administrative officials? (1) 16 (2) 12 (3) 18 (4) 14 (5) None of these What is the respective ratio between the total number of teachers and the number of boys (student) who can speak Hindi only? (1) 11: 56 (2) 13: 54 (3) 13: 56 (4) 11: 54 (5) None of these

97.

98.

91.

Total runs scored by India and Australia in Match-4 together is approximately what percentage of the total runs scored by England in all the five matches together? (1) 42 (2) 18 (3) 36 (4) 24 (5) 28 In which match is the difference between the runs scored by Australia and England second lowest? (1) Match-1 (2) Match-2 (3) Match-3 (4) Match-4 (5) Match-5 In which match are the total runs scored by India and England together third highest/lowest? (1) Match-1 (2) Match-2 (3) Match-3 (4) Match-4 (5) Match-5 What is the respective ratio between the runs scored by India in Match-5, Australia in Match-1 and England in Match-2? (1) 11: 13: 7 (2) 11: 7: 13 (3) 11: 3: 9 (4) 11: 13: 9 (5) None of these What are the average runs scored by all the three teams in Match-3 together? (1) 280 (2) 270 (3) 275 (4) 285 (5) None of these

99.

92.

93.

100. What is the total number of male administrative officials, female teachers and girls (student) who can speak Hindi only? (1) 125 (2) 115 (3) 127 (4) 117 (5) None of these

94.

TEST - III REASONING ABILITY


101. What should come next in the following number series? 4 5 3 2 1.5 4 5 3 2 1 4 4 5 3:2 1 3 4.5 3 2 1 ? (1) 1 (2) 4 (3) 2 (4) 5 (5) None of these 102. Consider five people A, B, C, D and E each having different age. A is younger than only B. C is older than D. D is not the youngest. Who amongst the following are older than C? (1) Only A and B (2) Only E, B and A (3) Only A and E (4) Only E and B (5) None of these 103. Point B is 3 metres north of point A. Point C is 3 metres west of point B. Point D is 5 metres south of point C. Point E is 7 metres east of point D. In which of the following directions is point E, with reference to point B. (1) East (2) South-East (3) North-East (4) South (5) None of these 104. In a row of children facing north, A stands 15th from left and B stands 9th from left. C who stands exactly between

95.

96-100. Study the information carefully to answer the questions that follows. In a school there are total 120 staff members and 800 students. 65 percent of the number of staff members is teachers and remaining staff members are administrative officials. Out of the total number of students 45 percent are girls. Twenty percent of the number of girls can speak only Hindi. Remaining girls can speak both Hindi and English. Three-fourth of the number of boys can speak only Hindi. Remaining boys can speak both Hindi and English. Two-third of the number of teachers is male. Fivefourteenth of the number of administrative officials is female.

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COMPETITIVE ZEAL
A and B is 7th from right. What is the total number of children standing in the row? (1) 21 (2) 17 (3) 18 (4) 19 (5) None of these 105. B is the father of O. B has only two children. Q is the brother of. R. R is the daughter of P. A is the granddaughter of P. S is the father of A. How is S related to Q? (1) Son (2) Son-in-law (3) Brother (4) Brother-in-law (5) None of these 106-110. In each of these questions, relationship between different elements is shown in the statements. The statements are followed by two conclusions. Give answer (1) if only conclusion I is true. Give answer (2) if only conclusion II is true. Give answer (3) if either conclusion I or II is true. Give answer (4) if neither conclusion I nor II is true. Give answer (5) if both the conclusions I and II are true. 106. Statements : E = A < D > B > F = C Conclusions : I. E < B II. C < D 107-108. Statements: 107. Conclusions : 108. Conclusions : 109. Statements : Conclusions : 110. Statements : Conclusions : P > T = U < W; Q > R > W I. T = R II. U<R I. P > R II. U > Q R > S > W = X; Y < R = P I. P > X II. Y < X C = D > E < F; G < I < C I. D > G II. E < I (4) tp or (5) ss at

114. How will bank officer in uniform be coded ? (1) ss ha at or (2) bk at or mu (3) ss na bk at (4) at muss or (5) bk ss mu na 115. What is the code for in ? (1) ss (2) or (3) at (4) mu (5) None of these 116-120. Each of the following questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and li given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and Give answer (1) If the data in Statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question. Give answer (2) If the data in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question. Give answer (3) If the data in either Statement I alone or statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question. Give answer (4) If the data in both the Statements I and II are not sufficient to answer the question. Give answer (5) If the data in both the Statements I and II are together necessary to answer the question. 116. Consider three friends A, B and C and their professions doctor, architect and engineer (not necessarily in the same order). Who is a doctor amongst these three? I. B is an architect. A is not an engineer. II. Either A or B is a doctor. Either A or C is a doctor. 117. How many females are there in the family of four people (P, Q, R and S - consisting of a married couple and two children)? I. P is the father of S. S is the sister of Q. II. R is the mother of Q. 118. What is the code for writing paper ? I. Read a paper is written as 817. Thinking and writing is coded as 624. II. Writing with pen is written as 453. Paper and pen is written as 723. 119. A, B, C, D and E are sitting in a straight line facing North. Who sits third from right end of the line? I. A sits second to left of B. B sits second to left of C. II. B is an immediate neighbour of both E and D. Neither

111-115. Study the following information to answer the given questions: In a certain code new banking systems is coded as ss tp na, officer in uniform is coded as or mu at, new bank officer is coded as or bk na and systems in bank is coded as bk at ss. 111. What does the cir Je bk stand for? (1) new (2) systems (3) officer (4) in (5) None of these 112. What will the code ss mu stand for? (1) banking officer (2) new uniform (3) uniform banking (4) in systems (5) uniform systems 113. How will new officer be coded ? (1) or na (2) tp na (3) na at

