BI OLOGY

2003 Nat i onal Qual i f yi ng Ex ami nat i on

Time Allowed:
Reading Time: 15 minutes
Examination Time: 120 minutes
























+
INSTRUCTIONS

Apportion your time for answering the questions appropriately.

SECTION A Answer all questions.
Use the Multiple Choice answer sheet provided.
You may use a pencil or pen to mark the answer sheet provided.

SECTION B Answer all questions.
Q51 is to be answered on the supplied answer sheet.
Q52, Q53 and Q54 are to be answered on your own ruled paper.
Use a black or blue pen do not use a pencil.

SECTION C Q55 answer either part (a) or part (b) on your own ruled paper.
Use a black or blue pen do not use a pencil.

Ensure that your name and school appears on each page of your answers.

You are not permitted to refer to books or notes during the examination. The only permitted aid is a
non-programmable calculator.

Secure your answers to the back of your completed cover sheet with a paper clip.
DO NOT STAPLE OR FOLD THE MULTIPLE CHOICE ANSWER SHEET.





MARKS

SECTION A 50 multiple choice questions 75 marks
SECTION B 4 questions 20 marks
SECTION C 1 question 25 marks

Total marks for the paper 120 marks

Australian Science Olympiads BIOLOGY 2003 National Qualifying Examinations




SECTION A
Use the Multiple Choice Answer Sheet Provided



Q1 Which of the following is found in eukaryote cells but not in prokaryote cells?

A. RNA.
B. Mitochondria.
C. Chlorophyll.
D. Lipids.
E. Ribosomes.

Q2 Which of the following groups of organisms are all invertebrate animals?

A. Cow, dingo, bird.
B. Tiger, beetle, fish.
C. Grasshopper, aphid, snail.
D. Snail, bacterium, crayfish.
E. Elephant, aphid, beetle.

Q3 Which of the following is correctly matched with its class of macromolecule?

A. Haemoglobin lipid.
B. Starch nucleic acid.
C. DNA protein.
D. Cellulose carbohydrate.
E. Insulin carbohydrate.

Q4 Plant cells in a leaf are different from those in a flower because they

A. contain different genes.
B. contain different chromosomes.
C. express different genes.
D. use a different genetic code.
E. have ribosomes and tRNA with different specificities.

Q5 In which of the following will blood in a human move the slowest?

A. Veins.
B. Venules.
C. Capillaries.
D. Arterioles.
E. Arteries.

Q6 A student used a microscope to examine a sample of fresh water. With a magnification of 50X, the
field of view was measured as being 2.4mm. What would be the width of the field of view if the
magnification was increased to 400X ?

A. 0.3mm
B. 0.6mm
C. 2.4mm
D. 3.0mm
E. 19.2mm
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Australian Science Olympiads BIOLOGY 2003 National Qualifying Examinations





Q7 On the basis of the ABO blood grouping system, a person with blood group O can donate blood to
people with

A. blood group A only.
B. blood group B only.
C. either blood group A or blood group B.
D. blood group O only.
E. any blood group.

Q8 Which of the following components and organ systems are INCORRECTLY matched?

A. Blood - Circulatory
B. Brain - Nervous
C. Kidney - Digestive
D. Trachea - Respiratory
E. Neuron - Nervous

Q9 An area of bushland is destroyed in a storm. The process by which the bush vegetation will
re-establish itself is called

A. primary succession.
B. secondary succession.
C. tertiary succession.
D. regenerative succession.
E. evolutionary succession.

Q10 Plant micronutrients are those nutrients required by the plant that are

A. very small in size.
B. only required by a few species of plants.
C. required in small quantities by plants.
D. normally only found on small clay particles in the soil.
E. required only by primitive and small plants.

Q11 Which of the following can readily pass through a membrane without the use of a transport protein?

A. Haemoglobin.
B. Oxygen (O
2
).
C. Glucose.
D. A sodium ion (Na
+
).
E. Adenosine triphosphate (ATP).

Q12 Which of the following mutations in a gene would MOST likely result in a non-functional protein
being synthesized?

