PS-RC-CDOBXU-MS001-012

MEDICAL-SURGICAL POST TEST

1. The physician orders laboratory tests to confirm
hyperthyroidism in a client with classic signs and symptoms
of this disorder. Which test result would confirm the
diagnosis?
a. No increase in thyroid-stimulating hormone level after
30 minutes during the TSH stimulation test
b. A decreased TSH level
c. An increase in the TSH level after 30 minutes during
the TSH test
d. Below-normal levels of serum triiodthyronine (T4) and
serum thyroxine (T4) as detected by
radioimmunoassay
2. A client is prescribed prednisone (Deltasone) daily.
Which statement best explains why the nurse should
instruct the client to take this drug in the morning?
a. Taking the drug at the same time everyday establishes
a regular routine, reducing the risk of forgetting a
dose
b. Prednisone has a longer half-life with morning
administration, making it more effective
c. Morning administration of prednisone mimics the bodys
natural corticosteroid secretion pattern
d. Prednisone is best absorbed when taken on an empty
stomach first thing in the morning
3. Which of the following is the most critical intervention
needed for a client with myxedema coma?
a. Administering an oral dose of levothyroxine (Synthroid)
b. Warming the client with a warming blanket
c. Measuring and recording accurate intake and output
d. Maintaining a patent airway
4. Which of the following would the nurse expect to assess
in an elderly client with Hashimotos thyroiditis?
a. Weight loss, increased appetite, and hyperdefecation
b. Weight loss, increased urination, and increased thirst
c. Weight gain, decreased appetite, and constipation
d. Weight gain, increased urination, and purplish-red
striae
5. For aclient with Graves disease, which nursing
intervention promotes comfort?
a. Restricting intake of oral fluids
b. Placing extra blankets on the clients bed
c. Limiting intake of high-carbohydrate foods
d. Maintaining room temperature in the low-normal range
6. Which of the following instructions should be included in
the discharge teaching plan for a client after thyroidectomy
for Graves disease?
a. Keep an accurate record of intake and output
b. Use nasal desmopressin acetate
c. Be sure to get regular follow-up care
d. Be sure to exercise to improve cardiovascular fitness
7. A client has just been diagnosed with type 1 diabetes
mellitus. W hen teaching the client and family how diet and
exercise affect insulin requirements, the nurse should
include which guideline?
a. Youll need more insulin when you exercise or increase
your food intake
b. Youll need less insulin when you exercise or reduce
your food intake
c. Youll need less insulin when you increase your food
intake
d. Youll need more insulin when you exercise or
decrease you food intake
8. W hen caring for a client with diabetes insipidus, the
nurse expects to administer?
a. Vasopressin (Pitressin synthetic)
b. Furosemide (Lasix)
c. Regular insulin
d. 10% dextrose
9. A client is transferred to a rehabilitation center after
treated in the hospital for a cerebrovascular accident.
Because the client has history of Cushings syndrome and
chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, the nurse
formulates a nursing diagnosis of:
a. Risk for fluid volume imbalance related to excessive
sodium
b. Risk for impaired skin integrity related to tissue
catabolism secondary to cortisol hypersecretion
c. Altered health maintenance related to frequent
hypoglycemic episodes secondary to Cushings
syndrome
d. Decreased cardiac output related to hypotension
secondary to Cushings syndrome
10. A nurse administers glucagons to her diabetic client,
and then monitors the client for adverse drug reactions and
interactions. Which type of drug interacts adversely with
glucagons?
a. Oral anticoagulants
b. Anabolic steroids
c. Beta-adrenergic blockers
d. Thiazide diuretics
11. A client is admitted for treatment of the syndrome of
inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH). Which nursing
intervention is appropriate?
a. Infusing I.V. fluids rapidly as ordered
b. Encouraging increased oral intake
c. Restricting fluids
d. Administering glucose-containing I.V. fluids as ordered
12. A client is admitted to the health care facility for
evaluation for Addisons disease. Which laboratory test
result best supports a diagnosis of Addisons disease?
a. Blood urea nitrogen level of 12 mg/dl
b. Blood glucose level of 90 mg/dl
c. Serum sodium serum level 134meq/L
d. Serum potassium level of 5.8 mEq/L
13. A client is diagnosed with syndrome of inappropriate
antidiuretic hormone. The nurse informs the client that the
physician will prescribe diuretic therapy and restrict fluid
and sodium intake to treat the disorder. If the client does
not comply with recommended treatment, which
complication may arise?
