1.

Just pri or t o ovulation, the preovulatory follicle

produces and secretes large amounts of which
of the f ol l owi ng hormones?
A. Hu ma n chorionic gonadotropin
0. ~ ~ t e i n i z i n g hormone
C. Progesterone
Androgens
Estrogen
2. Protrusion of the tip of the tongue beyond the
opening of the oral cavity is accomplished
PRlMARlL Y by which of the following muscles?
A. Myl ohyoi d
Styloglossus
Genioglossus
Intrinsic tongue
In a histologic section through the epiphyseal
plate of the femur of an 18-year-old male, which
of the following is the zone in which cartilage
lacunae appear swollen and the chondrocytes
are large?
Q proliferation
Bone deposition
C. Reserve cartilage
D. Cartilage calcification
E. Hypertrophy and maturation
Each of the following is an ectomesenchymal
derivative EXCEPTi ne. Which one is this
EXCEPTION?
A. Pulp
Dentin
8 Enamel
D. Alveolar bone
E. periodontal ligament
. .
Sensations of pain and temperature are carried
by which of the following tracts?
A. Corticospinal
Corticobulbar
C. Lateral spinothalamic
O Ventral reticulospinal
E. Dorsal spinocerebellar
6. In a mature tooth, what is the locatjon of the
FIRST dentin that w a s produced during crown
formation?
A. Adjacent to t he pul p
0. In the cervical ar ea
C. Part of secondary dentin
6
Part of ci rcumpul pal dentin
Adjacent to t he dentinoenamel ' 1 l n ~ t i o n
7. Enamel spindles mi ght represent whi ch o f the
following?
A. Areas of organi c enamel matrix t h a t are
more highly mineralized than ot her areas
@ $z, " t , " ?I " , z: d processes that ext end
across the DEJ i nto enamel
C. Areas of more highly mineralized enamel
prisms
D. Characteristics o f prismless enamel
E. Nerve fibers
8. Which of the following types of epithelium are
found in the colon?
Transitional
Simple columnar
C. Stratified squarnous
D. Pseudostratified ciliated columnar
9. Inability to move the diaphragm is consistent
with a total section
the following spinal l evel s?
10. Which of the following supplies sensation to the
interior of the larynx (above the vocal fol d)?
Recurrent l aryngeal nerve
Superior l aryngeal nerve
Glossopharyngeal nerve
D. Pharyngeal pl exus
E. Mandibular nerve
11. ' i h e middle meningeal artery enters the cranial
vault through the
A. foramen ovale.
8. foramen l acerum.
foramen rotundum.
& foramen spi nosum.
E. superior orbita! fissylre.
12. Which of the following structures is likely to be
found wi t hi n the posterior mediastinurn?
A. Hear t
phr eni c nerve
& Thoraci c duct
D. Ar c h of the aorta
E. Recurrent laryngeal nerve
13. Optic nerve fibers from the nasal half of the
retina cross the midline and enter the optic tract
of the opposite side by way of Ihe
A, opt i c chiasma.
l ateral geniculate body.
bipolar cells of the retina.
D.
brachium of the superior colliculus.
E. geniculocalcarine tract (optic radiations).
14. Each of the following statements regarding the
masseter muscle is correct EXCEPTone. Which
one is this EXCEPTION?
A.
;I ~e masseter rnuscle possesses two
heads of origin.
@ The massetenc nerve reaches the
masseter muscle by passing through the
mandibular foramen.
C.
Interdigitations of the masseter and medial
W
pterygoid muscles form the
pterygomandibular sling.
. D . The vascular supply to the masseter
muscle arises trom r n w
the maxillary artery.
E.
The parotid duct lies superficial to the
masseter muscle.
15. Which of the following describes the origin and
subsequent spread of the wave of depolarization
in the normal human heart?
A.
Atria, sino-atrial (SA) node, atrioventricular
(AV) node, bundle branches, ventricles
Sino-atrial (SA) node, atrioventricular (AV)
@ node, bundle branches, atria, ventricles
C. Sino-atrial (SA) node, atria, atrioventricular
(AV) node, bundle branches, ventricles
D.
Atrioventricular (AV) node, atria, sino-atrial
(SA) node, bundle branches, ventricles
E. Atr!oyentricular (AV) node, sino-atrial (SA)
node, bundle branches, atria, ventricles
16. Which of the following bones forms the roof of
the orbit7
A. Zygomatic
0. Maxilla
C. Palatine
17. Which of the fol l owi ng pairs of muscl es is
innervated excl usi vel y by the trigeminat nerve?
A. Mylohyoid and geniohyoid
@ Medial and l ateral pterygoid
C. Tensor and levator vel~ palatini
D. Anlerior a n d poslerior bellies o f the
digastric
E. Buccinator a n d superlor pharyngeal
constrictor
18. Intercalated di sks connect which of t he following
cell types?
Schwann
Cardiac rnuscl e
C. Skeletal mus c l e
D. Transitional epithelial
E. Stratified squamous epithelial
19. Which of the fol l owi ng represents t h e anterior
boundary of the mandibular fossa o f the
temporal bone?
Styloid pr ocess
& Articular emi nence
C. Petrotyrnpanic fissure
D. External audi tory meatus
E. Mastoid pr ocess of temporal bone
20. Which of the fol l owi ng exhibits phagocytic
. .
acbv~ty in the cent r al nervous system?
Ependymal cel l
Microglial cel l
C. Oligodendrocyte
D. Fibrous astrocyte
E. Protoplasmic astrocyte
2 <. Whicl, ~f the fol l owi ng nerves innervates the
taste buds of t h e anterior two-thirds of the
tongue?
C. Trigeminal
D. Hypoglossal
E. Glossopharyngeal
22. Sensations f r om the left face and teeth are
interpreted in whi ch of the following lobes?
A. Left frontal
& Right frontal
Left pari etal
Right pari etal
E. Right temporal
23. Which o f the following is the major nerve of the
poskri or aspect of the arm and forearm?
Ul n a r
0 Radi al
C. Medi an
D. Axi l l ary
E. Musculocutaneous
24. A patient has muscle pain when moving the
mandible 10 the left. Which of the following
muscles i s MOST likely causing the pain in this
situation?
A. Lef t masseter
6. Left medial pterygoid
C. Ri ght medial pterygoid
6
Left lateral pterygoid
Ri ght lateral pterygoid
25. Which of the following is the only part of the
gastrointestinal system that has villi, goblet cells.
and mucous-secreting glands in the
submucosa?
A. I l eum
Duodenum
Esophagus
26. The branches of the maxillary artery supply each
of the following EXCEPT one. Which one is this
EXCEPTIOM
A. Nasal septum
B. Mandibular incisors
Hard and soft palate
Ski n of the forehead
Muscles of mastica;io?
27. Which of the following differentiates cementum
from enamel?
@ Presence of collagen fibers
B. presence of incremental lines
C. Presence of hydroxyapatite crystals
D. Derived from the dental papilla
.
28. Each of the following bones contributes to the
formation of the calvaria EXCEPT one. Which
one is this EXCEPTION?
A. Frontal
B. Temporal
C. Parietal
Occipital
29. Cutaneous i nnervati on of the chin and lower lip
is mediated by wh i c h of the fol l owi ng ?
A. Mental ner ve
Facial nerve
Inferior al veol ar nerve
D. Buccal ner ve of V
E. Branches o f t he maxillary di v i s i on of v
30. If the internal car ot i d arteries become occluded,
then blood can st i l l reach the arterial circle
primarily through whi ch of the follobving arteries?
Vertebral
Middle cer ebr al
C. Superior cerebel l ar
D. Anterior i nf eri or cerebellar
E. Posterior i nf eri or cerebellar
31. A laceration of t h e palatal mucosa in the area of
the first molar is MOSTl i kel y lo damage which
of the following arteri es?
Posterior superi or alveolar
Greater pal at i ne
C. Lesser pal at i ne
D. Pterygopalatine
E. Nasopalatine
32. The pterygoid pl exus is usually f or med by veins
that are tributaries of which of the fol l owi ng?
Maxillary v ei n
Anaular vei n
C. ~aci al vein
D. Occipital v ei n
E. Anterior j ugul ar vein
33. Which of the fol l owi ng lingual papillae have the
THICKEST layer o f keratin on their surfaces?
Foliate
Filiforrn
Q Fung, ,
D. Circumvallate
34. Which of the fol l owi ng represents t he MOST
common cartilage found in the embryo and in
the adult?
Fibrocartilage
& Hyaline carti l age
C. Elastic carti l age
D. Calcified carti l age
35. Each of the following muscles elevates the hyoid
bone EXCEPJone. Which one is this
EXCEPTION?
Q
Thyrohyoi d
H ~ O ~ ~ O ~ S U S
C. Geni ohyoi d
D.
Anteri or belly of the digastric
E,
posteri or belly of the digastric
41. The cell bodies o f proprioce~tive ner ves carryin
information f r o m t he periodontal l i gament are
located in the
A. nucleus ambi guus.
trigeminal ganglion.
C. spinal nuc l eus of V.
0 main sensor y nucleus of V.
