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Pre-Board Examination for June & July 2012 NLE

This type of examination is a multiple choice type of examination. Any similarity of the questions on the previous or present board
examination is not an intention of the writer since the resources were purely for book references as well as from clinical
experience that requires good critical skills and application of nursing process. The examination is composed of five (5) Major
Subtopics:
1. Foundation of Professional Nursing Practice
2. Community Health Nursing and Care of the Mother and Child
3. Care of the Clients with Physiologic and Psychosocial Alterations (Part A)
4. Care of the Clients with Physiologic and Psychosocial Alterations (Part B),
5. Care of the Clients with Physiologic and Psychosocial Alterations (Part C).
This is a 60-item comprehensive examination. Read the questions properly and choose the best answer.
Nursing Practice 1. Foundation of Professional Nursing Practice
1. According to the Philhealth standards, a hospital must have Wellness clinics and health education activities such as the Diabetes
Clinic. With a goal of health promotion, which of the following activities is the LEAST concern?
A. Diagnose Illness
B. Maintain optimal function of the patient
C. Minimize health care costs
D. Offer layman forums
2. With regards to illness prevention activities, which of the following activities help clients MOST?
A. Maintain maximum functions
B. Reduce risk factors
C. Promote habits related to health care
D. Manage stress
3. Which of the following nursing goals MOST of the time taken for granted when at the hospital?
A. Illness prevention
B. Health promotion
C. Health maintenance
D. Rehabilitation
4. Health maintenance involves four characteristics in order to attain its goals. Which of the following does not belong to the group?
A. Perception of health
B. Motivation to change behaviour or status
C. Compliance to the set goals
D. Self-control
5. Which of the following completes the four characteristics of normal health maintenance?
A. Support Group
B. Access to social and economic resources
C. Physical examination
D. Manage stress


6. Which of the following factors can hinder the access to health programs?
A. Stress
B. Poverty
C. Work
D. Family
7. Which of the following activities involves primary disease prevention?
A. Immunization
B. Breast Self-Examination
C. Well-child assessment
D. Hospital admission
8. Which of the following the goal of secondary disease prevention?
A. To include activities which geared towards high level of wellness
B. To reduce the risk factors present in an individual
C. To prevent disability and render intervention in the earlier stage
D. To ensure treatment and management of present illness
9. A cardiac patient came in to the hospital for his daily cardiac rehabilitation. This type of activity is included in the following:
A. Primary Disease Prevention
B. Secondary Disease Prevention
C. Tertiary Disease Prevention
D. All of the above
10. A hospice is a family-centered institution wherein the major goal of its existence is to provide comfort and lifestyle of clients in
the terminal stage of illness. This is an example of:
A. A. Primary Disease Prevention
B. Secondary Disease Prevention
C. Tertiary Disease Prevention
D. All of the above
Situation. For No. 11 12. A survey must be done in order to know the factors of increase incidence of needle-stick injuries among
nursing personnel in the hospital.
11. Which of the following research activities would a nurse researcher initially do?
A. Review related topics
B. Find out how many had needle stick injuries in the unit
C. Prepare a tool for collecting the data
D. Get a permission from the nursing service director
12. Which of the following statements contribute on the feasibility of the study?
A. Variables are diverse
B. Readability of the findings
C. Broad problems
D. Findings are inconsistent



Nursing Practice 2. Community Health Nursing and Care of the Mother and Child
Situation. Nos. 13 18. As a community health nurse, you need to apply COPAR in visiting communities in order to meet their
needs.
13. On the first day of community immersion, which of the following activities involve the goal to get the whole set-up of the
community?
