Narayana Dental PG Coaching - Biochemistry Week-01 Test (14-09-2014

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1. A bacterial mutant grows normally at 32C but at 42C
accumulates short segments of newly synthesized DNA.
Which one of the following enzymes is most likely to be
defective at the nonpermissive temperature (the higher
temperature) in this mutant?
(A) DNA primase
(B) DNA polymerase
(C) An exonuclease
(D) An unwinding enzyme (helicase)
(E) DNA ligase

2.An RNA produced from a fragment of DNA has the
sequence of AAUUGGCU. The sequence of the
nontemplate strand in the DNA that gave rise to this
sequence is which one of the following?
(A) AGCCAATT
(B) AAUUGGCU
(C) AATTGGCT
(D) TTAACCGA
(E) UUAACCGA

3.Which one of the following changes in the coding
region of an mRNA (caused by a point mutation) would
result in translation of a protein identical to the normal
protein?
(A) UCA UAA
(B) UCA CCA
(C) UCA UCU
(D) UCA ACA
(E) UCA GCA
4. Your diabetic patient is using the short-acting insulin
lispro to control his blood glucose levels. Lispro is a
synthetic insulin formed by reversing the lysine and
proline residues on the C-terminal end of the B-chain.
This allows for more rapid absorption of insulin from the
injection site. The engineering of this drug is an example
of which of the following technologies?
(A) Polymorphism
(B) DNA fingerprinting
(C) Site-directed mutagenesis
(D) Repressor binding to a promoter
(E) PCR

5. For the synthesis of lispro insulin (as described in the
previous question), which one of the following changes
in the coding for the B-chain would be required?
(A) CAAAAA to AAAAAC
(B) CCTAAT to AAACTC
(C) CCGAAG to AAACCA
(D) AAACCA to CCGAAG
(E) AAGCCT to AAACCC

6. A thin, emaciated 25-year-old male presents with
purple plaques and nodules on his face and arms,
coughing, and shortness of breath. In order to diagnose
the cause of his problems most efficiently, you would
order which one of the following types of tests?
(A) Southern blot
(B) Northern blot
(C) Western blot
(D) Sanger technique
(E) Southwestern blot

7. A 17-year-old male has large, prominent ears,
elongated face, large testicles, hand flapping, low
muscle tone, and mild mental retardation. Which type of
mutation does his diagnosis represent?
(A) Point
(B) Insertion
(C) Deletion
(D) Mismatch
(E) Silent

8.A young black man was brought to the emergency
room (ER) due to severe pain throughout his body. He
had been exercising vigorously when the pain started.
He has had such episodes about twice a year for the
past 10 years. An analysis of the blood shows a reduced
blood cell count (anemia), and odd- looking red blood
cells that were no longer concave and looked like an
elongated sausage. The type of mutation leading to this
disorder is best described as which one of the
following?
(A) Insertion
(B) Deletion
(C) Missense
(D) Nonsense
(E) Silent

9. A woman has been complaining of a burning
sensation when urinating, and a urine culture
demonstrated a bacterial infection. The physician placed
the woman on ciprofloxacin. Ciprofloxacin will be
effective in eliminating the bacteria because it interferes
with which one of the following processes?
(A) mRNA splicing
(B) Initiation of protein synthesis
(C) Elongation of protein synthesis
(D) Nucleotide excision repair
(E) DNA replication

10. A 72-year-old man acquired a bacterial infection in
the hospital while recuperating from a hip replacement
surgery. The staph infection was resistant to a large
number of antibiotics, such as amoxicillin, methicillin,
and vancomycin, and was very difficult to treat. The
bacteria acquired its antibiotic resistance owing to
which one of the following? Choose the one best
answer.
(A) Spontaneous mutations in existing genes
(B) Large deletions of the chromosome
(C) Transposon activity
(D) Loss of energy production
(E) Alterations in the membrane structure

11. A 42-year-old man is placed on a two drug regimen
to prevent the activation of the tuberculosis bacteria, as
Narayana Dental PG Coaching - Biochemistry Week-01 Test (14-09-2014