E. mesencephal i c nucleus of V.
36. The sells lurcica lies directly superior to which of
42. The reticular por t i on of the dermis i s classified
the fol l owi ng sinuses? as which of t he following types of connective
tissue?
A. Frontal
& Mastoi d A. Loose
Ethmoi d 6. Adipose
Sphenoid C. Modified el ast i c
Maxillary Dense r egul ar
& Dense i r r egul ar
37. The l i ngual artery represents a branch of which
of the following arteries?
A, Facial
6. Occipital
Maxillary
$ External carotid
Internal carotid
38. Sensory nerve supply to the facial mucosa and
rs travels in which
A. Mental
Inferior alveolar
Buccal nerve of V
Posterior superior alveolar
39. The: thyrocervical trunk is comprised of the
inferior thyroid, the transverse cervical artery.
and the
vertebral.
suprascapular.
C. dorsal scapular.
0. superior thyroid.
E. ascending pharyngeal.
. .
43. As a tooth under goes attrition, i t mai ntai ns
contact with opposi ng dentition. Thi s results
from the apposi t i on of
secondary dentin.
apical cement um.
coronal enamel .
D. alveolar bone.
E. fundal bone.
3 4 . Tl i i u c c a l r n ~ o ~ t y p l c a i l y ~
following epi thel i a?
A. Simple col umnar
Pseudostratified columnar
Non-keratinized. stratified squamous
D. Parakeratinized, stratified squamous
E. Orthokeratinized, stratified squamous
45. Ulcers of recurrent herpes occur o n masticato
mucosa. Herpet i c ulcers could occur in which
the following l ocati ons?
Buccal rnucosa
Labial mucosa
Hard pal at al muwsa
D. Mucosa of the soft palate
E. Mucosa o f the floor of the mout h
40. whi ch of the following contains cells that secrete
tVpsinogen? 46. During active eruption, the initial epithelial
attachment (j uncti onal epithelium) to the enar
A. lieum
surface of t he tooth results from t he fusion of
oral epithelium with which of the following?
Periodontal ligament fibers
Gallbladder Reduced enamel epithelium
C. Stratum intermedium
D. :itelfate reti:;dlum
E. Ginyival fibers
47. The arti cul ati ng surface of the adult mandibular
condyle is covered by which of the following
substances?
A. El ast i c tissue
8
Synovi al membrane
H yal i ne cartilage
Typi cal perichondrium
E. Collagenous connective tissue
48. A blow t hat shatters the coracoid process will
have a di rect effect on which of the following
pairs of muscles?
A.
Se r r a t ~ s anterior and pectoralis major
0. Subscapularis and pectoralis major
C. Bi ceps brachii and pectoralis minor
0. Subscapularis and subclavius
p. elt to id and subclavius
49. A patient's tongue markedly deviates to the left
during protrusion. Which of the following
muscles is unable to contract?
& Ri ght ~ Y WI O ~ S U S
Ri ght geniohyoid
Left genioglossus
Left palatoglossus
E. Left lateral pterygoid
3u. rrot e~ns m u i s e c a n be synihesized
in which of the following structures?
A. Nucleolemma
B. . Mitochondria
Heterochromatin
0 Rough endoplasrnic reticulum
E. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
51. Which of the following types of dentin is the
MOST highly mineralized?
A. Car i oa
B. Predentin
C. Intertubular
Interglobular
Intra(peri)tubular
52. In a normal adult, which of the following is the
location of persistent epithelial rests (of
Malassez)?
A. Cementum
B. Dental pulp
C. Mantle dentin
6
Stellate reticulum
Periodontal ligament
53. One lerminal br anch of the maxillary nerve
emerges through whi ch of the fol l owi ng
foramina?
A. Mental
B. Spinosum
Supraorbital
lnfraorbital
Stylomastoid
54. Which of the fol l owi ng are included in the
mononuclear phagocyti c system?
A. Fibroblasts
8
Osteoblasts
Kupffer cel l s
Hassall's corpuscles
E. Sheathed arteri es of the spleen
55. The sympathetic innervation to structures of the
head and neck i s distributed via the
A. bloodvessels.
B. fascia1 pl anes.
C. lymphatic vessel s.
hyoid musculature.
cranial nerves Il l , VII, IX, and X.
--
56. What volume of ful l y mineralized enamel is
comprised of organi c matrix?
p 2%
7%
C. 10%
D. 20%
E. 50%
57. The spleen is i n cl osest relation to whi ch of the
following?
A. Duodenum
B. Right kidney
& Ascending col on
Right lobe of t he liver
Inferior surface of the diaphragm
58. Which of the following cells is multinucleated?
A. Osteocyte
B. Osteoblast
C. Osteoclast
Q Chondrocyte
E. Chondroblast
59. l f t h e r e is an organ thal needs to stretch and
r e t u r n to its original shape, then which of the
f ol l owi ng epithelia would MOSTlikely be
associ at ed with it?
. Transitional
b. Simple cuboidal
C. Simple columnar
0. Simple squamous
E . Pseudostratified columnar
60. Cal ci t oni n is produced by which of the following
cel l s?
Thyroid follicular
@ Thyroi d parafollicular
Oxyphil of the parathyroid
0. Principal of the parathyroid
E,
Pars intermedia of the pituitary
61. Whi ch of the following produce surfactant?
A. Monocytes
8. Cl ara cells
& Gobl et cells
Type I pneumocytes
Type l l pneumocytes
62. A st ab wound creating a pneumothorax on the
lefl si de will usually result i n collapse of which of
the following? -
The l efl lung only
9. The right lung only
C. Both lungs
0. The rib cage on the left side
E. The lefl lung and pericardial sac
63. The nucl e0~;l asm is continl:ous with the
cytoplasin by hdy of which of the following?
A. Nucleolus
Microtubules
Nuclear pores
D. Rough endoplasmic reticulum
E. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
64. Which of the following can be used. on a
histologic level, to distinguish between a section
of the arch of the aorta and a section of the
brachial ai-tery?
A. Type of endothelium
9. Width of tunica intima
Type of tissue in the tunica adventitia
Composition of tissue in the tunica media
Type of tissue directly underlying the
endothelium
65. Which of the following ligaments i s MOST ofler
damaged in a n inferior alveolar nerve block?
A. Lateral
B. Capsular
C. Stylohyoid
Stylomandibular
Sphenomandibular
66. Which of the following arteries i s usually the
most inferior br anch arising from the external
carotid artery?
A. Superficial temporal
Posterior auricular
Superior thymi d
D. Maxillary
E. Lingual
67. Bone tissue i ncreases in Size by which of the
following means?
A. Action of osteoclasts
6. Mitotic di vi si on of osteocytes
Appositional growth by osteoblasts
& Interstitial growth by osteoblasts
68. In which of t he following structures are
A. Nucl eol emma
$ Polyribosomes
Golgi apparatus
Rough endoplasmic reticulum
Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
69. Usually, a peri api cal abscess of a mandibular
first premolar dr ai ns lingually into which of the
following spaces?
Q
Sublingual
Submandibular
Parapharyngeal
D. Retropharyngeal
E. Pterygomandibular
70. Melanocytes mi grat e to the lamina propria of tht
oral mucosa f r om which of the following?
A. Myotome
8. Dermatome
Scheratome
Neural crest
E. Rathke's pouch
82. Each of the fobwing is found In the retrodiscal
88. Endochondral Ossification occurs i n the
pad of the TMJ EXCEPT one. Which one is this
EXCEPTI ON!
A. Elastic fibers
8. A venous plexus
C. Collagen fibers
D. Hyaline cartilage
E. Loose connective tissue
formation of
A. all bones.
flat bones.
long bones.
elastic cartilage.
E. mesenchymal sheels.
83. ~f l ocal anesthetic solution were deposited in the
89. Each of the following cranial nerves is
pteryg~palatine fossa, then which of the associated with the cavernous si nus EXCEPT
fol l owi ng would be anesthetized?
one. Which one is this EXCEPTION?
A. Vl @ Facial
8. Abducens
C. Trochlear
D. Trigeminal
Vag us nerve E. Oculomotor
84. The common hepatic artery is a branch of which
vessel?
C. Gastric
D. Proper hepatic
E. Superior mesenteric
85. Which of the following is the motor nerve
innervating mast thenar muscles?
Axillary
E. Muscubcutaneous
86. Which of the following is a uniqua char&iteristic
of a mixed serous and mucous gland?
8
Demilunes
Striated ducts
C. Intercalated ducts
D. Myoepithelial cells
E.
Excessive fat throughout the stroma
87. Which of the following statements BEST
describes the zygomaticotemporal and
zygornaticofacial nerves? They are
A.
motor branches of the facial nerve.
8. sensory branches of the frontal nerve.
C. motor branches of the mandibular division
of V.
D. sensory branches of the maxillary division
of V.
.:_
sensory branches cf :kc csh!haln?lc
division of V.
90. Which of the following does a human normally
possess before birth but not after?
A. Fossa ovalis
8. Hepatic vei n
Ligamenturn teres
Ductus arteriosis
E. Crista terminalis
91. Which of the following parts of the hypophysis i
the site of oxytocin release?
Q Pars nervosa
8. lnfundibulum
C. Pars distalis
D. Pars tuberalis
E. Pars intermedia
92. The mature dental pulp is composed primarily c
which of the following connective tissues?