A. Home visit
B. Mass information drive
C. Mothers Class
D. Community health survey
14. As a community health nurse, you know that this is the best toll for community assessment:
A. Selective interview
B. Ocular survey
C. Conference
D. Home visit
15. How can you encourage active participation of the people in a new community?
A. Selective interview of clients
B. Observation
C. Community conference
D. Survey
16. When will be the best time to work with termination phase in a community immersion?
A. Pre-Interview Phase
B. Orientation Phase
C. Working Phase
D. Termination Phase
17 Community health nursing is a field of nursing which focuses on the:
A. Individual patient
B. Nursing community
C. Care of families
D. Health Education in the community
18. Community health has the following goals except:
A. Treatment of Illness
B. Health promotion
C. Disease prevention
D. Management of factors affecting health



Situation.19- 21. Ina, 5 years old was brought in the health center due to fever, vomiting, abdominal pain.
19 As a nurse on duty, what it your first priority?
A. Perform nursing procedures
B. Assess the patient
C. Plan for your care regimen
D. Identify nursing diagnosis
20 Upon assessment, you have found petechial rash on her extremities. What will be the next step?
A. Perform Tourniquet Test
B. Diagnose it as a Dengue case
C. Prescribe calamine lotion
D. Conclude that the Dengue is on the third stage
21. How would you perform Rumpel-Leede Capillary Fragility Test?
A. Inflate the cuff for 5 minutes within the pressure. The pressure is the average of systolic and diastolic pressure.
B. Inflate the cuff for 3 minutes within the pressure. The pressure is the average of systolic and diastolic pressure. Since the patient is
a child.
C. Inflate the cuff for 2 minutes within the pressure. The pressure is the average of systolic and diastolic pressure.
D. Inflate the cuff for 5 minutes within the pressure. The pressure is the sum of systolic and diastolic pressure.
22. After the Tourniquet Test, which of the following assessment would render a positive result leading to a suspected Dengue
Haemorrhagic Fever?
A. If there is disseminated petechiae.
B. If there is more than 20 petechiae in one square inch.
C. If there is no change noted.
D. None of these.
23. The Department of Health implements Womens Health and Safe Motherhood Project. Which of the following statements does
not belong to its coverage?
A. Developing networks such as BEmoNC and CEmoNC
B. Allowing home deliveries
C. Family Planning
D. Facility-based deliveries
24. You are screening pregnant women in a rural health unit. Which of the following would require referral to a hospital?
A. Cephalic presentation
B. Adequate Pelvimetry
C. Breech Presentation
D. Gravida 4
Nursing Practice 3. Care of Clients with Physiological and Psychosocial Alterations
25. In a nurse-patient relationship there are two types of communication: verbal and non-verbal. Which of the following does not
belong to the group?
A. Health Teaching
B. Using patients folks as an interpreter
C. Verbal order of the physician
D. Signs
26. As a novice nurse, you are under the responsibility of your senior. Any mistake in the area you have made must be reported to
the senior staff then to the head nurse or manager. This action is according to the principle of?
A. Line of command
B. Respondeat superior
C. Res ipsa loquitur
D. None of the above
27. Res ipsa loquitor is apparent on the following cases, except:
A. Scalding the patients skin with hot water during a meal
B. Bed sores present on the patients back
C. Infiltrated IV site
D. Verbal Assault
28 You were assigned in a medical ward. Upon opening a chart, you have seen that patient A has insensible fluid loss of
approximately 900 cc daily. This type of fluid loss can be due to:
A. Wound drainage
B. Gravity Drain
C. Urine output
D. Perspiration
29. Which of the following does not belong to the group of 4 As in Alzheimers Disease?
A. Amnesia
B. Apathy
C. Apraxia
D. Agnosia
30 Teresa, is a 54-year-old female with intratrochanteric fracture. After her surgical procedure, you have noticed that she is having
some confusion. Which of the following would you suspect?
