PSYCH 1XX3 QUIZ ANSWERS DEVELOPMENT

Robert is an 18 month-old who is participating in a study where he is exposed to different musical notes. He is able to control the length of presentation of a particular compilation of notes by showing an increased physiological and behavioural response to this stimulus. Which type of study is Robert participating in?

A)

Preferential looking method

* B)

High-amplitude sucking method

C)

Habituation method

D)

Event-related potential method

Helen has a high-pitched voice, while her sister, Lulu, has a low-pitched voice. Assume that the allele for a high-pitched voice (H) is dominant over the allele for a low-pitched voice (h), and that the trait follows a simple dominant-recessive inheritance pattern. Which of the following statements would be FALSE?

A)

Lulu could only have an hh genotype.

B)

Both Helen and Lulu have different genotypes and phenotypes.

C)

Helen could have either a HH genotype or an Hh genotype.

D)

The only genotype that either of Helen and Lulu's parents could have is the Hh genotype.

Karen and Tony are thinking of having a baby. Assume that long fingers are a dominant trait and short fingers are a recessive trait. Which of the following scenarios would make the child have the highest probability of having long fingers?

A)

Karen is homozygous for short fingers and Tony is heterozygous for long fingers.

B)

Both Karen's and both Tony's parents are homozygous for short fingers.

C)

Both Karen and Tony are heterozygous for long fingers.

D)

Both Karen's parents were homozygous for short fingers and both Tony's parents were homozygous for long fingers.

Consider a twin-study case in which monozygotic and dizygotic twins are compared to examine the genetic and environmental influences on the personality traits of openness and extraversion. It is found that the monozygotic correlation for openness is very high, while the dizygotic correlation is very low. For extraversion, it is found that the monozygotic and dizygotic correlations are approximately equal. What does this say about the role of genetic and environmental factors in each of the traits?

A)

Openness is affected by genetic factors more than environmental factors; Extraversion is affected by genetic factors and environmental factors approximately equally.

B)

Openness is affected by genetic factors more than environmental factors; Extraversion is affected by environmental factors more than genetic factors.

C)

Openness is affected by environmental factors more than genetic factors; Extraversion is affected by genetic factors and environmental factors approximately equally.

D)

Openness is affected by environmental factors more than genetic factors; Extraversion is affected by genetic factors more than environmental factors.

Shelby wants to conduct an experiment that tests whether infants can tell the difference between their mother's voice and another female voice. Which of the following methods would be best for this purpose?

A)

Preference Method

B)

High-Amplitude Sucking Method

C)

ERP

D)

Habituation Method

Dr. Cooper is examining the influence of genes and environment on children who were born in the 1970s, 1980s, and 1990s and observes similar trends for passive genotype/environment correlations. What study design is Dr. Cooper most likely using and what results would support the observed trends?

A)

Using a cross sectional study, Dr. Cooper concludes that the environment we place ourselves in is representative of our genotype, where this influence on our environment is increasingly prevalent over time.

B)

Using a cross sectional study, Dr. Cooper concludes that the environments that parents place their children in is complementary to their genotype but becomes less influential over time.

C)

Using a longitudinal study, Dr. Cooper concludes that the influence of the responses of others to the dispositions of these children decreases over time.

D)

Using a longitudinal study, Dr. Cooper concludes that our genotype establishes a range of possibilities for the expression of our phenotype but this influence on our environment becomes less prevalent over time.

Which of the following is consistent with an infant's cognitive abilities?

A)

Infants would not dishabituate to a broken rod, indicating that they are unable to perceive a rod as being continuous when it passes behind an object.

B)

Infants would change their behaviour based on another person's reaction to that behaviour, indicating that they are able to understand what others are thinking about them.

C)

Infants would dishabituate to a ball stopped in midair, indicating that they have expectations about what is physically possible or impossible.

D)

Infants would not dishabituate to a slide of 2 items when they had habituated to slides of 3 items, indicating that they are unable to differentiate between small numbers.

Which of the following correctly reflects sensory development?

A)

At about 4 years old, a child's vision is comparable to that of an adult.

B)

Infants do not begin to develop taste and odor preferences until after birth.

C)

Infants are more sensitive to hearing lower frequency ranges at birth.

D)

At about 1 month old, infants begin to prefer hearing their native language.