58 | COMPETITIVE ZEAL | DECEMBER 2012

COMPETITIVE ZEAL
E nor D sit at any of the extreme ends of the line. 120. On which day of the same week is Nehas birthday? (Monday being the first day of the week)? I. Ramesh correctly remembers that Nehas birthday is on a day after Tuesday, but before Friday of the same week. II. Kiran correctly remembers that Nehas birthday is on a day after Monday, but before Thursday of the same week. 121-125. Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions. Seven people P, Q, R, S, T, W and X are sitting in a straight line facing North, not necessari!y in the same order. R sits at one of the extreme ends of the line. T has as many people sitting on his right, as to his left. : sits third to the left of X. Q sits to the immediate left of W. Q does not sit at any of the extreme ends of the line. 121. If all the people are made to sit in alphabetical order from right to left, the positions of how many people will remain unchanged? (1) Five (2) One (3) Three (4) None (5) Two 122. How many people sit to the right of P? (1) Four (2) Five (3) Two (4) One (5) None 123. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way, based on the information given above and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group? (1) S (2) P (3) X (4) Q (5) W 124. Who amongst the following are immediate neighbours of S? (1) T and R (2) Q and P (3) Wand R (4) R and P (5) None of these 125. Who amongst the following sits second to the right of fourth person from the right end of the line? (1) W (2) Q (3) R (4) P (5) None of these 126-130. Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions. Eight friends A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting around a circle (not necessarily in the same order) facing the centre. B sits third to left of F. E is an immediate neighbour of both B and H. Only one person sits between A and H. C and G are immediate neighbours of each other. Neither C nor G is an immediate neighbour of B. Only one person sits between C and D. 126. Who amongst the following is an immediate neighbour of both A and H? (1) F (2) B (3) G (4) D (5) C 127. F is related to D in a certain way based on the seating positions in the given arrangement. Similarly C is related to E in the same way. To whom amongst the following is H related to following the same pattern? (1) G (2) A (3) F (4) C (5) B 128. Which of the following represents the correct position of A? (1) Second to the left of H (2) Immediate left of C (3) Exactly between F and E (4) Second to the right of E (5) Third to the right of D 129. What is the position of D with respect to the position of G? (1) Third to the left (2) Second to the right (3) Immediate right (4) Fourth to the left (5) Second to the left 130. Which of the following is true with respect to given seating arrangement? (1) Only two people sit between D and B (2) A is an immediate neighbour of B (3) C sits third to left of H (4) Only one person sits between H and D (5) None is true 131-133. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way (based on the position of alphabets in the English alphabetical series) and hence form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group? 131. (1) KLNI (4) FGID (2) UVXS (5) QROT (3) CDFA (2) ABX (4) ABCW (3) BCE

132. (1) ABCDEFGR (3) ABCDEU (5) ABCDEFT 133. (1) DEI (4) IJR (2) FGM 5) EFK

134-138. In each question/ group of questions below are two/ three statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the two/three given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts. Give answer (1) if only conclusion I follows Give answer (2) if only conclusion II follows

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COMPETITIVE ZEAL
Give answer (3) if either conclusion I or conclusion II follows Give answer (4) if neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows Give answer (5) if both conclusion I and conclusion II follow 134. Statements : No bank is a school. Some schools are colleges. Conclusions : I. Some colleges are definitely not schools II. All banks being colleges is a possibility 135. Statements : Some carts are trolleys. All baskets are trolleys. Conclusions : I. Atleast some baskets are carts II. All trolleys are baskets 136-137. Statements : All fruits are vegetables. All vegetables are plants. No plant is a root. 136. Conclusions : I. All fruits are plants II. No root is a vegetable 137. Conclusions : I. No fruit is a root II. Atleast some roots are vegetables 138. Statements : Some calculators are phones. No phone is an eraser. Conclusions : I. No calculator is an eraser II Some calculators are definitely not phones. 139-142. Read the following carefully and answer the questions which follow: P, Q, R, S, T and V live on different floors in the same building having six floors numbered one to six (the ground floor is numbered 1, the floor above it , number 2 and so on and the topmost floor is numbered 6). Q lives on an even numbered floor. Only two people live between the floors on which Q and V live. S lives on a floor immediately above the floor on which R lives. S does not live on an odd numbered floor. P does not live on a floor which is immediately above or immediately below the floor on which T lives. P does not live on the lowermost floor i.e. floor no. 1. 139. Who amongst the following live on the floors exactly between the floors on which Q and V live? (1) R, S (2) P, R (3) S, T (4) P, T (5) Cannot be determined 140. Who amongst the following lives on floor number 5? (1) P (2) O (3) T (4) V (5) Cannot be determined 141. On which of the following floors does T live? (1) 3rd (2) 5th (3) 1st (4) 4th (5) Cannot be determined 142. How many people live on the floors above the floor on which P lives? (1) None (2) One (3) Two (4) Three (5) Cannot be determined 143-145. Study the following information to answer the given questions: Each of the five friends, A, B, C, D and E scored, different marks in an examination. Maximum marks of the examination are 100. B scored more than E but less than C. Only two people scored more than A. E did not score the minimum marks. The one who scored second highest marks scored 87%. E scored 72% marks. 143. How many people scored more than E in the examination? (1) None (2) One (3) Two (4) Three (5) Cannot be determined 144. Who amongst the following possibly scored 81 % marks? (1) C (2) D (3) B (4) A (5) Either C or B 145. Which of the following percentages may correctly represent Cs percentage in the exam? (1) 65% (2) 74% (3) 87% (4) 83% (5) 89% 146-150. Study the following information to answer the given questions: Eight people are sitting in two parallel rows containing four people each, in such a way that there is an equal distance between adjacent persons. In row-1 A, B, C and D are seated (but not necessarily in the same order) and all of them are facing South. In row-2 P, Q, R and S are seated (but not necessarily in. the same order) and all of them are facing North. Therefore; in the given seating arrangement each member seated in a row faces another member of the other row. R sits second to left of the person who faces A. S is an immediate neighbour of R. Only one person sits between A and D. One of the immediate neighbours of C faces Q. B does not sit at any of the extreme ends of the line. 146. Who amongst the following sits second to the right of the person who faces P? (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (5) Cannot be determined 147. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on the given seating arrangement and thus form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group? (1) C (2) R (3) Q (4) P (5) D