A. Lack of nourishment
B. Effect of anesthesia
C. Lack of air
D. Fat embolism
31. Which of the following conditions would allow a foreign nurse to practice in the Philippines?
A. Be employed in a state college
B. Visitation in a state college
C. Employed only in private hospitals
D. Medical or Surgical missions
32. Observing the principle of sterile technique, which of the following would not belong to the group?
A. Scrub nurse
B. Surgeon
C. Operating room technician
D. Anaesthetist


33. A compartment syndrome can be detected when the patient complains:
A. Sprain
B. Deep pain
C. Phantom pain
D. Radiating pain
34. In a head fracture, increase of intracranial pressure can be possible. Which of the following would be other reasons of increased
intracranial pressure?
A. Localized abscess
B. Diabetes
C. Headache
D. Tonsillitis
35. A patient came in to a hospital with a history of suicidal attempts. At this time, he ingested 20 sleeping pills. Which of the
following would be the priority nursing action?
A. Assess for consciousness
B. Assess for vital signs
C. Insert NGT
D. Insert IV line
36. After a craniotomy, which of the following would be the nursing priority?
A. Prevention of infection
B. Preventing increase intracranial pressure
C. Preventing instability of posture
D. Preventing delirium
Nursing Practice 4. Care for Patients with Physiologic and Psychosocial Alterations (PartB)
Situation. 37- 42. You are assigned in the emergency room. A 70-year-old female came in complaining of dryness of throat and
mouth. She is a known diabetic for 20 years with a strong familial history of diabetes mellitus. Upon assessment, her vital signs are:
T= 37 C, PR- 90 RR- 24 BP- 140/80; CBG 570 mg/dl.
37. As a nurse, you know that the above initial assessment would reveal that the patient is:
A. Dehydrated
B. Decrease sensorium
C. Anxious
D. None of these
38. A venoclysis has been started with PNSS I litre x 150 cc/hr. Using a microset, how many drops per minute should the line be?
A. 50 drops per minute
B. 30 drops per minute
C. 150 drops per minute
D. 75 drops per minute
39. Aside from hydration, which of the following would be taken in order to check for Ketoacidosis?
A. Urine Culture and Sensitivity
B. Capillary Blood Glucose monitoring
C. Arterial Blood Gas
D. Pulse Oximeter
40. A urine ketone has been ordered. You know as a nurse that this test is taken in order to:
A. To check for pH level of urine
B. To check for presence of ketones in the urine
C. To check the quantity of urine being excreted
D. To check for the sugar levels in the urine
41. Which of the following will be your nursing action in terms of monitoring the hydration status of the patient?
A. Strictly monitor the intake and output
B. Restrict fluids
C. Increase oral fluid intake
D. Start an IV line with D5NSS
42. As a nurse, you are needed to formulate nursing diagnoses with Diabetic Ketoacidosis. These are the following correct
statements except:
A. Fluid Volume Deficit related to vomiting
B. Altered Level of Consciousness related to acid-base balance
C. Altered Level of Consciousness related to ineffective breathing pattern
D. Altered Nutrition: Less than body requirements related to diabetes mellitus
43. As a nurse, you can insert in your documentation the following abbreviations which are widely understood by the nursing
community except:
A. PRN
B. STAT
C. NOC
D. NPO
44. These are the following assessments needed for fluid status reporting in an adult patient, except:
A. Distended jugular vein
B. Peripheral perfusion
C. Mucous membrane
D. Sunken eyeballs
45. Upon opening the chart, you came across the ABG result of Patient Joe. These are following parameters: pH= 7.25; PaCO2=50;
Bicarbonate= 26. This result reveal:
A. Respiratory Acidosis
B. Respiratory Alkalosis
C. Metabolic Acidosis
D. Metabolic Alkalosis
46. A plain cranial CT scan has been indicated STAT. When it comes to consent, since the patient is unconscious. Who will be the
most liable for the consent?
