Jetking 2k8 Question Bank Part 2

WINDOWS SERVER 2008 PART 1 []
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1 What is the primary means of identifying network devices and services
in a Windows Server 2008 network?
A = DHCP
B = TCP/IP
C = DNS
D = IP
correct = C
explanation = In a Windows Server 2008 network, the primary means of
identifying network devices and services is through the use of DNS.

2 The DHCP relay agent listens for which messages that are broadcast
from the client?
A = DHCPDISCOVER
B = DHCPREQUEST
C = DHCPINFORM
D = All of the above
correct = D
explanation = The DHCP relay agent is configured with the address of a
DHCP server. The DHCP relay agent listens for DHCPDISCOVER,
DHCPREQUEST, and DHCPINFORM messages that are broadcast
from the client.


3 To support and use the DHCP service across multiple subnets, routers
connecting each subnet should comply with the DHCP/BOOTP relay
agent capabilities described in __________.
A = RFC 1342
B = RFC 1442
C = RFC 1542
D = RFC 1642
correct = C
explanation = To support and use the DHCP service across multiple
subnets, routers connecting each subnet should comply with the
DHCP/BOOTP relay agent capabilities described in RFC 1542.

4 Network Access Protection was introduced with which operating
system?
A = Windows Vista
B = Windows NT
C = Windows Server 2003
D = Windows Server 2008
correct = D
explanation = To allow administrators to enforce network security
policies, such as mandatory anti-virus or firewall configurations,
Windows Server 2008 has introduced the Network Access Protection
(NAP) enforcement platform.

5 Windows Server 2008 (and all Microsoft operating systems going
back to Windows 2000) supports which two types of hard disks?
A = partitioned and virtual
B = basic and virtual
C = partitioned and dynamic
D = basic and dynamic
correct = D
explanation = Windows Server 2008 (and all Microsoft operating
systems going back to Windows 2000) supports two types of hard disks,
basic and dynamic.

6 You can configure the DNS Server role by using which console?
A = Remote Server
B = Terminal Services
C = Windows Manager
D = Server Manager
correct = D
explanation = The DNS Server role can be configured from the Server
Manager console.


7 Which operating system does <i>not </i> support dynamic
disks?
A = Windows NT
B = Windows 2000 Professional
C = Windows Vista Business
D = Windows XP Professional
correct = A
explanation = Dynamic disks provide access to more advanced
configuration features. Once a basic disk is converted to a dynamic disk,
that disk can be accessed only by operating systems that support
dynamic disks Windows 2000 Professional; Windows XP Professional;
Windows Vista Business, Enterprise or Ultimate; Windows 2000 Server;
Windows Server 2003; and Windows Server 2008.

8 Which partition style is recommended for disks larger than 2TB or for
disks that are used in Itanium computers?
A = MBR
B = NTFS
C = FAT
D = GPT
correct = D
explanation = The GPT partition style is recommended for disks larger
than 2TB or for disks that are used in Itanium computers.

9 The Reverse Address Resolution Protocol (RARP) was designed for
what reason?
A = to discover the Media Access Control (MAC) address (an address
unique to a Network Interface Card) that corresponds to a particular IP
address
B = for diskless workstations that had no means of permanently storing
their TCP/IP settings
C = to provide a subnet mask and a default gateway
D = to enable a TCP/IP workstation to retrieve settings for all of the
configuration parameters it needs to run
correct = B
explanation = The Reverse Address Resolution Protocol (RARP) was
designed for diskless workstations that had no means of permanently
storing their TCP/IP settings.

10 Which of the following is sent by a DHCP server to a DHCP client
to confirm an IP address and provide the client with those configuration
parameters that the client has requested and the server is configured to
provide?
A = DHCPACK
B = DHCPNACK
C = DHCPRELEASE

D = DHCPINFORM
correct = A
explanation = A DHCPACK message is sent by a DHCP server to a
DHCP client to confirm an IP address and provide the client with those
configuration parameters that the client has requested and the server is
configured to provide.

11 The IP addresses defined in a DHCP scope must be __________.
A = contiguous
B = associated with a subnet mask
C = both A and B
D = none of the above
correct = C
explanation = The IP addresses defined in a DHCP scope must be
contiguous and are associated with a subnet mask. If the addresses you
want to assign are not contiguous, you must create a scope
encompassing all of the addresses you want to assign and then exclude
specific addresses or address ranges from the scope.

