IECEP COMPILATION ESAT

1. Television stations are often operated in

geographically separate areas and
there are areas of the country where, because of
population density, not all
television channels are utilized. This unused
spectrum between TV stations are
called
Ans. White Spaces
2. A radio that includes a transmitter in which the
operating parameters of frequency
range, modulation type or maximum output power,
can be altered by making a
change in software w/o making any changes to
hardware components.
Ans. Software Defined Radio
3. It is an intelligent wireless communication system
that is aware of its surrounding
environment, and uses the methodology of
understanding-by-building to learn
from the environment and adapt its internal states to
statistical variations in the
incoming RF stimuli by making corresponding
changes in certain operating
parameters in real-time.
Ans. Cognitive Radio
4. Control signals sent in a voice channel at voice
frequencies.
Ans. in-band signals
5. It is a channel model in which the input and output
alphabets x and y are discrete sets and
the channel is memoryless
Ans. The Discrete Memoryless Chanel
6. He is The Prophet of the Integrated Circuit.
Ans. Geoffrey Dummer
7. _____________________ is a harmful group of bacteria
which can live inside cooling towers
as well as in hot water systems, warm freshwater
ponds, and creeks
Ans. Legionella
8. He developed the oldest type of fuel cells which is
the Alkaline Fuel Cells
Ans. Francis Bacon
9. There are few major tidal energy generating power
plants in operation. The main one is the
__________________ in Northern France built in 1966 and
has a capacity of 240 MW.
Ans. Ge Rance River
10. It is a diagnostic application or device that a
network administrator can purchase and install
on a network workstations or attach to the network
media to monitor and capture data
packets for subsequent analysis..
Ans. Sniffer
11. _______________ is a secret key encryption
technology that is used in client/server
environments for secure authentication between
computers.
Ans. Kerberos
12. What is the circuit which has a purpose to quiet a
receiver in the absence of a received
signal?
Ans. Squelch circuit
13. What is network node dedicated to interfacing
between the network and one or more
printers?
Ans. Print server
14. Signal sent by the network to the calling
telephone to indicate that the called party is being
alerted.
Ans. Ringback signal
15. Abrupt variations in timing of a digital signal
Ans. Jitter
16. The deviation of a wave as it passes an obstacle or
passes through a small aperture
Ans. Diffraction
17. The speed of transmission of a signal along a
waveguide.
Ans. Group velocity
18. A distance far enough from an antenna that local
inductive and capacitive effects are
insignificant.
Ans. Far-field region
19. The lobe in the direction of maximum radiation.
Ans. Main lobe
20. A waveguide device that has low loss in one
direction and high loss in the other.
Ans. Isolator
21. In a klystron, a cavity that velocity-modulates the
electron beam is ____.
Ans. Buncher
22. A balanced modulator eliminates which of the
following from its output?
Ans. Carrier
23. A one-quarter wavelength of coaxial or balanced
transmission line of
a specific impedance connected between a load and a
source in order to match
impedances is
Ans. Q section
24. When the characteristic impedance of the
transmission line matches
the output impedance of the transmitter and the
impedance of the antenna itself,
Ans. Maximum power transfer will take place
25. A stacked collinear antenna consisting of half-
wave dipoles spaced
from one another by one-half wavelengths is the
Ans. Broadside array
26. It is a variable inductor, one or more variable
capacitors, or a
combination of these components connected in
various configurations.
Ans. Antenna tuners
27. Generally used only on VHF and UHF bands
because their length
becomes prohibitive at the lower frequencies.
Ans. Collinear antenna
28. A basic antenna connected to a transmission line
plus one or more
additional conductors that are not connected to the
transmission line form a
Ans. Parasitic array
29. The ability of an antenna to send or receive
signals over a narrow
horizontal directional range is referred to as
Ans. Directivity
30. It is a phenomenon caused by any support
insulators used at the
ends of the wire antenna and has the effect of adding
a capacitance to the end of
each wire.
Ans. End effect
31. A type of antenna array where the maximum
radiation is along the
main axis of the antenna.
Ans. End-fire array
32. What antenna is often used vertically as either a
mobile or base
antenna in VHF and UHF systems?