A. His Grandmother
B. His mother
C. His 18-year-old wife
D. His attending physician

47. In the cranial CT scan, a 30 cc bleed has been noted on the temporal lobe. As a nurse, you know that this part of the brain is
responsible for except:
A. Auditory sensation and perception
B. Speech
C. Emotions
D. Vision
48. Your hourly monitoring of vital signs show an elevating blood pressure. As a nurse you anticipate to give:
A. Clonidine
B. Apresoline
C. Mannitol 20%
D. Magnesium Sulfate
Nursing Practice 5. Care for Patients with Physiologic and Psychosocial Alterations
Situation. 49- 52. You are assigned in a psychiatric ward for this rotation. Your first patient is a 26-year-old, female named Kathleen.
She has a history of violent behaviour towards male patients and male nurses. She oftentimes had seen to sing love songs and bursts
into laughter alternating with cry spells. She has 5 episodes of suicidal attempts after failing activities.
49. On the first day, which of the following statements would encourage Kathleen to respond elaborately?
A. Hello Ms. Kathleen, what a fine day isnt it?
B. Hello Ms. Kathleen, time for your new nurse to be talking to you.
C. Hello Ms. Kathleen, I am Nora, your new nurse. How are you?
D. Hello Ms. Kathleen, what beautiful voice you have.
50. Ms. Kathleen wants to play volleyball. Knowing her history, these are the following would be the proper nursing actions except:
A. Include only female participants in the game
B. Invite other patients
C. Plan for a game that would make her satisfied with the result
D. Avoid challenging comments to her while at play
51. After the play, Ms. Kathleen must be taken into the Mess Hall for her dinner. Upon receiving her meal, she whispered to you
The cook is a witch. She is putting some ingredients in our meal to kill us slowly. That is the reason why I wash the fried chicken
with water. As a nurse, you know that this is an example of:
A. delusion of control
B. delusion of negation
C. delusion of persecution
D. delusion of reference
52. Ms. Kathleen starts to sing love songs. She then stressed out that This song is really written for me. This statement is:
A. Idea of imagination
B. Ideas of reference
C. Ideas of hallucination
D. Ideas of illusion



53. As a nurse, these are different therapy groups in which the nurse needs not to be a member. This is:
A. Art club
B. Alcoholics anonymous
C. Music therapy group
D. Horticulture group
54. Henry is a member of the group who controls the worthless talk of his co-worker Pearl. His role in the group is:
A. Yes member
B. Dictator
C. Blocker
D. Monopolizer
55. Which of these situations appropriately would describe culinary therapy?
A. Eva is getting ready for an afternoon walk to her garden wherein she plants orchids.
B. Jane is practicing a musical piece for a week now.
C. Pia is reading a cookbook and preparing the needed materials for the baking session that is about the begin in 30 minutes.
D. Paul finds sketching relaxing and rewarding
56. Mental retardation can be defined as:
A. Severe lag on memory
B. Lack of sensory abilities
C. Timidity on mental abilities
D. Sub average intellectual functioning
57. As a nurse, you are interested in things that can help you cope with stress and change. Which of the following is a bio-behaviour
intervention?
A. Pharmacotherapy
B. Sclerotherapy
C. Meditation
D. None of the choices
58. Alyssa is prescribed to take Zyprexa. As a nurse you know that this is indicated for?
A. symptoms of self-destruction or impulses
B. Sleeping problems
C. Mood stabilizer
D. Eskalith
59. You have noticed Alyssa to be using alcohol whenever she moves. She rubs her palms with alcohol and wants to wash her wound
with water for several times. The wound has been packed and no bleeding has been noted. This behaviour is:
A. Somatic
B. Neurotic
C. Psychotic
D. Normal



60. As a nurse, you know that Alyssa is in a crisis. Which of following would describe a duration of crisis?
A. 1-2 weeks
B. 3-4 weeks
C. 4-6 weeks
D. 1-2 months
Answers and Rationale
Comments
comments
page 2
1. Answer: A. Diagnose Illness
Health promotion activities involves the members in order to maximize their skills and knowledge. Its advantages to the members
would include reduction of health care costs, reduce incidence of hospital admissions and offering layman forums wherein members
can reach their optimal function.
