CHAPTER Chapter No.

6 7 10 16 18 19 21 22 23

Chapter
Epidemiology of Chronic Noncommunicable Diseases & conditions Health programmes in India Preventive Medicine in Obstetrics, Pediatrics & Geriatrics Occupational Health Mental Health Basic medical statistics Health planning & management Health care of the community International Health

No. of MCQ s
28 13 30 22 3 4 7 12 9

Chapter 6: Epidemiology of Chronic Non- communicable Diseases & conditions 1. The most common cause of blindness in India is a. Cataract b. Trachoma

c. Vit A deficiency d. Glaucoma

2. The non- modifiable risk factors for coronary heart disease include the following EXCEPT a. Age c. Hypertension b. Family history d. Genetic factors 3. The following are early warning signs of cancer EXCEPT a. Unexplained weight loss c. Low grade fever b. Change in wart or mole d. Blood loss from natural orifices 4. In India, the main cause of death due to Hypertension is a. Coronary heart disease c. Stroke b. Congestive heart failure d. Renal failure 5. Most sensitive & specific method of screening for small tumors of breast cancer is a. Breast self examination c. Mammography b. Examination by physician d. Thermography

6. Pap smear is a screening test used for a. Breast cancer b. Lung cancer

c. Cervical cancer d. Oesophageal cancer

8. Which is the most reliable test for screening for diabetes mellitus in the population? a. Urine examination for glycosuria c. Random blood sugar b. Fasting blood sugar d. Glucose tolerance test 10. All are characteristics of a chronic disease EXCEPT: a. Leave residual disability b. Are permanent c. Caused by reversible pathological alternation d. Require a long period of observation or care 11. The increased prevalence of chronic disease in developed countries is because of: a. life style pattern c. changing behavioral pattern b. increased life expectancy d. all of the above 12. Most cardiac deaths due to myocardial infarction occur within a. 1 hour c. 1 week b. 24 hours d. 2 weeks

14. Smoking predisposes to coronary heart disease by: a. Promoting atherogenesis b. Adrenergic drive raising Blood pressure & myocardial oxygen demand c. Reducing HDL lipoprotein levels

d. All of the above 15. Single most useful test for identifying individuals at high risk of developing coronary heart disease is a. Blood pressure c. Blood glucose levels b. Serum cholesterol d. Blood Group

17. Which level of prevention involves Prevention of emergence of risk factors of cardiovascular disease? a. Primary c. Secondary b. Primordial d. Tertiary 18. Primordial prevention in coronary heart disease involves a. Control of blood pressure c. Screening high risk persons b. Preserving traditional healthy life style d. Health check-ups 19. Most common cause of hypertension is a. Essential/ unknown origin b. Renal disease

c. Heart disease d. Adrenal hyperplasia

20. The term Tracking of blood pressure refers to a. 24 hour blood pressure monitoring b. Identifying children at risk of developing hypertension at future date c. Pictorial representation of blood pressure d. Blood pressure control with Nifedipine 21. Which of the following virus has been implicated in the causation of rheumatic fever? a. Adenovirus c. Respiratory syncytial virus b. Coxsackie virus d. Rhinovirus 22. Which of the following is most common manifestation of rheumatic fever? a. Carditis c. Polyarthritis b. Chorea d. Subcutaneous nodules 23. All of the following are minor clinical criteria of rheumatic fever EXCEPT: a. fever c. previous history of rheumatic fever b. arthralgia d. pericardial effusion 24. Which level of prevention involves Prevention of recurrence of rheumatic fever by giving benzathine penicillin? a. Primordial c. Secondary b. Primary d. Tertiary 25. Which is the most common cause of cancer among Indian females? a. Cervix c. Body of uterus b. Breast d. Oral cavity 26. Alcohol intake is associated with which of the following malignancy? a. Oesophagus c. Rectal b. Liver d. All of the above

28. Early detection & treatment at pre-invasive or pre-malignant stage is possible in all of the following cancers EXCEPT: a. Cancer c. Oral b. Breast d. Lung 29. Oral cancer is most commonly associated with a. Tobacco b. Alcohol

c. Radiation exposure d. Dental caries

30. Which of the following is not true about diabetes? a. Obesity is a risk factor in Non-insulin dependent diabetes mellitus b. Genetic factors play an important role in Insulin dependent diabetes mellitus c. The prognosis is worse in young diabetics d. Obesity produces resistance to action of insulin 31. The following are high risk groups for diabetes EXCEPT a. Age over 40 b. Family history of diabetes c. Women who have had baby weighing less than 2.5 kg d. Excess weight gain during pregnancy 32. Glycosylated hemoglobin levels give an indication of diabetic control over previous______period. a. 1 week c. 2-3 months b. 2-3 weeks d. 6 months 33. Which of the following is Quetelets index (Body Mass Index)? a. Weight: height c. Height 100 b. Weight / (height)2 d. Actual weight / Desirable weight