Evidence suggests that infants enjoy edutainment DVDs. From the evidence reviewed in the live lecture, what is the best explanation for this?

A)

The Orienting Reflex the intense stimuli capture attention.

B)

Critical Periods this is a time when infants must have this extra experience.

C)

Biological Exuberance the massive number of neurons are firing.

D)

The Mozart Effect the accompanying classical music is calming.

Research has demonstrated that the trait of being an alcohol low responder is passed on in families and is correlated with alcoholism. However, it remains unclear whether this effect is due to genetics or the environment. How might we best evaluate this problem?

C)

Brain imaging of alcoholics and their offspring

D)

Adoption and twin studies

Question 1

1 / 1 point

You are trying to decide which song is more appealing to a baby, Mozart's 4th symphony or his 5th symphony. In which scenario have you correctly determined that the baby prefers the 4th symphony?

A)

The baby's EEG response shows a large spike in response to the 4th symphony and a much smaller spike in response to the 5th symphony.

*
B) If you play the symphonies from two speakers on opposite sides of the room simultaneously and the baby orients toward the speaker playing the 4th

symphony.

C)

If you play both audio tracks at the same time from two different speakers, and the baby first orients toward the speaker playing the 4th symphony.

D)

If you play the 5th symphony first, and the baby becomes habituated, but when you switch to the 4th symphony, the baby shows dishabituation.

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Question 2

1 / 1 point

Consider a twin-study case in which monozygotic and dizygotic twins are compared to examine the genetic and environmental influences on the personality traits of openness and extraversion. It is found that the monozygotic correlation for openness is very high, while the dizygotic correlation is very low. For extraversion, it is found that the monozygotic and dizygotic correlations are approximately equal. What does this say about the role of genetic and environmental factors in each of the traits?

A)

Openness is affected by environmental factors more than genetic factors; Extraversion is affected by genetic factors more than environmental factors.

B)

Openness is affected by environmental factors more than genetic factors; Extraversion is affected by genetic factors and environmental factors approximately equally.

*
C) Openness is affected by genetic factors more than environmental factors; Extraversion is affected by environmental factors more than genetic factors.

D)

Openness is affected by genetic factors more than environmental factors; Extraversion is affected by genetic factors and environmental factors approximately equally.

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Question 3

1 / 1 point

Which of the following statements would not describe the Interactionist Perspective of development?

A)

Taylor grows to be an above average height, which helps her to be an even better basketball player.

B)

Lisa inherits her mother's strong musical abilities and begins taking piano lessons at a young age, eventually becoming a concert pianist.

C)

Frank is born with a cataract in one of his eyes, severely impairing his vision and making it more difficult to learn how to walk.

*
D) Aaron is born prematurely, and as a result experiences several significant health issues throughout his life.

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Question 4

1 / 1 point

"Skin-turn-green-itis" is a recessive sex-linked disorder associated with the X chromosome. Which of the following is correct?

A)

Males can be carriers without suffering from the disorder.

*
B) The disorder is less common in females.

C)

Only males can inherit this disorder.

D)

The disorder is more common in females.

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Question 5

1 / 1 point

Li and her twin sister Ming came from the same sperm and ovum. However, both twins were put up for adoption and grew up in very different homes. Dr. Chen is interested in examining how similar Li and Ming score on an intelligence test. Which of the following is most likely?

*
A) Despite being raised apart, Li and Ming will likely show a high correlation between their intelligence test scores, but probably not as high as if they were raised together. This indicates the interaction between genetic and environmental influences.

B)

Because Dr. Chen is a behaviorist, he expects the behaviour of both Li and Ming to be very similar, as they share 100% of their genes. He does in fact find that the twins show a high correlation between their intelligence test scores.

C)

Because Li's and Ming's biological parents were both extremely intelligent individuals, both twins will show above average performance on the intelligence test administered.

D)

Since these twins were raised apart, they will likely show little to no correlation between their intelligence test scores. This fits with prior research showing that the environment is more important than genetic factors in determining intelligence.

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Question 6

1 / 1 point

Min is a 9-month-old infant who has a 3-year-old brother, Woojin. Their parents decided that they should try to teach Min how to speak at the same time as they teach Woojin. What problems will Min's and Woojin's parents likely encounter?

A)

Because Min is in a critical period for language development, she will likely learn language more readily than Woojin, as he is likely past that critical period for developing language.