Ans. 5/8 antenna
33. To obtain selectivity while eliminating the image
problem, it is best to
use a
Ans. Dual-conversion Receiver
34. It uses switching techniques but with a scheme of
pulse-width
modulation and are found primarily in audio
applications but have also been used
in low and medium frequency RF amplifiers such as
those used in AM broadcast
transmitters
Ans. Class S Amplifiers
35. It uses a capacitive voltage divider instead of a
tapped inductor to
provide feedback.
Ans. Colpitts Oscillator
36. It refers to any noise that has equal power per
octave rather than per
hertz.
Ans. Pink noise
37. It provides the desired frequency response but
have a constant time
delay in the passband.
Ans. Bessel
38. It is the rate of change of amplitude with
frequency in a filter.
Ans. Roll off
39. Passes all frequencies equally well over its design
range but has a
fixed or predictable phase shift characteristics.
Ans. All-pass filter
40. The tendency of electrons flowing in a conductor
to flow near and or
the outer surface of the conductor frequencies in the
VHF, UHF and microwave
regions.
Ans. Skin effect
41. Is an error-correcting code used for correcting
transmission errors in
synchronous data streams.
Ans. Hamming code
42. Is an empirical record of a systems actual bit
error performance
Ans. BER
43. Modulation which combines encoding and
modulation to reduce the
probability of error.
Ans. TCM
44. Is used to interface DTEs to digital transmission
channels
Ans. Channel service unit
45. Is one in which all computers share their
resources with all the other
computers on the network.
Ans. Peer-to-peer client/server network
46. OC-1 (STS-1) line rate is
Ans. 51.84 Mbps
47. Is a device which operates in the Network layer
and it makes
forwarding decisions on the basis of network
addresses.
Ans. Router
48. Is a multiport bridge that provides bridging
function.
Ans. Switch
49. IP version 4 address length is
Ans. 32 bits
50. Is an access method used primarily with LANs
configured in a bus
topology.
Ans. CSMA/CD
51. Is an n-bit data register inside the UART that
keeps track of the
UARTs transmit and receive buffer registers.
Ans. Status Word register
52. Is a redundancy error detection scheme that uses
parity to
determine if a transmission error has occurred
within a message and is
sometimes called message parity.
Ans. Longitudinal redundancy check
53. Is a PCM system which uses a single bit PCM code
to achieve digital
transmission of analog signals.
Ans. Delta modulation
54. Is the ratio of the largest possible magnitude to
the smallest possible
magnitude that can be decoded by the digital-to-
analog converter.
Ans. Dynamic range
55. Is an OSI Layer which is responsible for providing
error-free
communications across the physical link connecting
primary and secondary
stations (nodes)
Ans. Data Link layer
56. A/an _______ is a range of frequency in which the
upper frequency is double the
lower frequency.
Ans. Octave
57. In PCM system, it is the ratio of the maximum
input voltage level to the smallest
voltage level that can be quantized
Ans. Dynamic range
58. It is an undesired shift or width change in digital
bits of data due to circuitry action
which causes bits to arrive at different times
Ans. Jitter
59. It is a connecting device between two
internetworks that use different models
Ans. Gateway
60. An error detection method which uses ones
complement arithmetic
Ans. Checksum
61. It is used in wireless applications in which
stations must be able to share the
medium without interception by an eavesdropper
and without being subject to
jamming from a malicious intruder
Ans. Spread spectrum
62. The minimum sampling rate according to Nyquist
Theorem
Ans. Twice the highest frequency of a signal
63. A code that consists of dots and dashes in
particular sequence to represent
characters, numbers, and special characters is called?
Ans. Morse code
64. The process restoring a noise-corrupted signal to
its original value is called?
Ans. Regeneration
65. A transmission line that is terminated with its
characteristic impedance is called?
Ans. Flat line
66. This indicates how many divisions the analog-to-
digital conversion process uses.
Ans. Resolution
67. The process of rounding-off the values of the flat
top samples to a certain
predetermined levels in order to make a finite
number of levels is called?