A. Substitution of a base pair near the end of the coding sequence.
B. A deletion of 3 base pairs near the middle of the coding sequence.
C. An insertion of 3 base pairs near the middle of the coding sequence.
D. An insertion of 1 base pair near the start of the coding sequence.
E. A deletion of 1 base pair near the end of the coding sequence.

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Australian Science Olympiads BIOLOGY 2003 National Qualifying Examinations




Q13 Carbon dioxide is primarily carried in the blood of humans

A. as bicarbonate ions in the blood plasma.
B. bound to haemoglobin.
C. in association with the enzyme carbonic anhydrase.
D. as bicarbonate ions attached to the cell membrane of red blood cells.
E. only when the pH of the blood is low.

Q14 In order to control the movement of a limb, different muscles

A. contract all at the same time, but just to differing degrees.
B. can only contract or relax one at a time.
C. contract all at the same time.
D. will all simultaneously contract and then relax.
E. contract and relax independently but in a coordinated manner.

Q15 Which of the following correctly indicates the direction of blood flow in humans?

A. heartlungsheartlegheart
B. heartbrainliverlegheart
C. heartlegheartlungslegheart
D. heartkidneyheartlungslegheart
E. heartleglungsheartleglungsheart

Q16 Proteins typically do NOT have a direct role or direct function in

A. the transport of molecules.
B. hormone structure or function.
C. enzyme structure or function.
D. pairing of DNA bases.
E. cell growth and repair.

Q17 When the two guard cells of a stomata on the leaf of a plant are fully expanded (have high water
pressure inside each cell) what will be the state of the stomata?

A. Fully open.
B. Partially open.
C. Fully closed.
D. Partially closed
E. The stomata will not be functional due to the pressure of the cells pushing against each other.

Q18 In a DNA double helix, there are 3 hydrogen bonds between each guanine (G) and cytosine (C) base
pair and 2 hydrogen bonds between each adenosine (A) and thymine (T) base pair. Which of the
following strands of DNA would disassociate at the highest temperature from its complementary
strand (only the coding strand is shown)?

A. AGCTCTTGTA
B. TGAGATCATG
C. ATATATATAG
D. CACCGGTCAA
E. ATCGAGTCTA


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Australian Science Olympiads BIOLOGY 2003 National Qualifying Examinations




For questions 19 and 20 refer to the diagram below

STEM CROSS SECTION
E
A



B



C



D





Q19 Correctly fill in the gaps (I to III) in the following statement:
The stem cross section in the diagram above is from a (I) plant which would be expected to have
(II) veins in the leaves and a (III) system.

I II III
A. monocotyledon branched fibrous root
B. dicotyledon branched taproot
C. monocotyledon parallel taproot
D. dicotyledon branched fibrous root
E. monocotyledon parallel fibrous root

Q20 If a plant (Plant 1) that was undertaking photosynthesis and actively growing had its leaves exposed
for a brief period to radioactive carbon dioxide (
14
CO
2
), where in a cross section of the stem would
you expect to detect radioactivity? If another similar plant (Plant 2) was watered with some
radioactive water (
3
H
2
O), where in a cross section of the stem would you expect to detect
radioactivity?

Plant 1 Plant 2
A. E B
B. D C
C. B E
D. A E
E. C D

Q21 Which of the following will contribute the most to genetic variation in a sexually reproducing diploid
plant?

A. Fertilization of an egg cell following self-pollination.
B. Fertilization of an egg cell following cross-pollination.
C. A mutation in a leaf cell which generated a new allele and gene locus.
D. Grafting a branch of one plant onto another plant of the same species so that it is compatible.
E. Making a number of cuttings of a plant and planting these in a wide range of environments.

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Australian Science Olympiads BIOLOGY 2003 National Qualifying Examinations




Q22 A sample of DNA is cut at the positions indicated () below. When the fragments are loaded and run
on an electrophoresis gel, which lane (1 to 5) has the pattern that you would expect?