B)

Because Min is in the sensitive period for language development, she will likely take a learning approach to developing language, while Woojin, who may be past that sensitive period, will likely rely on maturation to develop language.

C)

Min will likely use a learning approach to develop language, while Woojin may use maturation in his development of language. This will lead one child to outperform the other in developing language.

*
D) Min has likely not matured enough to be able to make the complex sounds associated with language, while Woojin may find this task easier.

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DevText

Question 7

1 / 1 point

Which of the following is most correct regarding the research methods used in developmental research?

A)

The use of existing levels of a variable to group subjects is a commonly used research method to examine the two types of developmental questions: quantitative and qualitative

B)

Random assignment to independent variables is a commonly used research method to examine the two types of developmental questions: quantitative and qualitative

C)

Random assignment to independent variables is a common research method used to examine what normal changes occur throughout development and why these changes occur.

*
D) The use of existing levels of a variable to group subjects is a commonly used research method to examine what normal changes occur throughout development and why these changes occur.

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Question 8

1 / 1 point

Which of the following correctly reflects sensory development?

A)

Infants do not begin to develop taste and odor preferences until after birth.

B)

At about 4 years old, a child's vision is comparable to that of an adult.

C)

At about 1 month old, infants begin to prefer hearing their native language.

*
D) Infants are more sensitive to hearing lower frequency ranges at birth.

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DevLL

Question 9

1 / 1 point

As presented in the live lecture, which of the following provides strong support for the case to present extra environmental stimulation to promote enhanced cognitive development during the first three years of life?

A)

None of these lines of evidence provides strong support for this case.

B)

The developing infant brain has more synaptic connections than an adult brain.

C)

Listening to classical music increases performance on cognitive tests.

D)

Depriving normal input during a critical period leads to abnormal development.

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Question 10

1 / 1 point

A scientist wants to extend research on the Mozart Effect and compares middle school students performance on several cognitive tasks after listening to either white noise or Polynesian folk music. Interestingly, the Polynesian folk music group performs better. Does this support the existence of a more general music effect on infant brain development?

A)

Yes, the fact that the Mozart Effect replicated with other music should bolster our belief in a general music effect on infant brain development.

B)

No, the styles of music are too dissimilar to make a conclusion on infant brain development.

C)

Yes, the scientist has corrected the earlier problem of only using adult participants allowing a conclusion to be made about infant brain development.

*
D) No, the control conditions are still not sufficient to allow a conclusion to be made about infant brain development

EVOLUTION In a certain species of giraffe, neck length is heritable. Most giraffes possess long necks so that they can reach the most nutritious leaves at the top of trees. Some giraffes possess shorter necks and are unable to reach the tops of the trees, but instead feed on less nutritious leaves at the bottom of trees. During a drought, the leaves at the top of the tree die leaving only leaves at the bottom of the tree. Long-necked giraffes are unable to bend down to reach the leaves at the bottom of the tree. What will happen to the average neck length in giraffes during the drought?

A)

Average neck length will be unaffected by climate conditions.

B)

Average neck length will be longer than before the drought.

C)

Average neck length will be shorter than before the drought.

D)

Average neck length will be the same as before the drought.

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Question 2

1 / 1 point

Which of the following scenarios would not be an example of the good of the group?

A)

A whale circles around a group of small fish to confuse them so it can more easily pounce and catch the most fish.

B)

A pair of hawks always hunt together and share the food they catch.

C)

A large family of farmers shares the responsibility of gathering food every day for the family, thus no single individual ever has to forage multiple times in one week.

D)

A group of zebras has a watcher who looks out for predators as the rest of the group eats plenty of food. They switch who is watching every few minutes.

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Question 3

1 / 1 point

Which of the following is not true about Darwin's finches?

A)

The beak size of finches is nicely explained through the three essential components of natural selection.

B)

Beak sizes were permanently changed in this population even after the drought because finches can get more food from big seeds.

C)

Birds with large and heavy beaks had a greater chance of survival after the drought because they could eat big seeds.

D)

The beak size of Darwin's finches is a great example of selective transmission.

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Question 4

0 / 1 point

A homogeneous population of 4 leaf clovers is growing in Zack's backyard. It is autumn now and leaves have fallen and covered all of the clovers. Without sunlight, the clovers will die. What is likely to happen to the clovers?