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his tuberculin skin test (PPD) was positive, but he shows
no clinical signs of tuberculosis, and his chest X-ray is
negative. One of the drugs mechanism of action is to
inhibit which one of the following enzymes?
(A) DNA polymerase
(B) RNA polymerase
(C) Peptidyl transferase
(D) Initiation factor 1 of protein synthesis
(IF-1)
(E) Telomerase

12. A 47-year-old woman, who has been on kidney
dialysis for the past 7 years, has developed jaundice,
fatigue, nausea, a lowgrade fever, and abdominal pain. A
physical examination indicates a larger-than-normal
liver, and blood work demonstrates elevated levels of
aspartate aminotransferase (AST) and alanine
aminotransferase (ALT). The physician places the
patient on two drugs, one of which is a nucleoside
analog, geared to inhibit DNA and RNA syntheses. The
primary function of the other drug is to do which one of
the following?
(A) Inhibit DNA repair in infected cells
(B) Enhance the rate of the elongation phase of protein
synthesis
(C) Reduce the rate of initiation of protein synthesis
(D) Inhibit ribosome formation
(E) Promote ribosome formation

13. Of the total energy available from the oxidation of
acetate, what percentage is transferred via the TCA
cycle to NADH, FADH2, and GTP?
(A) 38%
(B) 42%
(C) 81%
(D) 86%
(E) 100%

14. What percentage of the energy available from the
oxidation of acetate is converted to ATP?
(A) 3%
(B) 30%
(C) 40%
(D) 85%
(E) 100%

15. A genetic mutation caused the cellular concentration
of an enzyme to increase 100- fold for a biochemical
reaction. Therefore, the equilibrium constant for the
reaction catalyzed by the enzyme would change in which
one of the following ways?
(A) It would decrease two-fold.
(B) It would remain the same.
(C) It would increase in proportion to the enzyme
concentration.
(D) It would change inversely with the enzyme concentration.
(E) It would decrease 100-fold.

16. Consider the section of the TCA cycle in which
isocitrate is converted to fumarate. This segment of the
TCA cycle can be best described by which one of the
following?
(A) These reactions yield 5 moles of high energy phosphate
bonds per mole of isocitrate.
(B) These reactions require a coenzyme synthesized in the
human from niacin (nicotinamide).
(C) These reactions are catalyzed by enzymes located solely
in the mitochondrial membrane.
(D) These reactions produce 1 mole of CO2 for every mole
of isocitrate oxidized.
(E) These reactions require GTP to drive one of the
reactions.

17. In the TCA cycle, a role for thiamine pyrophosphate
is which one of the following?
(A) To accept electrons from the oxidation of pyruvate and -
ketoglutarate
(B) To accept electrons from the oxidation of isocitrate
(C) To form a covalent intermediate with the -carbon of -
ketoglutarate
(D) To form a thioester with the sulfhydryl group of CoASH
(E) To form a thioester with the sulfhydryl group of lipoic acid

18. Which one of the following is a property of pyruvate
dehydrogenase?
(A) The enzyme contains only one polypeptide chain.
(B) The enzyme requires thiamine pyrophosphate as a
cofactor.
(C) The enzyme produces oxaloacetate from pyruvate.
(D) The enzyme is converted to an active form by
phosphorylation.
(E) The enzyme is activated when NADH levels increase.

19. Which one of the following components of the
electron transport chain only accepts electrons, and
does not donate them?
(A) Cytochrome b
(B) Oxygen
(C) Coenzyme Q
(D) FMN
(E) Cytochrome C1

20. Which one of the following tissues of the eye relies
almost solely on anaerobic metabolism instead of the
TCA/electron transport cycle?
(A) Cornea
(B) Lens
(C) Ciliary muscle
(D) Retina
(E) All of the tissues of the eye use only anaerobic glycolysis
as an energy source.