60 | COMPETITIVE ZEAL | DECEMBER 2012

COMPETITIVE ZEAL
148. Which of the following is true regarding C? (1) C sits second to right of D (2) A sits to immediate right of C (3) S faces C (4) D is an immediate neighbour of C (5) The person who faces C is an immediate neighbour of R 149. Who amongst the following faces R? (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (5) Cannot be determined 150. Who amongst the following faces B? (1) P (2) Q (3) R (4) S (5) Cannot be determined

Test Model IDBI Evening Paper Answer Keys


SECTION I (ENGLISH LANGUAGE) 1 1 21 4 41 2 2 5 22 1 42 5 3 2 23 4 43 4 4 3 24 2 44 1 5 2 25 3 45 1 6 5 26 2 46 1 7 2 27 1 47 5 8 2 28 1 48 1 9 2 29 5 49 5 10 4 30 4 50 4 11 2 31 3 12 2 32 2 13 2 33 3 14 4 34 5 15 1 35 4 16 2 36 5 17 1 37 3 18 1 38 1 19 3 39 5 20 2 40 2

SECTION II (QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE) 51 3 71 5 91 3 52 1 72 5 92 3 53 4 73 3 93 5 54 2 74 4 94 4 55 2 75 1 95 2 56 5 76 5 96 2 57 5 77 1 97 2 58 4 78 2 98 4 59 5 79 5 99 5 60 5 80 4 100 1 61 2 81 2 62 2 82 3 63 1 83 4 64 5 84 1 65 4 85 1 66 4 86 2 67 2 87 4 68 1 88 3 69 3 89 5 70 3 90 5

SECTION III (REASONING ABILITY) 101 102 103 104 2 1 2 3 2121 122 123 124 2 1 4 141 142 143 144 3 1 4 4 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 4 2 4 4 1 1 5 5 1 2 3 125 126 127 128 129 130 131 132 133 134 135 2 1 1 2 3 5 4 1 5 5 4 145 146 147 148 149 150 5 2 3 2 4 4 116 117 1 4 136 137 5 1 118 119 120 5 3 5 138 139 140 4 1 4

61 | COMPETITIVE ZEAL | DECEMBER 2012

COMPETITIVE ZEAL

AAO Exam Paper


(Based on Memory)

TEST - I REASONING ABILITY


Direction (Q. Nos. 1-5): Answer these questions by referring to the symbol-letter-number sequence given below: E G 4 B H 75 % K 8 D N Q Z W 3 C 19 = L B 2 S 6 1. How many such digits are there in the above sequence which are immediately preceded as well as followed by digits? (1) One (2) Two (3) Three (4) None Which of the following is the seventh to the right of the nineteenth element from the right end? (1) N (2) (3) Z (4) What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following sequence? (1) % 8 N (2) W 9 (3) Z W 1 (4) N Q If the first fifteen element are written in the reverse order then which of the following will be seventh to the left of twelfth element from the right end? (1) K (2) 5 (3) % (4) How many such consonants are there in the above sequence which are immediately preceded by a symbol and immediately followed by a digit? (1) One (2) Two (3) Three (4) None If it is possible to make a number which is the square of a two digit odd number using the second fourth and the sixth digits of the number 93217648 and using each only once which, of the following is that two digit odd number? (1) B (2) 15 (3) 17 (4) 19 How many such pairs of digits are there in the number 95137248 each of which has as many digits between them in the number as when they are arranged in ascending order? (1) One (2) Two (3) Three (4) None The following numbers were rewritten after subtracting 2 from the middle digit of each of these numbers and then arranging in descending order. What would be the middle digit of the newly formed-fourth number from the top? 538, 642, 756, 963, 387, 574, 791 (1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 4 (4) 5 In the following number series how many such 9s are there which are immediately preceded by a pair of digits whose product is more than the product of pair of digits immediately following 9? 10.

6594794289532981569845712930973932 6952 (1) Four (2) Five (3) Six (4) Seven A person has nineteen coins of 20 paise, 25 paise and 50 paise worth Rs. 5. The number of 25 paise coins is double of 50 paise coins. How many 20 paise coins does the person have? (1) 4 (2) 8 (3) 10 (4) 11

2.

3.

Direction (Q. Nos. 11-15): In these questions symbols and x are used with different meanings as follows: A + B means A is not greater than B; A - B means A is neither greater nor smaller than B; A = B means A is not smaller than B; A = B means A is neither smaller than nor equal to Q; and A B Means A is neither greater than nor equal to B; In each of the following questions assuming the given statements to be true find out which of the two conclusions I and II given below them, is/are, definitely true. Give Answers: (I) If only conclusion I is true. (2) If only conclusion II is true. (3) If either conclusion I or conclusion II is true. (4) If neither conclusion I nor conclusion II is true. 11. Statements: K + P, P T, T = L Conclusion: I. K + L II. T K. Statements: P Q, Q + R, R W Conclusions: I. P + R II. Q + W Statements: F = G, G - M, M + V Conclusion: I. V M II. V - M Statement: F = W, W - T, T K Conclusion: I: F K II. W = K Statements: R = S, S - P, P F Conclusions: I. F = S II. F S

4.

5.

6.

12.

7.

13.

14.

8.

15.

9.

Direction (Q. No. 16-20): In these questions, statements 1 and 2 are followed by conclusions I and II. Taking the statements to be true, although they may appear at variance with commonly accepted facts, mark your answer as under: (1) Only I follows from the statements. (2) Only IF follows from the statements.

