Anda di halaman 1dari 20

Exam Name: CompTIA Server+ (2005)

Exam Type: CompTIA


Exam Code: SK0-002 Total Questions: 671

Question: 1
The performance of a RAID 5 dual processor database server is degrading over time. Symptoms
include excessive disk access, high memory utilization, and slow responses to database
searches. Which action should be taken to reduce the server's bottleneck

A. add more RAM


B. implement RAID 1
C. upgrade the CPUs
D. add additional CPUs
E. increase the swap file size

Answer: A

Question: 2
A consulting firm is hired by Company.com in an earthquake-prone area to review their disaster
plan. Review of the disaster recovery plan reveals the following:

1. Offsite backup storage is in a locked fireproof safe, with restricted key access. All tape backups
are stored in this safe.
2. There is a reciprocal agreement with a sister company located two blocks from
Company.com's location to store each other's backup safes. Plans are in place to allow 24-hour
access to backups.
3. The selected hot site is 100 miles from the normal business site.
4. AGFS (Grandfather-Father-Son) tape rotation plan is in use.

What changes should be made to the plan?

A. make no changes
B. change tape rotation systems
C. send tape backups to a more remote facility
D. move the hot site closer to the normal business site.

Answer: C

Question: 3
A new switch has recently been installed on the Network. The SNMP (Simple Network
Management Protocol) manager has not seen any information from the device. Which are two
possible causes of this problem? Select two.

A. The MIB (Management Information Base) needs to be installed.


B. SNMP (Simple Network Management Protocol) community needs to be configured
C. The SNMP (Simple Network Management) manger needs to be configured.
D. Firmware on the device needs to be updated.

Answer: A, B

Question: 4
A biometric access device is used with which security method?

A. qualification
B. authorization
C. accountability
D. authentication

Answer: D

Page 1 of 151
Exam Name: CompTIA Server+ (2005)
Exam Type: CompTIA
Exam Code: SK0-002 Total Questions: 671

Question: 5
Which of the following is the maximum cable length for Ultra 160?

A. 1.5 meters
B. 3 meters
C. 6 meters
D. 12 meters
E. 25 meters

Answer: D

Explanation:

Question: 6
A server was recently installed with all necessary hardware and software. Before placing the
server into service, a(n)_________should be created.

A. application backup
B. System Monitor log
C. performance baseline
D. Performance Monitor log

Answer: C

Question: 7
Additional memory is being added on a server. Which two precautions should be taken to ensure
the memory is NOT damaged by ESD (electrostatic discharge) during the installation process?
Select two.

A. wear an antistatic wrist strap


B. wear shoes with rubber soles
C. ensure the server is connected to a UPS (Uninterruptible Power Supply)
D. ensure the server is grounded before commencing
E. ensure the server is connected to a surge protector

Answer: A, D

Question: 8
The RAM in a server needs to be upgraded. The requirement is to use memory that is capable of
operating at 1200 MHz and can transfer data up to 10.7 GB/sec. Which type of RAM should be
installed on the server?

A. DRAM
B. RDRAM
C. DDR SDRAM
D. BDDR SDRAM

Page 2 of 151
Exam Name: CompTIA Server+ (2005)
Exam Type: CompTIA
Exam Code: SK0-002 Total Questions: 671

Answer: B

Explanation:
The RDRAM device is a general purpose high performance memory device suitable for use in
abroad range of applications including computer memory, graphics, video, and any other
application where high bandwidth and low latency are required. The 256/288 Mb RDRAM
devices are extremely high speed CMOS DRAMs organized as 16M words by 16 or18 bits. The
use of RambusSignaling Level (RSL) technologypermits 600MHz to 1200 MHz transfer rateswhile
using conventional system and board designtechnologies. The 256/288 Mb RDRAM devices are
offered in a CSP horizontalpackage suitable for desktop as well aslowprofile add-incard and
mobile applications.

Question: 9
An external Ultra2 RAID storage unit is to be installed during the setup of a new site. Which three
actions will likely cause a problem when the external RAID storage unit is installed? Select three.

A. using passive termination on the enclosure


B. using a SCSI cable between one and five meters in length
C. connecting the subsystem to the server while it is powered up
D. powering off the RAID subsystem when the server is turned on

Answer: A, C, D

Question: 10
A series of replacement servers are installed on a network. SNMP monitoring server had
previously been able to retrieve the statistics from the servers, but is not able to retrieve statistics
from the new servers. Which statement is true?

A. The DMI (Desktop Management interface) agents need to be loaded on the servers.
B. The latest service packs are needed fro the SNMP monitoring server.
C. An upgrade to SNMP Version 3.0 on the SNMP monitoring server is needed.
D. SNMP community strings need to match between the servers and the SNMP monitoring
server.