DNA

1 Lane Number: 2 3 4 5









A. Lane 1
B. Lane 2
C. Lane 3
D. Lane 4
E. Lane 5

Q23 Correctly fill in the gaps (I to V) in the following statement:
Carbon is able to form (I) (II) bonds and nitrogen is able to form (III) (IV) bonds.
Both carbon and nitrogen are typically found in (V) compounds in biological systems.

I II III IV V
A. 4 covalent 3 covalent inorganic
B. 3 covalent 4 ionic organic
C. 4 covalent 3 covalent organic
D. 3 ionic 3 covalent inorganic
E. 4 ionic 4 ionic organic

Q24 Which of the following is the best analogy of Darwinian natural selection?

A. The manager of a factory giving his a son a promotion rather than a more qualified person.
B. Swimmers shaving their bodies to allow them to swim faster.
C. Golf players coaching each other.
D. A breakfast food manufacturer selling more of one product than an alternative product which is
more nutritious.
E. A new mobile phone with a new feature becoming a market leader.

Q25 Which of the following is the correct sequence of involvement in the process of protein synthesis?

A. Nucleus, mRNA, ribosome, cytoplasm.
B. Ribosome, smooth endoplasmic reticulum, mitochondria, tRNA.
C. mRNA, tRNA, endoplasmic reticulum, ribosome.
D. DNA, mRNA, golgi apparatus, nucleolus.
E. tRNA, endoplasmic reticulum, ribosome, nucleus.

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Australian Science Olympiads BIOLOGY 2003 National Qualifying Examinations




Q26 In an experiment testing the expression of a gene in a bacterial culture, it is found that the presence of
protein A activates transcription of the gene. Which of the following graphs (I to V) represents the best
experiment that shows this result?














I
0
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
negative control positive control protein A
r
e
l
a
t
i
v
e

g
e
n
e

e
x
p
r
e
s
s
i
o
n

II
0
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
negative control positive control protein A
r
e
l
a
t
i
v
e

g
e
n
e

e
x
p
r
e
s
s
i
o
n














III
0
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
negative control positive control protein A
r
e
l
a
t
i
v
e

g
e
n
e

e
x
p
r
e
s
s
i
o
n
IV
0
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
negative control positive control protein A
r
e
l
a
t
i
v
e

g
e
n
e

e
x
p
r
e
s
s
i
o
n
A. Graph I.
B. Graph II.
C. Graph III.
D. Graph IV.
E. No graph shows a satisfactory result.

Q27 Refrigeration at 4C extends the shelf life of many food products because

A. it makes it too wet for microbial contaminants to grow.
B. proteins and DNA denature at low temperatures and therefore microbes are killed.
C. the rate of metabolism and replication of microbes is slowed.
D. toxins produced by microbes are not harmful at low temperatures.
E. microbes are not found in refrigerators.

Q28 Which of the following is a logical hierarchy of organization?

A. Tissue, organ, organism, population, individual.
B. Atom, molecule, organelle, cell, organ.
C. Species, phylum, order, family, kingdom.
D. Cell, molecule, tissue, organ, organism.
E. Organism, community, population, biosphere, niche.
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Australian Science Olympiads BIOLOGY 2003 National Qualifying Examinations




Q29 Which of the following contributes the LEAST to the movement of water through a plant from the soil
to the air?

A. The evaporation of water from the mesophyll cells in the leaf.
B. The cohesion of water molecules to the walls of the xylem.
C. The adhesion of water molecules to each other.
D. The lower water potential of water in the leaves compared to water in the roots.
E. The momentum of water moving up the stem.

Q30 An action potential (nerve pulse) travelling along a neuron is analogous to

A. electrons moving along a conductor.
B. water being pumped into one end of a pipe so that water is forced out the other end.
C. a conveyor belt carrying a parcel.
D. dominos in a line sequentially falling and then righting themselves.
E. vehicles carrying a specific message along a highway.

Q31 Which of the following is NOT a function of membrane bound proteins?

A. Enzymatic activity.
B. Intercellular attachment.
C. Cell to cell recognition.
D. Attachment to the cytoskeleton.
E. DNA replication.