C. Mucoid
D. Adipose
E. Elastic
93. The internal thoracic artery gives rise to the
A. costocervical trunk.
8. posterior intercostal arteries.
6
bronchial and esophageal arteries.
superior epigastric and rnusculophrenic
arteries.
94. Cell b o d i e s of sympathetic fibers in the nerve of
(he pl er y g~i d canal come from which of the
fol l owi ng?
A. ~ a c i a l nerve
Q
super i or cervical ganglion
Gr eat er petrosal nerve
Glossopharyngeal nerve
E. Ot i c ganglion
95. Which of the following two muscles prevent food
from enteri ng the nasopharynx during
swal l owi ng?
Myl ohyoi d and the palatoglossus
styl ogl ossus and the palatoglossus
Tensor tympani and the stylopharyngeus
0. Tensor veli palatini and the levator veli
palatini
E. Muscul us uvulae and the inferior
pharyngeal constrictor
99. A tendon consists mainly of
A. reticular f i ber s.
Q elastic fiber bundles.
C. loose col l agenous bundles.
0. dense, regul ar, collagenous bundl es.
E. dense, i rregul ar, collagenous bundl es
100. Lymphatic drai nage from mayil13ry teeth initally
passes into whi ch of the following l ymph node
groups?
Submental
Submandibu!ar
Jugulodigastric
E. Jugulo-ornohyoid
96. Which o f the following correctly matches a part
of the uri nary System with its characteristic type
of epithelium?
A. Large collecting tubule - stratified
columnar
---
. ,
U. T -- simple columnar --
C. Urinary bladder - stratified squamous
Thi ck limb of Henle -- stratified cuboidal
owm man's capsule - simple squamous
97. Which of the following is the cellular organelle
that contains many types of hydrolytic enzymes?
@ Ly r ~aome
B. Centrosome
C. Mitochondrion
D. Golgi apparatus
E. ~ndopl asmi c reticulum
98. Which of the following represents the basis for
the topical application of fluorides i n dental
caries prevention?
A. ~l uori de penetrates the enamel through the
lamellae.
8.
Keratin Content of the enamel is made
more insoluble.
C. Fluoride coats the tooth forming a uniform
protective barrier.
D. The primary cuticle. being less calcified,
abs~&S the fluoride.
E. Acid solubility of the surface enamel is
rejuc2d by the !iaori?e.
1 1. Which of the following represents the vitamin
J
Which of the following clinical manifestations is
necessary for coenzyme A synthesis?
observed in an adult patient with an adenoma
of the pituitary gland causing hypersecretion of
A. Retinol Growth Hormone?
B. Pyridoxine
C. Folic acid
Hypotension
Cobalamine Hyperglycernia 9 ,$.D&Z&.
Pantothen~c acid Short stature
0. Decreased urine formation
E. Decreased basal metabolic rate .
. Which of the following statements BEST
describes vitamin A's function?
A. Prevents oellaara. ,
. -
B. Stimulates collagen synthes~s.
Which of the following provides the immediate
Promotes absorption of calcium.
Promotes differentiation of epithelial
energy source for the transport of glucose into
intes:inal epithelial cells?
cells.
E. Maintains the integrity of connective
tissues.
An example of primary active transport is the
movement of
glucose into muscle.
potassium into a nerve cell.
C. proteins across capillaries.
D. sodium into an endothelial cell.
E. oxygen across the alveolar wall
A. NADH
NADPH
& ~ a ' gradient across the luminal
membrane
D. H' gradient across the luminal
membrane
Which of the following is MOSToften
associated with transport of fatty ac~ds and bile
acids i n blond?
W c t by way of
mbrane-bound enzyme
Albumin
Globulin
A. glutaminase.
6. phosphatase.
phosphorylase.
adenylate cyclase.
carbonic anhydrase.
. Which of the following are the mnjzx target
tissues of the calcium regu1ati:lg h o r ~~~o n e s ?
A. Intestine, lung, kidney
0. Heafl, duodenum, bone
Bone, heart, kidney
Bone. intestine, kidney
1106. A dental patient presents with a bluish
discoloration of the mucous membranes
indicative of cyanosis. This condition i s MOST
likely the result of
C. Cholesterol
D. Sphingolipid
E. Mucopclysaccharide
, The extracellular edema in patients with
cirrhosis of the liver is caused by which of the
following?
Decreased capillary permeability
@ Decreased plasma proteins
C. Decreased capillary pressure
D. lncreased lymphatic return
E. lncreased plasma proteins
A. increased Pcoz.
y/l. Which of the following vessels contains the
B. a decreased hernoalobin concentration.
Hl GHESTvi scosi ty blood in the body?
C. a decreased red blood cell Aorta
concentration.
@ increased levels of reduced
% Vena cava
Vasa recta
hemoglobin. D. Pulmonary vein
E. decreased blood f l)w to the affected E. FLllmonar;t artery
area.
1 I$ The hyperglycemic effect of glucagon is
mediated primarily through
A. the growth hormone.
muscle glycolysis.
Q liver glycogeno1ysis.
D. inhibition of cortisol action
E. enhanced glucose reabsorption by
renal tubules.
11 3. Which of the following characterizes the
generator potential of a receptor?
A. An all-or-none response
B. Propagated in a non-aecremental
manner
Universally present in all nerve tissues
Graded according to the strength of the
stimulus
114. Methyl xanthines such as caffeine and
theophylline enhance lipolysis in adipose
tissue by
A. inducing adenylate cyclase synthesis.
inducing triglyceride lipase synthesis.
& ; ; ; i $: ; y c ! i c r A: ; Ai .
e m a t ty
D. directly activating an intracellular
protein kinase.
E. enhancing the binding of epinephrine to
an extracellular membrane receptor.
11 5. Which of the following can increase the rate of
net flux ar diffusion of oxygen through the
alveolar membrane?
A. Decreasing the temperature
lncreasing the cross-sectional area 1
Decreasing the concentration gradient
D. lncreasing the path length of diffusion
11 6. At which stage in the process of gene cloning
are restriction nucleases used?
A. Isolation of mRNA
B. Synthesis of double-stranded cDNA
C. Insertion of the cDNA into the vector
DNA
@
Expression of the cloned gene by the
bacteria
E. Introduction of recombinant DNA into a
bacterial cell
117. Which of the following statements BEST
describes the primary role of calcium in the
activation of cardiac muscle?
Cause depolarization of the muscle
Couple myosin and actin to form
actinomyosin.
C. Reduce inhibition of tropomyosin ur
the myofilaments.
D. Activate myosin molecules so that
can interact with actin filaments.
118. Which of the following represents the princ~
allosteric regulator of pyruvate metabolism
the liver?
A. ATP
B. NAD
C. Citrate
Cyclic AMP
Acetyl CoA
11 9. Which of the following compounds is an
intermediate in the biosynthesis of cholest~.
C. Cholic acid
D. Pregnanediol
E. Deoxycholic acid
During oxidative phosphorylation, the
hydrogen ion gradisn! is created ~.;ing ene
from which of the foll~';ilng?
A. ADP transport
ATP synthesis
ATP hydrolysiss
@ ~educt i on of NAD'
E. Electron transfers
121. During nuclear processing of hnRNA to
mRNA, the portion of the molecule that is
removed is the
exon.
anticodon.
$J intron.
codon.
E. 5' c;p.
\
122. In the biosynthesis of purines, which of the
following is the source of MOST of the
nitrogen?
A. Urea
0. Ammonia
C. Uric acid
6*
Pyrimidines
Amino acids
123. Which of the following hormones generally
increases the rate of anabolic (biosynthetic)
reactions?
C. cortisol
D. Epinephrine
E. Somatostatin
124. Which of the follawing statements BEST
characterizes simple'diffusion?
A. It requires a carrier.
B. It is independent of temperature.
C. It requires hydrophobic interaction.
0. It requires a semipermeable
membrane.
I t moves down its concentration
gradient.
125. Which of the following membrane components
consists of glycerol, phosphate, fatty acids.
and choline?
Cephalin
@ Lecithin
C. Ganglioside
0. Cerebroside
E. Sphingomyelin
126. Which of the foJlowing amino acids has a
hydroxyl group that sometimes participates i n
enzyme reactions?
C. Glycine
D. Proline
E. Arginine
127. The enterogastric reflex produces a (an)
increase in gastric motility.
&\ ecrease in gastric motility.
C. decrease in intestinal motility.
D. increase in intestinal motility.
128. Which of the following statements BEST
describes the activity of DNA ligase?
A. Seals single-stranded nicks in DNA.
0. Proofreads the DNA proper base-
\ @
pairing.
Prevents the polymerase from falling
off the DNA.
0 . Removes the RNA primer from thc
lagging strand.
129. During the period of isovolumetric contraction,
which of the following happew?
The semilunar valves are open.
&
The left ventricular pressure is rising
rapidly.
C. The aortic pressure is slightly less than
the left ventricular pressure.
D. The right ventricular pressure is greater
than the left ventricular pressure.
130. Linolenic and arachidonic acids serve as
precursors to which of the following?