12 After the client receives an offer from at least one DHCP server, it
broadcasts a DHCPREQUEST message to all DHCP servers with
0.0.0.0 as the source address and __________ as the destination address.
A = 265.265.265.265

B = 225.225.225.225
C = 255.255.255.255
D = 205.205.205.205
correct = C
explanation = The client broadcasts a DHCPDISCOVER message to
find a DHCP server. Because the client does not already have an IP
address or know the IP address of the DHCP server, the
DHCPDISCOVER message is sent as a local area broadcast, with
0.0.0.0 as the source address and 255.255.255.255 as the destination
address. The DHCPDISCOVER message is a request for the location of
a DHCP server and IP addressing information.

13 Which of the following is not considered a top-level domain?
A = .nato
B = .int
C = .coop
D = .com
correct = A
explanation = The generic top-level domain names include .aero, .biz,
.com, .coop, .edu, .gov, .info, .int, .il, .museum, .name, .net, .org, and
.pro.

14 Active Directoryintegrated zones follow what type of update model?

A = multiple node
B = multimaster
C = replication
D = notification
correct = B
explanation = Active Directoryintegrated zones follow a multimaster
update model, meaning that all Active Directoryintegrated zones
contain a read/write copy of the zone and can make changes to the zone
information. Therefore, primary and secondary distinctions are not
necessary.

15 What is the length of time that the DNS service waits before retrying
a query made during a recursive lookup?
A = 3 seconds
B = 5 seconds
C = 7 seconds
D = 15 seconds
correct = A
explanation = By default, DNS servers use timings for retry intervals
and time-out intervals. This includes a recursion retry interval of three
seconds. This is the length of time that the DNS service waits before
retrying a query made during a recursive lookup.


16 Which zone enables a host to determine another hosts name based
on its IP address?
A = standard primary zone
B = standard secondary zone
C = reverse lookup zone
D = stub zone
correct = C
explanation = Most queries sent to a DNS server are forward queries;
that is, they request an IP address based on a DNS name. DNS also
provides a reverse lookup process that enables a host to determine
another hosts name based on its IP address. This is a reverse lookup
zone.

17 Windows Server 2008 includes all of the following routing protocols
that can be added to the Routing and Remote Access service with the
exception of __________.
A = OSPF
B = IGMP Router & Proxy
C = DHCP Relay Agent
D = RIPv2
correct = A

explanation = Windows Server 2008 includes the following three
routing protocols that can be added to the Routing and Remote Access
service RIPv2, DHCP Relay Agent, and IGMP Router & Proxy.

18 Which column of the IP Routing Table indicates the gateway value
for each routing table entry?
A = first
B = second
C = third
D = fourth
correct = C
explanation = The third column indicates the gateway value for each
routing table entry. When a particular route or table entry is applied to a
packet, the gateway value determines the next address or hop to which
the packet should be sent.

19 Which mutual authentication method offers encryption of both
authentication data and connection data?
A = EAP.TLS
B = MS-CHAPv2
C = MS-CHAPv1
D = Extensible Authentication Protocol-Message Digest 5 Challenge
Handshake Authentication Protocol (EAP-MD5 CHAP)

correct = B
explanation = MS-CHAPv2 is a mutual authentication method that
offers encryption of both authentication data and connection data.

20 By default, the Callback Options setting is configured as
__________.
A = Always Callback To
B = Set by Caller
C = No Callback
D = None of the above
correct = C
explanation = By default, the Callback Options setting is configured as
No Callback.

21 The File Services role and other storage-related features included
with Windows Server 2008 provide tools that enable system
administrators to address many problems on a scale appropriate to a
large enterprise network. However, before you implement the role or
begin using these tools, what should you spend some time thinking
about?
A = how quickly you can recover from the failure of a hard drive, a
server, or an entire facility

B = your users needs and how these needs affect their file storage and
sharing practices
C = how you control access to network file shares
D = how users will find the files that they need
correct = B
explanation = The File Services role and other storage-related features
included with Windows Server 2008 provide tools that enable system
administrators to address all of these problems on a scale appropriate to
a large enterprise network. However, before you implement the role or
begin using these tools, you should spend some time thinking about your
users needs and how these needs affect their file storage and sharing
practices.

22 When you work with basic disks in Windows Server 2008, how many
primary partitions can you create?
A = 1
B = 2
C = 3
D = 4
correct = D
explanation = When you work with basic disks in Windows Server
2008, you can create up to four primary partitions; that is, a partition that
can be used to load an operating system. For the fourth partition, you

have the option of creating an extended partition instead on which you
can create as many logical drives as you need.

