Mocking Cat

INSTRUCTIONS
Special for Online Tests

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NOT KEEP with you books, rulers, slide rules, drawing instruments, calculators (including watch calculators),
pagers, cellular phones, stop watches etc.
Timings for the Test
1. You will be given 150 minutes to answer the test. A reverse countdown will start immediately after you start with the test.
2. You will have to solve the questions and mark your answers to the questions in the sequence in which they come.
You are NOT allowed to move between sections or even among questions given in a section.
How to answer
1. This test has three sections which examine various abilities. Section # 01 - 25 Questions; Section # 02 - 50
Questions; Section # 03 - 25 Questions. In distributing the time over the three sections, please bear
in mind that you need to demonstrate your competence in all three sections.
2. Directions for answering the questions are given before each group of questions. Read these directions carefully
and answer the questions by clicking on the right option provided in the space provided. There is only one correct
answer to each question.
3. For each correct answer 4 marks will be awarded. Wrong answers will attract a penalty of 1 mark.
After the Test
1. At the end of the test, you will be able to see your score instantaneously. Total attempts, total rights, wrongs
etc. will be available to you.
2. Your AIR for the test will be available to you on the PT SRC itself, after the last date of wri ting the test is over.
3. A copy of the test and detailed solutions along with the answer keys (in PDF format) will be mailed to you at the
end of the test on your email ID. This is being sent purely for your reference and analysis.
4. Revising and analysing your performance after the test is over is critical to your improved performance in the
next test(s). A positive attitude to revise, analyse and learn from mistakes will be a great plus.
Important guidelines for Online Tests
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Problems
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ever reason, you can re-login and start taking the test again. In this case, the test will re-start from the last
question you had attempted.
The CTs (Comprehensive Tests) & Prac-CATs provided by PT represent a simulation of the CAT observed over last few years. These tests are an attempt at preparing aspirants for the actual Test. The complete test series
comprises 50 All India Mock Tests (45 paper based and 5 online), with All India Rankings (AIR) being generated for most of them. The AIRs generated for these tests provide a classic benchmarking tool.
Prac-CAT # 18
(Part of the 50 All-India Mock Tests provided by PT)
D DD DD
O OO OO
N NN NN
O OO OO
T TT TT
O OO OO
P PP PP
E EE EE
N NN NN
F FF FF
R RR RR
O OO OO
M MM MM
T TT TT
H HH HH
I II II
S SS SS
S SS SS
I II II
D DD DD
E EE EE
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TEST FORM NUMBER TEST BOOKLET SR. NO.