Ans. Quantization
68. The feedback decoder simplifies to a form called
__.
Ans. Majority Logic Decoder
69. If g(t)=0 for t>T, the signal is called __.
Ans. Full-Response CPM
70. ASK, PSK and PAM are sometimes called __.
Ans. Linear Modulation Schemes
71. A bandpass digital Pulse Amplitude
Modulation(PAM) is also called
__.
Ans. ASK
72. A Signal components arriving via different
propagation paths may
add destructively, resulting in a phenomenon called
__.
Ans. Signal Fading
73. A frequently occurring problem with
electromagnetic wave
propagation via sky wave in the high frequency (HF)
range is __.
Ans. Signal Multipath
74. The amount of redundancy introduced by
encoding the data is
measured by the ratio n/k . The reciprocal of this
ratio, namely k/n is called __.
Ans. Code Rate
75. Non-trivial Encoding involves taking k
information bits at a time and
mapping each k-bit sequence into a unique n-bit
sequence.
Ans. Code word
76. This filter is used to recover original signal from
its sampled version.
Ans. Interpolation Filter
77. The first security mechanism for WiFi, which is
based on the RC4
encryption algorithm
Ans. Wireless Encryption Protocol
78. A protocol designed for highly accurate clock
synchronization focused
especially on test and measurement, as well as power
engineering.
Ans. Precision Time Protocol
79. It is a parallel three-conductor line consisting of a
thin centre strip and
two thin ground strips on a dielectric substrate.
Ans. Coplanar Lines
80. The total complex power impressed by a current
source within a region
is equal to the sum of the time-average power
dissipated as heat inside the region,
the complex power transmitted from the region and
2wj times the difference
between time-average magnetic and electric energies
stored within the region. This
is stated in ___.
Ans. Poynting theorem
81. It is an error control method when errors are
detected and corrected
by proper coding techniques at the receiver.
Ans. Forward Acting Error Correction
82. Is a noise like high frequency signal, binary in
nature. Thus it looks
like pulses
Ans. Pseudo-Noise
83. To utilize the available bandwidth efficiency and
to increase the
number of users, what is commonly employed?
Ans. Frequency Reuse
84. Energy efficiency is reached by turning hardware
parts off or to a
sleep mode with minimal energy consumption as
often as possible. This principle
is commonly known as?
Ans. Duty-Cycling
85. The following energy sources can be used for
energy harvesting
except for?
Ans. Human Body
86. A type of microphone that pick-ups from the front
and back equally
well with little or no pickup from the sides.
Ans. Bidirectional microphone
87. It involves the interplay of light with the
atmosphere and the physical
origin of the observed optical phenomena.
Ans. Meteorological Optics
88. These cables are composed of several fibers
together inside a small
plastic tube, which are, in turn, wound around a
central strength member and
jacketed, providing a small, high fiber count cables.
Ans. Loose tube cables
89. The tool that clamps the connector to the cable
permanently. Most of
it have hexagonal crimps sized for each connector
type and replaceable jaws for
different connectors.
Ans. Crimpers
90. It is the amount of signal that is picked up by a
quiet conductor (a
conductor with no signal being transmitted over it at
the moment) from other
conductors that are conducting data.
Ans. Crosstalk
91. In optical wireless communication, the
transmitted data are
modulated onto a light beam, usually in a form of a
laser, it is commonly termed
as ___________.
Ans. Free Space Optics
92. BFWA stands for?
Ans. Broadband Fixed Wireless Access
93. It is mainly dealing with use of the radio
spectrum, and prevention of
HAP (High Altitude Platforms) and corresponding
ground equipment from causing
harmful interference to other use types sharing the
same frequency band.