A)

Natural selection will act upon the clover population so that randomly selected clovers will survive and reproduce.

B)

All of the clovers in Zack's backyard will die unless the leaves on top of them are removed.

C)

Natural selection will act upon the clover population so that the clovers that require the least sunlight will survive and reproduce.

D)

Natural selection will act upon the clover population so that the tallest clovers will survive and reproduce.

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Which of the following is true regarding the three essential components of natural selection?

A)

Only individual differences lead to differential reproduction.

B)

Both heritability and differential reproduction lead to individual differences.

C)

Only heritability leads to differential reproduction.

D)

Both individual differences and heritability lead to differential reproduction.

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EvoText

Question 6

1 / 1 point

Dr. Cheung is conducting a study on mate preferences in males and females. Considering evolutionary theory, which of the following hypothetical males is a female participant likely to rate as the most preferable long-term mate?

A)

A younger male who is willing to engage in casual sex, because he is of reproductive age.

B)

A same-aged male who recently fathered a child, because it indicates he is fertile.

C)

A younger male who desires multiple sexual partners, because it shows high levels of testosterone.

D)

An older male with resources to invest in her, because he is able to provide for her children.

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Question 7

1 / 1 point

A mother bat has caught two delicious mice to feed her two offspring. The mother bat has to decide how to allocate these mice, considering that ingesting one mouse increases an offspring's fitness by 3 and ingesting two mice increases an offspring's fitness by 5. Which of the following correctly explains the most beneficial scenario for the mother bat?

A)

It would be most beneficial for the mother to give one mouse to each of her two offspring because, based on inclusive fitness, her fitness would be 3.

B)

It is most beneficial for the mother to give one of her two offspring both mice because, based on inclusive fitness, her fitness would be 2.5.

C)

It would be most beneficial for the mother to give one mouse to each of her two offspring because, based on inclusive fitness, her fitness would be 2.5.

D)

It is most beneficial for the mother to give one of her two offspring both mice because, based on inclusive fitness, her fitness would be 3.

It was demonstrated in live lecture that men tend to make riskier decisions than women. How is this related to reproductive fitness in a natural fertility population?

A)

Men have far more children than women on average. This causes men to be more likely to take risky actions that increase their fitness.

B)

Men value physical attractiveness in a mate more highly than females. This causes men to have far more children than women on average.

C)

Women have far more children than men on average. This causes women to be less likely to take risky actions that reduce their fitness.

D)

Some men have very few children and some men have many children. This causes men to be more likely to take risky actions that increase their fitness.

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Question 9

1 / 1 point

It is reported that when a baby is born, maternal family members comment on how much the baby resembles the father. Which of the following represents the best explanation for this observation?

A)

High metabolic cost of sperm.

B)

Income inequality.

C)

Unemployment.

D)

Genetic cuckoldry.

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EvoRecall

Question 10

1 / 1 point

Which of the following statements on evolution and natural selection is correct?

A)

Humans are likely descendants of monkeys since we share 98% of our genomes.

B)

The goal of evolution is to perfect a species which can live and thrive in any environment.

C)

Natural selection acts upon differential survival between individual members of a species.

D)

Mutation is often harmful, despite being a mechanism through which natural selection operates.

NEUROSCIENCE
What would be the most likely result of faulty sodium-potassium pumps in a neuron?

A)

An increase in the time between action potentials.

B)

Hyperpolarization of the neuron at rest.

C)

An increase in the amplitude of an action potential.

D)

An increase in the duration of an action potential.

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Question 2

1 / 1 point

What would be the effect on depression if a drug caused an increased number of vesicles containing serotonin to reach the presynaptic membrane?

A)

There would be an increase of serotonin in the synapse, likely improving the patient's depression.

B)

There would be a decrease of serotonin in the synapse, likely improving the patient's depression.

C)

There would be a decrease of serotonin in the synapse, likely worsening the patient's depression.

D)

There would be an increase of serotonin in the synapse, likely worsening the patient's depression.

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Question 3

1 / 1 point

Which of the following observations would not be expected from a disorder that caused a person to have sodium voltage-gated channels that remained open at resting state?

A)

The inside of the cell would become depolarized.

B)

Action potentials would never fire.

C)

Excess sodium would enter the cell.