Test Code: CT 38
222
IC : PTpnrpc18 (1) of (22)
DIRECTIONS: The following table gives information about rainfall and temperature during the two seasons summer
and winter in different states. Summer months are considered from March to October, while winter months span from
November to February. Study the table and answer the questions that follow.
State
Winter
temperature
range (inC)
Summer
temperature
range (in C)
Rainfall in
winter (in
cm)
Rainfall in
summer (in
cm)
Soil type
Andhra Pradesh 8 to 30 28 to 45 50 to 75 150 to 175 Loamy
Madhya Pradesh 2 to 30 28 to 50 10 to 15 80 to 100 Hard, Rocky
Chhattisgarh 5 to 30 30 to 48 10 to 15 80 to 100 Hard, Rocky
West Bengal 5 to 30 26 to 42 60 to 80 175 to 200 Loamy
Tamil Nadu 8 to 32 30 to 46 40 to 60 140 to 160 Black, Loamy
Karnataka 8 to 32 28 to 46 35 to 50 100 to 120 Black, Clay
Jammu & Kashmir 20 to 15 18 to 36 15 to 20 80 to 100 Rocky
Punjab 2 to 25 24 to 42 20 to 30 100 to 120 Loamy
Tripura 2 to 25 20 to 38 60 to 80 180 to 200 Loamy, Red clay
Himachal Pradesh 15 to 15 16 to 34 20 to 30 80 to 100 Rocky
Gujarat 5 to 35 28 to 48 5 to 10 30 to 40 Sandy, Rocky
Manipur 2 to 25 18 to 36 30 to 40 140 to 160 Clay
Mizoram 2 to 25 18 to 34 50 to 60 120 to 140 Clay
Orissa 5 to 30 28 to 48 60 to 80 160 to 175 Loamy
Kerala 5 to 32 24 to 45 100 to 120 240 to 260 Loamy
Rajasthan 0 to 35 28 to 52 5 to 10 15 to 20 Sandy
Maharashtra 2 to 35 28 to 48 20 to 30 60 to 80 Black, Loamy
Haryana 2 to 30 30 to 50 40 to50 70 to 90 Loamy
Jharkhand 2 to 30 26 to 48 30 to 40 100 to 120 Loamy
Arunachal Pradesh 5 to 20 18 to 33 25 to 40 80 to 100 Rocky
Bihar 1 to 28 28 to 48 40 to 50 100 to 110 Loamy
Uttaranchal 10 to 20 20 to 34 25 to 40 50 to 70 Rocky
Nagaland 2 to 24 20 to 36 40 to 50 120 to 140 Rocky
Assam 1 to 25 28 to 40 40 to 60 110 to 130 Loamy, Clay
Goa 4 to 32 28 to 42 70 to 90 200 to 220 Black, Clay
Delhi 1 to 25 28 to 49 30 to 35 80 to 90 Sandy
Sikkim 5 to 20 16 to 32 30 to 35 70 to 80 Rocky, Clay
Uttar Pradesh 3 to 32 28 to 50 40 to 50 90 to 110 Rocky, Loamy, Clay
1. Which state has the least maximum temperature during the summer season?
(1) Jammu & Kashmir (2) Himachal Pradesh
(3) Arunachal Pradesh (4) None of these
2. How many different types of soil have been mentioned in the above table?
(1) Five (2) Six
(3) Seven (4) None of these
SECTION I
Number of Questions = 25
DIRECTIONS: The following pie charts show the expenditure outlays on various items during the school education
and higher studies of Yuvraj. The various items pertaining to school education are represented by the letters S
1
, S
2
, S
3
.... and those related to higher studies are represented by the letters H
1
, H
2
, ...... etc. Refer to the diagram to answer the
questions that follow.
School Education
S6
S5
89
S4
6.3
S3
60.2
S2
35.6
S1
S7
66.9
Higher Studies
H4
H2
27
H1
H7
H6
H5
79.8
H3
62.7
Items School Education Higher Studies
1 Hostel S
1
H
1
2 Clothing S
2
H
2
3 Others S
3
H
3
4 Caution Money S
4
H
4
5 School Fees S
5
H
5
6 Books S
6
H
6
7 Tuition Fees S
7
H
7
Rs. 1,10,467 Rs. 2,21,436 Total
3. If investment on item S
1
is Rs.13,620, then what is the approximate investment on item S
6
?
(1) Rs.16,675 (2) Rs.17,675
(3) Rs.18,795 (4) Data insufficient
4. A student misreads the degree measure of item H
3
as 26.7 and proceeds to calculate the expenditure outlay for item
H
3
. The difference between the actual expenditure outlay for item H
3
and the expenditure outlay as calculated by the
student for item H
3
, is
(1) Rs.22,413 (2) Rs.21,243
(3) Rs.24,213 (4) Rs.22,143
5. If D.M. (degree measure) of H
1
+ D.M. of H
7
= 123.5
D.M. of H
7
D.M. of H
4
= 72.6
D.M. of H
6
D.M. of H
1
= 16.1
D. M. of H
1
D. M. of H
4
= 40.3, then
ExpenditureOutlay for itemH
ExpenditureOutlay for itemH
1
7
(1) 0.745 (2) 0.585
(3) 0.643 (4) 0.825
DIRECTIONS: For the following question, four options are given. Choose the correct option.
6. False Land is an island in the Indian Ocean. The inhabitants of the False Land island answer every question with
two sentences, one of which is always true, and the other always false.
Somebody ate the pizza you baked. You are sure its either Ramu, Shamu or Mohit. You ask them, Who ate the pizza
I baked? You get the following replies.
Ramu : There is a cat behind you. I ate the pizza.
Shamu : I did not eat the pizza. There is no cat behind you.
Mohit : There are no cats here because we are in Indian Ocean. Ramu did not eat the pizza.
Who ate the pizza?
(1) Ramu (2) Shamu
(3) Mohit (4) Cannot be determined
DIRECTIONS: Refer to the following information and answer the questions that follow.
V.C. Gupta School of management is an institute famous for its IIT Degree course. One can get admission through
its entrance exam named VCGET. VCGET is conducted on second Sunday of December and this year it will be
conducted on 10th December 2006. Notification for VCGET has come and many students have applied for the same.
The institute wants to give an impression that a large number of students are appearing in VCGET this year,
therefore it gives roll number to the students in the manner given in the table.
Zone 1 2 3 4 5 6
Roll number in the list of the
institute (x)
2-100 101-500 501-2000 2001-5000 5001-10000 > 10000
Roll number given to the
student
1.2 x 1.5 x + 50 1.75 x + 100 2 x + 150 2.25 x + 200 2.50 x + 250
VCGET will be conducted in six difference zones number 1 to 6. For example if a students roll number is 200
(zone will be 2) his roll number given by the institute will be 1.5 200 + 150 = 450. Some more information is
provided below
I. Actual roll number is the order in which the institute received application form and is represented by x in
the table.
II. Roll number 1 is assigned to the applicant whose application form is received by the institute very first.
III. If the roll number given to the student (which will be calculated by the formula given in III row of the table) is
not an integer, it is rounded off to the next higher integer.
IV. Only the institute has record of actual roll number i.e., the order in which the institute received application
forms. Also no two forms are received by the institute simultaneously.
7. If Rohans actual roll number is between 450 and 600, which of the following most accurately describes the range in
which his roll number given by the institute lies?
(1) 888-1150 (2) 725-1150
(3) 775-1100 (4) 838-1100
8. Mini got her admit card and her roll number is 14207, what is her Actual roll number in the list of the institute?
(1) 6225 (2) 6226
(3) 6203 (4) 6204
9. Which of the following is true for the Virtual roll numbers?
(1) The Virtual roll number of at least one student in the last range will clash with that of a student in the last-but-
one range.
(2) The Virtual roll number of at least one student in the last range will clash with that of a student in the actual roll
number range of 20015000.
(3) The Virtual roll number of at least one student in the actual roll number range of 5001 10000 will clash with
that of a student in the actual roll number range of 20015000.
(4) The Virtual roll numbers of no two students will clash.
10. If the Virtual roll number that a student got is 10791, what is his/her Actual Roll number?
(1) 4707 (2) 5320
(3) 5240 (4) Cannot be determined uniquely
DIRECTIONS: Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow.
In a family with four generations, A is the oldest male with age 80 years. There are four married couples in the
family and all husbands are 3 years older than their respective wives. In the family there are two brothers and two
sisters and difference between the two brothers is 2 years and also the difference between the two sisters is 2
years. Q is Rs sister-in-law and she has two girls. E is the mother of two sons and P is one of them. Q and S are
daughters-in-law of D. Age of Q is 27 years. R is the younger grandson of C. D is 25 years older than his elder son.
J and Z are granddaughters of E, sum of their ages is 8 and J is older.
11. What is the age of Ps grandmother?
(1) 80 (2) 77
(3) 75 (4) Cant be determined
12. What is the relationship between S and J?
(1) Aunt-niece (2) Uncle-niece
(3) Father-daughter (4) None of these
DIRECTIONS: For the following questions, four options are given. Choose the correct option.
13. A group of six engineers are working as a team on a project which is currently well behind schedule. To catch up
they agree to work evening sessions for six days, from Monday through Saturday. Each evening they will work at
the home of a different member of the team. The team consists of three men J, K and L and three women P, Q and
R. While scheduling when to meet at each team members house, they agree to the following conditions.
The men and women will be alternately hosting the sessions.
They will meet at Ks house earlier in the week than they meet at Rs house; and they will meet at Ps house
earlier in the week than they meet at Ls house.
If J is the host on Monday and Q is the host on Tuesday, then each of the following must be true except
(1) K is the host on Wednesday.
(2) L is the host on Friday.
(3) P is the host on Thursday.
(4) P hosts a session later in the week than R does.
14. The HR manager of a multinational marketing firm has to send three sales persons to a conference in Sandland and
three other sales persons to a conference in Timeland. She must select the six people who will attend the conference
from the following list of seven salespeople: J, K, L, M, N, P and Q. In making her decisions as to who goes and
where they go, the manager is bound by the following conditions:
J must go to Sandland, and L must go to Timeland.
K cannot go to a conference with either L or P.
Neither N nor Q can go to a conference unless the other goes, to attend the same.
Which of the following is a list of salespeople who could go to the conference in Sandland?
(1) J, Q, P (2) J, M, P
(3) J, K, P (4) J, N, P
15. A, B, C, D, ... X, Y, Z are the players who participated in a tournament. Everyone played with every other player
exactly once. A win scores 2 points and a loss scores 0 points. None of the matches ended in a draw. No two players
