Biology 2A03 Quiz #1

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Biology 2A03 Integrative Physiology of Animals Quiz # 1, Feb 03, 2012 Version 1 G.B. McClelland

Specific Instructions: Answer all of the following 35 questions on the optical scan sheet provided. There is only one fully correct answer for each question. Remember to write your name, student number and version number on the answer sheet. 1. Basal metabolic rate is defined as energy required to maintain body functions: A) after a 24 hour fast B) when awake but moving C) after a meal D) while you are asleep E) none of the above 2. The total energy stored in the body: A) energy stored = ingestion defecation urination B) energy stored = external heat produced + external work C) energy stored = energy intake (internal heat produced + external work) D) energy stored = energy intake interwebbing + myfacebooking - talking E) none of the above 3. The concept of homeostasis: A) refers to maintaining a stable external environment. B) includes the regulation of body temperature as an example. C) refers primarily to processes that operate via positive feedback. D) was first described by Claude Bernard. E) both B and D. 4. The four broad categories of cells include those specialized for each of the following functions except: A) movement B) synthesis of complex molecules C) cover surfaces of the body or individual organs D) support of body structures E) conduction of electrical signals 5. Which two fluid compartments make up the extracellular fluid? A) interstitial and intracellular fluid B) plasma and blood C) interstitial fluid and plasma D) extracellular fluid and plasma E) total body water and interstitial fluid Continued on the next page

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6. Sweat glands are an example of a(n) disruption from normal body temperature A) sensor B) setpoint C) compensatory response D) error signal E) effector

in a negative feedback loop regulating a

7. The integration center of a negative feedback loop: A) receives input from the efferent pathway B) compares the set point of a variable to an error signal C) initiates a compensatory response via the efferent pathway D) both A and C E) both B and C 8. Which of the following cell-to-cell contact areas would you most expect to see in heart muscle cells? A) tight junctions B) gap junctions C) desmosomes D) both B and C E) both A and C 9. If an allosteric modulator binds to an enzyme and decreases its affinity for substrate: A) it will take a lower [S] to get the same number of enzyme-substrate (ES) complexes B) it will take a greater [S] to get the same number of ES complexes C) the enzyme will function exactly the same as before modulator binding D) the Vmax for the reaction will decrease E) the km will decrease while the Vmax of the reaction increases 10. A cell has two transporters for glucose and these are designated TR1 and TR2. The Km for TR1 is 1 x 10-8 M and for TR2 the Km is 2 x 10-6 M. From these data we can conclude: A) TR2 has a higher affinity for glucose B) TR1 has a higher affinity for glucose C) TR1 and TR2 have equal affinities for glucose D) TR1 has the higher Vmax E) There isnt enough information to determine which one has the higher affinity or Vmax

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11. Which of the following statements is FALSE concerning ATP production pathways: A) they must balance ATP consumption pathways B) they only occur in the mitochondria C) they can occur in the absence of oxygen D) they aim to keep cellular [ATP] homeostatic E) they include oxidative phosphorylation 12. According to the Fick equation net flux is: A) directly proportional to the concentration difference between the inside and outside of the cell. B) directly proportional to the membrane solubility of the substance transported. C) independent on the surface area over which transport occurs. D) independent of temperature. E) Both A and B. 13. Which of the following molecules is most likely to pass through a simple cell membrane? A) sodium B) glucose C) oxygen D) potassium E) none of the above 14. Which statement(s) is / are true regarding electrochemical gradients: A) the membrane potential describes the chemical driving force for charged ions B) the chemical gradient is determined by concentration differences across a membrane C) the net flux of an ion is determined by the balance of electrical and osmotic gradients D) the magnitude of the electrical driving force is independent of the valance of an ion E) both A and B are true 15. During secondary active transport Na+ transport is often coupled to another molecule because: A) Na+ passes easily through the lipid bilayer B) energy is released as Na+ moved down its concentration gradient C) Na+ binding to transporters increases the transporters affinity for the 2nd molecule D) Na+ consumes energy as it moves down its concentration gradient E) Both B and C are correct

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16. Which of the following is true for facilitated diffusion but not for secondary active transport? A) a transmembrane protein is required B) the movement of a molecule across the membrane is subject to a transport maximum C) the movement of a molecule across the membrane is specific to a certain chemical D) a molecule is moved with its concentration gradient with the assistance of a protein carrier, and no energy is required E) none of the above 17. A cell (300 mOsmoles) is placed in a 300mM glucose solution. The solution is and the cell will . A) isotonic: not change size B) hypotonic: shrink C) hypotonic: swell D) hypertonic: shrink E) hypertonic: swell 18. Which statement(s) is / are true concerning the leakiness of cell membranes to ions: A) passive leak of K+ and Na+ must be counteracted by active transport to maintain proper membrane potentials B) cold-blooded animals have more leaky membranes than warm-blooded animals C) active transport to counteract membrane leakiness produces no heat as a byproduct D) Na+ and K+ leak passively into the cell primarily directly through the lipid bilayer E) Both A and B 19. Which statement(s) is / are true regarding membrane receptor regulation of fast ion channels: A) ions travel through them at slow speeds B) fast channels open very quickly for brief periods C) fast channels also act as receptors D) fast channels are regulated through G-proteins E) both B and C 20. Which of the following is/ are protein(s) NOT found in the red blood cells (erythrocytes)? A) hemoglobin B) albumin C) carbonic anhydrase D) both A and B E) both A and C