Answer: D

Question: 11
A server has twelve 72 GB drives configured in a RAID 5 array, with one drive as a hot spare. It
experiences a failure of one of the drives in the array. Which action should be taken?

A. replace the failed drive and rebuild the array.


B. replace the failed drive and restore parity data from backup.
C. swap the failed drive with the hot spare and rebuild the array
D. ensure the array has completed rebuilding, then replace the failed drive

Answer: D

Question: 12
A UPS is being selected for a remote office. The correct size UPS needs to be determined.
Which formula should be used to determine the load requirements?

A. VA = Volts x Amperes
B. KVA = Volts x Amperes
C. Watts= Current x Voltage

Page 3 of 151
Exam Name: CompTIA Server+ (2005)
Exam Type: CompTIA
Exam Code: SK0-002 Total Questions: 671

D. VA = KW x 1000 x Amperes

Answer: A

Question: 13
A server recently had a RAID controller replaced under warranty by the manufacturer. Since the
repair, the system seems to be generating several write errors, and sometimes does not boot into
the operating system. Which of the following is the MOST effective solution to apply FIRST?

A. replace the RAID controller, as it is damaged


B. replace the system board, as it is damaged
C. replace the device drivers, as they are incorrect.
D. replace the RAID configuration, as it is incorrect.

Answer: C

Question: 14
An engineer installs an SMP (Symmetrical Multi-Processing)-compliant network operating system
on a dual-processor server. The BIOS detects two processors, but only one processor is
recognized by the network operating system. Which action should the engineer take to enable
the SECOND processor?

A. update the BIOS to the current version


B. apply the latest network operating system patches
C. update the stepping level on the second processor
D. configure the network operating system kernel for SMP (Symmetrical Multi-Processing)
support

Answer: D

Question: 15
Users report that the intranet database is slow to respond during peak use times. The database
server is on a small 150-user network and is configured with dual processors, 512 MB RAM, and
a hardware-controlled RAID 5arraywith three drives. The server also provides DNS and DHCP
services for the intranet. Which three are ways to improve server performance? Select three.

A. set processor affinity


B. add a hard drive to the RAID 5 array
C. move the DNS and DHCP services to another server
D. move the page file to another partition on the RAID 5 array

Answer: A, B, C

Question: 16
During a new server installation, which of the following is the MOST common setup problem?

A. incompatible memory
B. access to power and network connections
C. flashing the BIOS
D. operating system HCL (Hardware Compatibility List)

Answer: D

Question: 17
Which two can be used to connect Fibre Channel devices? Select two.

Page 4 of 151
Exam Name: CompTIA Server+ (2005)
Exam Type: CompTIA
Exam Code: SK0-002 Total Questions: 671

A. fibre hub
B. loop switch
C. GBIC (Gigabit Interface Converter) module
D. Layer 3 switch

Answer: A, B

Question: 18
Which two statements are true about software-based RAID? Select two.

A. CPU load is increased when using software-based RAID.


B. Intervention is not required to recover fully from a drive failure.
C. Hot-plug and hot-spare features are available with software-based RAID.
D. Hard disk make and model do not have to be the same when using with software-based RAID.

Answer: A, D

Question: 19
Company.com, a small print service company, is backing up mission critical data and wants to
implement a disaster recovery plan. The network administrator is tasked with developing the
disaster recovery plan. Which step should be taken FIRST when developing the plan?

A. practice the disaster recovery drifts


B. create a step-by-step restoration plan
C. determine the enterprise configuration
D. explore disaster prevention techniques

Answer: C

Question: 20
Which of the following can be used to collect trends and performance data?

A. SNMP (Simple Network Management Protocol) Traps


B. MIB (Management Information Base) browsing
C. DMI (Desktop Management Interface) requesting
D. regular SNMP (Simple Network Management Protocol) polling

Answer: D

Question: 21
Which two should be included in server baseline documentation? Select two.

A. disaster recovery plan


B. disk performance statistics
C. server response time study
D. warranty status of the server
E. emergency technical support numbers

Answer: B, C

Question: 22
A system administrator wants to remotely administer a server using a Web browser-based
application so he can administer remotely from any operating system. He wants to ensure that

Page 5 of 151
Exam Name: CompTIA Server+ (2005)
Exam Type: CompTIA
Exam Code: SK0-002 Total Questions: 671

the communication is secure and that only he can log in to the server. Which three actions must
the administrator take before he can administer the server? Select three.

A. use smartcard authentication


B. install a X.509 compliant server
C. use the HTTP over SSL protocol
D. install and run the WWW service
E. user the L2TP over IPSec encryption protocol

Answer: B, C, D

Question: 23
After upgrading the SNMP protocol, the ___________ can be looked up. It is a sequence of
integers that uniquely identifies a path to a managed object.