obtained the same score. At the end of the tournament, the ranking list is published which is in accordance with the
alphabetical order. Then
(1) N wins over M. (2) Q wins over A.
(3) S wins over H. (4) None of these.
16. Six puppies K, L, M, S, T, U must each be scheduled for examination by a veterinarian. The puppies are to be
examined one at a time in six consecutive time slots on the same day according to the following conditions.
M cannot be examined immediately before or immediately after S.
L must be examined immediately before U.
K must be examined fourth.
If S is examined sixth, then which of the following is a complete and accurate list of the time slots where M could be
examined?
(1) First (2) First or second
(3) First or third (4) First or second or third
17. Skeleton towers are generated as follows.
Tower 1 Tower 2 Tower 3
How many blocks would be needed to construct the 100th tower?
(1) 900 (2) 10,000
(3) 9000 (4) Cant be determined
18. To improve discipline in the college campus, the chairman of the university decided to make a committee consisting
of 3 members. For this purpose he called 7 people Mr. Avneesh Singh, Mr. Brijkishore Shrivastav, Mr. Chandra
Prakash, Mr. David Yohan, Mrs. Aditi Pradhan, Mr. Ravi Natrajan and Mrs. Rukmini Bajpayee. In making the selection
he must follow the following conditions.
Mr. Brijkishore or Mr. David will be on the committee.
Mr. Chandra Prakash or Mr. David will be on the committee.
Mr. Chandra Prakash or Mrs. Aditi will be on the committee.
Neither Mr. Avneesh nor Mr. Chandra Prakash will be on the committee.
How many different committees could be formed?
(1) 4 (2) 6
(3) 2 (4) 12
19. Prince Waldo went to fight a 3-headed, 3-tailed dragon. He has a magic sword that can, in one stroke, chop off either
one head, two heads, one tail or two tails. This dragon is of a type related to the Hydra; if one head is chopped off,
a new head grows. In place of one tail, two new tails grow; in place of two tails, one new head grows; if two heads
are chopped off, nothing grows. What is the smallest number of strokes required to chop off all the heads and tails,
thus killing the dragon?
(1) 5 strokes (2) 9 strokes
(3) 12 strokes (4) 15 strokes
DIRECTIONS: Read the information given below and answer the questions that follow.
According to the Hawking equation: The age of a Redwood tree is directly proportional to the sum of the square
roots of its weight in kg and its height in metres. A 10-year old Redwood tree had a height of 16 metres. After one
year the height of the tree remained the same while the weight increased by 13 kg, where a age, h height,
w weight of the tree.
20. What is the Hawking equation?
(1)
A h w = + 2
d i (2)
A h w = + 3
d i
(3)
A h w = +
1
2
d i (4) A h w = +
d i
21. What will be the weight of a 14-year old tree with a height of 36 m?
(1) 8 kg (2) 100 kg
(3) 36 kg (4) None of these
22. As the Century Club hockey team were the first to arrive at the changing rooms, they had their choice of lockers.
Every locker is given a number in order and they are arranged in three rows, numbered 1, 2, 3, ... on the top row. The
sequence continues from the beginning of the next row and ends at the last cell. Four friends of the club quickly
claimed the corner lockers. The members of the Century Club team are either 14 or 15 years old.
1 2 3
Rather amazingly the four friends found that the numbers on their lockers added up to the sum of their ages. How
many lockers are there?
(1) 56 (2) 24
(3) 27 (4) 18
23. All electronic messages in a large corporation are transmitted by means of a message network that connects eight
computers Q, R, S, T, W, X, Y and Z. All the connections are two-way, so that messages can be sent back and forth
between any two connected computers. Any given message enters and leaves a given computer at most once. The
computers are connected only in the following way.
Q is connected to R and to T.
S is connected to R and to T.
W is connected to S and to Y.
X is connected to S, to Y and to Z.
What is the minimum number of computers, excluding the originating and destination computers, through which a
message from T to X must pass?
(1) One (2) Two
(3) Three (4) Four
DIRECTIONS: Refer to the following information to answer the questions that follow.
A chemist has exactly four unlabeled bottles containing colourless liquid standing on a laboratory shelf. The
chemist knows that the only six liquids that the bottles could possibly contain are pure X, pure Y, pure Z or any
mixture of two of these, and that no two bottles are filled with the same liquid. The only feasible way of testing for
the identity of the liquids is to use strips of a special white reactive paper that turns red, blue or yellow depending
on the liquid it is dipped in. The full table of colour changes and the triggers for those changes is given below.
Red: Pure Y, Y mixed with Z.
Blue: Pure X, Pure Z, X mixed with Y.
Yellow: X mixed with Y; X mixed with Y mixed with Z.
24. If none of the four liquids turns the reactive paper yellow, each of the following must be the contents of one of the
bottles except
(1) Pure X (2) Pure Y
(3) Pure Z (4) X, Y and Z mixed together
25. If the liquid in the first bottle tested turns the reactive paper red and the liquid in the second bottle turns it blue, and
if a mix of some of the liquid from each of the first two bottles turns it red, then which of the following must be true?
(1) The first bottle tested contains pure Y
(2) The first bottle tested contains Y mixed with Z
(3) The second bottle tested contains pure X
(4) The second bottle tested contains pure Z
26. A piece of wooden board in the shape of an isosceles right triangle, with sides 1, 1, 2, is to be sawn into two
pieces. The length of the shortest straight cut which divides the board into two parts of equal area is
(1) 1 (2) 0.75
(3)
1
2
(4)
1
2
27. In the given figure, PN = NR, PM = MQ, AR = RC and BQ = QC.
Find the ratio of Area of PQR : Area of ABC.
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|| ||
P
N
~
R
C
Q
B
M
A
~
|
(1)
1
2
(2)
1
3
(3)
2
3
(4) Cannot be determined
28. Ram and Shyam are two boys sitting on a see-saw. Initially when Ram is sitting at ground level and Shyam is up in
the air, the angle made by the see-saw with respect to the ground is 60. Ram moves upwards in such a way that at
a certain moment when Ram is still lower in height than Shyam the extended line from the see-saw makes an angle of
45 with respect to the ground. Find how high above the ground is Ram at that moment if initially Shyam was 6.92
feet in the air?
(1) 0.324 feet (2) 0.636 feet
(3) 0.814 feet (4) 0.983 feet
29. As illustrated in the diagram given below, two pairs of parallel lines divide a
rectangle into 9 smaller rectangles. The area of the original rectangle is S,
and the area of the small shaded rectangle in the middle is S
o
. The area of
figure ABCD in terms of S and S
o
will be
B
A
D
C
(1)
S S +
0
2
(2)
S S
0
2
(3) S 2 S
0
(4)
S S +
0
3
SECTION II
30. A basketball with a radius of 8 inches sits in the corner of a room, touching the floor and two walls simultaneously.
A softball sits on the floor between the basketball and the same corner. The softball touches the floor, the two
walls, and the basketball. What is the radius of the softball?
(1) 83 (2) 8(2 + 3)
(3) 8(2 3) (4) 8 + 23
31. ABCDE is a pentagon with A (0, 2), B (4, 0), C (2 + 1, 0), D (2 + 1, 4) and
E (0, 4). Point P is selected at random from the interior of this pentagon. What is the probability that APB is
obtuse?
(1)
1
5
(2)
5
16
(3)
3
8
(4)
1
4
32. Astronomers have recently discovered a planetary system in which there are 5 planets revolving around a star in
circular paths. The distances of the 5 planets from the star are in arithmetic progression while the speed of the
planets are in geometric progression. a is the average distance of the planets from the star and b is the distance
between two consecutive planet. The average speed of the five planets is 6.2 times the speed of the slowest planet
(let x is the speed of the slower planet). If the five planets are initially collinear with the star, the time after which
they will again be at the same position is (Assume that the planets revolve around the star in a single plane).
(1)
2
4
2 2 2 2
a
x
a b a b ( )( )
(2)
a
x
a b a b
8
4
2 2 2 2
( )( )
(3)
2
2 3 4
a
x
a b a b a b a b ( )( )( )( ) + + + +
(4) None of these
33. On a circular running track of length L = 153 m, 3 athletes stand at certain positions such that when joined by
chords, the chords form an equilateral triangle. The first athlete starts running at 4 m/s away from the second
athlete. Then, after 10 seconds, the second and the third start running in the same direction at 11 m/s each. If both
the second and the first athlete stop when the second athlete catches up with the first one, then after how much
time will the third athlete catch up with them, (the time being measured relative to when the first athlete started
running)?
(1) 24.64 sec (2) 30.28 sec
(3) 27.64 sec (4) 25.28 sec
34. ABCD is a parallelogram with AB = 6 3 cm, BC = 6 cm and angle ABC = 120. The bisectors of angles A, B, C and
D form a quadrilateral PQRS. The area of PQRS
(in cm
2
) is
R
S
B
C
P
Q
D
A
(1) 18 3 2 3 ( ) (2) 18 3 3 2 ( )
(3) 18 2 3 ( ) (4) 18 2 3 ( ) +
35. At the market of Chandni Chowk two fruit sellers, F
1
and F
2
sell apples. F
2
sells her apples for two per rupee. The
apples of F
1
are a bit smaller, she sells her apples for three per rupee. At a certain moment, when both have the same
amount of apples left, F
1
is called away. She asks her neighbour to take care of her goods. To make everything not
too complicated, F
2
simply puts all apples to one big pile and starts selling them for two rupees per five apples.
When F
1
returns the next day, all apples have been sold. But when they start dividing the money, there appears to
be a shortage of seven rupees. Supposing they divide the amount equally, how much does F
2
lose with this deal?
(1) Rs.21 (2) Rs.23
(3) Rs.24 (4) Rs.20
36. The adjacent graph shows the journey of Ghosh Babu from point A to
F and also describes the different speeds in km per hour. The average
speed of Ghosh babu for the complete journey is