21. A patient is undergoing an appendectomy under
general anesthesia (succinylcholine and an inhaled
anesthetic) when she begins to develop muscle rigidity,
tachycardia, and hyperthermia. Which of the following
best describes the mechanism of this process?
Narayana Dental PG Coaching - Biochemistry Week-01 Test (14-09-2014

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(A) Uncoupling of electron transport and phosphorylation
(B) Inhibition of NADH dehydrogenase
(C) Inhibition of cytochrome oxidase
(D) Inhibiting an adequate supply of ADP
(E) Combining with coenzyme Q

22. A patient is in septic shock and his tissues are
poorly perfused and oxygenated. The major end product
of glucose metabolism in these tissues will be an
accumulation of which one of the following?
(A) Pyruvate
(B) Acetyl-CoA
(C) Lactate
(D) Urea
(E) Citrate

23. Which one of the following cell types cannot utilize
the TCA cycle or electron transport chain?
(A) Brain
(B) Red blood cells
(C) Liver
(D) Kidney
(E) Heart

24. Metformin is the standard first-line oral medication
for Type 2 diabetes. The use of the drug has the
potential side effect of lactic acidosis. Which of the
following explains why this lactic acid buildup is rarely
seen clinically?
(A) The red blood cells utilize the lactate as fuel.
(B) The renal cell utilizes the lactate as fuel.
(C) The cardiac muscle cells utilize the lactate as fuel.
(D) The large, voluntary muscle groups utilize the lactate as
fuel.
(E) The lactate directly enters the TCA cycle to be oxidized.

25. An environmentalist attempted to live in a desolate
forest for 6 months, but had to cut his experiment short
when he began to suffer from bleeding gums, some
teeth falling out, and red spots on the thighs and legs.
This individual is suffering from an inability to properly
synthesize which one of the following proteins?
(A) Myoglobin
(B) Hemoglobin
(C) Collagen
(D) Insulin
(E) Fibrillin

26 Type of collage found in hyaline cartilage is
A. Type I
B. Type II
C. Type III
D. Type IV

27. All of the following types of collagen EXCEPT one
are present in cartilage
A. 2
B. 4
C. 6
D. 9

28. The most abundant protein present in body is
A. Globulin
B. Albumin
C. Collagen
D. Hemoglobin

29. The genome of the bacteriophage phi x 174 is made
up of
A. Single stranded linear RNA
B. Double stranded circular DNA
C. Single stranded circular DNA
D. Double stranded linear RNA

30. Eukaryotic chomosomal DNA is most condensed
during which phase of the cell cycle
1. G0
2. S
3. G1
4. Mitosis

31. The extent of DNA synthesis in a cell could most
specifically be determined by measuring the
incorporation of radiolabeled:
A. leucine.
B. phosphate.
C. ribose
D. thymidine
E. uracil

32. A 10-year-old girl is brought to the dermatologist
byher parents. She has many freckles on her face, neck,
arms, and hands, and the parents report that she is
unusually sensitive to sunlight. Two basal cell
carcinomas are identified on her face. Which of the
following processes is most likely to be defective in this
patient?
A. Repair of double-strand breaks.
B. Removal of mismatched bases from the 3'-end of
Okazaki fragments.
C. Removal of pyrimidine dimers from DNA.
D. Removal of uracil from DNA

33. A mature MRNA could be longer than its precursor
pre mRNA a due to
A. 5capping
B. Poly A tailing
C. Splicing
D. None

34. The compound that consists of ribose linked by an
N-glycosidic bond to N-9 of adenine is:
A) a deoxyribonucleoside.
B) a purine nucleotide.
C) a pyrimidine nucleotide.
D) adenosine monophosphate.
E) adenosine.

Narayana Dental PG Coaching - Biochemistry Week-01 Test (14-09-2014

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35. Which one of the following is true of the pentoses
found in nucleic acids?
A) C-5 and C-1 of the pentose are joined to phosphate
groups.
B) C-5 of the pentose is joined to a nitrogenous base, and C-
1 to a phosphate group.
C) The bond that joins nitrogenous bases to pentoses is an
O-glycosidic bond.
D) The pentoses are always in the -furanose forms.
E) The straight-chain and ring forms undergo constant
interconversion.

36. The nucleic acid bases:
A) absorb ultraviolet light maximally at 280 nm.
B) are all about the same size.
C) are relatively hydrophilic.
D) are roughly planar.
E) can all stably base-pair with one another.

37. Which of the following statements concerning the
tautomeric forms of bases such as uracil is correct?
A) The all-lactim form contains a ketone group.
B) The lactam form contains an alcohol group.
C) The lactam form predominates at neutral pH.
D) They are geometric isomers.
E) They are stereoisomers.