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(3) Both I and II are right. (4) Both I and II are wrong. 16. Statements: 1. 2. Conclusions: I. II. Some verses are stories. Some stories are dramas. Every drama is either story or verse. Some dramas are verses. Every chair is either glass or plate. Some plates are transparent. Some chairs are transparent No plat is glass. 22. Halls the visitor wanted to visit ? (1) C (2) D (3) E

(4) F

17.

Statements:

l. 2. Conclusions: I. II. Statements

A visitor for Exhibition Hall H had the password rye fu che it can si pecha. What was password for Exhibit Hall A at that time? (1) rye fu si pecha che can it (2) che pecha rye si can it fu (3) pccha chc fu it can si rye (4) fu rye pecha si can it. che A visitor wanted to visit Exhibit Hall F but he was wrongly given password for Exhibition D, ear two it rye sit he wu. What would be his correct password for Exhibition Hall F, if hourly password, remained the same? (1) he rye ear it sit wu two r (2) wu it two rye sit he ear (3) rye he it ear sit two wu (4) two ear rye it sit wu he A visitor visited Exhibit Hall B in the first fifteen minutes of a new hourly code and, wanted to visit Exhibition Hall F. If his password for exhibit Hall B was ne mew fu six also bet ga. What would be his password for Exhibit Hall F? (1) fu ga ne bet six also mew (2) six fu bet ga ne also mew (3) ga fu bet ne, also mew six (4) six bet fu also mew ga ne A visitor was given a pass word, cue le way am meat sri fro for Exhibit Hall C. He wanted to visit Exhibit Hall G immediately after Exhibit Hall C. What would be his password for Exhibit Hall G? (1) am sri le fro meat way cue (2) le cue am way meat fro sri (3) way fro am le meat cue sri (4) sri am fro le -meat cue way

23.

18.

1. Mangoes are sweeter than bananas but not as sweet as lemons. 2. Oranges are not as sweet as mangoes but are sweeter than bananas. Conclusions: I. Bananas are the least sweet. II. Lemons are the sweetest. Some soldiers are short. All short people are fair. Some soldiers are fair. No tall soldier is fair. All buildings are shorter than trees. All trees are taller than mountains. Buildings are taller than mountains. Buildings are shorter than mountains. 25. 24.

19.

Statements:

1. 2. Conclusions: I. II. Statements: 1. 2. Conclusions: I. II.

20.

Direction (Q. Nos. 21-25) : In an International Jewellery Exhibition there were eight exhibit halls named as Hall A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H. No visitor was allowed to visit any exhibit hall for more than on hour. If a visitor wanted to visit more than one exhibit hall he/she had to come back to the security officer to get a fresh visitors pass by surrendering; the earlier halls pass. Every hour, the security officer generated seven passwords for all the exhibit halls by choosing a set of seven words, which was used for exhibit Hall A, which was reception-cum-visitors hall. Following was an illustration of generation of seven passwords for each hall. Exhibition Hall A tick mick sick free Exhibition Hall B crow sick mick free Exhibition Hall C sick crow free mick Exhibition Hall D fro free crow mick Exhibition Hall E free fro mick crow and so on till exhibition Hall H. 21. tree tree tree tree tree fro fro tick tick crow tick fro sick

Direction (Q. Nos. 26-30): In each question given below is a statement followed by three assumptions numbered I, II and Ill. An assumption is something supposed or taken for granted. You have to consider the statement and the assumptions and then decide which of the assumptions is implicit in thestatement. Then decide which of the answers is correct. 26. Statement: A State that mainly depends on agriculture, has announced a drastic cut in irrigation rates. Assumption I. The State has no dearth of water resources. II. The State has and good rains this year. III. This cut would result in more crops. (1) Only I is implicit. (2) Only II is implicit. (3) Only III is implicit. (4) Only I and II are implicit.

sick tick

A visitor was given a password fro way le am meat sri cue. If at that time the password for Exhibit Hall A was sri am cue way meat fro le, which of the following exhibit

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COMPETITIVE ZEAL
27. Statement: The general public-in these days hesitates in investing their money in shares and debentures. Assumptions I. People in general are short of money these days. II. Too many scandals and other irregularities in this area have affected the publics faith. III. All prices are falling at a tremendous rate. (1) Only I follows. (2) Only II follows. (3) Only III follows. (4) Only I and II follow. Statements: Crores of rupees were spent during the marriage of a C.M.s son. Assumptions: I: The C.M. is an extremely rich person. II. The money spent in the marriage was received by the C.M. from the girls parents as dowry. III. The figure given is only an exaggeration. (1) Only I follows (2) Only II follows. (3) Only III follows (4) All the three follow Statement: Whenever any big city is flooded, the jhuggi jhopri dwellers are affected the most. Assumptions I.There is no proper drainage in the areas inhabited by them. II. They make their colonies anywhere without realizing the drawbacks. III. They make their homes mostly in low-lying areas. (1) Only I is implicit (2) Only II is implicit (3) Only II and III are implicit (4) All are implicit Statement: Government offices cannot make any purchases without Inviting tenders. Assumptions I. Government officials are not honest. II. Other departments do not invite tenders. III. Government offices have to follow certain rules where purchase is concerned. (1) Only I is implicit. (2) Only II is implicit. (3) Only III is implicit. (4) Only II and III are implicit. P a sweet little girl was not the engineers daughter. Q was not Bs, son. Rs father was not an advocate. S was not Cs daughter. 31. 32. The teachers child is (1) S (2) P (3) Q (4) R

If R and Q are cousins which two men are brothers? (1) A and C (2) A and D (3) B and C (4) B and D T Who is Ss father and what is he? (1) A, Engineer (2) D, Advocate (3) A, Teacher (4) B, Musician Who is Qs father and what is he? (1) D, Teacher (2) A, Teacher (3) C, Advocate (4) D, Advocate

28.

33.

34.

29.