20
10
0
A
1 2 3
x
B C
D
E
F
Time (in hours)
y
S
p
e
e
d

(
i
n

k
m
p
h
)
(1) 10.5 kmph (2) 9.5 kmph
(3) 10.83 kmph (4) 10.24 km
DIRECTIONS: Read information given below and answer the questions that follow.
A wooden plank is on the roller as shown. It is pushed from the side as
indicated by the arrow such that the angle P becomes 60 and the horizontal
distance between the point P and centre O is now 10 m.
O
r
90
30
P
37. What is the radius of the roller?
(1)
10
3
(2)
5
3
(3)
15
3
(4) None of these
38. What is the length of the plank? tan 15
3 1
3 1
=

+
R
S
|
T
|
U
V
|
W
|
(1)
10 3 2
3
( + )
(2)
20 3 2
3
( ) +
(3)
15 3 2
3
( ) +
(4) None of these
39. If x = log
5
3 + log
7
5 + log
9
7, then
(1)
x
3
2
(2) x
1
2
3
(3) x
3
2
3
(4) None of these
40. At a carnival, a booth is set up with a game that costs 15 cents to play. The first person to play wins a penny, the
second person a nickel, the third person a dime and the fourth a quarter. The cycle is repeated with the fifth person
winning a penny and so on. After 43 people have played the game, how much net profit has the booth made?
[A penny = 1 cent, a nickel = 5 cents, a dime = 10 cents, a quarter = 25 cents, 1 dollar = 100 cents].
(1) $2.06 (2) $2.19
(3) $3.00 (4) $4.30
41. The length of the tangent to a circle of radius 25 cm drawn from a point 3.13 metre from its centre is
(1) 3.11 m (2) 3.14 m
(3) 3.12 m (4) 3.15 m
42. The bad man Jaffar kidnapped Princess Jasmin and kept her in a rectangular castle which was surrounded by a moat
of constant width of 15/2 feet. When Aladdin reached the castle to rescue the princess, he found two boards of
equal lengths nearby. He then crossed the moat by using these two boards only. What was the minimum length of
each board (ignore the width of the board.)
(1) 10 feet (2) 12 feet
(3) 8 feet (4) 7.5 feet
43. Two series of a question booklet for an aptitude test are to be given to 12 students. In how many ways can the
students be placed in two rows of six each so that there is no identical series side by side and that the students
sitting behind one another have the same series?
(1) 2
12
C
6
(6!)
2
(2) 6! 6!
(3) 7! 7! (4) None of these
44. Soldiers standing in a line that is 5 metres long, start marching. A soldier at the end of the file steps out and starts
marching forward at a higher speed. On reaching the head of the column, he immediately turns around and marches
back at the same speed. As soon as he reaches the end of the file, all the soldiers stop marching and it is found that
the troop has moved exactly 5 metres. Which of the following could be the distance travelled by the soldier?
(1) 10 metres (2) 5(1 + 2) metres
(3) 12.5 metres (4) Data insufficient
45. Consider two different cloth-cutting processes. In the first one, n circular cloth pieces are cut from a square cloth
piece of side a in the following steps: the original square of side a is divided into n smaller squares, not necessarily
of the same size: then a circle of maximum possible area is cut from each of the smaller squares. In the second
process, only one circle of maximum possible area is cut from the square of side and the process ends there. The
cloth pieces remaining after cutting the circles are scrapped in both the processes. The ratio of the total area of
scrap cloth generated in the former to that in the latter is
(1) 1 : 1 (2) 2 : 1
(3)
n
n
( ) 4
4
(4)
4
4
n
n
( )
46. Nuts and Bolts Inc. is a manufacturing firm that makes wrenches and spanners. A wrench needs 3 hours of machining
whereas a spanner needs 4 hours. The factory employs 19 men who work 10 hours per week. Its limited funds allow
it to stock only 50 units of raw material each week. If each wrench and spanner needs one unit of raw material, what
is the maximum quantity of each that he can manufacture each week while maintaining maximum efficiency?
(1) 25 wrenches, 25 spanners (2) 15 wrenches, 35 spanners
(3) 10 wrenches, 40 spanners (4) 20 wrenches, 30 spanners
1
2
3
4 7 9
8 5 12
10 11 6
(1) The single circle in the table given represents your current position and your
current score.
(2) The double circle represents your opponents current position and his current
score.
(3) A player must shift three steps either horizontally or vertically but not
diagonally in each move of the game but not to a position where he has stopped
before.
The number in the new position is added to your score. At the end of any number of
moves, the player with the lower score wins. It is your move now. (Each player wants to
minimise his score in each move.)
47. At the end of two moves, the difference in scores between you and your opponent will be
(1) 5 (2) 4
(3) 6 (4) 7
48. At the end of the fourth move the following number will get added to your score
(1) 2 (2) 7
(3) 3 (4) 5
There are three parallel tracks of 150 kms between two stations X and Y. The schedule of 3 trains is given as
I. Train A starts at 8 am at 60 kmph from X.
II. Train B starts at 9 am at a speed of 80 kmph from Y.
III. Train C starts from Y at 10:30 am at a speed of 90 kmph.
IV. Train A and B both are of length 144 m while train C has length of 176 m.
49. When will A and B meet each other and at what distance from X?
(1) 9:51:42 am, 72.42 km. (2) 10:21:42 am, 21.42 km.
(3) 9:21:42 am, 81.82 km. (4) 9:38:57 am, 98.57 km.
50. The total time taken by train A to cross both trains i.e. B and C, if their
positions are as given in the adjoining figure is A
B
C
(1) 7 min 21 sec (2) 7.68 sec
(3) 15 min 5 sec (4) 8.5 sec
SECTION III
DIRECTIONS: The sentences given in the questions, when properly sequenced, form a coherent paragraph. Each
sentence is labeled with a letter. Choose the most logical order of sentences from among the given choices to construct
a coherent paragraph.
51. (A) Although conventional wisdom says pain a self we fear becoming is the only driver for change, in reality
pain can create paralysis.
(B) Our possible selves the images and fantasies we all have about who we hope to become, think we should
become, or even fear becoming are at the heart of the career change process.
(C) Take Gary McCarthy, the former investment banker and consultant profiled in the main article.
(D) That is why working identity, as a practice, is necessarily a process of experimenting, testing, and learning
about our possible selves.
(E) We change only when we have enticing alternatives that we can feel, touch, and taste.
(1) EBADC (2) ABDCE
(3) BAEDC (4) BEADC
52. (A) The social benefit is an improved educational system and better employment opportunities for low-income
residents.
(B) DreamWorks SKG, the film production company, recently created a program to train low-income students in
Los Angeles in skills needed to work in the entertainment industry.
(C) Each of the company's six divisions is working with the Los Angeles Community College District, local high
schools, and after-school programs to create a specialised curriculum that combines classroom instruction
with internships and mentoring.
(D) Charitable giving can, for example, improve education and training.
(E) The economic one is greater availability of specially trained graduates.
(1) EBCDA (2) DBCAE
(3) DAEBC (4) BCDAE
53. (A) In 1873, when Scott came to him for financial help to stave off bankruptcy, the wealthy Carnegie summarily
turned him down.
(B) Carnegie owned the majority of his company and doled out dividends parsimoniously.
(C) Take his early mentor, Tom Scott, the man who lifted Carnegie out of the obscurity of a telegraph office and
into the upper reaches of the Pennsylvania Railroad, who taught the unschooled immigrant how to invest and
financed his first investment.
(D) His partners worked long days while he took extended vacations.
(E) He could be similarly strict with his partners who were partners in name only.
(1) CAEBD (2) BDCAE
(3) BECAD (4) BCAED
DIRECTIONS: In the following question, a word provided in BOLD is used in four different ways, numbered 1 to 4.
Choose the option in which the usage of the word is INCORRECT or INAPPROPRIATE.
54. PICK
(1) Here, one has to pick one's way along the roads during rains, to avoid potholes.
(2) The idea is so absurd it seems to have been picked out of a hat.
(3) He quite likes her and keeps picking at her.
(4) I saw her picking over fruit at the fruit stall.
55. ODDS
(1) What are the odds on him being elected again?
(2) Apart from a few odds and ends, the room is clear.
(3) In an odds-on situation, one cannot but lose.
(4) His presence makes no odds in my life any longer.
56. BEAR
(1) He is too vindictive to bear someone a grudge.
(2) Bear left and follow the bus.
(3) She invariably bears herself with dignity.
(4) I doubt whether either of the witnesses would bear scrutiny.
DIRECTIONS: Following questions consists of four sentences on a topic. Some sentence/s are grammatically incorrect
or inappropriate. Select the option that indicates the grammatically incorrect sentence/s.
57. A. Tudor, as a master, was both merciless and cruel.
B. The boy was made to do the whole work.
C. He was so weak when the social workers found him in the attic.
D. It was difficult to recognize the frail creature as a human child.
(1) A, C and D (2) B, C and D
(3) C only (4) A and B
58. A. My friend dreams of becoming a playback singer.
B. Does she sing well?
C. Of course she does.
D. Then, she should audition for the new reality show on television.
(1) A and C (2) A, B and D
(3) B and D (4) B only
59. A. She, who had been the apple of his eye, he now began to regard with something like distrust.
B. Many a man have done so.
C. The guidance, as well as the love of a mother, were wanting.
D. Neither of the accusations is true.
(1) D only (2) A, B and C
(3) C and D (4) A and B
DIRECTIONS: Read the following short passages and answer the question that follows.
60. Lying within each of us is the desire for immortality. And because this near-instinctive desire for immortality is
balanced by the precariously repressed fear that death might really eradicate all traces of our existence, we will go
to any extreme to reassure ourselves. By submitting to the divine ordeal of war, in which we are willing to die or kill
the enemy who is Death, we affirm our own deathlessness.
Which one of the following can be logically concluded from the passage above?
(1) The unconscious power that motivates us to fight for peace, kill for life, is the magical assumption that if we
can destroy this particular enemy, we can defeat death.
(2) As potent is our desire to live forever, is the fear that death will come and get us.
(3) We need to declare war against death if we are to become immortal.
(4) It is a futile desire to declare war against death, because our mortality is a reality.
61. Part of the process of creating passion in your work is choosing work that you truly love. Doing so requires
conscious choice, which often takes a great deal of courage. It can be frightening to change career directions or to
try something new, irrespective of how much we may want to. After all, most of us were indoctrinated into
believing that walking a certain safe path was the way to achieve security.
The author's view is based on the assumption that
(1) Most people choose work that they do not truly enjoy doing.
(2) Most people want to change career directions in order to rectify their mistakes and find success on the path
they love.
(3) Passion in one's work is directly proportional to the love for one's work.
(4) Security comes from treading safe paths unlike what we believe.
DIRECTIONS: Read the following passages carefully and answer the questions that follow.
PASSAGE
In most parts of the world, a cricket match is a 9 to 5 job for the players. But in England, it's an almost fulltime chore with
the hours often stretching on for ever.
The Indian team, which particularly doesn't like spending too much time on the field, is reportedly not enjoying the
current tour on that count. The team's administrative manager confirmed that the long hours are getting to the boys.
"It's not easy at all,'' Rufus Rockey told us. "The match starts at 11 am but we come to the ground at least two hours
before that. That means waking up at least another hour and half earlier.''
Early mornings, early breakfasts are, of course, normal in a cricketer's life. In India Test matches begin as early as 9.30 in
some parts of the country. The One-dayers often get under way even at 9 in the Northern cities during winters.
The heartburns begin later in the day. With the sun out till very late and nights making relatively shorter appearances
here, the Indians are being forced to spend most of their time at the ground. That could be one of the reasons why some
of them look groggy and often come to the battle unshaven.
Their tribulations have been further compounded by the unusually wet summer here in England.
With rains interfering in virtually every match till now, they are not getting back to their rooms till even 8.30 pm. A quick
dinner, presumably a shower, and they are ready to hit the sack.
To save time they are even having the post-match team meeting at the ground itself. "The schedule is taking away so
much from the players. They feel completely drained out by the end of the day,'' said Rufus. "It's tough for us too, the
non-players.''
The Indian team didn't even get sufficient time to celebrate its "victory'' in the Lord's Test. "We were leaving quite early
for the next venue,'' he pointed out. They obviously had to finish their packing and, apparently, nobody had the energy
to enjoy the last-minute, one-wicket escape.
The players catch on their sleep during the journey. Blessed with a comfortable, luxury bus for a major part of the tour,
they can just relax and enjoy the rides. Personal music, movies and silence reign during those hours. Most of them even
switch off their cell phones to avoid getting disturbed or disturbing others.
The team, luckily, also doesn't have too many official engagements, especially once it gets out of London; even better,
at least for some of the players, the smaller towns don't have the distractions of bigger cities either. With England
bursting with Indians, the players prefer to lay low too.
England's players, though, are used to playing with rain. In fact, most of them grow up driving from one venue to
another in their own cars to avoid living out of suitcases. They love the long hours; you can see a few groggy eyes and
unshaven faces in their camp too. But that's for entirely different reasons.
62 Statements, related to the passage, are given here. Identify those statements that can be inferred correctly from
the passage.
A. Indian players are well known in bigger cities of England.
B. Indians loathe waking up early in the morning because of fatigue factor.
C. Apart from cricketers, non-players too occasionally face difficulties managing their schedules.
(1) A and C (2) A only
(3) B and C (4) A and B
63. Statements, related to the passage, are given here. Identify those statements that can not be inferred correctly
from the passage.
A. Some of the matches held in India run well over late evening.
B. Indian players now suffer from insomnia.
C. England players turn up with groggy eyes and unshaven faces because of incessant and irregular rains in
England.
(1) A only (2) C only
(3) A, B and C (4) B and C
64. Statements, related to the passage, are given here. Identify those statements that can be inferred correctly from
the passage.
A. The English cricket team prefers to spend a lot of time of ground, unlike Indian cricket team.
B. Indian cricket team had some official engagements in London.
C. The system for holding matches in England is also prevalent in Australia.
(1) C only (2) B and C
(3) A and B (4) B only
PASSAGE
Kiran Bedi, an IPS officer of the 1972 batch, was overlooked for the job of Delhi's top cop for Y S Dadwal, an officer of
the 1974 batch. Bedi insinuates discrimination on two counts, gender and merit. She cites recent instances of officers
being overlooked for the posts of foreign secretary and cabinet secretary for no apparent reason other than their gender.
If there is indeed such a pattern in the bureaucracy, it should be corrected. On grounds of ethics and efficiency, there
can be no case for ruling out women for top posts of any organisation.
Consider the matter of the Delhi Police being under the Union government. The Centre should be seen to be fair in its
appointments, especially against the backdrop of the Supreme Court cracking the whip on police reforms since September