a. Cerebral edema c. Hypovolemic shock
b. Severe Hyperkalemia d. Tetany
14. Which important instruction concerning the
administration of levothyroxine (Synthroid) should the nurse
teach the client?
a. Take the drug on an empty stomach
b. Take the drug with meals
c. Take the drug in the evening
d. Take the drug whatever convenient
15. The nursing care for the client in addisonian crisis
should include which of the following interventions?
a. Encouraging independence with activities of daily living
b. Allowing ambulation as tolerated
c. Offering extra blankets and raising the heat in the room
to keep the client warm
d. Placing the client in a private room
16. Which of the following would indicate that a client has
developed water intoxication secondary to treatment for
diabetes insipidus?
a. Confusion and seizures
b. Sunken eyeballs and spasticity
c. Flaccidity and thirst
d. Tetany and increased blood urea nitrogen levels
17. A client, age 23, is diagnosed with diabetes mellitus.
The physician prescribes 15 U of U-100 regular insulin and
35 U of U-100 isophane insulin suspensions (NPH) to be
taken before breakfast. The nurse checks the medication
order, assembles equipment, washes hands, rotates the
NPH insulin vial, puts on disposable gloves, and cleans the
stoppers. To draw the two insulin doses into the single U-
100 insulin syringe, which sequence should the nurse use?
a. Inject 35 U air into NPH vial; inject 15 U air into regular
insulin vial, withdraw 15 U regular insulin; withdraw 35
U NPH
b. Inject 15 U air into regular insulin vial; inject 35 U air
into NPH vial, withdraw 35 U o0f NPH; withdraw 15 U
regular insulin
c. Inject 15 U air into regular insulin vial, withdraw 15 units
of regular insulin; inject 35 U air into NPH vial and
withdraw 35 U NPH
d. Inject 35 U air into NPH vial; inject 15 U air into regular
insulin vial; withdraw 35 U NPH; withdraw 15 U regular
insulin
18. When teaching a client about insulin therapy, the nurse
should instruct the client to avoid which over-the-counter
preparation that can interact with insulin?
a. Antacids
b. Acetaminophen preparations
c. Vitamins with iron
d. Salicylate preparations
19. A middle-age complains of anxiety, insomnia, weight
loss, the inability to concentrate, and eyes feeling gritty.
Thyroid function tests reveal the following: TSH 0.02 U/ml,
thyroxine 20 g/dl, and triiodothyronine 253 ng/dl. A 6-hr
radioactive iodine uptake test showed a diffuse uptake of
85%. Based on these assessment findings, the nurse would
suspect which of the following?
a. Thyroiditis
b. Graves disease
c. Hashimotos thyroiditis
d. Multinodular goiter
20. During preoperative teaching for a client who will
undergo subtotal thyroidectomy, the nurse includes which
statement?
a. The head of your bed must remain flat for 24 hours
after the surgery
b. You should avoid deep breathing and coughing after
surgery
c. You wont be able to swallow for the first day or two
d. You must avoid hyperextending your neck after
surgery
21. A client is admitted with a serum glucose level of 618
mg/dl. The client is awake and oriented, with hot, dry skin; a
temperature of 38.1 C; A HR of 116 beats/min; and a BP of
108/70 mm Hg. Based on these findings, which nursing
diagnosis takes highest priority?
a. Fluid volume deficit related to osmotic diuresis
b. Decreased cardiac output related to increased heart
rate
c. Altered nutrition: Less than body requirements related
to insulin deficiency
d. Ineffective thermoregulation related to dehydration
22. A diabetic client develops sinusitis and otitis media
accompanied by a fever of 38.2C. What effect may this
have on his need for insulin?
a. It will have no effect
b. It will decrease the need for insulin
c. It will increase the need for insulin
d. It will cause wide fluctuations in the need for insulin
23. Because diet and exercise have failed to control a 63-
year-old clients blood glucose level, the client is prescribed
glipizide (Glucotrol). After oral administration, the onset of
action is:
a. 15 to 30 minutes
b. 30 to 60 minutes
c. 1 to 1 hours
d. 2 to 3 hours
24. Early this morning, aclient had a subtotal thyroidectomy.
During the evening rounds, the nurse assesses the client,
who now has nausea, a temperature of 40.5C, tachycardia,
and extreme restlessness. What is the most likely cause of
these signs?