23 What is the first step in designing a file-sharing strategy?
A = deciding how many shares to create and where to create them
B = determining usernames and passwords
C = deciding security measures
D = projecting anticipated storage needs and procuring the correct
server hardware and disk arrays to meet your needs
correct = D
explanation = The first step in designing a file-sharing strategy begins
before you even install the server operating system by projecting your
anticipated storage needs and procuring the correct server hardware and
disk arrays to meet your needs. Once you are ready to begin configuring
file sharing, you will then decide how many shares to create and where
to create them.

24 Windows Server 2008 has several sets of permissions that operate
independently of each other. Which permissions control access to
folders over a network?
A = share permissions
B = NTFS permissions
C = registry permissions

D = Active Directory permissions
correct = A
explanation = Share permissions control access to folders over a
network.
25 What standardized, highly portable print job format is the default
format used by the Windows 2000, Windows XP, and Windows Server
2003 print subsystems?
A = XML Paper Specifications (XPS)
B = Enhanced Metafile (EMF)
C = PCL 6
D = PCL 5e
correct = B
explanation = Enhanced Metafile (EMF) is a standardized, highly
portable print job format that is the default format used by the Windows
2000, Windows XP, and Windows Server 2003 print subsystems.

26 Which document management menu command enables users to send
jobs to the printer, where they remain in the queue, unprocessed, until
you select the same menu item again?
A = Document > Restart
B = Document > Pause
C = Printer > Use Printer Offline

D = Printer > Pause Printing
correct = C
explanation = The Printer > Use Printer Offline document management
menu command enables users to send jobs to the printer, where they
remain in the queue, unprocessed, until you select the same menu item
again.

27 Which version of Windows automatically supports automatic policy-
based printer deployments by default?
A = Windows XP
B = Windows Server 2003
C = Windows 2000
D = None of the above
correct = D
explanation = Clients running earlier versions of Windows, including
Windows XP and Windows Server 2003, do not support automatic
policy-based printer deployments. To enable the GPO to deploy printers
on these computers, you must configure the systems to run a utility
called PushPrinterConnections.exe.

28 How many possibilities of filter combinations exist in the Print
Management Console?
A = 1

B = approximately 100
C = approximately 500
D = more than 1,000
correct = D
explanation = When creating filters, each entry in the Field drop-down
list has its own collection of possible entries for the Condition drop-
down list, and each Condition entry has its own possible entries for the
Value setting. Therefore, there are many thousands of possible filter
combinations.

29 Which of the following is the default view of the Reliability and
Performance Monitor?
A = Performance Monitor
B = Reliability Monitor
C = Resource
D = Network
correct = C
explanation = Resource view is the default view of the Reliability and
Performance Monitor. This view provides a quick overview of the four
major performance components of a Windows server CPU, Disk,
Network, and Memory.

30 In which node is Event Viewer located?

A = Setup node
B = Application node
C = Diagnostics node
D = Security node
correct = C
explanation = Event Viewer is accessible from Server Manager by
drilling down to the Diagnostics node or by selecting Event Viewer from
the Administrative Tools folder on the Start menu.

31 Automatic Updates has been enhanced to support WSUS. This
enhancement adds all of the following features when used in conjunction
with a WSUS server except __________.
A = approved content download from a WSUS server
B = scheduled content download and installation
C = the ability to configure all Automatic Updates options by using
Group Policy Object Editor or by editing the registry
D = support for Unix-based systems
correct = D
explanation = Automatic Updates has been enhanced to support WSUS.
This enhancement adds the following features when used in conjunction
with a WSUS server approved content download from a WSUS server,
scheduled content download and installation, the ability to configure all
Automatic Updates options by using Group Policy Object Editor or by

editing the registry, and support for systems without a logged-on local
administrator.

32 Server management includes all of the following with the exception
of __________.
A = reviewing and changing configuration options
B = controlling download and installation behavior
C = automatically or manually synchronizing the server
D = viewing the update status
correct = B
explanation = Server management includes reviewing and changing
configuration options, automatically or manually synchronizing the
server, viewing the update status, and backing up and restoring the
server. Client management includes controlling download and
installation behavior and configuration for Active Directory and non
Active Directory environments.
33 Which rule allows you to specify one or more computers that do not
need to be authenticated to pass traffic?
A = Tunnel
B = Authentication exemption
C = Isolation
D = Server to server
correct = B

explanation = The Authentication exemption rule allows you to specify
one or more computers that do not need to be authenticated to pass
traffic; for example, defining a DHCP server that should not have an
Isolation connection security rule apply to it.