A. MIB
B. OID (Object Identifier)
C. REGISTERED MAIL
D. community name

Answer: B

Explanation:
Network management system contains two primary elements: a manager and agents. The
Manager is the console through which the network administrator performs network management
functions. Agents are the entities that interface to the actual device being managed. Bridges,
Hubs, Routers or network servers are examples of managed devices that contain managed
objects. These managed objects might be hardware, configuration parameters, performance
statistics, and so on, that directly relate to the current operation of the device in question. These
objects are arranged in what is known as a virtual information database
,calledamanagmentinformation base, also called MIB. SNMP allows managers and agents to
communicate for the purpose of accessing these objects. The Structure
ofManagmentInformation (SMI) which is given in RFC1155,is based on the OSI SMI given in
Draft proposal 2684. The SMI organizes, names, and describes information so that logical
access can occur. The SMI states that each managed object must have a name,a syntaxand an
encoding. The name, an object identifier (OID), uniquely identifies the object.

Question: 24
Company.com requires a server that will use the maximum amount of storage space possible
while obtaining the greatest performance. Fault tolerance is not an issue for this installation.
Which of the following is the BEST RAID solution for the server?

A. Ultra 160 SCSI using RAID 0


B. Ultra 160 SCSI using RAID 1
C. Ultra2 Wide SCSI using RAID 5
D. Ultra2 Wide SCSI using RAID 0+1

Answer: A

Explanation:
RAID 0 -- Striped Disk Array without Fault Tolerance: Provides data striping (spreading out blocks
of each file across multiple disk drives) but no redundancy. This improves performance but does
not deliver fault tolerance. If one drive fails then all data in the array is lost.

Not B:

Page 6 of 151
Exam Name: CompTIA Server+ (2005)
Exam Type: CompTIA
Exam Code: SK0-002 Total Questions: 671

RAID 1 is diskduplexing.

Question: 25
Company.com plans to upgrade all the servers on a site from their current hard drive devices to
Serial ATA drives. This is a major upgrade that will affect all the servers and the clients who
depend on the network services and the critical data they provide. Which action should be taken
before attempting this upgrade?

A. create a performance baseline on each server to be compared after the upgrade, and update
the servers
B. make sure that each server has a full and redundant backup of the operating system,
applications, and data, and update the servers
C. develop an upgrade checklist that includes obtaining the latest drivers, operating system
updates, ESD (electrostatic discharge) best practices, and downtime schedules.
D. setup an isolated server, install SATA drives identical to the ones to be used for the upgrade,
and run a pilot program of testing prior to deployment.

Answer: D

Question: 26
When installing a new server, when would the FIRST performance baseline be created?

A. during peak usage times


B. after installing the operating system
C. before users arrive for work and access the system
D. after installing the operating system and all user application

Answer: D

Question: 27
A failover SQL server attempts to take over for a primary SQL server that continues to function
normally, causing an IP address conflict. Which of the following should be checked FIRST?

A. the SQL server logs


B. the timeout value of the failover server
C. the heartbeat cable between the two servers
D. the failover server's account privileges on the primary server.

Answer: C

Question: 28
Which type of UPS system allows for correction of brownout and surge conditions without
depleting the batteries?

A. offline UPS
B. online UPS
C. parallel online UPS
D. line interactive UPS

Answer: D

Explanation:
The line interactive uninterruptible power supply provides a clean and regulated output voltage.
When the mains supply is within a specified input window (voltage or frequency) the output from
the Uninterruptible Power Supply is stabilized to within a specific voltage tolerance or window;

Page 7 of 151
Exam Name: CompTIA Server+ (2005)
Exam Type: CompTIA
Exam Code: SK0-002 Total Questions: 671

this is achieved using various voltage regulation techniques known as Automatic Voltage
Regulation (AVR) or Buck/Boost.
The size of variation is larger than that achieved with an on-line Uninterruptible Power Supply
which will actually regulate to a much tighter tolerance. Once the incoming mains supply exceeds
the specified window, the UPS switches on the inverter to continue to supply power to the load.
There is a short inverter switch on time of a few milliseconds.
How The Line Interactive Uninterruptible Power Supply Tackles Power Problems

Output Waveform
When the mains supply is present it is filtered and stabilized by the UPS and passed through to
the load. The output waveform from the inverter is normally either a true sinewave or pseudo
sinewave (dependent on UPS type). The term pseudo indicates a step-wave or square-wave
output. The step-wave or square-wave output may not be suitable for all types of loads.