Q32 Compared to human cells that secrete few proteins, human cells that secrete a large number of proteins
are most likely to have

A. an extensive golgi apparatus.
B. a thicker cell membrane.
C. additional copies of the genes that code for the proteins.
D. larger chromosomes.
E. two or three rather than one ribosome.

Q33 If a nail was hammered into the stem of a 4m high tree at 2m from the ground and below any branches,
how high would you expect the nail to be when the tree had grown to height of 16m?

A. Between 1m and 2m.
B. Between 2m and 3m.
C. Approximately 4m.
D. Approximately 8m.
E. Between 4m and 8m.

Q34 Correctly fill in the gaps (I to IV) in the following statement:
The lymphatic system in humans contains (I) active pump and serves to (II) interstitial fluid
to/from the circulatory system. The lymphatic system has (III) role in the immune system of the
body and has (IV) organs that are associated with it.

I II III IV
A. an return a no
B. an transport away a several
C. no return no no
D. no return a several
E. an transport away no no

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Australian Science Olympiads BIOLOGY 2003 National Qualifying Examinations




Q35 A species that produces a large number of offspring but provides them with little or no care during
their development would show a survivorship curve closest to:


I
II
III
IV
Relat ive lif espan
S
u
r
v
i
v
o
r
s
h
i
p

(
%
)

















A. Curve I.
B. Curve II.
C. Curve III.
D. Curve IV.
E. Curves I or IV.

Q36 Which of the following (I to III) can contain functional ribosomes?

I. Cytoplasm
II. Membrane of the endoplasmic reticulum
III. Mitochondria

A. I only.
B. II only.
C. I and II only.
D. I and III only.
E. I, II and III.

Q37 Fungi may obtain their energy by which of the following methods (I to V)?

I. Feeding on dead matter.
II. From other organisms in a symbiotic relationship.
III. From other organisms as a parasite.
IV. By undertaking photosynthesis.
V. By undertaking aerobic respiration to produce lactic acid.

A. I only.
B. I and II only.
C. I, II and III only.
D. II, III, and IV only.
E. II, III and V only.


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Australian Science Olympiads BIOLOGY 2003 National Qualifying Examinations




For questions 38 and 39, refer to the following diagram. The diagram illustrates part of a
food web for a given ecosystem



Birds of Prey
Large Birds
Large Fish
Small Fish
Phytoplankton
Crustaceans
Small Birds
Detritivores




















Q38 On the basis of the food web given, if all of the large fish were removed from the ecosystem, which
organisms would not be found in the ecosystem after a period of time?

A. Detritivores.
B. Birds of Prey.
C. Small birds.
D. Small fish.
E. Large birds.

Q39 Which of the following groups of animals would be regarded as secondary consumers?

A. Large Fish and Small Birds.
B. Small Fish and Crustaceans.
C. Small Fish and Small Birds.
D. Large Fish and Birds of Prey.
E. Large Birds and Birds of Prey.

Q40 Which of the following cells (I to IV) can undergo mitosis at functional maturity?

I. Lung cells.
II. Neurons.
III. Skeletal muscle cells.
IV. Red blood cells.

A. I only.
B. II only.
C. I and III only.
D. II and IV only.
E. I, II and III only.


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Australian Science Olympiads BIOLOGY 2003 National Qualifying Examinations




For questions 41 and 42, refer to the following diagram.

The diagram below shows data from an ecological transect and indicates which species (1 to 4)
are present (+ =present: - =absent) at each location (A to G) and the elevation and soil pH
at each location.

E
l
e
v
a
t
i
o
n

a
b
o
v
e

s
e
a

l
e
v
e
l

(
m
)

S
o
i
l

p
H

3500
500
1000
1500
2000
2500
3000
7.5
5.5
6.0
6.5
7.0
Species 1
Species 2
Species 3
Species 4



Soil pH






Elevation






A B C D E F G
LOCATION
+
-
+
-
+
-
+
-
+
+
+
-
-
+
+
-
-
+
-
-
-
+
-
+
-
+
-
+






Q41 At which location is there the least, and the greatest, diversity of species?