34 To set the Netsh IPSec context, what is the first command you enter
at the command prompt?
A = netsh
B = ipsec
C = static
D = dynamic
correct = A
explanation = To set the Netsh IPSec context, type netsh at the
command prompt, and then press Enter. Key ipsec, and press Enter.
From here, you can enter the word static at the Netsh IPSec prompt.
Static mode allows you to create, modify, and assign policies without
affecting the active IPSec policy.

35 Which type of attack is one in which a malicious user masquerades as
the legitimate sender or recipient of network traffic?
A = data modification
B = denial of service
C = man in the middle

D = identity spoofing
correct = D
explanation = An attacker can falsify or spoof the identity of either the
sending or receiving computer by using special programs to construct IP
packets that appear to originate from valid addresses inside of a trusted
network. IPSec allows the exchange and verification of identities
without exposing that information to interpretation by an attacker.

36 What is used to determine encryption key material and security
protection for use in protecting subsequent main mode or quick mode
communications?
A = quick mode negotiations
B = quick mode messages
C = main mode negotiations
D = main mode messages
correct = C
explanation = Main mode negotiation is used to determine encryption
key material and security protection for use in protecting subsequent
main mode or quick mode communications.

37 In a PKI, each user/computer possesses a piece of information that is
known only to the individual user or computer that is called a
__________.

A = public key
B = private packet
C = private key
D = shared secret key
correct = C
explanation = Each user/computer possesses a private key, which is a
piece of information known only to the individual user or computer.

38 Certificate templates can be used to automate the deployment of PKI
certificates by controlling the __________.
A = security settings associated with each template
B = user settings associated with each template
C = configuration settings associated with each template
D = networking settings associated with each template
correct = A
explanation = Certificate templates can be used to automate the
deployment of PKI certificates by controlling the security settings
associated with each template.

39 Depending on the enforcement method in use, a NAP enforcement
point can take a number of different forms, such as what?
A = 802.1X-capable Wireless Access Point for 802.1X enforcement

B = Health Registration Authority (HRA) that can obtain health
certificates from client computers when the IPSec enforcement method
is used
C = Windows Server 2008 DHCP server for the DHCP enforcement
method
D = All of the above
correct = D
explanation = Depending on the enforcement method in use, a NAP
enforcement point can take a number of different forms, such as an
802.1X-capable Wireless Access Point for 802.1X enforcement, a
Windows Server 2008 DHCP server for the DHCP enforcement method,
or a Health Registration Authority (HRA) that can obtain health
certificates from client computers when the IPSec enforcement method
is used.

40 What is an optional component that can be deployed to allow non-
compliant client computers to achieve network compliance and gain
network access?
A = enforcement server
B = health policy server
C = health requirement server
D = remediation server
correct = D

explanation = A remediation server is<i> </i>an optional
component that can be deployed to allow non-compliant client
computers to achieve network compliance and gain network access.
41 Which optional role service is part of the File Server role that allows
administrators to configure advanced file server functionality such as
disk quotas, file screens, and e-mail notifications of user quota
activities?
A = File Server Manager
B = File Server Resource Manager
C = File Resource Manager
D = Server Resource Manager
correct = B
explanation = The File Server Resource Manager (FSRM) is an optional
role service that is part of the File Server role, which allows
administrators to configure advanced file server functionality such as
disk quotas, file screens, and e-mail notifications of user quota activities.

42 Shadow Copies of Shared Folders functionality is enabled at which
level?
A = volume
B = file
C = user
D = network

correct = A
explanation = Shadow Copies of Shared Folders functionality is enabled
at the volume level, which means that it will be enabled or disabled for
all shared folders on the C\ drive, the D\ drive, and so forth. Shadow
Copies of Shared Folders works by periodically taking a snapshot of the
contents of all shared folders on a particular volume and storing those
snapshots to allow users and administrators to refer back to them later
for any of the purposes described above.

43 The File Server Resource Manager console was first introduced in
which product?
A = Windows NT
B = Windows Server 2003
C = Windows Server 2003 R2
D = Windows Server 2008
correct = C
explanation = The File Server Resource Manager console, first
introduced in Windows Server 2003 R2, provides tools that enable file
server administrators to monitor and regulate their server storage.

44 Three options can be found on the Previous Versions tab for any
snapshots listed. Which of the following is not an option?
A = Open

B = Duplicate
C = Copy
D = Restore
correct = B
explanation = From the Previous Versions tab, you have one of three
options for any snapshots listed Open, Copy, and Restore.

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