. Steroid hormones
D. Cholesterol
E. Cholecalciferol
<31. Transmission of impulses from the motor
nerve to the muscle cell regularly produces
an action potential in the muscle cell.
a graded potential in the muscle cell.
hyperpolarization of the muscle cell.
D. hypopolarization of the muscle cell.
E. alteration in the threshold potential of
the muscle cell.
132. Each of the following occurs during swallowing
EXCEPT one. Which one is this EXCEPTION,
Larynx is elevated. #
Eustacian tubes close.
C. Respiration is inhibited.
0. Epiglottus covers the trachea.
133. Wh~ch of the following statements BEST
describes the action of antidiuretic hormone?
A. Decrease renal filtration fraction
B. Increase storage capacity of the
bladder
C. Decrease permeability of
distoconvoluted tubules andlor
collecting ducts to water
Increase permeability of
d~stoconvoluted tubules andlor
collecting ducts to water
134. Pernicious ariemia i s frequently associated
with a deficiency of
A. v~tami ns A and D.
B. vitamins C and D.
vitamins E and K.
&
vitamin Bj 2 and folic acid
E. thiamine and riboflavin.
135. Which of the following usually has an H'
concentration greater than 1 x 10" M?
A. Bile
8. Urine
Saliva
Gastric juice
Pancreatic juice
136. Which of the follmwing statements explains
why hypewcfitilattc- often prOd~CeS muscle
spasms?
A. There is too much OZ available.
B. The respiratory muscles are fatigued.
C. There is not enough phosphate
present. Af
The loss of CO* has caused alkalosis.
The pH of the blood has dropped
sharply.
137. After taking part i n fat digestion and
absorption, the bulk of the bile salts are
A. excreted i n the urine.
8. excreted in the feces.
C. ~eabsorbed inlo the lymph.
cest r ~yed by bacteria if, the rcl on. 1
& r ea~sor bed into the portal c~rculation.
138. A dental patient begins to experience acute
pain and becomes anxious, begins to
hypewentilate, and becomes dizzy and shc
signs of loss of consciousness. These
symptoms are the result of
A. elevated arterial Pcoz.
& decreased H C O ~ ..
decreased arlerial PO2.
decreased arterial Pco7
elevated arterial Hco3 . .
139. Which of the following compounds IS direct
involved In the action of hormones on t he~r
target cells?
A. ATP
8. UTP
C. AMP (adenosi ne-5' -monophospl ~at~
UDPG (uridine diphosphoglucose)
& Cyclic AMP (adenosine-?. 5'-
monophosphate)
140. Oxaloacetate plays an important role i n \he
body by
A. participating i n transacetylat~on
reactions.
B. parlicipating in transmethylation
reactions.
reacting with acetyl coenzyme A to
form citrate.
D. ' reacting with coenzyme A to form
acetoacetate.
The first step in the utilization of arnlno a c ~d
for protein synthesis requires
7' i
(& aminoacyl I-RNA synthetase.
8. initiation and elongation factors.
C. self-assembly of 305 and SOS
ribosomal subunits.
D. binding of N-formylmethionyl-tRNA !
the ribosomes.
142. Each of the following is character~st~c of
creatinine EXCEPT one. Which one is this
EXCEPTION3
A. Freely filtered
Slightly secreted ,$
Slightly reabsorbed
I -\
J . !' icduced endogenously :: 4 i onst,
raie
A -
143. Secondary protein structures, such as beta-
pleated sheets, are stabillzed by whlch of Ihe
following?
Hydrogen bonds
Disulf~de bonds
C. van der Waals force
D. Hydrophobic interactions
E. Electrostatic lnteractlons
144. Which of the following statements describes a
property or function of salivary lysozymes?
They have bactericidal activity. J
They bind selectrvely to dental enamel.
C. They promote calcium phosphate
precipitation.
D. They hydrolyze alpha 1-4 linkages in
starch.
145. Reduced serum potassium (hypokalemia)
might produce which of the f ol l o~~; ~i g results?
A. Reduced membrane threshold potential
Elevated membrane threshold potential
Hyperpolarized cell membrane
D. Hypopolarized cell membrane potential
E. Hyperactive neuromuscular reflexes
146. Which of the following BEST describes
glucose handling by the kidney?
A. Transport is blocked by aldosterone.
B. Transport occurs in exchange for H'.
C. Reabsorption is largest in the distal
tubule.
D. Transport is primarily by active
secretion into the tubular fluid.
@
Transport from the lumen of the
-9
nephron depends upon ~ a ' transport.
147. Which of the following represents the sensory
organs concerned with maintenance of
skeletal muscle tonus?
Sarcomeres
B. Muscle spindles
C Gamma efferents
D. Pacinian corpuscles
E. Golgi tendon orsdns
148. A 0.9-percent s0lutlOn of sod~um chloride 1s
isotonic wlth blood because
A. blood contains 0.9 percent NaCI.
B. the erythrocyte is not permeable to
NaCI.
C. has the same surface tension as
blood
it exhi b~ts the same- as
blood.
E. it has the same salt concentration as
b\ood.
149. Which of the following statements BEST
describes infants with phenylketonuria7
A. Can synthesize tyrosine.
B. Cannot,synthesize phenylalanine
C. Have to eat a diet high in
phenylalanine.
Have a deficiency of the enzyme
phenylalanine hydroxylase.
? 50. Dopamine 1s synthesized i n two steps from
which of the following compounds?
Choline
$ rosined
Tryptophan
D. Acetyl CoA
E. Arachidonic acid
151. Which of the follc.rling staten,r:nts BEST
describes hydroxyapatite?
A. Has an amphiphilic surface.
B. Contains 12 ions per unit cell.
C. Solubility decreases as [ HI ] increases.
As found in bone and enamel contams
no ion substitutions.
Has a higher solubility product constant
than fluoroapatite.
Reduced renal blood flow can cause
hypertension by which of the following?
/?
Release of renin
Reflex vasoconstriction
C. Ret ent ~on of potassium In blood
D. Increaser! octput of e1,ivephrine
153. The amino acid inserted ~n a polypept~de chain
159. Which of the following functional groclp
dur~ng protein synthesis is determined by a
are essential for a substance l o act as ;
complementary relationship between mRNA amphipathic (amphiphilic) molecule?
and
DNA.
tRNA.
amino acids.
n ribosomal RNA
Polar, nonpolar
Polar, negatively charged
Nonpolar, positively charged
D. Cyclic, hydrophi l ~c
E. Branched, hydrophlllc
154. A dehydrated dental patient, as a result of
160. Which of the following circumstances v.
severe vomiting following over-use of a
to produce edema?
narcotic analgesic, might present with whlch of
the following symptoms?
G
lncreased tissue oncotlc pressu
lncreased plasma oncotlc press
@ An increased pulse rate C. ',creased tissue hydrostat~c pre
B. An increased blood pressure D. Decreased plasma hydrostatic
C. Facial edema pressure
D. Distended neck veins E. Decreased venous pressure
E. Desire to constantly urinate
161. Which of the following is the major stor
155. Spasticity is BEST characterized by which of form of carbohydrates i n the liver?
the following?
A. Dextran
A. Failure of recruitment
Depressed stretch reflexes
Exaggerated stretch reflexes
D. Presence of fibrillary contractions
--
Lcl
collagen?
A soluble fiber of ground substance
&
The most abundant protein in the body
C. A fibrous protein with a high content of
tryptophan
D. A globular protein with a high content of
hydroxyproline
157. Destruction of the left spinocerebellar tract at
T2 would be expected to eliminate positional
sense on the
A. right side of the body above T2
B. right side of the body below T2.
left side of the body above T2.
@
left side of the body below T2.
158. Which of the following substances is
responsible for initiating cross-bridge cycllng in
smooth muscle?
Myosin ATPase
Myosin kinase
C. Myosin reductase
D. Myosin phosphatase
B. Glucose
Amylose
Glycogen
E. Fructose
measured clinically as a predictor of
glomerular filtration rate?
A. Renin
B. lnulin
Fructose
Creatinine
E. Angiotensin
163. Which of the following fatty acids has t
greatest number of double bonds?
A. Oleic
8. Stearic
Palmitic
& Arachidonic
164. Which of the following is a component
coenzyme required for a transaminal~c
process?
A. Niacin
Thiamine
Folic acid
Pyr~doxi ne
Riboflavin
176. Tapping on the slde of the face elicits a
conlraction of the masseler muscle. Th~s IS an
example of which of the following kinds of
reflex?
Stretch
8. Polysynaptic
C. Cross extensor
D Withdrawal
E. Inverse stretch
177. Thyroid secretion is stimulated by which of the
followinn?
A. Hypoxia
8. Propylthiouracil
C. Exogenous thyroid hormone
High serum iodide concentration
&
Prolonged exposure to a cold
environment
178. A dental patient is a Type I diabetic and is
scheduled for extractions. Which of the
following potential clinical complications should
MOST concern the dentist?
A. Excessive bleeding
Frequent desire to urinate
& Increased potential for infection
D. Inability to obtain anesthesia
E. Probability of seizure
179. Sodium permeability (conductance) of an axon
membrane is maximal during the
A. negative after-potential.
positive after-potential.
&
ascending limb of the action potential.