Least Greatest
A. B F
B. E C
C. C E
D. A G
E. F B

Q42 Which species is found over the least, and the greatest, range in soil pH?

Least Greatest
A. Species 3 Species 1
B. Species 4 Species 3
C. Species 2 Species 4
D. Species 1 Species 3
E. Species 4 Species 2

Q43 Which of the following is a feature of all mammalian species?

A. A placenta.
B. Live young are born.
C. Have teeth modified for grinding.
D. Produce milk for their offspring.
E. Well developed sight.
Page 11 of 16
Australian Science Olympiads BIOLOGY 2003 National Qualifying Examinations




Q44 Which of the following best matches a class of plant hormone with its site of synthesis or effect?

Inhibits growth
and
development
Produced in the
apical
meristems of
roots
Produced in the
apical
meristems of
shoots
Stimulates cell
division
Enhances the
ripening of fruit
A. Auxin Cytokinin Ethylene Gibberellin Abscisic acid
B. Cytokinin Abscisic acid Gibberellin Auxin Ethylene
C. Abscisic acid Gibberellin Auxin Cytokinin Ethylene
D. Ethylene Cytokinin Abscisic acid Gibberellin Auxin
E. Cytokinin Abscisic acid Auxin Ethylene Gibberellin

Q45 The main function(s) of the liver is/are

I. Secretion of insulin and glucagon.
II. Production of bile.
III. Uptake and release of glucose into the bloodstream.
IV. Excretion of nitrogenous wastes.
V. Breakdown of toxic substances.

A. I only.
B. II only.
C. II and III only.
D. I, III and IV.
E. II, III and V.

Q46 When humans breathe air into their lungs the

A. size of the lungs must decrease.
B. diaphragm needs to contract.
C. air pressure inside the lungs becomes higher than the atmospheric pressure.
D. muscles between the ribs need to relax.
E. concentration of carbon dioxide in the lungs will increase.

Q47 Which of the following correctly matches each human organ with its function?

Synthesis of digestive
enzymes
Immune system
response
Synthesis of hormones
A. Thyroid gland Adrenal gland Spleen
B. Spleen Pineal gland Pancreas
C. Adrenal gland Pancreas Spleen
D. Spleen Liver Adrenal gland
E. Pancreas Spleen Adrenal gland
Page 12 of 16
Australian Science Olympiads BIOLOGY 2003 National Qualifying Examinations




For questions 48, 49 and 50, refer to the following information.

One way to measure the resistance of an insect population to an insecticide is determine the time taken for
the insecticide to kill 90% of the population (LT
90
=Lethal time 90) compared to the time taken to kill 90%
of a susceptible (control) population. The ratio of the times is called the Resistance Factor (RF).

RF =Test Population LT
90
/ Control Population LT
90
This means that: RF =1 indicates no resistance,
RF >1 indicates resistance.

The graph below shows the results from a resistance assay on a single test population using the same
amount of three insecticides.

100
LT
90
values for the control population
Pesticide A: 15 min
Pesticide B: 12 min
Pesticide C: 29 min
Insecticide C
Insecticide B Insecticide A



80

M
o
r
t
a
l
i
t
y

(
%
)

60


40


20


0

20
Time (min)
30 40 50 0 10



Q48 What is the approximate RF value for Insecticide B?

A. 0.5
B. 1
C. 2
D. 24
E. 40

Q49 Which of the insecticides has the fastest killing action given the same quantity of each is used?

A. Insecticide A.
B. Insecticide B.
C. Insecticide C.
D. The insect population showed resistance to all insecticides.
E. Not sufficient information is provided to answer this question.

Q50 If it were found that the LT
90
for each insecticide (A, B or C) was directly proportional to the amount
used, which insecticide would be the most economical to give a 90% kill within 20 minutes of
application, given that the relative cost of each insecticide is in the ratio of insecticides A:B:C is 8:2:3?