Chapter 7: Health programmes in India 1. The multipurpose health worker under National Rural Health Mission is a. Anganwadi worker c. Trained birth attendant b. Accredited Social Health Activist d. Village health guide 2. Which of the following activities related to trachoma control is part of the National Programme for control of Blindness? a. Mass chemotherapy c. Surgical correction b. Selective chemotherapy d. All of the above

3. Five clean practices as indicated under the strategy for neonatal tetanus elimination include all of the following EXCEPT a. Clean hands of the attendant c. Clean clothes b. Clean delivery surface d. Clean cord tie 4. The Backbone of National Tuberculosis Programme is a a. State tuberculosis programme c. Primary health centre b. District tuberculosis programme d. Sub-centers 5. Which month is observed yearly as Anti- Malaria Month? a. June c. August b. July d. October 6. Sentinel survelliance is the strategy adopted in a. Acute respiratory disease control programme b. Diarrhoeal disease control programme c. Revised national tuberculosis control programme d. National AIDS control programme 7. Under Revised National Tuberculosis Control Programme, patients presenting with symptoms suspicious of tuberculosis will be screened through ___ sputum smear examination a. 2 c. 5 b. 3 d. 7 8. National health programmes have been launched by central government for a. Control / eradication of communicable diseases b. Improving the environmental sanitation c. Control of population d. all of the above 9. Active surveillance in malaria is carried out by a. Village health guide b. Multipurpose workers

c. Anganwadi workers d. Local dais

a. b. c. d.

11. Component of National AIDS Control Programme are Establishment of surveillance centers Identification & screening of high risk groups Control of STDs & condom programme All of the above

12. According to National Blood Safety Policy, every unit of blood must be tested for a. HIV c. Malaria b. Hepatitis B d. All of the above 13. Expanded programme of Immunization (EPI) includes all of the following vaccines EXCEPT a. BCG b. DPT c. Measles vaccine d. Rubella vaccine

Chapter 10: Preventive Medicine in Obstetrics, Pediatrics & Geriatrics 1. The minimum number of antenatal visits required during pregnancy is c. Five a. Two b. Three d. Six 2. Best single parameter for assessing physical growth is a. Height for age c. Weight for age b. Chest circumference d. Head circumference 3. Growth chart or Road to Health is a visible display of a. Height for age c. Height for weight b. Weight for height d. Weight for age 4. Low birth weight is defined as birth weight less than _____ kg a. 1.5 c. 2.5 b. 2.0 d. 3.0 5. Exclusive breast feeding should be continued till ____ months of age a. 4 months c. 6 months b. 5 months d. 7 months

6. Single most important factor determining survival chances of newborn child is a. Low birth weight c. Multiple gestation b. Birth order d. Intrauterine infection

7. The following voluntary organizations work in the field of geriatric health EXCEPT a. Help age India c. Hamsafar Trust b. Dignity foundation d. Age well foundation 8. Legal age for the marriage for girls in India is a. 15 years b. 18 years

c. 19 years d. 21 years

9. All the following complications are commonly associated with anaemia in pregnancy EXCEPT a. Premature birth c. Post partum haemorrhage b. Puerperal sepsis d. Erythroblastosis foetalis 10. On an average the weight gain of a normal healthy woman during antenatal period is a. 5-7 c. 10-12 b. 8-9 d. 13-14

11. An antenatal mother requires an additional daily intake of __________ calories a. 250 c. 450 b. 350 d. 550

12. Ideally weaning should commence at ____ month of age. a. 3rd c. 5th th b. 4 d. 6th 13. If the birth weight is 3 kg, by the end of one year of age it should become approximately a. 6 kg c. 12 kg b. 9 kg d. 15 kg 14. The average length of 50 cm at birth increases by a. 10% c. 50% b. 30% d. 40% 15. All the following are at-risk babies EXCEPT a. Twins b. Low birth weight c. Occurrence of acute infectious disease like common cold d. Short birth interval 16. In The Children Act 1960 defines delinquent" as a a. child who has not attained the age of 16 years b. child who has been sexually molested c. child who has committed an offence d. child who doesnt have even a single parent

17. The grass root level worker in Integrated Mother and Child Development Services Project (ICDS) is a. Village health guide c. Female health worker b. Anganwadi worker d. Health supervisor

18. The classical triad of congenital rubella syndrome includes all EXCEPT a. deafness c. cataracts b. cardiac malformations d. cleft lip 19. The government of India has initiated a programme against anemia in which ____ mg of elemental iron & ____ mcg of folic acid are distributed daily to the pregnant woman through antenatal clinics a. 60, 500 c. 250 , 600 b. 100, 500 d. 100 , 750