Direction (Q: Nos. 35-38) : Read the following information to answer the question given below it. There are five Air Flights P, Q, R, S and T that are availabe between following cities : Delhi and Kolkata Guwahati and Delhi Kolkata and Bhubaneshwar Bhubaneshwar and Delhi Kolkata and Guwahati Flights P and S do not go to Delhi; Q and R do not go to Guwaahati, and R and S do not touch Bhubaneshwar. 35. 36: Which flight is available between Guwahati and Kolkala? (1) P (2) Q (3) R (4) S If a person wanted to go from Bhubaneshwar to Gauwahati via Kolkata, he would have to trtavel by (1) 1' and Q (2) P and S (3) Q and T (4) T and S Flight C goes from .................... and vice versa. (1) Kolkata to Gauwahati (2) Delhi to Bhubaneshwar (3) Delhi to Gauwahati (4) Bhubaneshwar to Kolkata From which common city Flights P and Q take off? (1) Delhi (2) Bhubaneshwar (3) kolkata (4) Gauwahati Some of the letters in the series given below are missing. These are given in that order in one of the alternative. Choose that alternative. Prqsqtppq (1) p q q p s (2) q p q p r (3) q p p q u (4) p p q q t A man and a woman are sitting in a room. Mans motherin-law and womans mother-in-law are mother and

30.

37.

38.

39.

Direction (Q. Nos. 31-34): Read the following information to answer the questions given below the information. Four men, A, B, C and D, teacher, musician; advocate and engineer by profession, accompanied their children to a movie. Each person was with one child only. D and B came with their sons and they were not engineer or teacher.

40.

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COMPETITIVE ZEAL
daughter. Man is womans (1) Father (3) Uncle 53. (2) Father-in-law (4) Grand father-in-law 54. 55. (1) HS (1) JOT (1) RNJH (2) LP (2) OUT (2) QMIE (3) RI (3) FED (3) MIEA (4) PK (4) DIN (4) SOKG

Direction (Q. Nos. 41-45) : What will complete the series given in : the following questions ? 41. (1, 2,3), (2..?....,.?....), (5,26,101), (26,677,10202) (1) 3, 4 (2) 4, 6 (3) 5, 10 (4) 6, 9

42.

15 A
(1)

G 21
(2)

28 N
(3)

15 A

W 31

U 35

(4)

V 36

Direction (Q. Nos. 56-60): These questions are based on code language which utilizes letters in English alphabet. In each question there is a word written in capital letters, with one letter underlined. For each letter in that word there is a code written in small letters. That code is denoted by l, 2, 3, or 4, though not in same order. You have to find out the exact code for the underlined letter in the word. The number of that code: is the answer. Please note that the same letter appearing in different word(s) may be differently coded. 56. 57. 58. 59. 60. JURY (1) b PERK (1) pu TRUE (1) w MOCK (1) fx DENY (1) d (2) q (2) in (2) g (2) np (2) x (3) g (3) ns (3) r (3) ol (3) j (4) x (4) eh (4) p (4) pn (4) n

43. 44. 45. 46.

30, 68, 130, 222, ?..., 520 (1) 322 (2) 350 0, 4, 18, 48, 100 ...? (1) 164 (2) 180 165, 195, 255, 285, 345, ...? (1) 375 (2) 415

(3) 380 (3) 224 (3) 435

(4) 444 (4) 260 (4) 455

Which of the- following word pairs (letter combinations) is not related in the same way as Returnable and Natural? (1) Reciprocal and Oracle (2) Departmental and Moderate (3) Evaluation and Violet (4) Reconstruct and Counter Which of the following word pairs (letter combinations) is related in the same way as Insurance and Measure? (1) Scavenge and Average (2) Umbrella and Lumber (3) Technique and Queen (4) Variability and Thrive Face is related to Nose in the same way as Furniture is related to (1) Wood (2) Tree (3) Radio (4) Chair Sea is related to Cyclones in the same way as Sky is related to (1) Wind (2) Airplanes (3) Clouds (4) Blue Illness is related to Virus in the same way Debris is related to (1) Sand (2) Waste (3) Building (4) Demolition

47.

TEST-II ENGLISH LANGUAGE


Directions (Q. Nos. 61-65): Read the following passage and, answer the questions given after it. The single business of Henry Thoreau, during forty odd years of eager activity, was to discover an economy calculated to provide a satisfying life. His one concern, that gave to his ramblins in Concord fields a value of high adventure, was to explore the true meaning of wealth. As he understood the problem of economics, there were three possible solutions open to him; to exploit, himself, to exploit his fellows, or to reduce the problem to its lowest denominator. The first was quite impossible - to imprison oneself in a treadmill when the morning called to great adventure. To exploit ones fellows seemed to Thoreaus sensitive social conscience an even greater infidelity. Freedom with abstinence seemed to him better than serfdom with material well-being and he was content to move to Walden Pond and set about the high business of living, to front only the essential facts of life and to see what it had to reach. He did not advocate that other man should build cabins and live isolated. He had no wish to dogmatize concerning the best mode of living each must

48.

49.

50.