D)

Electrostatic forces would push potassium ions out of the cell due to the large number of sodium ions entering the cell.

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Question 4

1 / 1 point

Logan suffers from depression. Logan also has a rare genetic disorder that causes his body to reuptake large amounts of norepinephrine through all of his presynaptic neurons. What pharmacological treatment would best solve both Logan's depression and genetic disorder?

A)

Norepinephrine

B)

Tricyclic Antidepressants

C)

Selective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitors (SSRIs)

D)

Serotonin

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Neuro1Recall

Question 5

1 / 1 point

Which of the following regarding voltage-gated ion channels is correct?

A)

Voltage-gated potassium channels open when the membrane potential is near 0mV.

B)

Voltage-gated sodium channels open when the membrane potential is near 0mV.

C)

Voltage-gated sodium channels open when the membrane potential reaches the action potential threshold.

D)

Voltage-gated potassium channels open when the membrane potential reaches the action potential threshold.

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Question 6

1 / 1 point

Which of the following statements best describes both temporal and spatial summation of excitatory post-synaptic potentials (EPSPs)?

A)

With temporal summation, multiple EPSPs occur one after another from the same presynaptic neuron. With spatial summation, EPSPs occur simultaneously to multiple different postsynaptic neurons.

B)

With temporal summation, multiple EPSPs occur simultaneously from the same presynaptic neuron. With spatial summation, EPSPs occur simultaneously to multiple different postsynaptic neurons.

C)

With temporal summation, multiple EPSPs occur simultaneously from the same presynaptic neuron. With spatial summation, multiple EPSPs occur simultaneously from different presynaptic neurons.

D)

With temporal summation, multiple EPSPs occur one after another from the same presynaptic neuron. With spatial summation, multiple EPSPs occur simultaneously from different presynaptic neurons.

Which of the following best describes the function of synaptic vesicles?

A)

Vesicles are intracellular sacs that bind neurotransmitters on the exterior of the vesicular membranes.

B)

When an action potential is triggered, vesicles bind to the postsynaptic membrane and allow neurotransmitters to travel into the postsynaptic neuron.

C)

The vesicle type (rather than neurotransmitter itself) determines the type and function of the neuron.

D)

Vesicles spill their contents into the synaptic cleft to convert an electrical signal into a chemical signal.

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Neuro1Text

Question 8

1 / 1 point

Which of the following statements about refractory periods is most correct?

A)

The absolute refractory period is caused by the temporary closure of the voltagegated sodium channels, such that sodium cannot enter and depolarize the cell enough to reach the threshold for another action potential.

B)

The relative refractory period is caused by excess sodium leaving the cell so that the cell becomes hyperpolarized, making it unlikely to fire another action potential.

C)

The absolute refractory period is caused by excess potassium leaving the cell so that the cell becomes hyperpolarized, making it unlikely to fire another action potential.

D)

The relative refractory period is caused by the temporary closure of the voltage-gated potassium channels, such that potassium cannot enter and depolarize the cell enough to reach the threshold for another action potential.

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Question 9

1 / 1 point

Potassium chloride (KCl) is added to one compartment of a container containing immobile negatively charged organic ions (A-). This compartment is attached to another compartment through a tiny opening between them. According to the textbook, which of the following statements is correct?

A)

Eventually there will be an unequal concentration of K+ and Cl- in each compartment as a result of balancing forces.

B)

Initially, diffusion will want to move the Cl- ions into the second compartment while electrostatic force keeps Cl- in the first compartment.

C)

Eventually there will be an equal concentration of K+ and Cl- in each compartment as a result of balancing forces.

D)

Initially, diffusion and electrostatic pressure will act to keep K+ ions in the first compartment only.

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Neuro1LL

Question 10

1 / 1 point

Which of the following statements regarding top-down processing correctly describes its role in perception?

A)

Top-down processing is maladaptive in all situations as it leads to false perceptions.

B)

Top-down processing uses prior expectations to give meaning to sensory information.

C)

Top-down processing emphasizes visual information to interpret the world.

D)

Top-down processing does not require sensory information to influence our

perceptions.

NEUROSCIENCE II

Question 1

1 / 1 point

Dr. House plans to use neuroimaging techniques to determine whether certain behaviour triggers an immediate response in a brain region of interest as well as examine the fine details of the region. Which combination of neuroimaging techniques should Dr. House use?