20. In India it is recommended that school meal should provide at least _____ daily calorie requirement & _____ of daily protein requirement of the child a. 1/3rd , 1/4th c. 1/3rd , 2/3rd rd b. 1/3 , 1/2 d. 1/4th , 1/2 21. In one Integrated Mother and Child Development Services Project (ICDS) there are about _____ anganwadi workers a. 20 c. 100 b. 50 d. 1000 22. All the following micronutrients are rich in human milk as compared to cows milk EXCEPT: a. vitamin A c. copper b. vitamin C d. sodium 23. Which of the following genetic composition is associated with high incidence of juvenile delinquency a. XXY c. XYY b. XXX d. XY

24. All the following constituents are high in human milk than in cows milk except: a. protein c. taurine b. cystine d. lactose 25. Term babies are those who are born between ______ weeks of gestation a. 34-37 c. 42-46 b. 37-42 d. 35-38 26. A variation of _____ standard deviation from either side of the mean is considered as normal limits a. 1 c. 3 b. 2 d. 4 27. The most common cause of maternal mortality in India is a. abortion c. severe bleeding b. anemia d. malposition of the child 28. Guthries test is a mass screening test for a. neonatal hypothyroidism b. congenital dislocation of hip 29. The largest single age category of mortality is a. Post neonatal mortality b. infant mortality

c. phenylketonuria d. galactosemia

c. maternal mortality d. neonatal mortality

30. The first six months of lactation demand approximately an additional _____ kilo calories per day a. 300 c. 600 b. 450 d. 750

Chapter 16: Occupational Health 1. Fitting the job to the worker is a. Emporiatrics b. Ergonomics

c. Euthenics d. Epidemiology

2. Tuberculosis occurs commonly in which of the following pneumoconiosis a. Silicosis c. Bagassosis b. Anthracosis d. Asbestosis 3. The Factory Act recommends provision of crche facilities if number of women workers exceeds a. 10 c. 60 b. 30 d. 100 4. The duration of maternity benefit according to Employees State Insurance Act is a. 6 weeks c. 16 weeks b. 12 weeks d. 20 weeks 5. The pneumoconiosis caused due to the ingestion of coal dust is called a. Anthracosis c. Asbestosis b. Silicosis d. Siderosis 6. Clinical symptoms of lead poisoning are associated with blood lead levels of ____ micrograms/ 100 ml a. 50 c. 70 b. 60 d. 80 7. According to The Factories Act, the total number of hours of work in a week including overtime shall not exceed a. 40 c. 60 b. 50 d. 70 8. a. b. c. d. Ergonomics is concerned with Improving the genetic endowment of human population Fitting the job to the worker Environmental manipulation according to human needs Improving the agricultural production

9. Conjunctivitis & keratitis (Welders flash) is caused due to the exposure to: a. Heat c. Ultraviolet radiation b. Vibration d. Ionizing radiation 10. Genetic changes may occur due to the exposure to a. Heat b. Noise c. Ionizing radiation d. Ultraviolet radiation 11. Occupational hazard related to cold are all EXCEPT a. Chilblains b. Erythrocyanosis

c. Frostbite d. Caissons disease 12. Respirable dust is the fraction of dust particles smaller than ____ microns a. 0.1 b. 1 c. 5 d. 10 13. All of the following are inorganic dusts EXCEPT a. Silica b. Cotton c. Coal d. Asbestos 14. Which of the following diseases may be encountered as an occupational hazard? a. Leptospirosis b. Brucellosis c. Anthrax d. All of the above 15. Pneumoconiosis is caused by all EXCEPT a. Coal dust b. Silica c. Chromium d. Asbestos 16. Best control measure available to combat silicosis is a. Rigorous dust control measures b. Periodic X-ray chest c. Pre-placement examination d. Adequate personal hygiene 17. X-ray chest shows ground glass appearance in lower two-thirds of lung in a. Anthracosis b. Silicosis c. Asbestosis d. Farmers lung 18. Farmers lung results from exposure to a. Sugarcane dust b. Cotton fibre dust c. Grain dust d. Tobacco 19. Pre-placement examination for industrial worker is a. Examination of workers at the time of employment b. Examination of workers everyday before going to job c. Examination of workers periodically while on job d. None of the above 20. Phossy jaw is caused by occupational exposure to

a. b. c. d.