Direction : (Q: Nos. 51-55) : In each of the following questions three out of the four terms marked ( 1), (2), (3) and (4) are identical in some way and one is different from the rest. Identify the term which is different or odd. . 51. 52. (1) HU (1) VTOJE (3) UPKEA (2) GV (3) KR (2) USNID (4) OMTDB (4) FT

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settle that for himself. But that a satisfying life should be lived, he was vitally concerned. The story of his emancipation from the lower economics is the one romance of his life, and Walden is his great book. It is a book in praise of life rather than of Nature, a record of calculating economics that studied saving in order to spend more largely. But it is. a book of social criticism as well, in spite of its explicit denial of such a purpose. In considering the true nature of economy he concluded; with Ruskin that the cost of a thing is the amount of life which is required to exchange for it, immediately or in the long run. In Walden Thoreau elaborated the text. The only wealth in life. 61. The authors primary purpose in this passage is to (1) Discuss and assess economic problems (2) describe Thoreaus philosophy of life (3) prove that Walden was Thoreaus greatest book (4) Evaluate life at Walden Pond On the basis of the passage, Thoreau was all of the following EXCEPT (1) Liberated (2) dogmatic (3) energetic (4) critical It can be inferred that the author thinks of Thoreaus emancipation from the lower economics as romance because it (1) Entailed social criticism (2) was an adventure story (3) Was embodied in Thoreaus greatest book (4) wholly captured Thoreaus imagination It can be inferred from the passage that Thoreau believed the wealth of an individual is measured by (1) The money he or she makes (2) the experience he or she gains (3) His or her good deeds (4) the amount he or she saves The authors tone in speaking about Thoreau is (1) Ironic (2) critical (3) indifferent (4) admiring 68. No one except he knew which questions were going to be (1) (2) (3) (4) asked in this test. Despite of the pills which are available, many people still (1) (2) (3) have trouble sleeping. (4) He is not the kind of a person who takes such a treatment (1) (2) (3) (4) lying down.

69.

70.

Direction (Q. Nos. 71-75): Fill in- the .blanks with appropriate words. 71. There is no culture in the world ............. absolutely pure. (1) That which is (2) that which (3) that is (4) that what is He took up the letter from the table and ......... it to his friend. (1) Was reading (2) has been reading (3) had read (4) read He led me .......... the green laws to the palatial building. 1) Upon (2) across (3) along (4) about The ship with all its crew........lost after the terrible storm. (1) Were (2) has (3) have (4) was

62.

72.

63.

73. 74:

64.

71-3. We ........start now to work for our examination. (1) Had better (2) better (3) has better (4) are better Direction (Q. Nos. 76-80): In the following questions choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the given word. 76. DEMISE (1) Sorrow (3) death PROXIMITY (l) Nearness (3) complete MOTIVE (l) Sorrow DILEMMA (1) Fear COARSE (1) Dull (2) design (2) price (2) broad (2) birth (4) anniversary (2) aloofness (4) responsibility (3) desire (4) hunger

65.

77.

Direction (Q. Nos. 66-70): In each of the following sentences four words or phrases have been underlined. One underlined part in each sentence is not acceptable in Standard English. Pick up that part and mark its number. 66. Being that my car, is getting its annual check up. I will not (1) (2) (3) be able to pick you up tomorrow morning. (4) We cant hardly believe that the situation is so serious as (1) (2) to justify such precautions as you have taken. (3) (4)

78. 79. 80.

(3) condition (4) fl x (3) rough (4) modest

67.

Direction (Q. Nos. 81-85): In the following questions, fill in the blanks with the appropriate phrase. 81. The lease of our premises has .... and we have to vacate it. (1) Run out (2) run off

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(3)) run over 82. (4) run down 91. 92. 93. 94. 95. 96. 97. 98. 99. (1) more (1) look (1) those (1) this(1) into (1) quarrel (1) better (1) on (1) diet (2) less (2) see (2) these (2) their (2) to (2) battle (2) good (2) with (2) weight (2) scientists (3) lesser (3) find (3) we (3) there (3) with (3) fight (3) logical (3) to (3) strength (3) people (4) much (4) think (4) they (4) it (4) about (4) resist (4) scientific (4) for (4) food (4) teachers

His boss .......... an explanation of his conduct with his colleagues. (1) Called Lip (2) called upon (3) called for (4) called off He ........his departure for a week as his mother was not well. (1) Put off (2) put up (3) put out (4) put aside His friends ...........to him for guidance in financial matters. (1) Look on (2) look up (3) look at (4) look down He .......... to be sharper than all his brothers and sisters. (1) turned off (2) turned down (3) turned up (4) turned out

83.

84.

85.

100. (1) experts

Direction (Q. Nos. 86-90): In the following questions choose the alternative which is opposite in meaning to the given word. 86. 87. FERTILE (l) Useful (2) gloomy (3) isolated (2) dominant (4) holy (3) dignified (3) pursue (2) reprove (4) stumble (4) artificial (4) commit (4) barren

TEST-III GENERAL AWARENESS


101. Jawaharlal Nehru National Solar Mission or Solar India has been launched to create an installed capacity of 2000 MW by the end of (1) 13th Plan (2) 14th Plan (3) 15th Plan (4) 16th Plan 102. Bollywood actors who, on February 2, 2010 rang bells in NASDAQ on Times Square, New York. - an honour usually reserved for CEOs of major corporations, are (1) Amir Khan and Priyanka Chopra (2) Shah Rukh Khan and Kajol (3) Abhishek Bachchan and Aswarya (4) Saif Ali Khan and Kareena Kapoor 103. The term 16 yards hit is associated with (1) Badminton (2) Baseball (3) Polo (4) Hockey 104. The vital constituent of blood that helps in clotting is (1) Platelets (2) Haemoglobin (3) Plasma (4) Serum 105. Which of the following animals can hear ultrasonic sound? (1) Cat (2) Rat (3) Bat (4) Squirrel 106. The acid rain destroys vegetations because it contains (1) Sulphuric acid (2) Ozone (3) Carbon monoxide (4) Nitric acid 107. Man Booker Prize winner Ms. Kiran Desais novel, The Inheritance of Loss deals with (1) Telangana movement (2) Santhal movement (3) Gorkhaland movement (4) Bodoland movement 108. GARC is the acronym for (1) Global Automotive Research Consortium (2) Global Atomic Research Consortium

ERRATIC (1) Predictable (3) peaceful MENIAL (1) Feminine (2) physical PARDON (1) Separate (2) blame HESTTATE (1) Dishearten (3) decide

88. 89. 90:

Direction (Q. Nos. 91-100): In the following passage, some of the words have been left out. Read the passage carefully and try to understand what is it about. Then fill in the blanks with the alternatives given below the passage. As many as nine out of ten dieters neednt have bothered dieting at all as they put back the weight they lose; and up to half end up weighing even .....91.....than they did before. Most of these people ....92..... their, problem as a personal failure-they. think ....93.... should have been .more strong-minded.. This is a fallacy, however, for .....94.... is growing evidence that many dieters get locked ....95..... a losing battle with their own bodies, which .....96..... like mad to resist the starvation process. There is also a .....97..,.... reasons to believe that dieting may be bad ...98.... you-particularly if it leads to regular fluctuations in .....99...... These days, disillusioned dieters are advised by more and more.....100.... to throw away their scales and calorie counters and come to terms with their physical appearance.