a. Diabetic ketoacidosis
b. Thyroid crisis
c. Hypoglycemia
d. Tetany
25. The nurse is planning care for a 52-year-old old male
client in acute addisonian crisis. Which nursing diagnosis
should receive the highest priority?
a. Risk for infection
b. Decreased cardiac output
c. Impaired physical mobility
d. Altered nutrition: Less than body requirements
26. A client with an indwelling urinary catheter is suspected
of having urinary tract infection. The nurse should collect a
urine specimen for culture and sensitivity by:
a. Disconnecting the tubing from the urinary catheter and
letting the urine flow into a sterile container
b. Wiping the self-sealing aspiration port with antiseptic
solution and aspirating urine with a sterile needle
c. Draining urine from the drainage bag into a sterile
container
d. Clamping the tubing for 60 minutes and inserting a
sterile needle into the tubing above the clamp to
aspirate urine
27. A client with renal dysfunction of acute onset comes to
the emergency department complaining of fatigue, oliguria,
and coffee-colored urine. When obtaining the clients history
to check for significant findings, the nurse should ask about:
a. Chronic, excessive acetaminophen use
b. Recent streptococcal infection
c. Childhood asthma
d. Family history of pernicious anemia
28. A client receiving total parenteral nutrition is prescribed
a 24 hour urine test. When initiating a 24-hour urine
specimen, the collection time should:
a. Start with the first voiding
b. Start after a known voiding
c. Always be with first morning urine
d. Always be the last evenings void as the last sample
29. The nurse is teaching a client with genital herpes.
Education for this client should include an explanation of:
a. The need for the use of petroleum products
b. Why the disease is only transmittable when visible
lesions are present
c. The option of disregarding safer-sex practices now
what hes already infected
d. Then importance of informing his partner of the disease
30. After having transurethral resection of the prostate, a
client returns to the unit with a three-way indwelling urinary
catheter and continuous closed bladder irrigation. Which
finding suggests that the clients catheter is occluded?
a. The urine in the drainage bag appears red to pink
b. The client reports bladder spasms and the urge to void
c. The normal saline irrigant is infusing at rate of 50
drops/minute
d. About 1,000 ml of irrigant have instilled;1,200 ml of
drainage have been returned
31. A client is frustrated and embarrassed by urinary
incontinence. Which of the following measures should the
nurse include in a bladder retraining program?
a. Establishing a predetermined fluid intake pattern for the
client
b. Encouraging the client to increase the time between
voidings
c. Restricting fluid intake to reduce the need to void
d. Assessing present elimination patterns
32.. A client develops decreased renal function and
requires a change in antibiotic dosage. On which factor
would the physician base the dosage change?
a. GI absorption
b. Therapeutic index
c. Creatinine clearance
d. Liver function studies
33. A client admitted with a gunshot wound to the abdomen
is transferred to the intensive care unit after an exploratory
laparotomy. Which assessment finding suggests that the
client is experiencing acute renal failure?
a. Blood urea nitrogen level of 22 mg/dl
b. Serum creatinine level of 1.2 mg/dl
c. Temperature of 37.6 C
d. Urine output of 400 ml/24 hours
34. The nurse is caring for a client in acute renal failure.
The nurse should expect hypertonic glucose, insulin
infusions, and sodium bicarbonate to be used to treat:
a. Hypernatremia
b. Hypokalemia
c. Hyperkalemia
d. Hypercalcemia
35. A triple-lumen indwelling catheter is inserted for
continuous bladder irrigation following a transurethral
resection, the functions of the three lumens include:
A. Continuous inflow and outflow of irrigation solution
B. Intermittent inflow and continuous outflow of irrigation
solution
C. Continuous inflow and intermittent outflow of irrigation
solution
D. Intermittent flow of irrigation solution and prevention
of hemorrhage
36. A client with genitourinary problem is being examined in
the emergency department. When palpating the clients
kidneys, the nurse should keep which anatomical fact in
mind?