2006. A model police law, drawn up by the Soli Sorabjee committee with a view to eventually replacing the Police Act,
1864, says that officers should be appointed through a process that ensured accountability to the people and freedom
from political interference. States are supposed to set up security commissions for this purpose, while the Centre is
expected to set up a national security commission. Delhi's police commissioner should have been appointed through
such a system, if only to send out the right signal to states on police reforms. Whether Bedi should have got the job is
not really the issue; the process of appointment points to an institutional failure and a victory for status quoists.
Dadwal's choice was explained in terms of Bedi not being in 'active policing' for 20 years. This reflects a bias against
jobs that involve research, prison reform and training, as against day-to-day wielding of the stick, as it were. In the
context of a growing focus on human rights, notions of active policing have got to change. We need leaders who can
mould a police force with better investigative skills. The police should stand by innocent citizens as well as those who
wish to speak out against crime.
Bureaucracies favour anonymous conformists, the kind who can be expected not to rock the boat. Bedi is seen as an
officer who leaves her mark, for better or for worse. Whatever the reasons that Bedi was overlooked, one hopes that
police reforms usher in a scenario where officers are promoted solely on the basis of performance and merit, and other
criteria such as gender or degree of conformism are set aside.
from the passage.
A. The author of this passage favoured Kiran Bedi to become police commissioner of Delhi.
B. The author of this passage favours non-interference of politics in the functioning of police.
C. Bureaucrats favour those who are docile.
(1) A only (2) C only
(3) A, B and C (4) B and C
from the passage.
A. Dadwal was chosen over Bedi because he did not involve himself in research, prison reform and training.
B. The centre followed the process led by Soli Sorabjee committee in selection of Delhi's police commissioner.
C. The centre does not find favour with the author as far as the selection of police commissioner is concerned.
(1) C only (2) B and C
(3) A and B (4) A and C
67. Choose the option given below that correctly matches objects of column 1 to the objects of column 2.
Column - 1 Column - 2
(A) Kiran Bedi (1) Government of India
(B) Ethics (2) New Delhi
(C) Y S Dadwal (3) Bureaucrat
(D) Supreme Court (4) Police commissioner
(1) A2 and D1 (2) C4 and D2
(3) C1 and D4 (4) C4 only
PASSAGE
When G-8 leaders gather for their annual summit on June 6-8, they will have a unique opportunity to help poorer nations
tackle a huge and urgent problem: Paying for health care for the 3.5 billion people who live on less than $2 per day in
developing countries. Choices are stark. Most poor families either pay on the spot, or settle for low quality care or none
at all.
Illness and its associated costs are massive obstacles to getting and staying out of poverty, for families and for nations.
Over 60 per cent of health spending in the world's poorest countries comes from out-of-pocket payments, which, the
World Health Organisation estimates, drive more than 104 million households into, or deeper into, poverty annually. By
contrast, in G-8 and other rich countries, less than 20 per cent of all spending on health is out-of-pocket.
Out-of-pocket payments are an unfair and inefficient way of financing a health system. They are unfair because they
make the sickest pay the most. They are inefficient because they do not address the uncertainty of health-related
events. Because of this, paying at the time of need often leads to expenditures that are literally catastrophic for household
well-being, particularly for poor families that are forced to divert spending from other critical needs.
So, the world is turned upside down: the people poorest, who can least afford to pay and for whom the consequences
can be disastrous, are the most heavily burdened, while the richest have all the protections of government or private
insurance. Pernicious consequences follow. In Burundi, Human Rights Watch has reported that government hospitals
routinely detain patients unable to pay and keep them for months at a time in abysmal conditions. Elsewhere, millions are
denied service or don't bother seeking care at all.
While most attention is focused on health issues like HIV/AIDS and feared pandemic threats to global health or security,
the invisible impoverishing effect of out-of-pocket expenses takes a heavy toll on lives and development prospects.
Equally troubling, high-profile efforts to conquer killer diseases like malaria come up short, hamstrung by the health
system and financing failures. This problem isn't new, but innovative experiments lend new hope for solving it if G-8 and
other wealthy nations support efforts to scale them up.
Advances in nationwide health insurance in Colombia, Mexico and Thailand are showing the power of broad aggregation
of risks, which the G-8 know from their own experience can significantly help the poor. In India, where 80 per cent of
health spending is direct from families, a non-governmental organisation has launched health cooperatives that provide
medical insurance to more than 23,000 members.
New initiatives are overcoming the old constraints in lower-income Africa. In Rwanda, community risk-sharing schemes,
scaled up with government and aid support to reach 70 per cent of the population, provide the extreme poor with totally
subsidised health care. A new Dutch-supported Health Insurance Fund in Nigeria is pooling health cost risk for informal
sector workers. Successful experiments highlight the importance of adapting carefully to local circumstances; but they
also face frustrating trade-offs between extending coverage and remaining financially viable. The solution is clear: the
state needs to come in with its share of support.
G-8 countries have led the way with their history of shifting the financial burden of illness from the sick alone to the sick and
well together. Developing countries have the same aspirations, and helping them get there faster should be a G-8 priority. What
does the G-8 need to do? First, its communiqu should voice strong support for the principle of ensuring financial
protection for the poor, as a key means to improving health and reducing poverty. Second, the G-8 should urge responsible
planning for the transition from reliance on health aid to domestic financing, which will require sharing the financial
burden of disease more widely and equitably. Aid for health grew by 70 per cent between 2002 and 2005, faster than any
other area of development cooperation. This unprecedented expansion, while a great stimulus, is neither sufficient nor
sustainable. Now is the time to begin preparing for a more viable financial future.
Third, the G-8 should stress that global initiatives need to invest directly in strengthening national health financing
systems and adopt benchmarks for tracking how much spending on health is out-of-pocket. They also should underscore
the need for developing global and local capacity to articulate viable long-term financing strategies in national health
and development plans.
Fourth, the G-8 should commit enough financial resources to push this agenda forward. Half a billion dollars (a pittance
compared to annual military spending) could encourage the kind of ingenious approaches that get more impact per
dollar and harness the strengths of both public and private initiative.
Much more is needed. However, if the G-8 leaders can do that much this year, they might one day be able to look back
and see a more equitable world where billions of poor people are finding their way to better lives and livelihoods.
68. Statements, related to the passage, are given here. Identify those statements that can be inferred correctly from the passage.
A. Ailment expenses can hinder growth that can bring someone out of property.
B. Out-of-pocket payments are worse as they make sick persons sicklier.
C. Among all the continents of the world, Africa is the poorest.
(1) C only (2) A and C
(3) B and C (4) A only
69. Statements, related to the passage, are given here. Identify those statements that cannot be inferred correctly
from the passage.
A. Among all the ailments suffered by humans, HIV/AIDS is the one that makes a big hole in the pocket.
B. The poor can be aided via development of nationwide health insurance.
C. The author of this passage suggests G-8 to invest in health infrastructure poor and developing countries in
order to tap huge business opportunity.
(3) B and C (4) B only
70. Statements, related to the passage, are given here. Identify those statements that can be inferred correctly from
the passage.
A. A little share of the military expenditure of G-8 nations can act as a boost for health programs in poor countries.
B. An increase of 70% in the aid for health has been an impetus for the recipients.
C. New initiatives backed up by the support from the state can be both effective and financially viable.
(3) B and C (4) B only
PASSAGE
The prime minister's exhortation to CEOs of private companies that they should voluntarily cap their salaries and perks
so as not to incite envy and a sense of alienation among common people has stirred up a hornet's nest, all the more so
in that it comes at a time when India finally seems to be breaking out of the six-decade-long stranglehold of the so-called
Hindu (read socialist) rate of growth. Have the compulsions of populism turned Manmohan from the country's foremost
champion of economic liberalisation into a crypto-socialist throwback?
Populist gallery-playing aside, does the PM's arguments hold water if we compare the pay, perks and performance of
private sector CEOs vis--vis their political counterparts, such as ministers, for example? At first glance, a CEO drawing
a salary of over Rs 1 crore a month (as quite a lot do) would seem to be far more expensive to maintain than a mantriji,
whose pay plus perks like housing, transport, free plane and train travel, security bandobast etc, may not add up to Rs
1 crore a month. Though of course they would add up to more than that if the mantri in question were occupying a
Lutyens' Delhi bungalow, each of which is estimated to be worth Rs 150 crore approximately, and at a 6 per cent rate of
return would cost Rs 75 lakh a month to rent.
But assume we don't take a Lutyens' bungalow into account. Let's follow the principle of cost to company, in the case of
CEOs, and cost to country, in the case of political leaders. The most highly paid CEO's cost to company cannot exceed
the company's earnings, for if it did the company would soon be bankrupt. The cost to country of our political leaders,
however, is not limited by the profitability or otherwise of India as an economic model. Far from it. The government is not
compelled to run a profit centre, as shown by not only the fiscal deficit but by the even more alarming shortfall in the
social services sector, including basic health care and primary education. When you tot up the direct and indirect losses
suffered by the country on account of these two heads alone - education and health - our mantris' cost to country
becomes incalculable.
Any CEO with such a ruinous track record would have been sacked, or forced out of business, long ago. But for 60 years
our political leaders have got away scotfree from any kind of accountability. Periodic elections are no corrective. A
Mulayam gives way to a Mayawati, or vice versa. A Jayalalithaa to a Karunanidhi, or the other way round. It's the same
old merry-go-round, only with different faces and names. And sometimes not even that, in the case of political dynasties.
The PM (echoed by Montek Singh) has said that high-paid CEOs will cause popular resentment and 'alienate' large
sections of the populace. Gross political mismanagement and shameful lack of governance have created secessionist
movements in several parts of the country. An estimated 165 districts are virtually under Naxal rule. Alienation is a red
blot on the sarkari balance sheet.
No, prime minister. First set your own house in order - if you can - before telling private enterprise how it ought to
regulate its internal affairs. Unless you're just passing the buck. Which, of course, the government has licence to print
71. The author believes that the cost to country of our political leaders is
(1) Justified keeping in mind that their remuneration is directly proportionate to the responsibility they are entrusted
with.
(2) A waste of resources which are invaluable to a country where basic services are in a precarious condition.
(3) At par to that of the CEOs who are paid according to their performance.
(4) A function of the profitability and development of the country.
72. What does "stirred up a hornet's nest" mean?
(1) To provoke the attack of a swarm of spiteful enemies or spirited critics.
(2) To invite adulation.
(3) To purposefully plan one's own defeat.
(4) To ignite the consent of a warring group for a particular issue.
73. The author is most likely to be a
(1) Politician (2) Bureaucrat
(3) Business magnate (4) Reporter
PASSAGE
A nation with a population in excess of a billion is clearly not abstaining from sex. But India refuses to speak about the
birds and bees openly. We'd rather refer to it obliquely and shroud the discourse in half-truths instead of discussing it
as a matter of fact. When it comes to sex, hypocrisy rules in India. The opposition to the introduction of sex education
in schools - starting the current academic session - comes from several quarters, united by a misplaced notion of
morality.
The BJP and its brain, the RSS, claim that it is against Indian culture. The BJP is an indefatigable champion of India's
cultural ethos but it is not the only one. Its warped argument finds resonance in the protests of political parties across
the spectrum and other self-appointed custodians of the nation's social mores. The Karnataka government, led by JD(S),
has opposed sex education on the ground that it is anti-social. Ditto governments in Kerala, Maharashtra, Gujarat,
Rajasthan, Uttarakhand, Chhattisgarh, Uttar Pradesh and Madhya Pradesh.
Former HRD minister Murli Manohar Joshi, in his infinite wisdom, recently exhorted parents to withdraw their children
from CBSE schools because the syllabus included lessons on sexual health. He is of the opinion that sex education will
encourage sexual activity among youngsters and undermine the foundations of the great Indian family. If only he and
his political ilk did not have the kind of say they have in shaping public policy, we could have ignored their ridiculous
opinions. Thankfully, the minister for women and child development, Renuka Chowdhury, is willing to stick her neck out
on this issue. In her somewhat edgy style, she has loudly spoken up in favour of sex education.
The argument that talking about sex is antithetical to Indian tradition is nonsense. Historical accounts and texts establish
that sex was not taboo in Indian society; the advent of alien, especially Victorian, mores was largely responsible for
reshaping our sensibilities about sex. A revision of our outlook is long overdue. HIV/AIDS and other sexually transmitted
diseases and unwanted pregnancies are on the rise, largely due to unsafe sexual behaviour. It is an inescapable fact of
our times that Indian youth are becoming sexually aware and active at a much younger age than before. It is imperative
that they are equipped to take responsibility for their reproductive health. To that end sex education, shorn of morality
and informed by fact, must be easily accessible in schools. The longer we hang on to our outdated attitude towards sex,
the dearer the price we will pay for coming generations.
74. What does the author think about the opposition to promoting sex education in Indian schools and colleges?
(1) He considers the opposition inspiring.
(2) He considers the opposition mandatory.
(3) He considers the opposition unnecessary.
(4) He considers the opposition awful.
75. What opinion does the author hold for Renuka Chowdhury's style?
(1) Skeptical. (2) Nervous.
(3) Confident. (4) Vociferous.
IC : PTpnrps18 (1) of (16)
Detailed Solutions
Prac-CAT # 18
ANALYSIS