2. Answer: B. Reduce risk factors
In health prevention, the risks are present but it can be reduced so that the tendency to get sick is also minimized. The rest of
options were either part of health promotion activities or health maintenance.
3. Answer: B. Health Promotion
According to the World Health Organization, health promotion is the process of encouraging the people to heighten their control
over and to improve their health status. It is geared towards a change of behaviour in order to attain optimal healthy functioning
with the use of social and environmental interventions. However, this type of nursing goal often overlooked in hospitals.
4. Answer: D. Self-control
Self-control is also a part of the motivation to change behaviour or status. The other options were part of the major characteristics
of normal health maintenance.
5. Answer: B. Access to social and economic resources
Health maintenance can be achieved when the economic resources are within reach. Health maintenance entails finances and
relationships that must be made in order to see the change within the health-seeking behaviour of the individual.
6. Answer: B. Poverty
Poverty is the greatest threat to access to health programs. Increased incidence of preventable diseases, premature death and
illnesses are linked to poverty which is a worldwide problem today.
7. Answer: A. Immunization
Primary disease prevention involves activities that would stop something in order to prevent worsening problem on the health.
These activities involve regular exercise, stress management, nutrition class and immunization.
8. Answer: C. To prevent disability and render intervention in the earlier stage
9. Answer: C. Tertiary Disease Prevention
Tertiary Disease Prevention involves activities that can reduce the likelihood of having the similar disease state through
rehabilitation and assistance to reach the optimal health status.
10 .Answer: C. Tertiary Disease Prevention
Tertiary Disease Prevention may not promise that a person can return to its normal state. At some point this type of prevention may
give comfort and palliative type of care such as in terminal cases in a form of hospices.
Situation. For No. 11 12. A survey must be done in order to know the factors of increase incidence of needle-stick injuries among
nursing personnel in the hospital.
11. Answer: A. Review related topics
Since this is a survey type of study, a nurse researcher must first review related topics in order to provide a deeper knowledge of the
subject of the study. Collecting data using tool can be the next step and getting a permission to the hospital director will be next
step when the study has been approved.
12. Answer: B. Readability of the findings
The findings must be understood so that purpose of the study can be complete. Other options were inconsistent to the feasibility of
the study.
13. Answer: D. Community health survey
On the first day, a Community Health Nurse must be able to see the whole view of the community through a community health
survey. This involves mapping the whole community in order to know the access roads and how many house will the nurse serve. In
this type of ocular survey, the nurse may have an initial assessment of the whole community.
14. Answer: D. Home visit
Since you are situated in a community, a home visit is the best tool in assessing the community. This is an activity wherein the nurse
goes on foot in order to visit each houses, place a survey on each house and provide an observation on the health status and living
arrangement of the people.
15. Answer: C. Community conference
Conducting community conference can involve a lot of effort in the nurses part in order to get to know the people as a whole.
Selecting a few clients can compromise the reliability of the facts taken. Observation can also do not supply the needed answers to
questions since you really need to interact with the community.
16. Answer: B. Orientation Phase
In the orientation phase, a community health nurse must state the length of their stay in the community in order to provide the
client a space to adjust with their presence and absence after the community immersion.
17. Answer: C. Care of families
With a premise, family is the basic unit of the society, the community health nursing is geared towards caring this small unit because
this is the major driving force of the overall health status of the whole country.
18. Answer: A. Treatment of Illness
Treatment of Illness does not belong to the group. Community health is part of the paramedical or medical approach that is
concerned on the present health situation of the whole community.
19. Answer: B. Assess the patient
Using the Nursing Process, assessment is the initial step upon meeting the patient. In this manner, you will be able to plan and
perform nursing procedures using the nursing diagnosis that has been formulated.
20. Answer: A. Perform Tourniquet Test
A tourniquet test or otherwise known as Rumpel-Leede Capillary Fragility Test must be performed upon assessment of petechial
rash in order to determine the hemorrhagic tendency of the patient. It does not conclude that the patient may have Dengue but an
initial tool in making differential diagnosis. Diagnosing and prescribing medications are not responsibilities of a nurse.