a. The left kidney usually is slightly higher than the right
one
b. The kidneys are situated just above the adrenal glands
c. The average kidney is approximately 5 cm long and 2
to 3 cm wide
d. The kidneys lie between the 10
th
and 12
th
thoracic
vertebrae
37. During a routine examination, the nurse notes that the
client seems unusually anxious. Anxiety can affect the
genitourinary system by:
a. Slowing the glomerular filtration rate
b. Increasing sodium resorption
c. Decreasing potassium excretion
d. Stimulating or hindering micturation
38. A client with acute renal failure is undergoing dialysis for
the first time. The nurse monitors the client closely for
dialysis equilibrium syndrome, a complication that is most
common during the first few dialysis sessions. Typically,
dialysis equilibrium syndrome causes:
a. Confusion, headache, and seizures
b. Acute bone pain and confusion
c. Weakness, tingling, and cardiac arrhythmias
d. Hypotension, tachycardia, and tachypnea
39. A client admitted to an acute care facility with heart
failure is found to have a cystocele. When planning care for
this client, the nurse is most likely to formulate which
nursing diagnosis?
a. Total incontinence
b. Functional incontinence
c. Reflex incontinence
d. Stress incontinence
40. The nurse is planning a group teaching session on the
topic of urinary tract infection prevention. Which point would
the nurse want to include?
a. Limit fluid intake to reduce the need to urinate
b. Take the medication prescribed for a UTI until the
symptoms subside
c. Notify the physician if urinary urgency, burning,
frequency, or difficulty occurs
d. Wear only nylon underwear to reduce the chance of
irritation
41. The nurse is monitoring the fluid intake and output of a
female client recovering from an exploratory laparotomy.
Which nursing intervention would help the client to avoid a
urinary tract infection?
a. Maintaining a closed indwelling urinary catheter system
and securing the catheter to the leg
b. Limiting fluid intake to 1 L/day
c. Encouraging the client to use a feminine deodorant
after bathing
d. Encouraging the client to douche once a day after
removal of the indwelling urinary catheter
42. A client is admitted for treatment of chronic renal failure.
The nurse knows that this disorder increases the client risk
of:
a. Water and sodium retention secondary to severe
decrease in the glomerular filtration rate
b. A decreased serum phosphate level secondary to
kidney failure
c. An increased serum calcium level secondary to kidney
failure
d. Metabolic alkalosis secondary to retention of hydrogen
ions
43. Which steps should the nurse follow to insert a straight
urinary catheter?
a. Create a sterile filed, drape client, clean meatus, and
insert catheter only 6
b. Put on gloves, prepare equipment, create a sterile field,
expose urinary meatus, and insert catheter 6
c. Prepare the client and equipment, create a sterile field,
put on gloves, clean urinary meatus, and insert
catheter until urine flows
d. Prepare client and equipment, create a sterile field, test
catheter balloon, clean meatus, and insert catheter
until urine flows
44. The nurse is caring for a client with acute
pyelonephritis. Which nursing intervention is important?
a. Administering a sitz bath twice a day
b. Increasing fluid intake to 3 L/day
c. Using an indwelling catheter to measure urine output
accurately
d. Encouraging the client to drink cranberry juice to acidify
the urine
45. A female client has just been diagnosed with
condylomata acuminate. What information is appropriate to
tell his client?
a. This condition puts her at a higher risk for a cervical
cancer, therefore, she should have a Papanicolaou
(Pap) smear
b. The most common treatment is metronidazole which
should eradicate the problem within 7 to 10 days
c. The potential for transmission to her sexual partner will
be eliminated if condoms are used every time they
have sexual intercourse
d. The human papillomavirus, which causes condylomata
acuminate, cant be transmitted during oral sex
46. Which of the following clinical findings would the nurse
look for in a client with chronic renal failure?
a. Hypotension
b. Uremia
c. Metabolic acidosis
d. Polycythemia
47. A client with renal failure is undergoing continuous
ambulatory peritoneal dialysis. Which nursing diagnosis is
most appropriate for this client?
a. Altered urinary elimination
b. Toileting self-care deficit
c. Risk for infection
d. Activity intolerance
48. The nurse is providing postprocedure care for a client
who underwent percutaneous lithotripsy. In this procedure,
an ultrasonic probe inserted though a nephrostomy tube
into the renal pelvis generates ultra-high-frequency sound
waves to shatter renal calculi. The nurse should instruct the
client to:
a. Limit oral fluid intake for 1 to 2 weeks
b. Reporting the presence of fine, sandlike particles
through the nephrostomy tube
c. Notify the physician about the cloudy or foul-smelling
urine
d. Report bright pink urine within 24 hours after the
procedure
49. A client who has cervical cancer is scheduled to
undergo internal radiation. In teaching the client about the
procedure, the nurse would be most accurate in telling the
client:
a. She will be in private room with unrestricted activities
b. A bowel-cleansing procedure will precede radioactive
implantation
c. She will be expected to use a bedpan for urination
d. The preferred positioning in bed will be semi-Fowlers
50. Which statement best describes the therapeutic action
of loop diuretics?