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IC : PTpnrps18
Corp. Office: Delhi Regd. Office: Indore
PT centres spread across India ~ Established 1993
Our motto Kar ke dikhayenge is delivered through our
unique Technology Driven Process Engine (TDPro engine).
Email: pinnacle@ptindia.com Web: www.ptindia.com

P
T

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1. The state having the least maximum temperature in summer season is Sikkim, i.e., 32C.
Ans. (4)
2. The types of soil mentioned are loamy, clay, red clay, sandy, black, rocky and hard a
total of 7 types. Ans.(3)
3. Investment in item S
1
= Rs.13,620. Therefore, in pie chart (I), item S
1
subtends a central
angl e of
13620
110467
360 44 4 = . (approx.). Addi ng al l central angl es, we get 302.4.
Therefore, central angle of item S
6
= [360 302.4] = 57.6
Therefore, rel ati ve percentage of i tem S
6
57.6
360
100 16% =

= .
Therefore, 16% of total expendi ture outl ay = 110467 16% = Rs.17674.72 = 17,675
(approx). Ans. (2)
4. Degree measure of item H
3
= 62.7.
Degree measure of item as misread by student = 26.7.
Therefore, di fference = 36.0. 360 represents expendi ture outl ay of Rs.2,21 436.
Ther ef or e, 36 r epr esent s expendi t ur e out l ay of
36
360
2,21436
1
22,143
=
,
( appr ox. )
Ans. (4)
(2) of (16) IC : PTpnrps18
5. H
1
+ H
7
= 123.5 .....(I) (given)
H
1
H
4
= 40.3 .....(II) (given)
+ =
Theref ore, H
4
+ H
7
= 83.2 .....(III)
Now, H
7
H
4
= 72.6 .....(IV) (given)
Theref ore, 2H
7
= 155.8.
Theref ore, H
7
= 77.9 .....(V)
Substitute the value in (I)
H
1
+ 77.9 = 123.5.
Therefore, H
1
= 123.5 77.9 = 45.6 ....(VI)
Now, central angle of item H
1
= 45.6.
Theref ore,
Expenditure Outlay for H
Expenditure Outlay for H
1
7
45.6
77.9
0 585 = = . (approx. ). Ans. (2)
6. First we assume that the first statement of Ramu is correct. Second must be wrong and if Ramus
second statement is wrong then Mohits second statement is correct and hence his first statement
is wrong, also Ramus first statement is correct. Shamus second statement is false and hence
Shamus first statement is true. Now Ramu and Shamu both did not eat the Pizza then the only
person left is Mohit. Ans.(3)
7. Lower limit Rohans Actual roll number is 450 and upper limit is 600. Range of his roll number
given by the institute can be found out as follows:
450 1.5 + 50 = 725
600 1.75 + 100 = 1150
Out of the given choices, 725 1150 is the most accurate range for his roll number. Ans.(2)
8. Minis roll number given by the institute = 14, 207
Act ual rol l number must be bet ween 5001 10000, as 5001 2. 25 + 200 = 11, 453 and
10000 2.25 + 200 = 22, 700
Hence,
14,207 200
2.25
= 6225.33. Ans.(1)
9. Let us evaluate all the choice one by one:
Choice (1): Let us take minimum Actual roll number in the last range (i.e. > 10000) = 10000 : and
the maximum Actual roll number in the last-but-one range (i.e. 5001 10000) = 10000.
Here, Virtual roll number for 10001 in last range = 0.9(10001 x 2.5 + 250] = 22, 728. Virtual roll
number for 10000 in last but-one range = 0.9{10000 x 2.25 + 200] = 20, 430. Hence, (1) is false.
Choice (2): Virtual roll number for last range minimum (i.e. 10001) = 22, 728 (as calculated
earlier). Virtual roll number for maximum of the range 2001 5000 = 5000 x 2 + 150 = 10150
Hence, (2) is false.
Choice (3): The Virtual roll number (maximum) in range 2001 5000 = 5000 x 2 + 150 = 10, 150
The Virtual roll number (minimum) in range 5001 10000 = 0.9(500 x 2.25 + 200] = 10308
Hence, (3) i s al so fal se. Choi ce (4): As there i s no overl ap between the Vi rtual rol l numbers
(maximum) of one range, with the Virtual roll numbers (minimum) of the next range, hence, we can
say that Virtual roll numbers of no students will clash. Ans.(4)
10. We know from the calculations done in the previous question that Virtual roll number for Actual
roll number 5001 = 10, 308.
Hence, Actual roll number of Virtual roll number 10,791 must be above 5000.
Trying choice (2): 0.9{5320 x 2.25 + 200} = 10 953.
Trying choice (3). 0.9[5240 x 2.25 + 200] = 10,791. Ans.(3)
For Q.11 and Q.12:
Generation I Wife
Generation II Wife
Generation III
P
Male
30 years
Wife
Q
Female
27 years
P and R are
brothers
R
Male
28 years
Wife
S
Female
25 years
Generation IV
J
Female
5 years
J and Z are
sisters
Z
Female
3 years
A
Male
80 years
D
Male
55 years
C
Female
77 years
E
Female
52 years
11. C is Ps grandmother and she is 77 years old. Ans.(2)
12. Relation between S and J is aunt-niece. Ans.(1)
13. Men: J, K, L Women: P, Q, R Days: M, T, W, Th, F, S
Men and Women will alternate, K < R, P < L.
Since J is the host on Monday, the other two men, K and L, are the hosts on Wednesday and
Friday. Since L must be a host later in the week than P, L cannot be the host on Wednesday. So,
K is the host on Wednesday and L is the host on Friday. Since P must host a session earlier in the
week than L, P must host the session on Thursday and R on Saturday. The schedule thus becomes
M T W Th F S
J Q K P L R. Ans.(4)
14. The given information is
Sales people : J, K, L, M, N, P, Q Cities : S, T
3 people S, 3 people T, J S, L T.
K and L or K and P cannot go together. N and Q must go together (N Q).
Options (1) and (4) violate the condition that Q and N must attend the same conference [N Q].
Option (3) violates the condition that K and P cannot attend the same conference.
Since we need six people out of seven, the possible combination can be
Sandl and Ti mel and
JMP LNQ Ans. (2)
15. Each one of the 26 players plays 25 matches and none of the matches ends in a draw. Hence, all
the scores must be even. Also, each one of them got a different score. The maximum score possible
is 50 and the minimum possible score is 0. There are exactly 26 possible scores: 50, 48, 46, 44
... 4, 2, 0. The ranking is in alphabetical order which means A scored 50, B scored 48, and so on
up to Z scored 0. This score is possible if A wins all the matches, B loses only to A and wins against
all others ... and so on. This implies that every player wins only against all players who are below
him in the final ranking. Ans.(4)
16. Since L must be examined just before U, and K must be examined fourth, so L must not be examined
third, fourth or sixth. Therefore U must not be examined first, fourth or fifth. M and S cannot be
exami ned successi vel y i n ei ther order.
If S is examined sixth, the possible schedules will be
1 2 3 4 5 6
L U M K T S
M L U K T S
So, M could be in the first or third time slot. Ans.(3)
17. It is possible to split a tower in the following way.
And so the 100
th
tower can be made into a 100 100 square, requiring 10,000 blocks. Ans.(2)
Short-cut: Tower 1, number of blocks = 1 = 1
2
.
Tower 2, number of blocks = 4 = 2
2
.
Tower 3, number of blocks = 9 = 3
2
.
Number of blocks needed in 100th Tower = 100
2
= 10000.
18. Since Mr. Avneesh and Mr. Chandra Prakash cannot be selected for the committee, Mr. David and
Mrs. Aditi must be selected for committee. Hence, Mr. Brijkishore must not be selected for the
committee. Now, one remaining member will be selected from Mr. Ravi and Mrs. Rukmini. So two
different committees can be formed. Ans.(3)
19. All of the tails must be converted to heads in such a way that the dragon is left with an even
number of heads. The way to do this in the smallest number of strokes would be to first convert
the 3 tails to 6 tails by using 3 (1 tail) strokes, then converting the 6 tails to 3 heads via 3 (2 tail)
strokes. Fi nal l y, the si x-headed dragon can be ki l l ed wi th 3 (2 head) strokes, for a total of 9
strokes. Ans.(2)
I f CAT i s t ough, be
tougher than the toughest
and make it easy!
Devashish Chakravarty
100 percentile scorer in CAT 2004 and 2006
MBA (IIM Ahmedabad),
PT Knowledge Advisor

For Q.20 and Q.21:
From the condition given in the question, we can get following two equations
10 = k(4 + w ) ...(1)
11 = k(4 + w+13 ) ...(2)
By dividing equations (1) and (2) we get w = 36 and k = 1.
20. Ans. (4)
21.
14 1 36 14 6 = + = + w w
e j
.
= w 8
.
w = 64 kg. Ans.(4)
22. Let there be n lockers on the top row,
1 n
2n
2n + 1 3n
Therefore, the sum of four corners is
1 + n + 2n + 1 + 3n = 6n + 2
Since each player is 14 or 15 years old, minimum sum = 4 14 = 56 and maximum sum
= 4 15 = 60. But using formula, 6 8 + 2 = 50, 6 9 + 2 = 56 and 6 10 + 2 = 62.
Hence n = 9. So there are 3n = 3 9 = 27 lockers. Ans.(3)
23. On the basis of the given information, we can make
the adj acent di agram.
Q
R
T
S
X
W
Y
Z
Double arrow line shows that the messages can be
sent back and forth between two computers.
For minimum number of computers, the path will be:
T S X. Ans.(1)
24. Since none of the four liquids turns the reactive paper yellow, the bottles can contain pure X,
pure Y, pure Z or Y mixed with Z or X mixed with Y.
Therefore opti ons (1), (2) and (3) are rul ed out.
The question itself states that only liquids that the bottle could possibly contain are X, Y, Z, X + Y,
X + Z, Y + Z. Therefore the bottle cannot have X, Y and Z mixed together. Ans.(4)
25. If the mixture turns the reactive paper red, the mixture is either pure Y or Y mixed with Z. The
mi xture cannot be pure Y si nce thi s woul d i mpl y both the bottl es contai ned pure Y and woul d
have therefore, given the same result with the reactive paper. Hence, the second bottle contains
pure Z. Ans.(4)
26. The shortest straight cut that will divide the triangular board
into two equal parts will be the perpendicular drawn from B
on to AC. Since ABC is an isosceles right angled triangle BD
will be the median and altitude on to AC.
A
45
45
1
1
B
C
D
2
Area of ABC =
1
2
AB BC
=
1
2
1 1 =
1
2
with AC as base area of ABC =
1
2
2 BD =
1
2
BD =
1
2
Ans.(3)
27. By converse of midpoint theorem:
CQR ~ CBA, 2QR = AB and AB || QR.
2 CD = CE CD = DE
Again, by converse of midpoint theorem:
|
|
|
|
|
|
|| ||
B
T
D
P
s
M
N
A
R
C Q
E
PMN ~ PQR and 2MN = QR
2 PS = PT PS = ST PS = ST = DE = CD
PT = PS + ST and CE = CD + DE PT = CE = h (say)
A PQR
A ABC
QR h
AB h
( )
( )
=
1
2
. Ans.(1)
28.
P
S
O Q R
6.92 feet
60
Figure 1 Initial position