D. descending limb of the action potential.
180. The conversion of a circulating vitamin D
metabolite to its MOST active form takes place
in the
A. bone.
intestinal mucosa
181. Voluntary overventilation of lungs r es ~~l t s in
which of the following?
Decreased hydrogen ion concentratlr
in blood
B. lncreased hydrogen i on concentrallo
i n blood
C. Marked Increase ln pulmonary uplakt
of oxygen
D. lncreased oxygen carrylng capac~t) c
venous blood
E. Decreased oxygen concentrat~on In
arterial blood
182. Which of the following rned~ates d~ssol ut ~ori
the f ~bri n clot during vessel repa~r' /
Plasmin
Factor l l (thrombin)
Factor Il l (tissue thromboplastin)
D. Factor Xlll (fibrin stabilizing factor)
183. Which of the following represents the
compound that contains an active (l ab~l e)
methyl group?
A. Serine
B. Creatine
S-adenosvl meth~oni ne
. 5,10-methylene tetrahydrofolate
184. Production of phosphoenolpyruvate
carboxykinase is stimulated by
(g z;;;;;,,
C. aldosterone.
C. somat ~t ropi n.
185. Which of the following molecules is commo
NAD' and FAD?
Arginine
$ Adenine
C. Aspartic acid
0. Asparagine
E. Al an~ne
186. Oxytocin is responsible for which of the
following actions?
A. Regulating blood calcium levels
B. Preventing formation of golters
Preventing release of i nsul ~n
Causing contract~ons of uterine srnl
muscle during labor
187. Which of the following represents the pressure
change when the diaphragm and external
~ntercostal rnuscles simultaneously contract?
A. Alveolar volume decreases
6
Alveolar pressure increases
lntrapleural pressure decreases
lntrapleural pressure increases
188. Sucrose will MOST directly contribute to the
add~t ~on of wh~ch of the following to dental
plaque?
A. Mucins
Calcium ions
& Polysaccharides
D. Salivary protein
E. Glycolytic enzymes
189. Reverse transcri ~tase is used in vitro to make
A. tRNA from cDNA.
8. rRNA from cDNA.
C. cDNA from rRNA.
, R, mRNA from cDNA.
@ cDNA from mRNA.
190. The primary defect in myopia is related to
which of the following?
-
A. Unequal curvature of refracting material
of the cornea
Eyeball length relative to refractive
power of the lens
C. Deficiency of vitamin A for conversion
to rhodopsin
D. Loss of elasticity of crystalline lens
E. Detachment of the retina
191. The basic principles for sequencing DNA by
the Sanger procedure derive from which of the
following processes?
@ Translation
B. Transcri ~ti on
C. ~ e ~ l i c a t i o n
D. Reverse Transcription
192. Which of the following represents a bleeding
disorder due to lack of Factor VIII?
Thrombosis
& Hemophilia A
C. Thrombocytopenia
D. Von Willebrand disease
193. Each of the following condlt~ons alters the rate
of product formation by an enzyme EXCEPT
one. Which one is this EXCEPTION?
A. pH
8. Temperature
Ionic strength
& lsoelectric po~nt
E. Substrate concp-' -' ,on
194. Polypeptide hormones generally exert the11
effect by binding to whlch of the follow~ng?
A. lntracellular receptors and stimulating
biotein synthesis
B. Receptors on the cell membrane and
stimulating protein synthesis
C. lntracellular receptors and altering the
specific activity of certain enzymes
Receptors on the cell membrane and
altering the specific activity of certain
enzymes
195. A dental patient with left heart failure might
show signs of dyspnea when placed in the
supine position for which of the following
reasons'
A. Edema caused by excessive
pulmonary capillary oncotic pressure
B. Edema caused by excessive systemic
capillary oncotic pressure
Edema caused by excessive
pulmonary capillary hydrostatic
pressure
D. Edema caused by excessive systemic
capillary hydrostatic pressure
E. Ineffective pulmonary lymphatic
function
196. In evaluating an EKG of a patient, it was
observed the PR interval was increased. This
observation represents
A. slow conduction of impulses through
the S-A node.
B. rapid conduction of impulses through
the ventricle.
@
slow conduction of impulses through
the A-V node.
D, rapid conduction of impulses through
the atria.
E. slow repolarizat~on of the atria
1. Which of the following represents the MOST 6. Each of the following is necessary for viral
reliable criterion for pathogenicity of antigen recognition by CD4' T-helper cells
staphylococci? EXCEPT one. Which one is this EXCEPTION?
@ Hemolysis
6. Pigment production
C. Coagulase production
D. Mannitol fermentation
E. Liquefaction of gelatin
2. Which of the following forms of bacterial gene
transfer is the LEASTsusceptible to DNase and
does NOT require ce:'-to-cell contact?
A. Transition
6. Conjugation
0 Transduction
D. Transformation
A. Viral replication in host cells
6. Cleavage of viral proteins into small
peptides
C. Transport of viral peptides to a cell surface
by MHC Class II molecules
D. Binding of the T cell's TCR to a MHC Clas
II bound viral peptide
Internalization of the virus (or viral protein)
by an antigen presenting cell
7. Which of the following produces a bacterial toxi
that attaches to presynaptic nerves and blocks
the release of acetylcholine?
A. Helicobacter pylon
Closfridium djfticile
&) Clostridium botulinum
0. Staphylococcus aureus
E. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
3. Which of the following organisms is acid-fast'?
Mycobactenurn avium
9 Treponems pallidurn
C. Borreliarecurrentis
8. Which of the following is the PRIMARY site of z
D. Staphylococcus aureus
E. Streptococcus pneumoniae
4. Which of the following conditions is
characterized by a reduction in size and a
condensation of nuclear material?
@ Pyknosis
8. Apoptosis
C. Karyolysis
0. Hypoplasia
E. Karyorrhexis
5. An important early event in the chemotactic
process is cellular adherence to vascular
endothelium. The upregulation of endothelial
adhesion molecules (ICAM-1 and VCAM-1) is in
part a response to
@ cytokine stimulation.
8. lysozyme production.
C. mast cell degranulation.
D. antibody binding to endothelial Fc
receptors.
E. protease inhibition Sy serua
anti-proteases.
Ghon complex?
-
A. Trachea and bronchus
Parenchyma of the lower lobes
& Parenchyma of the upper lobes
D. Trachea and hilar lymph nodes
E. Subpleural parenchyma and hilar lymph
nodes
9. Bactericl iipopc:ysaccharide contains each of
the following EXCEPT one. Which one is this
EXCEPTION?
A. Lipid A
8. Teichoic acid
C. Core polysaccharide
0-specific side chain
& Keto-deoxy-octanoate
10. Which of the following is an example of
naturally-acquired passive immunity in human.
A. Tetanus immunization
B. Injection of gamma globulin
a Placental transfer of antibody
D. Antibody produced during recovery from
measles
23. Which of the following is characterized by
individual, blister-like lesions affecting specific
dermatomes and usually causing intense,
burning pain?
A. Variola
Measles
& Herpes zoster
D. Infectious mononucleosis
E. Hand-foot-and-mouth disease
24. Collagen degradation that i s observed in chronic
periodontal disease can result directly from the
action of collagenase enzymes of oral microbial
origin. Such enzymes have been demonstrated
as component systems of
Porphyroplonas species.
' $ Lepthothrix bucca,js.
C. Entamoelja gingivalis.
D. Enterococcus faecalis.
E. Veillonellaspecies.
25. Hepatitis C virus infection is MOSTofien
transmitted through
A. sexual contact.
B. oral secretions.
blood transfusions.
the fecai-oral route.
E. respiratory droplets.
26. The microflora of the healthy gingival sulcus is
predominantly
A. spirochetes and yeasts.
B. gram-positive facultative rods and
spirochetes.
C. gram-positive facultative cocci and
filamentous bacteria.
@ gram-negative anaerobic rods and
fusobacteria.
E. gram-negative anaerobic cocci and gram-
positive facultative cocci.
27. lrnmunologic injury that involves the activation of
complement as an important event i n producing
damage to tissue is found in which of the
following reactions?
A. Delayed type hypersensitivity
B Anaphylactic type hypersensitivity
@ Immune-complex mediated hypersensitivity
C. .&.ntibod;-dependent cell-modiated
cytotoxicity
28. Which of the following represents the MOST
numerous leukocytes found in gingival crevicular
fluid?
'Q Monocytes
6. Neutrophils
C. Plasma cells
D. 8-lymphocytes
E. T-lymphocytes
29. Which of the following groups of cells are
characteristic of a chronic inflammatory
process?
A. Neutrophils, mast cells, and basophils
B. Neutrophils, eosinophils, and histiocytes
@ Lymphocytes, plasma cells. and
macrophages
D. Basophils, eosinophils, and Reed-
Stemberg cells
E. Histiocytes, Reed-Sternberg cells, and
mast cells
30. Which unique aspect of cariogenic strains of
Streptococcus mutans sets them apart from
other oral acidogenic organisms?
Tendency to form chains
Secretion of proteolytic enzymes
Extracellular polysaccharide made from
glucose
Formation of water insoluble glucans from
sucrose
Four equivalents of acid formed per mole
of glucose
31. Which of the following is chiefly an extravascular
event?