A)

MRI and fMRI.

B)

ERP and MRI.

C)

CT and ERP.

D)

CT and fMRI.

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Question 2

1 / 1 point

Dr. Dirk notices that his patient has suffered a lesion to the medial dorsal caudal region of the brain. Which of the following most accurately describes where that lesion is located?

A)

The lesion is along the side of the brain, near the top of the brain, and at the back of the brain.

B)

The lesion is along the midline of the brain, near the bottom of the brain, and at the front of the brain.

C)

The lesion is along the midline of the brain, near the top of the brain, and at the back of the brain.

D)

The lesion is along the side of the brain, near the bottom of the brain, and at the front of the brain.

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Question 3

0 / 1 point

How would a physician describe a lesion at the top of the brain, at the front of the brain, and located close to the midline?

A)

Dorsal caudel lateral lesion.

B)

Ventral caudel lateral lesion.

C)

Dorsal rostral medial lesion.

D)

Ventral rostral medial lesion.

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Question 4

1 / 1 point

Seymour was once a star football player for his school team. After a hit to the head, Seymour was rendered functionally blind. After a lengthy hospital visit, he regained his vision, but notices that he still has trouble following the path of the football in the air. Which cortical lobe was damaged and subsequently recovered and which cortical lobe remained damaged, respectively?

A)

Frontal Lobe; Temporal Lobe

B)

Temporal Lobe; Parietal Lobe

C)

Temporal Lobe; Occipital Lobe

D)

Occipital Lobe; Parietal Lobe

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Neuro2Recall

Question 5

1 / 1 point

Which of the following is most correct regarding functional neuroimaging techniques?

A)

Functional magnetic resonance imaging (fMRI) is considered the most invasive of the neuroimaging techniques discussed.

B)

Positron emission tomography (PET) measures blood oxygen use across the brain while the subject performs a task.

C)

Electroencephalogram (EEG) provides a rough image of the overall activity of populations of neurons.

D)

A computed tomography (CT) scan provides a very high resolution picture of brain structures.

Which of the following is true regarding the thalamus?

A)

It is located dorsal to the amygdala.

B)

It is located rostral to the hypothalamus.

C)

It relays information about all the sensory modalities.

D)

It is considered to be part of the midbrain.

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Question 7

1 / 1 point

Which of the following correctly describes the function of a structure within the hindbrain?

A)

The cerebellum is responsible for visual reflexes and correcting errors in eye

A)

Measures of balance and motor coordination

B)

Preferential looking paradigm

movement.

B)

The pons is responsible for processing of visual information.

C)

The reticular formation is involved in arousal and motivation, and plays a role in posture and equilibrium.

D)

The medulla is responsible for conscious control of behaviours such a breathing, heart rate and digestion.

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Question 8

1 / 1 point

Which of the following is not true regarding the hypothalamus?

A)

It has neurons that extend into the anterior pituitary.

B)

It influences when an individual eats.

C)

It releases hormones that act on the specific areas of the pituitary gland.

D)

It influences when an individual lactates.

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Neuro2Text

Question 9

0 / 1 point

Which of the following statements regarding the brain is correct?

A)

The majority of cortical surface area is devoted to primary sensory areas.

B)

The cerebellum is the most evolutionarily recent area of the brain to develop.

C)

Despite being smaller, humans have a larger cortical surface than elephants.

D)

There are an unequal number of neurons in each hemisphere of the brain.

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Neuro2LL

Question 10

1 / 1 point

Which of the following individuals best demonstrates behavioural effects associated with hemispatial neglect?

A)

Alice, who only eats the food on the right side of her plate.

B)

Tony, who forgets to turn on his headlights because the switch for them is to the left of his steering wheel.

C)

Jen, who does not describe the left side of a scene despite shifting her gaze across the entire scene.

D)

Adam, who has damage to his left parietal lobe.

VISION
Betty was playing with her friends when she realized that she could perceive shorter light wavelengths better than the rest of her friends. Which of the following sets of stimuli had Betty seen to come to this conclusion?

A)

Betty was able to tell the difference between the purity of a saturated red hat and a desaturated red hat.

B)

Betty was able to tell the difference between the colours of two seemingly identical yellow dandelions.

C)

Betty was able to tell the difference between the level of heat coming off two different bowls of soup.