38. In the Watson-Crick model for the DNA double helix
(B form) the AT and GC base pairs share which one of
the following properties?
A) The distance between the two glycosidic (base-sugar)
bonds is the same in both base pairs,
within a few tenths of an angstrom.
B) The molecular weights of the two base pairs are identical.
C) The number of hydrogen bonds formed between the two
bases of the base pair is the same.
D) The plane of neither base pair is perpendicular to the axis
of the helix.
E) The proton-binding groups in both base pairs are in their
charged or ionized form.

39. Chargaff's rules state that in typical DNA:
A) A = G.
B) A = C.
C) A = U.
D) A + T = G + C.
E) A + G = T + C.

40. In the Watson-Crick model of DNA structure (now
called B-form DNA):
A) a purine in one strand always hydrogen bonds with a
purine in the other strand.
B) AT pairs share three hydrogen bonds.
C) GC pairs share two hydrogen bonds.
D) the 5' ends of both strands are at one end of the helix.
E) the bases occupy the interior of the helix.

41. The double helix of DNA in the B-form is stabilized
by:
A) covalent bonds between the 3' end of one strand and the
5' end of the other.
B) hydrogen bonding between the phosphate groups of two
side-by-side strands.
C) hydrogen bonds between the riboses of each strand.
D) nonspecific base-stacking interaction between two
adjacent bases in the same strand.
E) ribose interactions with the planar base pairs.

42. In nucleotides and nucleic acids, syn and anti
conformations relate to:
A) base stereoisomers.
B) rotation around the phosphodiester bond.
C) rotation around the sugar-base bond.
D) sugar pucker.
E) sugar stereoisomers.

43. B-form DNA in vivo is a ________-handed helix,
_____ in diameter, with a rise of ____ per base pair.
A) left; 20; 3.9
B) right; 18; 3.4
C) right; 18; 3.6
D) right; 20; 3.4
E) right; 23; 2.6

44. In DNA sequencing by the Sanger (dideoxy) method:
A) radioactive dideoxy ATP is included in each of four
reaction mixtures before enzymatic synthesis of
complementary strands.
B) specific enzymes are used to cut the newly synthesized
DNA into small pieces, which are then separated by
electrophoresis.
C) the dideoxynucleotides must be present at high levels to
obtain long stretches of DNA sequence.
D) the role of the dideoxy CTP is to occasionally terminate
enzymatic synthesis of DNA where Gs occur in the template
strands.
E) the template DNA strand is radioactive.

45. Which of the following is attached to the transfer
RNA (tRNA)?
A. DNA
B. ribosome
C. amino acid
D. nucleic acid

46. Which of the following is not part of protein
synthesis?
A. replication
B. translation
C. transcription

47. The codon is located on the
A. mRNA.
B. tRNA.
C. rRNA.
D. DNA.

Narayana Dental PG Coaching - Biochemistry Week-01 Test (14-09-2014

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48. In the RNA molecule, which nitrogen base is found
in place of thymine?
A. guanine
B. cytosine
C. thymine
D. uracil

49. During the process of transcription, which of the
following is produced?
A. H2O
B. ATP
C. mRNA
D. DNA

50. The actual site of protein synthesis is the
A. nucleus.
B. mitochondrion.
C. chloroplast.
D. ribosome.

51. If the DNA template reads ATA, then which of the
following would be the corresponding sequence on the
mRNA?
A. UAU
B. ATA
C. TUT
D. UCU

52. The genetic code is based upon the reading of how
many bases at a time?
A. one
B. two
C. three
D. four

53. Amino acids are held together by __?__ bonds.
A. hydrogen
B. peptide
C. ionic
D. high energy

54. How many codons are needed to specify three amino
acids?
A.3
B.6
C.9
D.12

55. One similarity between DNA and messenger RNA
molecules is that they both contain
A. the same sugar
B. genetic codes based on sequences of bases
C. a nitrogenous base known as uracil
D. double-stranded polymers

56. Some events that take place during the synthesis of
a specific protein are listed below.
A. Messenger RNA attaches to a ribosome.
B. DNA serves as a template for RNA production.
C. Transfer RNA bonds to a specific codon.
D. Amino acids are bonded together.
E. RNA moves from the nucleus to the cytoplasm.