A. Stasis
H yperemia
Chemotaxis
D. Margination
E. Pavementing
32. Spontaneous gingival bleeding seen in acute
leukemia is MOST likely a result of which of the
following?
Thrombocytopenia
Q von Willebrand disease
C. Hypoprothrombinernie
u. Vascular fragility
E. Factor VII deficiency
45. A bone lesion with radiopaque structures
radiating from the periphery suggests which of
the following?
A. Osteosarcoma
Osboblastoma
Multiple myeloma
D. Giant cell tumor
E. Osteitis deformans
46. A virus associated with the induction of cervical
carcinoma is which of the following?
A. Adenovirus
B. C-type virus
C. Varicella zoster virus
Epstein-Bar virus
E. Human papillomavirus
6
47. Which of the following types of necrosis is
particularly characteristic of pyogenic infections?
Q Caseous
B. Gummatous
C. Coagulative
D. Liquefactive
E. Enzymatic fat
4 4 h
associated with Epstein-Barr virus?
T-cell lymphoma
Kaposi's sarcoma
Hepatocellular carcinoma
Nasopharyngeal carcinoma
E. Squamous cell carcinoma of the uterine
cervix
49. Which of the following conditions might be an
initial manifestation of early, acute HIV infection?
A. Kaposi's sarcoma
8. Wasting syndrome
C. Oral hairy leukoplakia
Mononucleosis-like syndrome
~neumocystis cannii pneumonia
50. Rough pneumococci grown in the presence of
DNA from dead smooth pneumococci develop
capsules. This is an example of bacterial
A. mutation.
B. dominance.
C. conjugation.
transduction.
transformation.
51. Each of the following denotes a malignant
neoplasm EXCEPT one. Which one is this
EXCEPTION?
($ Adenoma
Hepatoma
C. Lymphoma
D. Melanoma
E. Seminoma
52. Secondary syphilis is characterized by each of
the following EXCEPTone. Which one is this
EXCEPTION7
A. Cutaneous lesions
Positive VDRL test
Development of a gumma
D. Mucous membrane lesions
E. Presence of spirochetes in lesions
53. Most cases of encephalitis are caused by which
of the following?
A. Fungi
@ Viruses
C. Protozoa
v. Bxtena
E. Rickettsia
54. Primary tissue transplants, such as allogeneic
skin, kidney or heart, are MOST commonly
rejected because of
A. induction of armed host macrophages.
B. immediate hypersensitivity ritactions.
C. humoral immune responses to cell-surface
alloantigens.
@
cell-mediated immune responses to cell-
surface alloantigens.
E. humoral and cell-mediated responses to
intracellular tissue-specific antigens.
55. An 18-year-old male patient sustains a
compound fracture of the femur. Twenty-four
hours later the fragments are manipulated in
order to better align before splinting. The patient
dies suddenty. The most likely reason for his
sudden death is
A. hypovolemic shock.
myocardial infarction.
6 fat embolism.
D. pulmonary thromboem~o!ism.
E. air embolism.
56. Prevotella intermedia is first detectable in the
oral cavity
A. at birth.
by adolescence.
. in the presence of dental caries.
D. immediately before periodontal disease
appears.
E. long after periodontal disease appears.
57. A patient has oral candidiasis but otherwise is in
good health. Which of the following drugs is the
BEST choice for treating this patient?
@ Nystatin
8. Vancomycin
C. Penicillin
D. Tetracycline
E. Streptomycin
58. The newly formed. highly vascularized
connective tissue associated with inflammation
is known as which of the following?
A. Scar
B. Angioma
C. Granuloma
D. Purulent exudate
@ Granulation tissue
59. Vasodilation and increased vasopermeability
lasting f?r several days in an area of
inflammati?n indicate which of the following?
A. Thrombosis
B. Release of bradykinin
C. Hageman factor activation
Formation of granulation tissue
Endothelial cell damage and disruption
60. A patient with uncontrolled diabetes mellitus
presents with nasal obstruction, proptosis, and
palatal perforation. These clinical findings are
MOSTconsistent with which of the following?
A. Candidiasis
@ Mucormycosis
C. Blastomycosis
D. Histoplasmosis
E. Coccidioidomyccsis
61. Certain staphylococci. Pseudomonas
aeruginosa, Escherichia coli and streptococci
share as a property the fact that they
A. are gram-positive.
B, are strict anaerobes.
C. fail to ferment glucose.
do not grow on nutrient agar.
are common in hospital-acquired
infections.
62. B-cell immunodeficiency can be treated with
injections of
A. activated complement components.
6. T-helper cell adjuvants.
C. natural killer cells.
gamma+lobulin.
63. Which of the following cells are INCREASED in
number in the bloodstream in the case of allergy
or parasitic infection?
A. . Basophils
Eosinophils
Neutmphils
D. Atypical lymphocytes
E. Nucleated erythrocytes
- 1
U-t .
sterilization method for a heat-labile item to be
used in a surgical procedure?
Dry heat
Autoclaving
C. Ethylene oxide
D. Saturated chemical vapor
E. Immersion in chemical sterilant
65. The MOST effective means of preventing
disease transmission in the dental office is
based on which of the following concepts?
A. Asepsis
B. Disinfection
@ Sterilization
D. Barrier techniques
E. Universal precautions
66. Which of the following conditions is diagnosed
by karyotyping?
A. Gout
B. Cystic fibrosis
Tay-Sach disease
Neurofibromatosis
Turnets syndrome
99. Each of the following is a feature of acute
pancreatitis EXCEPT one. Which one is this
EXCEPTIOW
Fibrosis
Hemorrhage
C. lnflammatibn
D. Fat necrosis
E. Parenchymal necrosis
100. Each of the following statements concerning
malignant hypertension is correct EXCEPT
one. Which one is this EXCEPTIOK!
@
Patients will live a normal life span if
untreated.
B. Patients have markedly elevated levels
of plasma renin.
C. Fatients are generally younger than
those with benign hypertension.
D. The corresponding renal lesion is
known as malignant nephrosclerosis.
E. It may arise de novo or appear
--
-
hypertension.
11
- - -
. - - -;--- nant xl Association Joint Commission on National Denlal Examinations
All rinh'c -^"^"""
~ l l test i t ems refer to permanent teeth unl ess
"primary" is specified.
AII test i t ems relating t o occl usi on refer t o Class I
cani ne and mol ar relationship unl ess otherwi se
specified. Terms such as "normal" or "ideal" are
synonymous wi th the above definition.
101. The maxillary canine is MOST likely to A,
which of the following anomalies?
& Agenesis
A dwarfed root
A lingual tubercle
A peg crown form
E. Root bifurcation
102. In the intercuspal position, the distal marginal
ridge of a maxillary first premolar i s in contact
with which of the following mandibular
structures?
A. The distal cusp ridge of the facial cusp
on a first premolar
@
The mesial cusp ridge of the facial cusp
. on a second premolar
C. The distal cusp ridge of the facial cusp
on a second premolar
D. The mesial cusp ridge-of the lingual
cusp on a second premolar
E. The mesial cusp ridge of a canine
103. In an ideal intercuspal position, the distoincisal
aspcct of a mandibular central incisor opposes
which structure of which maxillary incisof?
A. Lingual fossa of a lateral
B. Mesial marginal ridge of a lateral
C. Distal marginal ridge of a central
Mesial marginal ridge of a central
& Lingual fossa of a central
104. The erupted dentition of a normally developed
7-year-old child usually consists of
A. 8 primary and 8 permanent teeth.
B. 10 primary and 10 permanent teeth.
12 primary and 8 permanent teeth.
18 primary and 6 permanent teeth.
20 primary teeth.
105. Which of the following represents the tooth in
the primary dentition that normally erupts
immediately after the maxillary lateral incisor?
A. Mandibular lateral incisor
B. Mandibular canine
Maxillary canine
4 Maxillary first molar
Mandibular first molar
106. The mandibular molars normally exhibit the
same number of root branches as which of the
following?
Max~llary first premolars
B. Maxillary second premolars
C. Mandibular first premolars
D. Mandibular second premolars
E. Maxillary molars
107. Which of the following is normally exhibited by
maxillary second premolars?
A. Two roots
B. A mesial concavity of the crown
C. A facial crown contour that is greatly
\
inclined to the lingual
- . -
D. A lingual height of contour in the
cervical third of the crown
@
A crown that is wider faciolingually thz-
mesiodistally
108. Which of the following primary teeth is MOST
likely to have an oblique ridge?
A. Maxl l aty canine
Maxillary first molar
Maxillary second molark-
Mandibular first molar
Mandibular second molar
109. The GREATEST influence of Bennett
movement is potentially on the
. ,.
A. posterior teeth during prottISi0n.
B. posterior teeth i n the retruded contact
position.
C. posterior teeth during maximum
intercuspation.
@
working side teeth during l ateal
excursion. .
110.
During endodontic therapy, one will usually
fi nd two pulp canals in which of the following?
A. Mandibular canine
5.
Distofacial root of a maxillary molar
Distal root of a mandibular first molar
Mesial root of a mandibular first molar
Lingual root of a maxillary first molar
111. Which of the following represents the
developmental groove between the distofacial
cusp and the distal cusp of a mandibular first
molar'?