D)

Betty was able to tell the difference between the brightness of an intense blue car and a dull blue car.

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Question 2

1 / 1 point

The image of a bouncing red ball falls on the nasal half of the retina at the back of Pablo's right eye. Which visual field does this information correspond to and what stream processes the correct component of this information?

A)

Right visual field, with shape information processed by the ventral stream.

B)

Left visual field, with bouncing information processed by the dorsal stream.

C)

Left visual field, with shape information processed by the dorsal stream.

D)

Right visual field, with bouncing information processed by the ventral stream.

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Question 3

1 / 1 point

If the human eye were altered so that the bulk of the rods were concentrated in the fovea, and the bulk of the cones were in the periphery of the retina, how would our visual experience change?

A)

When looking slightly to one side of an object, we would have good night vision.

B)

When looking directly at an object, we would better identify colour.

C)

When looking slightly to one side of an object, we would see it in strong detail.

D)

When looking directly at an object, we would have excellent acuity during the day.

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Question 4

1 / 1 point

Peter was recently in a sporting accident that resulted in significant damage to his lens. Doctors had to paralyze both of Peter's lenses to avoid further damage until a second surgery could be performed. What are the likely effects of paralyzed lenses on Peter's vision?

A)

Peter is experiencing difficulty seeing in bright or dimly lit conditions.

B)

Peter is not having any issues clearly seeing any objects in his surrounding environment.

C)

Peter is no longer able to read his favourite book or see his friend across the lecture hall.

D)

Peter is blind, being unable to perceive any of the objects in his surrounding environment.

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VisionRecall

Question 5

1 / 1 point

Which of the following is the best explanation for the poor visual acuity that exists in peripheral vision?

A)

The optic disc creates a blind spot that decreases acuity at the periphery of the eye.

B)

Lateral inhibition is more likely to occur at the periphery of the eye.

C)

Multiple ganglion cells combine to send only a single signal to the photoreceptors at the periphery of the eye.

D)

The receptive fields are much larger in the periphery of the eye than in the fovea.

Which of the following statements is correct regarding photoreceptors found in the retina of the eye?

A)

The neural signal created when light hits the retina travels through the ganglion and then bipolar cells before reaching the photoreceptors.

B)

Receptive fields in the fovea are much smaller than in the periphery of the eye.

C)

Looking sideways at an object in dim lighting activates both rods and cones to allow for better viewing.

D)

Rods are the most helpful in peripheral vision, as they are found inside the fovea.

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Question 7

1 / 1 point

Which of the following correctly outlines a path that light first takes as it travels through the eye?

A)

Pupil, Cornea, Lens

B)

Photoreceptors, Bipolar Cells, Ganglion Cells

C)

Cornea, Lens, Pupil

D)

Ganglion Cells, Bipolar Cells, Photoreceptors

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VisionText

Question 8

1 / 1 point

Zakk is having trouble seeing objects in his right visual field. Where along his visual pathway has damage most likely occurred?

A)

The left optic nerve before the optic chiasm.

B)

The temporal portion of his left retina or nasal portion of his right retina.

C)

The nasal portions of his left and right retina.

D)

The nasal portion of his left retina or temporal portion of his right retina.

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Question 9

1 / 1 point

Which of the following statements about photoreceptors is correct?

A)

A total loss of rods result in a decrease in visual acuity during both light and dark conditions.

B)

Rods are found throughout the retina in varying concentrations but cones are found only in the fovea.

C)

Both cones and rods are depolarized and in their active states in darkness.

D)

During dark adaptation, the rods begin to adapt quicker than cones resulting in an immediate improvement in sensitivity.

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VisionLL

Question 10

1 / 1 point

Which of the following is not evidence of top-down influences on visual processing?

A)

Experience with shadows and checkerboards influences colour perception.

B)

Interpreting circles with gradation as being concave or convex.

C)

Certain cells in V1 respond maximally to lines of different orientations.

D)

Incorrectly concluding that a child's image is of an exotic dancer.

COLOUR PERCEPTION
In subtractive colour mixing, what final colour would you see if a white light was passed through both a red and a green filter?

A)

Blue

B)

Brown

C)

Grey

D)

Purple

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Question 2

0 / 1 point

Naz is a 7-year-old boy who has deuteranopia. Which of the following is the most likely resulting behaviour?