Ans. Radio Regulation
94. Process of converting an infinite number of
facilities to a finite number of conditions

Ans. Quantization
95. The storage time of the capacitor during which
the ADC converts the
sampling voltage to a PCM code
Ans. Conversion time
96. The time that Q1 (FET) is ON and the capacitor
charges (or discharges)
Ans. Aperture time
97. It is the most common method of sampling in
PCM systems
Ans. Flat-top sampling
98. It is also called as Pulse Duration Modulation and
Pulse Length Modulation
Ans. PWM
99. Type of coding that use flash encoders which are
more complex but are
more suitable for high-speed applications
Ans. Word-at-a-time
100. Type of coding that determines each digit of the
PCM code sequentially
and produce a compromise between speed or
complexity
Ans. Digit-at-a-time
101. Type of coding that compares PAM signal to a
ramp waveform while a
binary counter is being advanced to a uniform rate
Ans. Level-at-a-time
102. A distortion that occurs when DAC do not follow
exactly the fast rate of analog
input
Ans. Slope overload
103. It limits the frequency of the analog input signal
to standard voice band
Frequency
Ans. Bandpass filter
104. Sampling technique where the tops of the analog
waveform retain their
natural shape
Ans. Natural sampling
105. Its purpose is to encode the minimum amount of
speech information necessary to
reproduce a perceptible message with fewer bits
than those needed by
conventional encoder/decoder
Ans. Vocoder
106. Common mode rejection ratios that are common
in balanced transmission lines
Ans. 40 dB to 70 dB
107. The cancellation of common mode signals
Ans. Common mode rejection
108. Is simply a flat conductor sandwiched between
two ground planes
Ans. Stripline
109. Is simply a flat conductor separated from a
ground plane by an insulating
dielectric material
Ans. Microstrip
110. A technique that can be used to locate an
impairment in a metallic cable
Ans. Time domain reflectometry
111. Is simply a piece of additional transmission line
that is placed across the primary line as close to the
load as possible

Ans. Transmission line stub
112. Are used to match transmission lines to purely
resistive loads whose resistance is
not equal to the characteristic impedance of the line
Ans. Quarter-wavelength transformers
113. Is a luminous discharge that occurs between the
two conductors of a transmission
line when the difference of potential between them
exceeds the breakdown
voltage of the dielectric insulator
Ans. Corona
114. A difference of potential between two
conductors of a metallic transmission line
Ans. Dielectric heating losses
115. The ratio of the ac resistance to the dc resistance
of a conductor
Ans. Resistance ratio
116. It is used to express the attenuation (signal loss)
and the phase shift per unit
length of a transmission line.
Ans. Propagation constant, Propagation
coefficient
117. A coaxial cable with one layer of foil insulation
and one layer of braided shielding
Ans. Dual shielded
118. It is the name given to the area between the
ceiling and the roof in a single-story building
or between the ceiling and the floor of the next higher
level in a multistory building.
Ans. Plenum
119. It is comprised of four pairs of 24 AWG copper
wire encapsulated in a common metallic
foil shield with a PVC outer sheath
Ans. Foil twisted pair
120. Two local area networks that the CAT-3 UTP
cable was designed to
accommodate its requirements
Ans. IEEE 802.5 Token Ring (16 Mbps) and IEEE
802.3 10Base-T Ethernet
(10Mbps)
121. Is an error-correcting code used for correcting
transmission errors in
synchronous data streams.
Ans. Hamming code
122. Is a handshake from a DCE in response to an
active condition on
RTS from a DTE.
Ans. CTS
123. Are used with transport layer protocols to
identify processes running
on computers.
Ans. Port number
124. Is a reliable connection oriented protocol which
operates at the OSI
transport layer
Ans. TCP
125. Is an unreliable connectionless protocol that
operates at the
Transport layer of the OSI seven layer hierarchy.
Ans. UDP
126. Is a connectionless protocol which provides best
effort delivery, and
is an OSI Layer 3 protocol.
Ans. Internet Protocol
127. The electrical specifications for RS 449 are
Ans. RS-422 and RS-423
128. A start bit is always a
Ans. Logic 0
129. Is sometimes called start / stop transmission
Ans. Asynchronous data transmission
130. TCP/IP stands for
Ans. Transmission control protocol / Internet
Protocol
131. With QPSK, the number of input bits is equal to
Ans. 2
132. Is a form of digital modulation wherein the
digital information is
contained in both the amplitude and the phase of the
transmitted carrier.
Ans. QAM
133. Is an eight-bit fixed- length character set
developed by IBM
Ans. EBCDIC
134. E1 transmission bit rate is
Ans. 2.048 Mbps
135. Is a multiplexing system similar to conventional
time-division
multiplexing except that it was developed to be used
with optical fibers.
Ans. SONET
136. Is a special purpose router that allows LANs to
access the Internet.
Ans. Gateway
137. Is a medium access control which is used for
wireless LANs
Ans. CSMA/CA
138. Is a synchronous bit-oriented protocol
developed in the 1970s by
IBM for use in System Network Architecture (SNA)
environments.