Asbestos Phosphorus Mercury Lead

21. In which year did The Employees State Insurance Act come into being? a. 1948 b. 1952 c. 1962 d. 1975 22. According to Employees State Insurance Act , Maternity benefit is allowed at what percentage of wages ? a. 100 b. 70 c. 50 d. 25

Chapter 18: Mental Health 1. The following are major mental illness EXCEPT a. Schizophrenia b. Manic depressive psychosis 2. Which of the following is not a narcotic? a. Heroin b. Codeine c. Methodone 3. All are symptoms of drug addiction EXCEPT a. Impaired memory & concentration b. Excessive appetite & weight gain

c. Paranoia d. Obsessive compulsive neurosis

d. Caffeine

c. Slurring of speech d. Unsteady gait & Tremors

Chapter 19: Basic medical statistics

1. Sum of all values divided by the numbers in the series is a. Mean c. Standard Deviation b. Mode d. Median

2. The most commonly occurring value in a distribution of data is called a. Mean c. Median b. Mode d. Frequent value 3. The following are statistical averages EXCEPT a. Mean b. Median

c. Mode d. Standard deviation

4. All is true about normal curve EXCEPT a. Bell shaped b. Symmetrical

c. Area under curve is one d. Curvilinear

Chapter 21: Health planning & management 1. The time taken for any project is determined by a. System analysis b. Input output analysis

c. Network analysis d. Working sampling

2. Which of the following statements best explains the purpose of planning? a. To match the limited resources with many problems b. To eliminate wasteful expenditure c. To develop the best course of action to accomplish a defined objective d. All of the above

3. The critical path method (CPM) in health planning & management refers to a. The shortest path taken to complete the project b. The longest path taken to complete the project c. The midpoint for reviewing the project d. Inventory control 4. Quantitative methods of management include all of the following except a. Cost-benefit analysis b. Cost-effective analysis c. Planning Programming Budgeting System (PPBS)

d. Management by objectives 5. The concept of Primary Health Centre was introduced into the Indian Health System consequent on the report of a. Bhore Committee b. Mudaliar Committee c. Chadha Committee d. Shrivastav Committee 6. Guiding principles is the most important characteristic of a. Policy b. Procedure c. Schedule d. Plan 7. What is defined as the ultimate desired state towards which objectives and resources are directed? a. target b. goal c. mission d. indicator

Chapter 22: Health care of the community

1. Health care delivery system in India is a. One tier level b. Two tier level

c. Three tier level d. Four tier level

2. The worker at the village level who delivers services under the Integrated Mother and Child Development Services (ICDS) Project is a. Village health guide c. Trained dais b. Accredited Social Health Activist d. Anganwadi worker 3. If a community is aware of its health & welfare & participates actively for the promotion of community it is known as Community __________ a. participation c. planning b. orientation d. administration 4. A primary health centre caters to a population of a. 30,000 b. 35,000

c. 40,000 d. 50,000

5. Which of the following is not a grass root level worker? a. Village health guide c. Anganwadi worker b. Trained dai d. Health worker female 6. At the village level, sputum is collected and fixed by a. Anganwadi worker c. Health worker male b. Village health guide d. Health worker female

7. The components of primary health care as envisaged in Alma Ata declaration include all of the following except a. Providing essential drugs b. Prevention & control of locally endemic disease c. Adequate supply of safe water & basic sanitation d. Sound referral system

8. The suggested norms of doctor-population ratio for India is a. 1:2500 c. 1:4000 b. 1:3500 d. 1:4500

9. All are guidelines for selection of village health guides except a. Preferably woman b. Full time worker c. Acceptable to all sections d. Education up to 6th standard 10. Anganwadi workers are under a. Ministry of health & family welfare b. Ministry of labour c. Integrated Mother and Child Development Services (ICDS) Project d. National Rural Health Mission 11. In the treatment of diarrhea, health worker male helps by providing a. Oral Rehydration Solution packets b. Home made fluids c. Antispasmodics d. Antibiotics 12.The Hind Kusht Nivaran Sangh essentially deals with a. Tuberculosis b. Poliomyelitis c. Leprosy d. Filariais

Chapter 23: International Health

1. The W.H.O. Theme for the year 2013 is a. Hypertension b. Aging & health 2. World Health Day is celebrated every year on a. 24th March b. 7th April

c. Anti microbial resistance d. Working together for health c. 11th July d. 1st December

3. GOBI campaign of UNICEF includes the following EXCEPT a. Growth monitoring c. Breast feeding b. Oral dehydration d. Iodine supplementation 4. India is situated in which of the following regional organizations of WHO a. South East Asia c. Eastern Mediteranean b. Western Pacific d. Western Asia 5. Oral rehydration therapy is an excellent example of a. Equitable distribution c. Community participation b. Intersectoral co-ordination d. Appropriate technology 6. The headquarters of WHO is at a. Paris b. Rome 7. Emporiatrics is a science dealing with a. Health of members of the royal families b. Health of travellers

c. Geneva d. New York

c. Specialized branch of geriatric medicine d. None of the above

8. GOBIFFF campaign in India is supported by which agency? a. Oasis c. Bill- Melinda Gates Foundation b. Rockefeller foundation d. UNICEF

9. a. b. c. d.

The World Health Organization came into existence in 1943 1946 1947 1948