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(3) Global Automotive Research Centre (4) Global Advancement Research Centre 109. The largest fresh water lake, Lake Superior is located in (1) Canada (2) Russia (3) Tanzania (4) Argentina 110. In which State of India is the largest river island Majuli? (1) Assam (2) Kolkata (3) Orissa (4) Madhya Pradesh 111. Match the following: A. Berlin, Germany B. Ankara, Turkey C. Bristol, UK D. Budapest, Hungary (1) A (b), B (a), C (d), D (c) (3) A (a), B (d), C (b), D (c) (a) Danube (b) Kizil (c) Spree (d) Avon (2) A (d), B (c), C (a), D (b) (4) A (c), B (b), C (d), D (a) (3) A-(d), B-(c), C-(a)> D-(b) (4) A-(a), B-(c), C-(d), D-(b)

TEST-IV NUMERICAL ABILITY/DATA INTERPRETATION


Direction (Q. Nos. 121-124): The following table gives zone wise survey report of the people of a country who drink tea. Read the table and answer the questions. Drink Tea North Zone More than 3 times a day 410 1 to 3 times a day 1220 Twice a week 1640 Only once a week 620 Never 950 East Zone 310 830 710 540 430 West Zone 700 1250 950 530 620 South Zone 1450 1120 420 350 50 Total 2870 4420 3720 2040 2050

112. Governments ambitious UID Project has been renamed (1) Parichaya (2) Pahchan (3) Aadhar (4) Aanklan 113. Who is the author of the book Speaking for Myself? (l) Salman Rushdie (2) Cherie Blair (3) Mohanomad Hanif (4) Hillary Clinton 114. The name of Indias first home-built stealth warship whose features reduce the probability of being detected at sea is (1) Sahyadiri (2) Satpura (3) Shivalik (4) Shivaji 115. Which country will host the 17th SAARC summit? (1) Bangladesh (2) Nepal (3) Shri Lanka (4) Maldives 116. Indias Prime Minister Manmohan Singh is seated at the ............. spot in the leaders list of 100 most influential persons of the world released by the famous Time Magazine recently. (1) 15 (2) 19 (3) 23 (4) 27 117. The Islam was established in (1) 5th A.D. (2) 7th A.D. (3) 3rd B.C. (4) 5th B.C.

121. The total -number of people surveyed is (1) 13060 (2) 15000 (3) 15100

(4) 16200

122. What percentage of people of South Zone drinks tea at least once a day? (1) 33.5 (2) 42.7 (3) 75.8 (4) 80.8 123. The ratio of the number of people who drink tea more than 3 times a day to the number who do not drink tea at all is (1) 1.4: 1 (2) 1: 1.4 (3) 1.5: 1 (4) 1: 1.1 124. The percentage of people from Non-West Zone who take tea only once a week, is approximately (1) 10.5 (2) 11 (3) 12.5 (4) 14 125.

3 + 3 + 8 7 + 4 3 is equal to
(1)

(2) 2

(3) 3

(4) 3 3

118. Which part of the human body is highly affected by the nuclear radiation first? (1) Bone marrow (2) Skin (3) Lungs (4) Eyes 119. Who invented the video tape? (1) Charles Ginsberg (2) Georges de Mestral (3) Richard James (4) P:T: Farnsworth 120. Math the following: A. NH- 1 (a) Varanasi - Kanyakumari B. NI-I-3 (b) Kolkata - Chennai C. NH-.5 (c) New Delhi - Amritsar D. NI-I-7 (d) Agra - Mumbai (1) A-(b), B-(a), C-(d), D-(c) (2,) A-(c), B-(d), C-(b), D-(a)

126. For numbers a, b and c, define [a, b, c] by [a, b, c] = (a + b) c. Then the value of [[30, 60, 90], [1, 2; 3], [5, 10, 15] is (1) 0 (2) 1 (3) 2 (4) 5 127. The following addition is incorrect 742586 + 829430 1212016 This can be made correct by changing one digit d, wherever it occurs, to another digit e. The value of d + e will be (1) 4 (2) 6 (3) 8 (4) 9 128. The number (332-1) is exactly divisible by two numbers between 75 and 85. The product of these two numbers is (1) 6399 (2) 7308 (3) 6480 (4) 6560

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129. The value of 4 (3 9 + 3 3 + 1) is (1) 1+33/1 (2) 1+31/3 (3) 1-32/3 loses 3.4. Seconds every hour and, the second gains 2.6 seconds every hour. After how many hours will the clocks again show the same time? (1) 6300 (2) 7200 (3) 9000 (4) 12600 141. A vessel contains a mixture of acid and water in which acid is 36%. 4 litres of mixture is taken out of the vessel and is replaced by the same quantity of water. If the present percentage of acid is 30%, the: quantity of mixture (in litres) in the beginning was (1) 30 (2) 24 (3) 20 (4) 18 142. The price of a pen is 2.5 times that of a pencil. A person ordered for 6 pens and some pencils. While preparing the bill, the number of both items interchanged which increased the bill by 45%. The number of pencils in the order was (1) 10 (2) 12 (3) 15 (4) 18 143. The current of a stream runs at the speed of 4 km/hour. A boat goes upstream 6 km and comes back to the starting point in 2 hours. The time (in hours) taken by the boat for going upstream is (1) 1 (2) 1