57. The correct order of these events is
A. B E A C D
B. D A E C B
C. B C E D A
D. C B A E D

58. What is the complementary messenger-RNA
sequence for the DNA sequence shown below?


A. C-A-A-G-G-U
B. G-T-T-C-C-A
C. G-U-U-C-C-A
D. C-A-A-G-G-T

Use the diagram below for Questions 59-61

59. Which processes occur in the nucleus?
A. 1 and 2
B. 2 and 3
C. 3 and 4
D. 4 and 5

60. Process 2 is known as
A. replication
B. mutation
C. transcription
D. translation

61. What is the product of process 3?
A. a strand of DNA
B. two complementary strands of DNA
C. a strand of RNA
D. a chain of amino acids

Use the diagram below for Questions 62-64

Narayana Dental PG Coaching - Biochemistry Week-01 Test (14-09-2014

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62. Structure X was made in the
A. nucleus
B. cytoplasm
C. lysosome
D. vacuole

63. The process represented in the diagram is most
closely associated with the cell organelle known as the
A. nucleolus
B. ribosome
C. chloroplast
D. mitochondrion

64. Which amino acid would be transferred to the
position of codon CAC?
A. leucine
B. glycine
C. valine
D. histdine

65. If a portion of a messenger RNA molecule contains
the base sequence A-A-U, the corresponding transfer
RNA base sequence is
A. A-A-U
B. G-G-T
C. T-T-C
D. U-U-A

66. Which defines a codon?
A. a protein that beins transcription by breaking apart
H bonds
B. a free-floating base that attaches to an open DNA
strand
C. the genetic code word of three bases on mRNA that
specify one amino acid
D. the strong bond between two complementary
nitrogen bases

67. What is the role of tRNA during translation?
A. bond to open the DNA strand to carry the code for
protein synthesis out of the nucleus
B. carry ribosomes to the site of protein synthesis
C. break aparty mRNA and send it back to the nucleus
so that it can be reused
D. Carry amino acids to the mRNA for correct
placement into the protein chain

68. This diagram shows which cellular process?

A. Replication
B. Transcription
C. Translation
D. Mutation

69. Which of the following changes would be expected if
a CAUUUG sequences of bases mutated to CACUUG?
A. the amino acid sequence would be shorter than
expected
B. the identity of one amino acid would change
C. the identity of more than one amino acid would
change
D. the amino acid sequence would remain unchanged

70. An Okazaki fragment is a:
A) fragment of DNA resulting from endonuclease action.
B)fragment of RNA that is a subunit of the 30S ribosome.
C) piece of DNA that is synthesized in the 3'5 ' direction.
D) segment of DNA that is an intermediate in the synthesis of
the lagging strand.
E) segment of mRNA synthesized by RNA polymerase.

71. The compound that consists of ribose linked by an
N-glycosidic bond to N-9 of adenine is:
A) a deoxyribonucleoside.
B) a purine nucleotide.
C) a pyrimidine nucleotide.
D) adenosine monophosphate.
E) adenosine.

72. Which one of the following is true of the pentoses
found in nucleic acids?
A) C-5 and C-1 of the pentose are joined to phosphate
groups.
B) C-5 of the pentose is joined to a nitrogenous base, and C-
1 to a phosphate group.
C) The bond that joins nitrogenous bases to pentoses is an
O-glycosidic bond.
D) The pentoses are always in the -furanose forms.
E) The straight-chain and ring forms undergo constant
interconversion.

73. The nucleic acid bases:
A) absorb ultraviolet light maximally at 280 nm.
B) are all about the same size.
C) are relatively hydrophilic.
Narayana Dental PG Coaching - Biochemistry Week-01 Test (14-09-2014

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D) are roughly planar.
E) can all stably base-pair with one another

74. Which of the following statements concerning the
tautomeric forms of bases such as uracil is correct?
A) The all-lactim form contains a ketone group.
B) The lactam form contains an alcohol group.
C) The lactam form predominates at neutral pH.
D) They are geometric isomers.
E) They are stereoisomers.