P
S
T
Q
R
45
Figure 2 Final position
|
|
|
|
45
O
In SOR, SR =
2
3
6 92 8 . . SP = PR = 4 feet;
In PQR, PQ = =
3
2
4 2 3 feet. Now, in PTR; PT =
PR
PR T
o
'
( ' )
2
45 Q =
PT = =
4
2
2 2 f eet TQ = 2(3 2) 0.636. Ans.(2)
29. Here, in rectangle PAUB,
area(APB) = area(ABU).
In rectangle ATDS,
area(ASD) = area(ATD).
B
A
D
R
S
P
Q
U
T
V
W
C
In rectangl e DRCW,
area(CRD) = area(CDW).
In rectangle BVCQ,
area(BQC) = area(BVC).
Now,
area(ABCD) = area(ATD) + area(CDW) + area(BVC) + area(ABU) + S
0

..... (1)
Again, area(ABCD) = area(PQRS) area(APB) area(ASD) area(CRD) area(BQC)
= S area(ABU) area(ATD) area(CDW) area(BVC)
= S area(ABCD) + S
0
area(ABCD) + area(ABCD) = S + S
0
area(ABCD) =
S S
o
+
2
. Ans.(1)
30. The center of the basketball and the corner of the
room are on opposite ends of the space diagonal of
a cube of side 8 inches (see diagram). Similarly, if
we denote the radius of the softball by x, its centre
and the corner of the room lie on opposite ends of
the space diagonal of a cube of side x inches. By
t he Pyt hagor ean t heor em, t he cent r e of t he
basketball is 83 inches from the corner of the room
and the centre of the softball is x3 inches from the
corner of the room. But the distance from the centre
of the basketball to the centre of the softball is the
sum of their radii, namely 8 + x.
16
2x
Therefore, x3 + (8 + x) = 83.
So, x
x
=

+
=

+
=

=
8 3 8
3 1
8( 3 1
3 1
8(4 2 3
2
8 2(2 3
2
) ) )
= 8(2 3). Ans.(3)
31.
A(0,2)
E(0,4) D(2 +1,4)
B(4,0)
O(0,0) C(2 + 1,0)
If P is selected on a semi-circle with AB as diameter, then APB = 90. If P is selected from the
interior of semi-circle with AB as diameter, then APB will be obtuse.
Now, A(ABCDE) = A( OCDE) A(OAB) = 4 (2 + 1)
1
2
(2)(4) = 8
Now, l(AB) =
( ) ( ) 4 2 20 2 5
2 2
+ = =
Radius of semi-circle = =
2 5
2
5
Area of semi-circle = =
1
2
5
5
2
2

( )
Probabi l i ty = =
5
2
8
5
16
. Ans.(2)
32. As average distance of planets from star is a and distance between two consecutive planets is
b, the distance of the planets from the star are a 2b, a b, a, a + b and a + 2b.
The distances travelled by the planets in 1 revolution are
2(a 2b), 2 (a b), 2a, 2(a + b) and 2 (a + 2b).
The average speeds of the 5 planets = 6.2x [where x = speed of slowest planet]
Sum of the speeds of the 5 planets = 6.2x 5 = 31x
x + xr + xr
2
+ xr
3
+ xr
4
= 31x
1 + r + r
2
+ r
3
+ r
4
= 31 r = 2
The speeds of the 5 planets are x, 2x, 4x, 8x and 16x.
The time taken by the 5 planets to complete one revolution are
2 2 2
2
2
4
2
8
2 2
16
( )
,
( )
, ,
( )
,
( ) a b
x
a b
x
a
x
a b
x
a b
x
+ +
The 5 planets will be at the same position after a time equal to the LCM of the revolution times of
the 5 planets.
Note that for both the cases LCM
=
+ + 2 2 2 ( )( ) )( ) a b a b a(a b a b
x
=
2 4
2 2 2 2
a a b a b
x
( )( )
Ans. (1)
Ri ght t i mi ng and bel i ef
are imperative for any task in
the world! Believe in yourself,
achieve what you want!
Vineeta Singh

33. In 10 seconds, A covers 4 10 = 40 m.
Initially the athletes are at
L
3
51 = m away from each other.
The first athlete is now 40 + 51 = 91 m away from the second one.
Si nce the second athl ete starts runni ng at 11 m/s, the rel ati ve speed of A
2
w.r.t. A
1
i s 11 4
= 7 m/s.
Therefore, A
2
catches up with A
1
in
91
7
13 = seconds after he starts running.
After A
2
catches up with A
1
, A
3
is 51 m away from A
1
and A
2
.
Time taken =
51
11
= 4.64 sec. .... Qnow only A
3
is running
T = 10 + 13 + 4.64 = 27.64 sec. Ans.(3)
34. PQRS is a rectangle. DAQ is a 30 60 90 .
Also, AD = BC = 6, DQ = 3, AQ = 3 3 . Again DRC is a 30 60 90 .
So, DC = AB = 6 3 , DR = 3 3 . RC = 6 3
3
2
= 9, QR = ( 3 3 3) = 3( 3 1).
Therefore RS = (9 3 3 ) = 3 3 ( 3 1).
Therefore area of triangle PQRS = 3( 3 1) ( 3 3 ) ( 3 1) = 18 3 (2 3 ) cm
2
. Ans.(1)
35. The big pile of apples contains the same amount of larger apples of half a rupee each (from F
2
),
as smaller, so average price is therefore
1
2
1
3
2
5
12
+
F
H
G
I
K
J
= rupee. But the apples were sold for 2/
5 rupee each (5 apples for 2 rupee). Or
25
60
and
24
60
rupee respectively. This means that per sold
apple there is a shortage of
1
60
rupee. The total shortage i s 7 rupees, so the l adi es together
started out with 420 apples. These are worth
2
5
420 168 = rupees, or with equal division, 84
rupees for each. If F
2
would have sold her apples herself, she would have received 105 rupees.
F
2
loses 21 rupees in this deal. Ans.(1)
36. Distance Time (hrs.) Average Speed km covered
AB
1
2
5 2. 5
BC
1
2
1 0 5
CD 1 12. 5 12. 5
DE
1
2
12. 5 6. 25
EF
1
2
12. 5 6. 25
His average speed for the whole journey =
Total dis ce travelled
Total time taken
tan
.
=
+ + + + AB BC CD DE EF
3
km per hour .
=
+ + + +
= =
2.5 5 12.5 6.25 6.25
3
32.5
3
10.83 km per hour. Ans.(3)
37. Triangles POB and PAO are congruent by SAS congruency.
Therefore OPA = BPO = 30. In triangle POA tan 30 =
r
10
.
Therefore r =
10
3
m. Ans.(1)
38. Triangles POB and PAO are congruent by SAS congruency.
B
P P
10
A
O
r
30
60
Therefore OPA = BPO = 15
In triangle POA
tan 15=
r
X 10 +
3 1
3 1
10
3 10
+
=
+
e j
e j
( ) x
X =
20
3
m. Therefore the length of the plank = 10 +
20
3
m =
10 3 2
3
( ) +
m. Ans.(1)
39. Since A.M. G.M,
log log log
5 7 9
3 5 7
3
+ +
(log log log )
5 7 9
1
3
3 5 7
(log log log )
5 7 9
1
3
3 5 7
F
H
G
I
K
J
log
log
log
log
log
log
3
5
5
7
7
2 3
1
3

=
F
H
G
I
K
J
=
F
H
G
I
K
J
log
log log
9
1
3
3
1
3
3
2
1
3
3
1
9
1
3
c h
=
F
H
G
I
K
J
=
1
2 3
1
2 3
1
3
3
log
x = log
5
3 + log
7
5 + log
9
7
3
2
3
. Thus, x
3
2
3
. Ans.(3)
40. The fi rst person pays 15 cents and wi ns a penny. So, the booth earns 14 cents. The second
person pays 15 cents and wins a nickel, so the booth earns 10 cents. Likewise, the booth earns
5 cents from the third person and loses 10 cents from the fourth person. Then the cycle repeats.
So each cycle through the game, the booth earns: 14 + 10 + 5 10 = 19 cents.
The problem asks how much money is made after 43 people have played the game. Because 43
is not divisible by 4, lets look at the 40th person, the previous number divisible by 4. After the
40th person has pl ayed, the booth has been through 10 compl ete cycl es. Havi ng earned 19
cents per cycle, the booth has netted Rs.1.90 profit. The booth earns 14 cents of the 41st player,
bri ngi ng the profi t to $2.04, then 10 cents and 5 cents from the 42nd and the 43rd pl ayers,
bringing the total profit to $2.19. Ans.(2)
41. The length of the tangent = ( ) ( ) 313 25 312 3.12
2 2
= = cm m . Ans.(3)
42. Given the width of the moat = 15/2 feet. By using the
boards of minimum length as shown in the figure (AB &
CD) we can move across the moat of width of 15/2 .
Let the length of the boards = AB = CD = x AC = CB = x/2.
CASTLE
MOAT
15/ 2
A
P
D
B
E
F
C
15/ 2 In right DEP, DP
2
= (15/2)
2
+ (152)
2
DP = 15.
CP = 15 x. Now in CAP, AC = CP
x/2 = 15 x x = 10. Hence the length of the boards was 10 feet. Ans.(1)
43. Let the two series of question booklet be A and B.
Now, according to the given condition the series can be given to the students in following ways.
First row A B A B A B
Second row A B A B A B
Or
First row B A B A B A
Second row B A B A B A
That is, two ways.
Now, out of 12 students, the number of ways of choosing 6 students for first row =
12
C
6
and they
can be arranged in 6! ways. The remaining 6 students can be arranged in the second row in 6!
ways.
So the total number of ways = 2
12
C
6
6! 6! = 2
12
C
6
(6!)
2
. Ans.(1)
Schumacher wi ns
because of speed wi t h
accur acy. Same i s t he
case with CAT!
Bhushan Dabir