A)

Naz chooses to select only red apples when he is asked to pick his favourite apples at the grocery store.

B)

Naz picks blue and yellow flowers for his sister and says that all the flowers look like the ocean.

C)

Naz is having trouble reading a sign at the front of his classroom written in blue writing on a white board.

D)

Naz compliments his mother's red sweater as looking "beautiful like green grass".

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Question 3

0 / 1 point

An alien species is discovered that has no rebound effect when viewing afterimages. Instead, when looking at a colour for a long period of time and then switching to a neutral colour, their

receptor displays a slow return to baseline. In this species, what would be the resulting afterimage of viewing the colour red?

A)

The afterimage would be green due to a prolonged inhibition of the receptor.

B)

The afterimage would be red due to a prolonged excitation of the receptor.

C)

There would be no afterimage due to a lack of a rebound effect.

D)

The afterimage would be blue due to a prolonged inactivation of the receptor.

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ColourRecall

Question 4

1 / 1 point

According to what is known about visual processing, why do we correctly perceive yellow objects as being yellow?

A)

Activation of red and green cones results in inhibition and excitation of the red/green ganglion cells and excitation of the blue/yellow ganglion cells.

B)

Activation of the red, green, and blue cones results in both inhibition and excitation of the red/green ganglion cells and excitation of the blue/yellow ganglion cells.

C)

Activation of red and green cones results in inhibition of the red/green ganglion cells and excitation of the blue/yellow ganglion cells.

D)

Activation of yellow cones results in inhibition of the red/green ganglion cells and excitation of the blue/yellow ganglion cells.

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Question 5

1 / 1 point

Which of the following is true regarding cytochrome oxidase blobs?

A)

They are located in the visual extrastriate cortex.

B)

They are involved only in colour processing.

C)

They pass information to the parvocellular and koniocellular layers.

D)

They project into layers two and three of the primary auditory cortex.

Which of the following best explains why you see the colour grey with additive colour mixing?

A)

The dominant wavelengths of two primary colours are individually reflected and added together.

B)

The dominant wavelengths of a primary colour and its complimentary colour are individually absorbed and added together.

C)

The dominant wavelengths of a primary colour and its complimentary colour are individually reflected and added together.

D)

The dominant wavelengths of two complimentary colours are individually absorbed and added together.

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ColourText

Question 7

1 / 1 point

Which of the following is true of the prevalence of colour blindness?

A)

Tritanopia occurs in the population much less frequently than achromatopsia.

B)

Red/green colour blindness is less common in females than tritanopia is in both males and females.

C)

The incidence of blue/yellow colour blindness is the same between males and females.

D)

The greater prevalence of red/green colour blindness in males relative to females is due to its association with the Y chromosome.

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ColourLL

Question 8

0 / 1 point

You are conducting an experiment on the foraging abilities of a particular species of monkey. You are interested in comparing the foraging of dichromats and trichromats. Which of the following predictions would you make regarding the results of your experiment?

A)

Both groups will forage equally, as differences in dichromats and trichromats do not affect foraging abilities for ripe fruit.

B)

Dichromats will have a foraging advantage, as these individuals will be more likely to see ripe fruit.

C)

Trichromats will have a foraging advantage, but only because of their ability to forage non-ripe fruit.

D)

Trichromats will have a foraging advantage, as these individuals will be more likely to see ripe fruit.

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Question 9

1 / 1 point

Which of the following statements about colour vision is true?

A)

Female humans are more likely to be tetrachromatic than male humans.

B)

Females' enriched ability to describe colours (compared to males') is a function of social norm, not a function of a biological basis.

C)

Owls are likely to be tetrachromatic.

D)

Hunters wear orange to attract dichromatic animals, so they can hunt the animals easily without having to search for them.

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Question 10

1 / 1 point

You are conducting an experiment on facial preferences of human subjects. Which of the following predictions would you make regarding the outcome of your experiment?

A)

Participants will likely avoid potential mates whose faces appear red, as these individuals are likely to suffer from high blood pressure.

B)

Participants will use facial colour as an indirect marker of estrogen production and better health.

C)

There will be no association between facial colouring and mate-choice preferences.

D)

Participants will choose faces with pales complexions, as this is a sign of conservative sun exposure, and indicates lower risk of skin cancers.