75. Which of the following statements concerning
anabolic reactions is FALSE?
A. They are generally endergonic.
B. They usually require ATP.
C. They are part of metabolism.
D. They may produce polysaccharides from
monosaccharides.
E. They may split complex molecules into their components.

76. Aerobic respiration, anaerobic respiration, and
fermentation:
A. are endergonic pathways.
B. release free energy.
C. require oxygen.
D. are also known as organismic respiration.
E. are anabolic pathways.

77.Cellular respiration is most accurately described as
a(n) ______________ process.
A. anabolic
B. catabolic
C. metabolic
D. endergonic
E. fermentative

78. Select the anaerobic pathway.
A. aerobic respiration
B. citric acid cycle
C. electron transport chain
D. fermentation
E. chemiosmosis

79. The overall reaction for the aerobic respiration of
glucose is summarized as:
A. C6H12O6 + 6 O2 + 6 H2O 6 CO2 + 12 H2O + Energy.
B. C4H12O4 + 12 H2O + 6 CO2 6 O2 + ATP + Energy.
C. C4H12O4 + 6 O2 + 6 H2O 6 CO2 + ATP + Energy.
D. C4H12O2 + 6 O2 + ATP 6 CO2 + 12 H2O + Energy.
E. C6H12O6 + 6 H2O 6 CO2 + 12 H2 + Energy.

80. In aerobic respiration, glucose is completely:
A. reduced to ATP.
B. reduced to energy.
C. oxidized to water.
D. oxidized to carbon dioxide.
E. oxidized and reduced simultaneously.

81. Aerobic respiration is classified as:
A. a synthesis reaction.
B. a hydrolysis reaction.
C. a redox process.
D. a polymerization reaction.
E. an anabolic process.

82. The transfer of electrons from glucose to oxygen
during aerobic respiration takes place in a stepwise
fashion through a number of intermediates rather than
by direct transfer. This is because:
A. it is chemically impossible to transfer electrons directly
from glucose to oxygen.
B. the chemical intermediates donate some of their electrons
in order to increase the
electron pool.
C. the energy of the electrons can be used to make ADP.
D. the energy of the electrons can be used to make ATP.
E. the energy of the protons can be used to make ATP.

83. In aerobic respiration, the electrons associated with
the hydrogen atoms in glucose are transferred to:
A. carbon in a series of steps.
B. oxygen in a series of steps.
C. NADH in a series of steps.
D. the mitochondrial membranes.
E. hydrogen ions.

84. If conditions are aerobic, pyruvate flows directly into
the _______ where some of its atoms are converted next
to _______.
A. cytosol; oxaloacetate
B. cytosol; ATP
C. mitochondria; glucose-6-phosphate
D. mitochondia; acetyl coenzyme A
E. mitochondria; citrate

85. Which process does not match the products?
A. electron transport and chemiosmosisATP, H2O, NAD+,
FAD
B. citric acid cycleCO2, NADH, FADH2, ATP
C. formation of acetyl CoAAcetyl CoA, CO2, NADH
D. glycolysispyruvate, ATP, NADH
E. All of these processes match the products.

86. Which process does not match the starting
materials?
A. electron transport and chemiosmosisNADH, FADH2,
O2, ADP, Pi
B. glycolysisglucose, ATP, NAD+, ADP, Pi
C. citric acid cycleacetyl CoA, H2O, NAD+, FAD, ADP, Pi
D. formation of acetyl CoAcitric acid, CO2, NADH
E. All of these processes match the starting materials.

87. During chemiosmosis, ____________ are transferred
from NADH and FADH2 to electron acceptor molecules,
and the energy released is used to create a(n)
____________ gradient across the inner mitochondrial
membrane.
A. protons; electron
Narayana Dental PG Coaching - Biochemistry Week-01 Test (14-09-2014

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B. electrons; proton
C. ATP molecules; ADP molecule
D. ADP molecules; ATP molecule
E. water molecules; oxygen

88. NADH and FADH2 are the products of:
A. decarboxylation reactions.
B. reduction reactions.
C. glycolysis.
D. formation of acetyl coenzyme A.
E. chemiosmosis.