a. They block reabsorption of potassium on the collecting
tubule
b. They promote sodium secretion into the distal tubule
c. They block sodium reabsorption in the ascending loop
and dilate renal vessels
d. They promote potassium secretion into the distal tubule
and constrict renal vessels
51. A client undergoes extracorporeal shock wave
lithotripsy. Before discharge, the nurse should provide
which instruction?
a. Take your temperature every 4 hours
b. Increase your fluid intake to 2 to 3 L per day
c. Apply an antibacterial dressing to the incision daily
d. Be aware that your urine will be cherry red for 5 to 7
days
52. Which of the following findings would be further
evidence of a urethral injury in a client during rectal
examination?
a. A low-riding prostate
b. The presence of a boggy mass
c. Absent sphincter tone
d. A positive Hemoccult
53. A client with decreased urine output refractory to fluid
challenges is evaluated for renal failure. Which condition
may cause the intrinsic form of acute renal failure?
a. Poor perfusion to the kidneys
b. Damage to the cells in the adrenal cortex
c. Obstruction of the urinary collecting system
d. Nephrotoxic injury to use of contrast media
54. A client with bladder cancer has had the bladder
removed and an ileal conduit created for urine diversion.
While changing this clients pouch, the nurse observes that
the stoma is red, weeping, and painful. What should the
nurse conclude?
A. The skin was not lubricated before the pouch was
applied
B. The pouch faceplate doesnt fit the stoma
C. A skin barrier was applied properly
D. Stoma dilation was not performed
55. The nurse is caring for a male client with gonorrhea
whos receiving ceftriaxone and doxycycline. The client
asks the nurse why hes receiving two antibiotics. How
should the nurse respond?
a. Because there are many resistant strains of gonorrhea,
more than one antibiotic may be required for
successful treatment
b. The combination of these two antibiotics reduces the
risk of reinfection
c. Many people infected with gonorrhea are infected with
Chlamydia as well
d. This combination of medications will eradicate the
infection faster than a single antibiotic
56. The nurse is reviewing the report of a clients routine
urinalysis. Which value should the nurse consider
abnormal?
a. Specific gravity of 1.03
b. Urine pH of 3.0
c. Absence of protein
d. Absence of glucose
57. Which of the following is a function of antidiuretic
hormone?
a. Sodium absorption and potassium excretion
b. Water reabsorption and urine concentration
c. Water reabsorption and urine dilution
d. Sodium reabsorption and potassium retention
58. After undergoing transurethral resection of the prostate
to treat benign prostatic hyperplasia, aclient returns to the
room with continuous bladder irrigation. On the first day
after the surgery, the client reports bladder pain. What
should the nurse do first?
a. Increase the I. V. flow rate
b. Notify the physician immediately
c. Assess the irrigation catheter for patency and drainage
d. Administer meperidine (Demerol), 50 mg I.M., as
prescribed
59. A client with chronic renal failure is receiving a
hemodialysis treatment. After hemodialysis, the nurse
knows that the client is most likely to experience:
a. Hematuria
b. Weight loss
c. Increased urine output
d. Increased blood pressure
60. The parent of a 9-year-old male calls the physician's
office to inform the nurse that the child has persistent
throbbing pain and tenderness behind the ear. The parent
also notes redness and swelling behind the ear,
accompanied by fever. Based on this report, the nurse
suspects which of the following?
A. Otitis media
B. Acute mastoiditis
C. Otosclerosis
D. Inner ear disorder
61. Nurse Vince, performing a vision screening on a client,
notes the client has to stand 20 feet from the chart to read a
line that a person with normal vision could read 100 feet
from the chart. Nurse Vince documents the reading as
which of the following?
A. 20/20
B. 100/20
C. 20/100
D. 120
62. Mr. Choy, 50-year-old client has impaired near vision
resulting from a loss of elasticity of the lens related to aging.