(4) 1-31/3

1 1 1 1 1 130. 1 2 1 2 1 2 ....1 2 1 2 is 2 3 4 19 20 equal to (1) 0.522 (2) 0.552 (3) 0.525 (4) 0.555

(1.331) 1 + (1.331) 2 + .... + (1.331) 7 131. (1.331) 2 + (1.331) 3 + ..... + (1.331) 8


to (1) (1.33 -1)-2 (2) 1.331
a b c

2/3

is equal-

(3) (1.1)-2
d

(4) 1.21

132. Suppose that 4 = 5, 5 = 6, 6 =7 and 7 = 8. The value of the product a.b.c.d will be (1) 1 (2) 1.5 (3) 3 (4) 4.5 133. The units digit of the number (2137) (1) 1 (2) 3 (3) 7
98 753

is (4) 9

134. When the number 3 is divided by 5, the remainder is (l) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4 135. The number of digits in 416 525 is (1) 31 (2) 29 (3) 28 (4) 27

1 5

(3) 1

1 4

(4) 1

1 2

136. A 3 digit number 4a3 is added to another 3 digit number 984 to give the 4 digit number 13b7, which is divisible by 11. The value of 3a + 4b is (1) 31 (2) 35 (3) 37 (4) 39 137. On dividing a number by 4, the remainder is 2. The quotient so obtained when divided by 5, leaves the remainder 3 now the quotient so obtained when divided by 6, leaves the remainder 5. The last quotient is 7. The number was (l) 962 (2) 954 (3) 946 (4) 938 138. Four natural numbers when added three at a time give the sums 180, 197, 208 and 222. The mean of the numbers is (1) 89

144. The resistance of a wire is directly proportional to its length and inversely proportional to the square of its radius. Two wires of the same materials have the same resistance and their radii are in the ratio of 9:8. If the length of first wire is 162 cm, the length of the other wire (in cm) is (1) 81 (2) 64 (3) 128 (4) 144 145. A person wants to invest Rs. 1, 40,000 in two types of bonds say A and B. The annual return on bond A is 12% and on bond B, 16%. One of the conditions requires that investment in bond B cannot be more than 40% of the investment in bond A. The maximum (in Rupees) return he can get per year is (1) 13,800 (2) 19,040 (3) 22,400 (4) 23,800 146. The parallel sides of a field which is in the shape of a trapezium are 20 m and 41 m and the remaining- sides are of lengths 10 m and 17 m. The area of the field (in m2) is (1) 366 (2) 305 (3) 244 (4) 193 147. A and B travel around a circular park at uniform speeds in opposite directions, starting from diametrically opposite points. They start at the same time. They meet first after B has travelled 100 m and meet again 60 m before A completes one round. Circumference of the park (in metre) is (1) 240 (2) 360 (3) 420 (4) 480 148. A pipe can fill a water tank in 5 hours but due to a leak in its bottom, it takes 30 minutes longer to fill it. If the tank is

2 3

(2) 80

7 8

(3) 67

1 2

(4) 67

1 4

139. A sum of Rs. 14,500 is divided among X, Y, Z and W such that X and Ys joint share is

11 of Z and. Ws joint share. 18 4 as much as Z. Ws 7

X receives Rs. 1500 and Y receives share will be (1) Rs. 2,000 (3) Rs. 4,000

(2) Rs. 3,000 (4) Rs. 7,000

140. Right now two clocks show the same time. The first clock

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full and the filling pipe is turned off, the time (in hours) in which the tank will be empty due to the leakage is (1) 55 (2) 44 (3) 272 (4) 22 149. A right circular cone of volume A, a right circular cylinder of volume M and a sphere of volume C, all have same radius, and the height of each of the, cone and cylinder is equal to the diameter of the sphere. Then (1) A M + C = 0 (3) 2 A = M + C (2) A + M = C (4) A2- M2 + C = 0

150. An equilateral triangle is inscribed inside a circle and second circle is inscribed inside the equilateral triangle. The ratio of area of the first circle to the area of the second circle is (1) 3: 1 (2) 4: 1 (3) .6: 1 (4) 2: 1

AAO Exam Evening Paper Answer Keys


SECTION I (REASONING ABILITY) 1 4 21 2 41 3 2 4 22 2 42 1 3 3 23 1 43 2 4 1 24 3 44 2 5 2 25 1 45 1 6 4 26 3 46 1 7 4 27 2 47 4 8 1 28 1 48 4 9 3 29 4 49 3 10 3 30 3 50 4 11 2 31 2 51 4 12 4 32 4 52 4 13 3 33 1 53 2 14 1 34 4 54 3 15 2 35 4 55 1 16 4 36 2 56 1 17 4 37 3 57 3 18 2 38 2 58 4 19 1 39 3 59 2 20 4 40 2 60 3

SECTION II (ENGLISH LANGUAGE) 61 1 81 1 62 2 82 3 63 1 83 1 64 3 84 2 65 1 85 4 66 1 86 4 67 3 87 3 68 2 88 3 69 2 89 2 70 4 90 3 71 1 91 1 72 4 92 3 73 3 93 4 74 4 94 1 75 2 95 1 76 3 96 2 77 1 97 3 78 3 98 4 79 1 99 2 80 3 100 3

SECTION III (GENERAL AWARENESS) 101 102 103 104 1 2 4 2 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 3 1 3 3 1 1 3 3 2 3 4 116 117 2 2 118 119 120 2 1 2

SECTION IV (QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE) 121 122 123 124 3 3 1 4 141 142 143 144 2 3 4 3 125 126 127 128 129 130 131 132 133 134 135 2 3 3 4 2 3 4 2 3 4 3 145 146 147 148 149 150 2 3 4 1 1 2 136 137 4 2 138 139 140 4 1 2

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