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21. Polycythemia: A) is an over abundance of hemoglobin in red blood cells B) can be measured as an decrease in hematocrit C) can be measured as an increase in hematocrit D) can increase the viscosity of blood E) both C and D 22. Which parameter is detected and regulated in the negative homeostatic control of red blood cell concentration in the blood? A) the rate of oxygen delivery to the carotid bodies in the neck. B) blood viscosity. C) red blood cell carbonic anhydrase concentration. D) the rate of oxygen delivery to the kidney. E) Plasma volume. 23. The pulmonary circulation is able to maintain adequate flow rates with low pressures because: A) the left ventricle generates little force B) the resistances of the pulmonary arterioles are low C) flow in the pulmonary circuit is low D) pulmonary arteries carry deoxygenated blood E) filtration is high in the pulmonary capillaries 24. With a systolic pressure of 140 mmHg and a diastolic pressure of 80mmHg, if the heart spent 25% of its time in systole and 75% of the time in diastole, what would the mean arterial pressure (MAP) be? A) 92 mmHg B) 95 mmHg C) 115 mmHg D) 120 mmHg E) 100 mmHg Continued on the next page

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Use the figure below for the next 2 questions.

25. Which statement is TRUE with regards to the blood pressure trace pictured above: A) The pressure at 1 is likely in the systemic circuit B) The pressure at 2 is likely in the systemic circuit C) The arrow at 3 denotes the pressure drop in the pulmonary circuit D) The arrow at 4 denotes the pressure drop in the pulmonary circuit E) Both A and D are correct 26. Which of the following statements are FALSE concerning the figure above? A) the arterioles cause the greatest pressure drop B) there is a high driving pressure from the veins to the heart C) capillaries are an area of moderate resistance D) the pressure is very low in the veins E) both B and C are true 27. Which of the following will result in vasodilation of arterioles? A) Epinephrine (adrenaline) acting on 2 adrenergic receptors B) A local decrease in pH C) Atrial natriuretic hormone, secreted by the heart D) An increase in adenosine E) All of the above will result in vasodilation 28. Which of the following would have the greatest effect on vascular resistance: A) a 25% increase in blood viscosity B) the vessel growing in length by 50% C) a 50% decrease in vessel radius D) a 25% increase in heart rate E) none of the above Continued on the next page

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29. Which statement best describes reactive hyperemia: A) A decrease in bloodflow causes local chemical changes which triggers vasodilation and an increase in bloodflow B) An increase in tissue metabolism causes local chemical changes which trigger vasodilation and increases bloodflow C) A decrease in bloodflow to a tissue causes local chemical changes which trigger vasodilation and an decrease in bloodflow D) A loss of blood supply to a tissue causes local chemical changes which trigger vasoconstriction and an increase in bloodflow E) None of the above 30. Which of the following factors determine if blood flow will either increase or decrease to a tissue? A) the proportion of and receptors expressed by the arterioles B) changes of local chemical factors in the interstitial fluid C) sympathetic nervous system neurotransmitter release D) change in radius of the arterioles leading to that tissue E) all of the above 31. According to the Starling-Landis model of capillary bulk fluid flow: A) interstitial fluid hydrostatic pressure increases from the arteriole to venous end B) filtration occurs if the net filtration pressure is negative C) oncotic pressures change a lot from the arterial to venous end of a capillary D) capillary oncotic pressure is due primarily to plasma proteins E) both B and C 32. Which is of the following statements is/ are FALSE? A) continuous capillaries are much more common than fenestrated capillaries B) continuous capillaries are much more permeable than fenestrated capillaries C) fenestrated capillaries are permeable to large proteins and some cells whereas continuous capillaries are not D) fenestrated capillaries are found in tissues that produce plasma proteins and continuous capillaries are found throughout the body E) both A and C 33. What would likely happen to your heart rate if all neural and hormonal inputs were removed? A) your heart rate would increase from 70 to 100 beats per minute B) your heart rate would decrease from 70 to 50 beats per minute C) your heart rate would stay the same D) your heart rate would become erratic E) the AV node would take over as the pacemaker Continued on the next page

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34. Venous pressure can effect Mean Arterial Pressure because: A) changes in venous pressure influence venous return to the heart B) it helps regulate total peripheral resistance C) it can influence cardiac stroke volume D) it squeezes the arterioles E) both A and C 35. During the sequence of electrical events triggering a heartbeat, transmission slows at the AV node: A) to slow down heart rate B) to ensure separation of atrial and ventricular contractions C) to allow the AV node pacemaker to control heart rate D) to wait for the sympathetic nervous system to increase heart rate E) both B and D are correct

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