This is called
A. myopia.
B. hyperopia.
C. presbyopia.
D. nearsightedness
63. A nurse assessing a client notes yellow plaques on the
lid margins. The nurse documents the finding as
A. exophthalmos.
B. xanthelasma.
C. corneal arcus.
D. Ptosis.
64. The nurse, teaching a group of clients with chronic ear
complications, plans to include which of the following as
being involved in equilibrium?
A. The external ear
B. The middle ear
C. The inner ear
D. All three areas of the ear
65. Nurse Pevy while assessing a client's ear with an
otoscope, notes the tympanic membrane has white opaque
areas. She recognizes this finding as which of the
following?
A. A normal finding
B. Otitis media
C. Retraction of the tympanic membrane
D. Scars from previous perforations
66. A client asks Nurse Pevy to explain the purpose of ear
wax (cerumen). Nurse Pevy knows that which of the
following is not a function of cerumen?
A. Protects the tympanic membrane from infection
B. Protects the middle ear from infections
C. Traps foreign bodies
D. Serves to direct sound waves into the ear
67. A nursing student studying ear anatomy and physiology
recognizes that which of the following helps to equalize the
air pressure in the middle ear?
A. Tympanic membrane
B. Eustachian tube
C. Labyrinth
D. Cochlea
68. Dyosa, a 24-year old client presents to the clinic
complaining of eye pain after scratching the eye with the
contact lens. Upon assessment, the nurse notes a deep
ulceration on the cornea. Which of the following is the most
appropriate action for the nurse?
A. Irrigate the eye with antiseptics
B. Promptly refer the client to an ophthalmologist for
treatment
C. Suggest the client avoid wearing contacts until the
eye feels better
D. Perform a Snellen eye examination
69. Mrs Konchay presents to the emergency department
after being splashed with a chemical in the left eye during
their heated argument with a neighbor. The physician
orders eye irrigation to the affected eye. Which of the
following represents the appropriate technique for the nurse
to implement?
A. Direct fluid from the inner canthus of the left eye to
the outer, tipping the client's head slightly to the left.
B. Direct fluid from the outer canthus of the left eye to
the inner, tipping the client's head slightly to the left.
C. Direct fluid from the inner canthus of the left eye to
the outer, tipping the client's head slightly to the
right.
D. Direct fluid from the outer canthus of the left eye to
the inner, tipping the client's head slightly to the
right.
70. A client has an intraocular pressure of 25 mm Hg. In
planning care for this client, the nurse recognizes that the
normal intraocular pressure is
A. 15 - 20 mm Hg.
B. 20 - 25 mm Hg.
C. 25 - 30 mm Hg.
D. 20 - 30 mm Hg
71. Structure of the eyes that maintain hydrostatic
intraocular pressure:
a. vitreous humor c. retina
b. aqueous humor d. choroid
72. Diagnostic test that measures error of focus:
a. ophthalmoscopic examination
c. refraction test
b. visual acuity test and tonometry
d. Snellens chart
73. Post-operative nursing intervention/s to clients with
scleral buckling should include:
a. administration of miotics as ordered
b. position client in a semi-fowlers position for 1 day
post-op
c. advise client to avoid bending and stooping
d. all of the above
74. Characterized by tunnel vision:
a. retinal detachment c. glaucoma
b. cataract d. macular degeneration
75. Agents used as treatment for glaucoma that act by
decreasing the formation of aqueous humor include:
a. osmotic diuretics c. sympathomimetics
b. prostaglandin inhibitors d. miotics
76. Management for otitis media includes:
a. glycerol irrigation c. stapedectomy
b. myringotomy d. fenestration
77. Diet that is best advised to client with Menieres
Disease:
a. bland diet c. low fat diet
b. low-sodium diet d. high fiber diet
78. Surgical treatment for laryngeal cancer which retains
normal phonation and airway:
a. total laryngectomy
b. radical neck dissection
c. total laryngectomy with laryngoplasty
d. partial laryngectomy
79. The best time to encourage speech training to patient
who underwent laryngectomy, is:
a. 3 days post-op
b. 2 weeks post-op
c. 1 week post-op
d. after recovery from anesthesia
80. For an effective control of bleeding in clients with
epistaxis, the nurse best action is:
a. Anterior and posterior nasal packing for 15 minutes
b. digital compression of the soft, outer protion of the
nares against the septum for 5 to 10 minutes
c. advise client to avoid nose blowing
d. teach client proper mouth breathing technique