21. Answer: A.
A blood pressure cuff is applied and inflated to a point within the average of systolic and diastolic pressure.
22. Answer: B.
The test is positive if there are 20 or more petechiae per square inch. This can be done by drawing an imaginary square on the cuff
area.
23. Answer: B. Allowing home deliveries
It is now not allowed to have home deliveries due to the increasing maternal and child mortality. The program focused on the
prevention of maternal complications even when a trained hilot or midwife will perform the delivery at home.
24. Answer: C. Breech Presentation
Breech presentation would need ceasarian section delivery since it is dangerous for the mother and the unborn child. Rural health
units are only catering normal spontaneous vaginal deliveries with following criteria: cephalic presentation, adequate pelvimetry,
gravida 4.
25. Answer: D. Signs
This is an example of nonverbal communication wherein the examiner can see or observe the changes on the body. Symptoms are
complaints made by the patient. The other options are types of verbal communication.
26. Answer: B. Respondeat superior
This action is a premise to this principle. A senior staff must be knowledgeable of the novice nurses action so that he or she will be
able to defend his or her unit together with his or her subordinates.
27. Answer: D. Verbal Assault
This does not have a physical evidence unless the victim will speak for himself or herself. The other options provide an evidence of
the injury after the act has been done.
28. Answer: D. Perspiration
When the patient perspires, you cannot account the total amount of fluid being lost from the body. The skin is so vast for insensible
fluid loss.
29. Answer: B. Apathy
This does not belong to the group. Apathy means being not concerned or emotionally attached to things or events. Amnesia is loss
of memory, apraxia is inability to determine function or purpose of object. Agnosia is inability to recognize familiar objects.
30. Answer: D. Fat embolism
Fat embolism is caused by trauma on the long bones or burns. The most common cause of fat embolism would be fractures. This
syndrome would manifest in a form of shortness of breath until delirium and even coma.
31. Answer: D. Medical or Surgical missions
Foreign nurses can practice the nursing profession during medical and surgical mission only. They could not be allowed to practice as
nurse educator in a state college since it is a government owned school.
32.Answer: C. Operating room technician
An operating room technician is in charge of the linens, the materials being needed as well as even the transport of patients. He is
considered as not sterile.
33. Answer: B. Deep pain
Deep pain in a fracture, particularly in tibia or forearm fracture is a characteristic feature of compartment syndrome.
34. Answer: A. Localized abscess
Localized abscess can be a predisposing factor of increase intracranial pressure. The other options does not belong on the known
predisposing factor of increased intracranial pressure.
35. Answer: A. Assess for consciousness
the initial nursing action would be focused on the establishment of the patients current state of consciousness. When the patient
appears to be drowsy, this means that the incident may happen in a few minutes or hours only. The conscious state would be useful
for further assessments and procedures.
36. Answer: B. Preventing increase intracranial pressure
In craniotomy, increased intracranial pressure is a common problem after the surgery. Nurses must be able to detect it through the
blood pressure, as well as on the status of the patient.
37. Answer: A. Dehydrated
In Diabetic patients, a sign of dehydration can be elevated blood sugar levels. The complaint of dryness of throat and mouth is also a
good sign of dehydration.
38. Answer: C. 150 drops per minute
A microset has a drip factor of 60cc per minute. Using this type of drip factor will also require to infuse 150 drops per minute in
order to reach the required fluid replacement every hour.
39. Answer: C. Arterial Blood Gas
Arterial blood gas is taken during the increase of blood glucose in order to check for signs of Diabetic Ketoacidosis. The pH level of
the blood is noted at this time.
40. Answer: B. To check for presence of ketones in the urine
A urine ketone test is done for patients with heart problems, as well as diabetes. Since the blood sugar of the patient is more than
240 mg/dL, it is warranted to perform such test so that ketones might be seen if the body tries to compensate with lack of sugar or
carbohydrates in the body.