A. Facial
Distal
Mesiofa.cial
112. Which of the foliowing anatomic structures
effectively divides the temporomandibular joint
into two separately functioning compartments?
@ Disc
0. - Capsule
C. Condylar head
D. Glenoid fossa
E. Articular eminence
11 3. Which of the following are notable differences
between primary and permanent dentitions?
A. Cervical ridges of permanent teeth a:a
more pronounced:
8. Crowns of primary incisors are longer
compared with mesiodistal diameters.
%C. Root trunks of primary teeth are less
pronounced.
@,
Roots of pemanent teeth are longer
. and slimmer.
11 4. In the intercuspal position, which of the
following anterior teeth has the potential of
contacting both anterior and posterior
- .- -
antagonists?
A. Maxillary lateral incisor
Mandibular lateral incisor
Maxillary canine
Mandibular canine
11 5.
During an endodontic procedure on Tooth #21.
clinical symptoms lead the dentist to suspect
the presence of a second pulp canal. Which
direction is the MOST likely location for the
suspected canal?
A. Facial
Distal
Lingual
D. Mesial
11 6. When compared to the maxillary central
incisor, the maxillary lateral incisor normally
has a root which
A. is more blunt at its apex.
8. tapers less toward the apex.
C. is more triangular shaped in cross
section at the neck.
@
is relatively longer in relation to its
incisogingival crown length.
117. On the crown of the mandibular canine, the
height of contour of the labial surface is
normally located in the same horizontal third
as which of the following?
Q Cingulum
8. Labial developmental depressions
C. Mesial contact area of the same tooth
D. Distal contact area of the same tooth
E. Mesial height of contour of the
maxillary canine
118. Which of the following is a distinguishing
characteristic of a mandibular lateral incisor?
@
The incisal edge follows the arch
curvature in relation to the faciolingual
axis.
8. The incisal edge IS perpendicular to the
faciolingual axis.
C. The cervical line curvature is greater
distally than mesially.
- ' D The incisal edge is lingual to the root
bisector.
E. The mesiodistal dimension of the facial
surface is narrower than that of a
mandibular central incisor.
11 9. Which of the following features is found on a
maxillary first premolar but not on a maxillary
second prewolaf?
--
A. A single pulp canal
A short central groove
@ A long central groove
A short lingual cusp
120. In a normal occlusion, the distolingual cusp of
a maxillary second molar occludes with which
of the following molars?
A. Central fossa of a mandibular second
6. Central fossa of a mandibular third
C. Marginal ridges of a mandibular first
and a mandibular second
@
Marginal ridges of a mandibular second
and a mandibular third
E. Mesial fossa of a mandibular third
121. Which of the following muscles has an
important influence on the function of the
mandible, although it is not generally
considered a muscle of mastication?
A. Omohyoid
6. Geniohyoid
C. Mylohyoid
D. Digastric
E. Sternocleidomastoid
122. When examining a patient for the first time, the
dentist notices that there is an abnormally wide
mandibular incisor. On further examination,
only three mandibular incisors, including the
abnormally wide one, are.evident. This
condition is BEST described as which of the
following?
Mesiodens
$ Fusion
Concrescence
D. ' Gemination
E. Dilaceration
123. Which of the fol!swing anatomic features of a
maxillary l ate~al i nci xr will MGST likely
complicate root planing?
Root convexity
Mesial concavity
Distolingual groove
D. Root bifurcation
E. Extreme distal cervical line curvature
124. The contact areas of anterior teeth are incisal
to the middle thirds in each of the following
EXCEPT one. Which one is this EXCEPTION!
Distal contact of the maxillary canine
B. Mesial contact of the maxillary canine
C. Mesial contact of the maxillary lateral
incisor
D. Mesial contact of the mandibular lateral
incisor
E. Distal con:acl of the mandibl~lar lateral
incisor
125. In a normal Class I relationship, in which of the
following ways is each maxillary posterior tooth
positioned in relation to its corresponding
mandibular tooth?
End to end
More facially and distally
More facially and mesially
D. More linguaily and distally
E. More lingually and mesially
126. Each of the following factors affects heights of
cusps and depths of fossae on restorations
EXCEPT one. Which one is this EXCEPTION!
A. Curve of Spee
6. Intercondylar distance
C. Vertical overlap of anterior teeth
D. Horizontal overlap of anterior teeth
E. Steepness of the articular eminence
127. On which surface would one expect to see the
first evidence of resorption on the root of a
primary incisor?
Facial
@ Lingual
Mesial
D. ' Distal
128. When viewing mandibular border movements
in the frontal plane, which number in the
illustration below represents the postural
position?
129. In a protrusive movement, the contacting
surfaces of the incisors are
A. the lingual of the mandibular and the
incisal edge of the maxillary.
0. the facial of the maxillary and the
incisal edge of the mandibular.
@
the lingual of the maxillary and the
incisal edge of the mandibular.
Dr the facial of the mandibular and the
incisal edge of the maxillary.
130. Which of the following represents the structure
on the Grown of a maxillary canine that is
located immediately to the mesial of the
rnesiolingual fossa?
Lingual ridge
Mesial marginal ridge
Distal marginal ridge
D. Distolinal~al fossa
E. Mesial developmental groove
131. Which of the following muscles of mastication
is primarily responsible for synchronizing the
movement of the condyle and the articular
disc?
A. Masseter
6. Ternporalis
Medial pterygoid
Lateral pterygoid
132. When compared to a maxillary first molar, the
roots of a maxillary second molar
A. are longer.
0. are more divergent.
C. are fewer i n number.
have less potential for fusion.
& are greater i n distal inclination.
133. When compared to the primay mandibular
first molar, the primay mandibular second
molar nor r r i al l y exhibits a GREATER number
of which of the following'?
A. Oblique ridges
Roots
@ Cusps
Cervical ridges
E. Trans.rerse ridcas
134. Where is the distal contact area of a maxillary
canine usually located? a
In the middle third
8. In the incisal third
C. In the cervical third
D. At the junction of the incisal and middle
thirds
135. Regarding actions of the TMJ, rotation of the
condyle primarily occurs in which of the
following joint spaces?
A. posterior
136. ~ h i c h ' o f the following describes the contact
relationship between a maxillary central incisor
and a maxillary lateral incisor?
@
Contact is offset to the lingual.
Contact is centered incisocervically.
C. Lingual embrasure is larger than the
facial embrasure.
D. lncisal embrasure is the largest of all
the embrasures.
137. Which of the following describes the roots of
the mandibular first premolars?
& Often bifurcated
Flattened faciolingually
Broader facially than lingually
Frequently sharply curved distally
138. The presence of inamelons in a 10-year-old
patient suggests which of the following
conditions?
A. Fluorosis
&
Malnutrition
Malformation
Anterior open bite
Retained primary teeth
139. In a normal occlusion, the lingual cusp of the
maxillary second premolar occludes with which
fossa of which mandibular tooth?
Tooth - Fossa
0 Second premolar Distal
B. Second oremolar Mesial
C. First moiar Central
D. First molar Mesial
140. Which of the following teeth is MOST likely to
exhibit 3 pulp canals?
Tooth #4
D. . Tooth #27
141. On which of the following surfaces of
permanent teeth is pit and fissure caries
MOST likely to occur?
Facial surfaces of maxillary first molars
Lingual surfaces of maxillary first
molars
C. Facial surfaces of mandibular first
premolars
D. Lingual surfaces of mandibular first
molars
E. Proximal surfaces of mandibular
incisors
142. Moving the mandible from a maximum
intercuspal position to a retruded contact
position usually results in
8
increased occlusal vertical dimension.
decreased occlusal vertical dimension.
C. decreased horizontal overlap:
D. increased vertical' overlap.
E. increased rest position.
143. The facial cusp tip of a mandibular second
premolar has the potential to contact which of
the following maxillary cuspal inclines in a
protrusive movement?
@ Distofacial of first premolar
B. Mesiofacial of second premolar
C. Distofacial of second prernolur
D. Mesiofacial of first molar
E. Distofacial of first molar
144. When e&rnining the normal mandibular arch
from a sagittal view, what inclination of the
teeth can be observed?
A. Anterior teeth are distally inclined;
posterior teeth are mesially inclined.
8. Both anterior and posterior teeth are
distally inclined.
@
Both anterior and posterior teeth are
mesially inclined.
D. Anterior teeth are mesially inclined;
posterior teeth are distally inclined.
E. Anterior and posterior teeth are
straight.
145. Which of the following represents the incisor
crown for which, from the facial aspect, it is
MOST difficult to distinguish right from left?
A. Maxillary central
8. Maxillary lateral
Mandibular central
& Mandibular lateral
146. A mandibular first molar usually has how many
roots and canals?
Roots Canals
' I
Two
Three
Two
D. Three Three
147. Which of the following roots of teeth would
MORE frequently contain a single root canal?
Maxillary incisors
Mandibular incisors
C. Maxillary first premolars
D. Mesiobucca: root, maxillary molars
E. Mesial root, mandibular molars
148. A linguogingival groove is MOST likely to be
present on the crown of which of the following
incisors?
A. Maxillary central
B. Maxillary lateral
C. Mandibular central
D. Mandibular lateral
149. Each of the following muscles elevates the
mandible U(CEPTone. Which one is this
EXCEPTION?