89. Which of the following statements concerning
decarboxylation reactions is FALSE?
A. They occur as part of the citric acid cycle.
B. They produce CO2 that is then exhaled via breathing.
C. They involve the removal of a carboxyl group (-COOH)
from a substrate.
D. They are one type of general reaction that occurs during
aerobic respiration.
E. They involve the removal of two protons and two
electrons.

90. In glycolysis, fructose-1, 6-bisphosphate splits,
forming two molecules of:
A. ADP.
B. citric acid.
C. G3P.
D. glucose.
E. acetyl CoA.

91. NADH is formed when NAD+ accepts:
A. a proton.
B. a hydrogen atom.
C. a pair of protons and an electron.
D. a proton and a pair of electrons.
E. two hydrogen atoms.

92. Which of the following statements about the electron
transport chain is true?
A. Protons are pumped out of the mitochondria by the
complexes of the electron transport chain.
B. The proton gradient established during electron transport
is a form of potential energy.
C. The electron transport chain can be found in the
mitochondria of aerobic bacteria and other cells.
D. The movement of protons down a concentration gradient
is an endergonic process.
E. ATP synthesis associated with the electron transport
chain is an example of substrate level phosphorylation.

93. When hydrogen ions (protons) are pumped across
the inner mitochondrial membrane, they form a proton
gradient. ATP is then formed by a process known as:
A. glycolysis.
B. the citric acid cycle.
C. chemiosmosis.
D. pyruvate synthesis.
E. substrate-level phosphorylation.

94. In chemiosmosis, ATP is produced as hydrogen ions
(protons) pass through:
A. the outer mitochondrial membrane.
B. ATP synthase.
C. ATP dehydrogenase.
D. ATP decarboxylase.
E. a series of electron carriers.

95. Select the processes that are matched with the
incorrect amount of ATP produced by that process per
glucose molecule.
A. glycolysis2 ATP (net)
B. citric acid cycle4 ATP
C. electron transport chain32 ATP
D. alcohol fermentation2 ATP
E. lactate fermentation2 ATP

96. In the skeletal muscle cells of vertebrates, as many
as ____________ molecules of ATP areproduced from
one molecule of glucose. This is less than might be
expected, because electrons from NADH produced
during glycolysis must be shuttled through the
____________ mitochondrial membrane at a cost.
A. 2; outer
B. 2; inner
C. 38; inner
D. 6; outer
E. 36; inner

97. Which of the following statements about the
chemiosmotic theory is correct?
A) Electron transfer in mitochondria is accompanied by an
asymmetric release of protons on one side of the inner
mitochondrial membrane.
B)It predicts that oxidative phosphorylation can occur even in
the absence of an intact inner mitochondrial membrane.
C) The effect of uncoupling reagents is a consequence of
their ability to carry electrons through membranes.
D) The membrane ATP synthase has no significant role in
the chemiosmotic theory.
E) All of the above are correct

98. Almost all of the oxygen (O2) one consumes in
breathing is converted to:
A) acetyl-CoA.
B) carbon dioxide (CO2).
C) carbon monoxide and then to carbon dioxide.
D) none of the above.
E) water

99. Oligomycin inhibits ATP synthase while DNP is an
uncoupler. Therefore, DNP will:
A) allow electron transfer in the presence of oligomycin.
B) allow oxidative phosphorylation in the presence of
oligomycin.
C) block electron transfer in the presence of oligomycin.
D) diminish O2 consumption in the presence of oligomycin
E) do none of the above
Narayana Dental PG Coaching - Biochemistry Week-01 Test (14-09-2014

9


100. Which of the following statements about energy
conservation in the mitochondrion is false?
A) Drug that inhibits the ATP synthase will also inhibit the
flow of electrons down the chain of carriers.
B) For oxidative phosphorylation to occur, it is essential to
have a closed membranous structure with an inside and an
outside.
C) The yield of ATP per mole of oxidizable substrate
depends on the substrate.
D) Uncouplers (such as dinitrophenol) have exactly the same
effect on electron transfer as inhibitors such as cyanide; both
block further electron transfer to oxygen.
E) Uncouplers short circuit the proton gradient, thereby
dissipating the proton motive force as heat




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