A. Insecticide A.
B. Insecticide B.
C. Insecticide C.
D. Insecticides A and B are approximately equal in cost.
E. Insecticides B and C are approximately equal in cost.
Page 13 of 16
Australian Science Olympiads BIOLOGY 2003 National Qualifying Examinations




SECTION B
Question 51 - Use the Answer Sheet Provided
Question 52, 53 & 54 - Use your own ruled paper



Q51 Match in terms of similarity in function, the components of the human digestive system with the most
appropriate item from the list of components found in a sugar cane factory (mill).

There is only one most appropriate matching item from the list of components found in a sugar cane
factory (mill) for each component of the human digestive system.


Human component Matching sugar cane factory component
1. Large intestine
2. Pancreas
3. Stomach
4. Mouth
5. Small intestine
6. Oesophagus
7. Rectum
8. Teeth



List of sugar cane factory
components
A. Enzyme supply unit
B. Cutter blades
C. Cane fibre waste chute
D. Cane fibre dehydrator
E. Sugar extraction unit
F. Cane crusher
G. Conveyor belt
H. Storage and mixing bin

(4 marks)
Page 14 of 16
Australian Science Olympiads BIOLOGY 2003 National Qualifying Examinations




Q52 In Meissner rabbits, body colour is controlled by a single gene. For this gene, the black colour allele
(A) is incompletely dominant to the white colour allele (a). Heterozygotes for the body colour gene are
grey. There is a second, unlinked gene that controls the shape of the ears. For this gene, the wide ears
allele (B) is dominant to the narrow ears allele (b).

IMPORTANT: Show all workings/steps used to derive your answers. Use the nomenclature
(symbols) used the in the question in your answer.

(a) Using the symbols provided above, write all possible genotypes for a black rabbit with wide
ears.
(1 mark)

(b) When a white rabbit with narrow ears (parent 1) is crossed with a grey rabbit with wide ears
(parent 2), half the offspring have wide ears and half have narrow ears. What is the genotype of
parent 2?
(1 mark)

(c) What is the phenotypic ratio of offspring from a cross between parent 2 and a grey rabbit with
narrow ears?
(2 marks)

(d) Consider a cross between two rabbits who produce offspring in the ratio of
3 grey, wide ears: 1 grey, narrow ears. Determine the phenotype and genotype of each parent.
(2 marks)





Q53 (a) Describe briefly from a biological perspective what cancer is and some its causes.
(2 marks)

(b) Describe briefly the ways in which cancer can be treated in humans, the ways in which such
treatments are thought to work and what some of their possible side effects are.
(3 marks)






Q54 (a) Explain what is meant by the term threatened species and briefly describe what considerations
should be taken into account when trying to preserve them.
(2 marks)

(b) Explain in brief, what measures and considerations need be undertaken when making an area
into a natural habitat reserve suitable for the public to visit.
(3 marks)
Page 15 of 16
Australian Science Olympiads BIOLOGY 2003 National Qualifying Examinations




SECTION C
Use your own ruled paper



Q55 Answer Part (a) or Part (b) in the form of an essay. In your essay you should include the points
listed as well as an appropriate introduction and conclusion.


EITHER

(a) Organisms live in environments in which they need to have a competitive advantage to cope with
abiotic stresses, compete for resources and defend themselves against predators.

Explain how different organisms adapt to their physical environment and how they compete with
and defend against other species for resources.

In your essay you should:

describe the abiotic factors in aquatic and arid ecosystems which are regarded as being limiting to
the growth and development of organisms;
compare and contrast the strategies employed by plants and animals to undertake gas exchange in
these environments;
compare and contrast the strategies employed by plants and animals to obtain and conserve water in
an arid environment;
explain how plants may compete for resources and defend against predators; and
explain how animals may compete for resources and defend against predators.


(25 marks)
OR


(b) All organisms and viruses have genes and a genome.

Explain the structure and function of genes and genomes and how they might be modified either by
natural or artificial means.

In your essay you should:

describe the structure of a gene;
explain what is meant by the terms transcription and translation;
describe in a general manner the genome structure of a virus, bacteria, plant and animal;
describe the natural processes that can result in changes in genes and genomes; and
describe how genetic engineering can modify genes and genomes and give at least two examples.

(25 marks)

END OF EXAMINATION
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