A. Temporalis
Masseter
6
Medial pterygoid
Lateral pterygoid
150. In a normal occlusion, the lingual cusps of the
mandibular teeth oppose which landmark of
the maxillary dentition?
A. Lingual gr oovg and/or central fossae
B. Lingual grooves and/or marginal ridges
C. Lingual grooves and/or occlusal
embrasures
Lingual grooves andor lingual
@ embrasures
151. The central groove of a maxillary molar
crosses the oblique ridge to connect which of
the following pits?
A. Distal and distofacial
6. Central and distofacial
Q
Central and facial
Central and distal
Central and lingual
152. In a faciolingual section of the pulp chamber.
two pulp horns are normally visible in
specimens of which of the following teeth?
A. Maxillary incisors
8. Mandibular incisors
C. Maxillary canines
Mandibular canines
Maxillary premolars
7 -
153. Which of the following mandibular mol a~
proximal crown surfaces normally exhibits the
LARGEST size?
@ Mesial of the first
Distal of the first
C. Mesial of the second
D. Distal of the second
E. Mesial of the third
154. In primary first molars, which portion of the
crown is shorter occlusogingivally?
A. Mesial
6. Distal
C. Midfacial
3. :didlingual
155. Wqch of the following developmental grooves
i s a distinguishing characteristic of the
maxillary first premolar?
A. Central
&
Distofacial
Mesiolingual
Mesial marginal
156. Which primary molar has a crown resembling
a permanent premolar, but the root form is
typical of a permanent molar?
@ Maxilary first
Maxillary second
C. Mandibular first
D. Mandibular second
157. On the crown of a mandibular first premolar,
which of the following grooves extends acros,
the marginal ridge and onto the mesial
surface?
A. Mesial
6. Mesial marginal
C. Mesiofacial triangular
6
Mesiolingual triangular
Mesiolingual developmental
158. Which of the following ridgestrepresents the
linear elevation that extends from the
distoincisal angle to the cingulum?
A. Distal
8. Lingual
Cervical
Distolingual
. Distal marginal
159. When Tooth #9 is in lingual crossbite, which
the following would BEST indicate the locatic
of facets due to attrition?
A. Linguoincisal #9, labiolingual#23 an(
#24
6. -1inguoincisal #9, linguoincisal #24 ar
#25
Labioincisal#9, linguoincisal #23 an(
#24
D. Labioincisal#9, labioincisal #24 and
#25
160. Which of the following arc the LAST prima.;
teeth to erupt?
A. Maxillary canines
6. Mandibular canines
Mandibular first molars
Maxillary second molars
Mandibular second molars
161. In a normal occlusion, a mediotrusive (non-
working) interference can occur between
which of the following cusps?
@ Maxillary and mandibular supportin(
Maxillary and mandibular guiding
C. Maxillary guiding and mandibular
supporting
D. Maxillary SI I >porting and mandibula
guiding
173. Which of the following represents the cusp that
is never present on the crown of a maxillary
second or third molar?
A. Mesiofacial
B. Mesiolingual
C. Distofacial
Distolingual
Carabelli
174. The occlusal table of a mandibular first molar
normally exhibits which of the following ridges?
A. 2 oblique
6. 4 marginal
C. 3 transverse
4 triangular
s triangular
175. Which of the'following mandibular movements
is indicated in the illustration below?
Protrusive
Right laterai, laterctusive (working)
side
C. Left lateral, laterotrusive (working) side
0. Right lateral, mediotrusive
(non-working) side
E. Left lateral, mediotrusive (non-working)
side
176. Each of the following root surfaces on a
mandibular first molar normally exhibits a
longitudinal groove EXCEPT one. Which one
is this EXCEPTION?
Surface Root
A. Mesial Mesial
6. Distal Mesial
Mesial Distal
($ Distal Distal
177. In an ideal intercuspal position, the distofacial
cusp of the mandibular first molar contacts
which structure of which maxillary molar(s)?
Maxillarv molar(sl Structure
First Central fossa
First FAesial fossa
First Distal fossa
First and second Occlusal
embrasure %
Second and third Occlusal
embrasure
178. Which of the following represents the MOST
powerful muscle of mastication?
C. Geniohyoid
0. Lateral pterygoid
E. Sternocleidomastoid
179. Which of the following primary teeth has a
facial cervical ridge so distinctly prominent t
make it a unique tooth?
A. Maxillary central incisor
6. Mandibular canine
4 Maxillary canine
Mandibular first molar
Maxillary second molar
180. Bilateral contraction of which of the followi~
muscles acts to protrude the mandible?
A. Masseter
& Temparalis
Medial pterygoid
Lateral pterygoid
Anterior digastric
181. The mesial contact of a mandibular canin
located in (at) the
middigthird.
incisal third.
cervical third.
D. junction of the incisal and middle
E. junction of the middle and cervica
thirds.
182. The muscle fibers that extend into the lingual
frenum are from which of the following
muscles?
A. Mylohyoid
13. Geniohyoid
&
Hyoglossus
Styloglossus
Genioglossus
183.
Which of the following illustrations represents
the facial view of a mandibular right canine?
184. The oblique ridge of the maxillary molars
extends between which two cusps?
A. Mesiofacial and distofacial
(3
Mesiolingual and distolingual
Mesiolingual and distofacial
Mesiofacial and mesiolingual
E. !*?esiofacial and distolingual
185. Which of the following represents the root
branch qf the mandibular molars which is
normally the SHORTEST i n length?
A. Mesial of the first
& Distal of the first
Mesial of the second
Distal of the second
186. Which premolar frequently has only one pulp
horn?
Maxillary first
& Mandibular first
Maxillary second
0. Mandibular second
187. A primary mandibular second molar differs
from a permanent mandibular first molar in tha
it
A. is darker in color.
8. - is larger in size.
C. has four cusps.
has a larger occlusal surface.
has roots that are more divergent.
188. On the crown of the mandibular first molar, the
facial cusp ridge of the ML cusp originates at
the cusp tip and normally termmates at which
of the following?
Lingual groove
&) Halfway down the facial surface
Halfway down the lingual surface
D. Mesial portion of the central groove
E. Mesiolinguo-occlusal point angle area
189. In a protrusive movement, the maxillary left
central incisor can potentially come in contact
with which of the following mandibular teeth?
#22 and #23
#23 and #24
#24and#25
D. #25 and #26
E. #26 and #27
190. Which of the following statements BEST
describes the function of the ligaments
associated with the TMJ? They serve to
inhibit the normal masticatory cycle.
& protect s~rrmunding and supponing
tissues from damages.
C. assist musculature in producing
movement
D. establish normal resting position.
E. dictate intercuspal position of the
mandible.
191. The arrow on the illustration below represents
the path taken by the
A. distolingual cusp of a first molar.
mesiofacial cusp of a second molar.
mesiblingual cusp of a second molar.
distofacial cusp of a second molar.
E. distolingual cusp of a second molar.
192. The distolingual cusp of the right mandibular
first molar is fractured by excessive contact
with the opposing maxillary molar during right
lateral excursion. Which of the following is the
MOST likely location of the interference?
A. Lingual surface of a maxillary lingual
cusp
9. Facial surface of a maxillary lingual
cusp
Facial surface of a maxillary facial cusp
& Lingual surface of a maxillar/ facial
cusp
E. Occlusal table of the maxillary molar
193. The crown of the maxillary canine normally
exhibits
a lingual pit.
& a lingual ridge.
a linguogingival groove.
D. a linguogingival fissure.
E. lingual developmental depressions.
194. Which of the following teeth has its mesial
marginal ridge located more cervically than its
distal marginal ridge?
@ Mandibular first premolar
8. Mai l l ary first premolar
C. Maxillary first molar
D. Primary mandibular first molar
E. Mandibular second molar
195. In a three-cusped mandibular second
premolar, which of the following correctly
arranges the cusps from LARGEST to
SMALLESl?
A. Lingual, mesiofacial, distofacial
Lingual, distofacial, mesiofacial
Facial, rnesiolingual, distolingual
Facial, distolingual, mesiolin~..
196. An extruded mandibular right third molar
(maxillary third molar extracted) .will MOST
often impede which mandibular movement?
Protrusive
B. Retrusive
C. Right lateral
D. Left lateral
197. When viewed from the incisal aspect, each of
the following features of an incisor is visible
EXCEPT one. Which one is this EXCEPTION?
& Cingulum
Lingual fossa
Cervical line
Marginal ridges
E. Mesiofacial developmental depression
198. When viewed sagitally, which of the following
teeth have their long axes at an angle LEAST
perpendicular to the occlusal plane?
A. Maxjllary incisors
8. Mandibular canines
C. Mandibular premolars
6
Maxillary premolars
Mandibular first molars
199. The occlusal view of a normal dental arch
segment i s shown below. The arrow points to
which of the following mandibular teeth?
Primary right first molar
Primary left first molar
C. Permanent right first premolar
D. Permanent left second premolar
200. Which of the following teeth is wider
faciolingually than mesi odi sta~l ~?
Mandibular first premolar
Maxillary first molar
C. ~andi bul ar first molar
D. Mandibular second molar