44. Let the speed of the soldier be x metre/sec. and the speed of the troop be y metre/sec.
Then,
5 5 5
x y x y y +
+
=
2 1
2 2
x
x y y
= x
2
y
2
2xy = 0
x
y
=
1 2
1
.
Since, distance speed, when the troop travels 5 metres the man travels 5(
1 2
) m.
Distance cannot be negative. So, the distance travelled by the soldier = 5(1 + 2) m. Ans.(2)
45. Area of the square = a
2
unit
2
. In the first process: Area of each small square =
a
n
2
unit
2
.
(For convenience we assume all n squares to be of equal area.)
Si de of each smal l square =
a
n
2
unit =
a
n
uni t.
Radi us of ci r cul ar cl ot h pi eces of maxi mum possi bl e ar ea f r om each of t he smal l squar e
=
a
n 2
units. Sum of area of all n circular cloth pieces =
F
H
G
I
K
J
= = n
a
n
n
a a

2
4n 4
2
2 2
.
The area of cloth piece remaining after cutting the circles = =
F
H
G
I
K
J
a
a
a unit
2
2
2 2
4
1
4

.
In the second process: Radius of cloth piece having maximum possible area from the given square
cloth piece =
a
2
units. Area of circular cloth piece =
F
H
G
I
K
J
=
a a
unit
2 4
2
2
2
.
The area of cloth piece remaining after cutting the circle = =
F
H
G
I
K
J
a
a
a
2
2
2
4
1
4

.
Requi red rat i o =
F
H
G
I
K
J
F
H
G
I
K
J
= =
a
a
2
2
1
4
1
4
1
1
1 1
: . Ans. (1)
46.
Wrench (x) Spanner (y) Max. Limit
Time per unit 3 hrs. 4 hrs. 190 hrs.
Raw material required 1 unit 1 unit 50 units
3x + 4y 190. x + y 50 x = 10, y = 40. Ans.(3)
For Q.47 and Q.48:
As both you and your opponent seek to minimise your score at each move, both of you will move
into positions with the lowest scores. Your positions in the first four moves will be as follows:
1 4 7 9
12 2 5 8
11 10 3 6
You: 1 12 2 4 7 5 2 10 3 5 8 6 3
Opponent: 6 3 10 2 5 7 4 7 5 3 5 8 9
47. At the end of second move, the required difference = (6 + 2 + 4) (1 + 4 + 2) = 12 7 = 5. Ans.(1)
48. Ans. (3)
49. In one hour A will cover 60 km. Distance left is 90 km.
Time required to cover 90 km is 90/140 = 38.57 min.
Required time = 9 : 38.57 am. Distance from X = 60 + 38.57 = 98.57 km. Ans.(4)
50. Time taken by train A to cross B =
288
140
18
5
= 7.40 sec.
Time taken by train A to cross the train C =
320
150
18
5
= 7.68 sec. Ans.(2)
51. Ans.(3). BA, AE and ED are the keys. B, which states broadly the reasons for career change,
begins the passage. A then explodes the myth that pain (a self we fear is becoming) is the only
driver for change. Thereafter, E establishes the real reason we change. D then cites E as the
reason for ' worki ng i denti ty' bei ng a process of experi menti ng & l earni ng about our possi bl e
selves. Finally, we take on an example starting with C. Hence, the order is BAEDC and the answer
is option (3). In option (1), D doesn' t have a link to A. In option (2), A, instead of following B,
precedes it. In option (4) too, A is incorrectly separated from B and in turn separates E and D.
52. Ans.(2). BC and AE are the keys. D introduces the passage. B begins illustrating with an example.
C takes it further. A, followed by E, cites the benefits. Thus, the correct order is DBCAE and the
answer is option (2). All other options have ill-connected statements.
53. Ans.(1). CA is the key. C suitably begins the passage. A takes the example further. Then comes
E, which, with its ' He could be similarly strict ' , connects CA to BD. Thus, CAEBD is the order and
opti on (1) i s the correct answer. In opti on (2), CA doesn' t have a sui tabl e l i nk to BD, as one
cannot assume that Scott would be a partner. The same goes for option (3) as regards E and CA.
Also, D hangs loose. In option (4) again, CA doesn' t link well to B while E doesn' t link well to D,
as both sentences use ' hi s partners' i ndependentl y.
54. Ans.(3). The word is incorrectly used in option (3). The correct usage is ' He quite dislikes her
and keeps picking at her.' (Picking at someone refers to criticise someone in a niggling way).
55. Ans.(3). The word is incorrectly used in option (3). The correct usage is ' In an odds-on situation,
one has high chances of winning.' (Odds-on refers to a state when success is more likely than
fai l ure, especi al l y as i ndi cated by betti ng odds).
56. Ans.(1). The word is incorrectly used in option (1). The correct usage is ' He is too forgiving to
bear someone a grudge.' (To bear someone a grudge means to nurture a feeling of resentment
agai nst someone).
57. Ans.(3). Statements A, B and D are correct. Statement C is incorrect. Except colloquially, ' so' as
an adverb of degree must not be used absolutely. In statement C, replace ' so' with ' very' .
58. Ans.(4). Statements A, B and D are correct. ' Of course' i s often l oosel y used for ' certai nl y,
undoubtedly' . Strictly speaking, ' of course' should be used to denote a natural or an inevitable
consequence. So, statement C is incorrect.
59. Ans.(2). Only statement D is correct, as ' neither' is a distributive pronoun calling attention to the
individuals forming a collection and must accordingly be followed by verbs in the singular. The
object of a verb or a preposition, when it is a pronoun, should be in the objective form. In statement
A, ' she' should be replaced with ' her' . ' Many' must be followed by a singular verb. In statement
B, replace ' have' with ' has' . Words joined to a singular subject by ' as well as' are parenthetical.
The verb should therefore be put in the singular. In statement C, replace ' were' with ' was' .
60. Ans.(2). Only option (2) can be safely concluded from the passage. Option (1) goes beyond the
scope of the passage. Options (3) and (4) are not at all suggested in the passage. Hence, option
(2) is the correct answer.
61. Ans.(3). The key to ruling out options (1) and (2) lies in the word most. The passage doesn' t
indicate any assumption that a majority of people either choose work that they don' t enjoy doing
or want to change career directions. Option (4) is contradictory to the passage. Option (3) is a
sure enough assumption for the passage. Hence, option (3) is the answer.
62. Ans.(1). Statement A has been mentioned in the second last paragraph of the passage. Statement
C has been stated in the eighth paragraph of the passage.
63. Ans.(3). All the statements in this question have been wrongly inferred from the passage. They
are distorted conclusions. Hence, the answer is option 3.
64. Ans.(4). Onl y statement B can be correctl y concl uded from the penul ti mate paragraph of the
passage.
65. Ans.(1). Statements B and C are appropriate conclusions drawn from the passage. Statement B
can be deduced from the second paragraph of the passage, whereas statement C from the last
par agr aph.
66. Ans.(3). Only statement C can be inferred from the second and third paragraphs of the passage.
Statements A and B are wrong conclusions.
67. Ans. (4).
68. Ans.(4). Only statement A can be concluded correctly from the given passage. It can be justified
from the first two lines of the second paragraph.
69. Ans.(4). Statement B is a correct inference as it has been explained appropriately in the sixth
paragraph. Statement A is a wrong inference as it has not been given in the passage that HIV/
AIDS is the most expensive; rather it is given that it is most serious. Statement C is wrong because
' busi ness opportuni ty' has not been brought about by the passage.
70. Ans.(2). Statement A can be verified from the second last paragraph. Whereas, statement C can
be validated from the seventh paragraph. Statement B has been negated in the ninth paragraph,
therefore it is not correct.
CAT i s a game of
basi cs . . . Have i t and
crack it!
Vishal Prabhukhanolkar

71. Ans.(2). Options 1, 3 and 4 can be eliminated as they do not answer the question correctly from
the i nformati on gi ven i n the paragraph.
72. Ans.(1). It' s a phrase in English the meaning of which is given in option 1.
73. Ans.(4). We can obtain the answer by process of elimination of wrong options. On reading the
entire passage, it can be concluded that the author has written this article after a reported incident
(that of PM asking CEOs to cap their salaries) and is critical about it. Hence, the answer definitely
cannot be options 1, 2 and 3. It has to be a Reporter.
74. Ans. (3). On readi ng t he ent i re passage, i t can be concl uded t hat t he aut hor consi ders t he
opposi ti on "not requi red" i .e. unnecessary.
75. Ans.(2). The author described her style as "edgy" that means nervous.
Objective key
1.(4) 2.(3) 3.(2) 4.(4) 5.(2)
6.(3) 7.(2) 8.(1) 9.(4) 10.(3)
11.(2) 12.(1) 13.(4) 14.(2) 15.(4)
16.(3) 17.(2) 18.(3) 19.(2) 20.(4)
21.(4) 22.(3) 23.(1) 24.(4) 25.(4)
26.(3) 27.(1) 28.(2) 29.(1) 30.(3)
31.(2) 32.(1) 33.(3) 34.(1) 35.(1)
36.(3) 37.(1) 38.(1) 39.(3) 40.(2)
41.(3) 42.(1) 43.(1) 44.(2) 45.(1)
46.(3) 47.(1) 48.(3) 49.(4) 50.(2)
51.(3) 52.(2) 53.(1) 54.(3) 55.(3)
56.(1) 57.(3) 58.(4) 59.(2) 60.(2)
61.(3) 62.(1) 63.(3) 64.(4) 65.(1)
66.(3) 67.(4) 68.(4) 69.(4) 70.(2)
71.(2) 72.(1) 73.(4) 74.(3) 75.(2)

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INSTRUCTIONS

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TEST FORM NUMBER TEST BOOKLET SR. NO.

Figure 1 Initial position

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