41. Answer: A. Strictly monitor the intake and output
This is the correct nursing action when monitoring the hydration status of the patient. Restricting the fluids may pose a great danger
in dehydration. Increasing oral fluid intake in this patient is not indicated, only sips of water are allowed. The route of hydration is
through intravenous line. Starting an IV line with D5NSS will eventually increase the blood sugar level of the patient.
42. Answer: D. Altered Nutrition: Less than body requirements related to diabetes mellitus
This statement does not belong to the group since the related factor is a medical term. A related factor should include a medical
diagnosis rather a pathophysiologic state or current factors only.
43. Answer: C. NOC
This medical jargon is not allowed in charting. The following three statements are well used throughout the documentation.
44. Answer: D. Sunken eyeballs
In an adult patient, the first three options would reveal the fluid status of the patient. Sunken eyeballs are used for pediatric patients
only to assess the fluid status.
45. Answer: A. Respiratory Acidosis
This is an example of an acute respiratory acidosis. The pH level is less than 7.35; PaCO2 is more than 45 and the Bicarbonate level is
normal (26).
46. Answer: B. His mother
His mother is the most liable person to perform the consent since she is of legal age and next to his kin. His wife is considered to be
minor.
47. Answer: C. Smell
The part of the brain that is responsible for emotions is the hypothalamus . The temporal lobe is responsible for the interpretation of
semantics in speech and vision. It is also the area wherein auditory functions are located.
48. Answer: C. Mannitol 20%
Mannitol 20% is ordered in order to reduce the intracranial pressure as evidenced by elevated blood pressure of the patient.
Magnesium sulphate and other options are also indicated in order to decrease the blood pressure but with different predisposing
factors.
49. Answer: C. Hello Ms. Kathleen, I am Nora, your new nurse. How are you?
This statement is the most appropriate opening line for the orientation phase. Introducing yourself as a nurse may convey authority
in a none threatening way. Asking open ended questions can also encourage the patient to elaborate his or her feelings.
50. Answer: B. Invite other patients
Inviting other patients, which means male or female is not a proper nursing action since she may attack the male participants. Taking
in mind her previous actions towards the male counterpart, it is better to include females only in the game. Avoiding challenging
remarks and frustrations can also minimize her crying spells and violent actions.
51. Answer: C. delusion of persecutionThis type of delusion describes that a person is like being attacked, harassed, or cheated.
52. Answer: B. Ideas of reference
Ideas of reference has a content of holding a feeling that other people not related to him or her is talking or rendering something for
him or her personally.
53. Answer: B. Alcoholics anonymous
This type of group includes only people who want to change their behaviour towards alcohol. The nurse need not to be an alcoholic
in order to enter this group. He or she is only there in order to make sure that everything is well facilitated and organized.
54. Answer: C. blocker
As a blocker, you are the one who controls the situation when the talking of the topic is leading towards worthless topics.
55. Answer: C. Pia is reading a cookbook and preparing the needed materials for the baking session that is about the begin in 30
minutes.
Culinary therapy involves the utilization of cooking and baking as a form a therapy to its members.
56. Answer: D. Sub average intellectual functioning
Mental retardation is defined as a condition with impairment of sub average intellectual functioning that originates during the
developmental period.
57. Answer: C. Meditation
Bio-behaviour treatment means that the intervention is focused on the wellness of the body using behavioural techniques.
58. Answer: A. symptoms of self-destruction or impulses
Antipsychotic drugs ease the dissociative symptoms such as self-destructing behaviours.
59. Answer: B. NeuroticThis type of behaviour is influenced by phobia and compulsions. The excessing rubbing of hands with alcohol
is an example of compulsive behaviour.
60. Answer: C. 4-6 weeks
A crisis can be described as a stressing event that would occur between several days up to 4 to 6 weeks.