Ans. Synchronous Data Link Control
139. The nominal maximum length of the RS232
interface is
Approximately
Ans. 50 feet
140. Official name is Interface Between Data
Terminal Equipment And
Data Communications Equipment Employing Serial
Binary Data Interchange
Ans. RS232
141. Is an OSI layer which controls and ensures the
end-to-end integrity
of data message propagated through the network
between two devices.
Ans. Transport Layer
142. In ISDN, the 2B + D service is called
Ans. Basic rate interface
143. ATM has a fixed length data packet whose length
is
Ans. 53 bytes
144. The default mask for a class B network is
Ans. 255.255.0.0
145. Direct broadcasts are data packets where the
host portion of the destination IP
address contains
Ans. All binary 1s
146. It is a class of IP addresses used for multicasting.
Ans. Class D
147. For class C IP addresses, the netid bits is
composed of
Ans. 24 bits
148. For class A IP addresses, the netid bits is
composed of
Ans. 8 bits
149. The maximum segment length for Ethernet 100
Base-T cable is
Ans. 100 meters
150. It is an intelligent two port connectivity device
used on LANs to direct data frames
between two LAN segments based on hardware
(MAC) addresses that are
burned into the NICs of every device connected to the
network.
Ans. Bridge
151. The bit sequence for a flag in SDLC is
Ans. 01111110 (7E hex)
152. It is a synchronous character oriented data-link
protocol developed by IBM
Ans. Bisync
153. With this flow control, a source station can
transmit several frames in succession
before receiving an acknowledgment .There is only
one acknowledgment for
several transmitted frames.
Ans. Sliding window
154. With this encoding technique, there are two
nonzero voltage levels, but both
polarities represent logic 1s, and 0 volt represents
logic 0. Logic 1s are inverted in
polarity from the previous logic 1.
Ans. BPRZ AMI
155. It is an OSI layer which provides details that
enable data to be routed between
devices in an environment using multiple networks,
subnetworks, or both.
Ans. Network Layer
156. It is an OSI layer which provides independence
to the application processes by
addressing any code or syntax conversion necessary
to present the data to the
network in a common communications format.
Ans. Presentation Layer
157. Is the highest frequency that can be propagated
directly upward and still be
returned to Earth by the ionosphere.
Ans. Critical frequency
158. As the distance from a point source antenna
doubles, the power density
decreases by a factor of
Ans. 4
159. It is the characteristic impedance of free space
Ans. 377 ohms
160. It is any frequency other than the selected radio
frequency carrier that, if allowed
to enter a receiver and mix with the local oscillator,
will produce a cross product
frequency that is equal to the intermediate frequency.
Ans. Image frequency
161. It is the band of frequencies centered around the
VCO natural frequency where a
PLL can initially establish or acquire frequency lock
with an external input signal
Ans. Capture Range
162. It is the minimum RF signal level that can be
detected at the input to the receiver
and still produce a usable demodulated information
signal.
Ans. Sensitivity, Receiver Threshold
163. It occurs when oscillating mechanical stresses
applied across a crystal lattice
structure generate electrical oscillations and vice
versa.
Ans. Piezoelectric Effect
164. A quarter wavelength transmission line
terminated in an open circuit is equivalent
to a
Ans. Series LC circuit
165. A quarter wavelength transmission line
terminated in a short circuit is equivalent to
A
Ans. Parallel LC circuit
166. It is a circuit device used to connect a balanced
transmission line to an
unbalanced load.
Ans. Balun
167. Which of the following reliability specifications
is referred to as General
Specification for Reliability of Production of
Electronic Equipment?
Ans. MIL-R-19610
168. A third or safety wire which is carried
throughout the residence along with the
phase and neutral wires that carry the desired 60 Hz
power is referred to as the
_______
Ans. Green wire
169. Which of following material does not tend to
readily attract or give up electrons
when brought in contact or rubbed with other
materials (neutral on the triboelectric
scale):
Ans. Cotton
170. Current fiber optic communication systems
operate in the given nominal
wavelength regions EXCEPT for one:
A. 820 nm B. 1440 nm
C. 1330 nm D. 1550 nm