Sags and surges


The load is supplied by the incoming mains supply which is filtered and stabilized using the
automatic voltage regulation device; whilst the inverter remains switched off (provided that the
input window is not exceeded).
The battery charger continues to convert the mains AC into DC to charge the battery. If the sag or
surge exceeds the input window then the inverter is switched on to maintain the required output
voltage tolerance.

Transients, spikes and electrical noise


The output to the load is filtered by the Electro Magnetic Interference (EMI) and noise filters within
the UPS. These filters attenuate (reduce) the incoming transients, spikes or electrical noise down
to an acceptable level.
These disturbances will not be completely prevented from passing through to the load and any
large voltage spikes or transients that may exceed the input voltage window will cause the UPS to
switch on the inverter.

Brownouts
The output from the UPS is maintained to within a specific window; therefore the UPS will
automatically adjust the transformer tap settings dependant on the incoming mains supply
voltage. Once the incoming mains supply exceeds the specified window, the UPS switches on the
inverter to continue to supply power to the load.

Short duration mains failures


During short duration mains supply failures the UPS will supply power to the load using the
inverter. However constant short duration supply failures can lead to unnecessary discharging of
the battery.

Long duration mains failure - blackouts


The load is supplied by the inverter which is switched on the moment the incoming mains supply
fails. Some line interactive UPS have a battery extension pack capability, that enables additional
battery packs to be connected. This in turn extends the autonomy of the UPS (battery operation
time). The only other alternative is to oversize the UPS to achieve a longer runtime as most line
interactive UPS are only provided with a short autonomy of approximately 10 minutes.

Recharge
The battery charger will generally recharge the battery to 80% within 8 hours to provide sufficient
battery autonomy ready for the next supply failure. Where it is possible to extend the battery
capacity (typically from 2kVA and above), additional battery chargers can be added to maintain a
reasonable recharge time. The internaly charger is not normally capable of supporting additional
packs as the UPS is built to a tighter price specification than an on-line UPS.

Page 8 of 151
Exam Name: CompTIA Server+ (2005)
Exam Type: CompTIA
Exam Code: SK0-002 Total Questions: 671

Other advantages
The advantages of a line interactive UPS are size and cost when compared to an on-line power
solution.
However they offer inferior power quality management capabilities, extended battery runtime
options, have a short break in supply when the inverter is activated and do not have a built-in
bypass facility for UPS fault or overload scenarios.

Question: 29
During a test of the disaster recovery plan, it is discovered that some servers were restored with
other server's data. What action is MOST likely to improve disaster recovery in the future?

A. implement a differential backup strategy


B. maintain a printed tape backup report
C. implement a media rotation scheme for offsite tapes
D. create a database that contains the backup logs stored on an incremental server

Answer: B

Question: 30
The current data center at Company.com has run out of space. A room that is located next to the
existing data center is then used to house two racks containing six servers. Six months later,
physical housekeeping is performed as part of a mid-year maintenance plan. Which
environmental condition discovered in the room is LEAST critical?

A. There are discolored ceiling tiles near the middle of the room.
B. Large amount of dust have accumulated in the corners of the room.
C. The anti-static carpet has been removed resulting in a bare painted concrete floor.
D. A wet pipe water-based sprinkler system has been installed above the racks.

Answer: C

Question: 31
When using the system configuration utility to prepare a drive or drive array for installation of the
operating system, which two file systems are NEVER options? Select two.

A. LFS (Log-structured File System)


B. HFS (Hierarchical File System)
C. NSS (Novell Storage Services)
D. UDF (Universal Disk Format)
E. HPFS (High Performance File System)
F. CDFS (CD-ROM File System)

Answer: D, F

Question: 32
A small server is operating with a single ATA 66driveon the primary IDE interface. An additional
ATA 100driveis added to the primary IDE interface. How will the drives MOST likely perform?

A. Both drives will operate at the ATA 66 performance rate.


B. Each drive will operate at is optimum performance rate.
C. Both drives will operate at the ATA 100 performance rate.
D. Each drive will operate at approximately half its optimum performance rate.

Answer: A

Page 9 of 151
Exam Name: CompTIA Server+ (2005)
Exam Type: CompTIA
Exam Code: SK0-002 Total Questions: 671

Question: 33
Which three are advantages of an iSCSI implementation? Select three.

A. reduces LAN congestion


B. is scalable over long distances
C. utilizes an already proven transport technology
D. is based on familiar network technology and therefore reduces training and staffing costs

Answer: B, C, D

Explanation:
ISCSI (Internet SCSI) is a protocol that encapsulates SCSI (Small Computer System Interface)
commands and data in TCP/IP packets for linking storage devices with servers over common IP
infrastructures. By usingiSCSI, you can supply high performanceSANsover standard IP networks
like LAN, MAN, WAN or the Internet. TheiSCSI standard was defined and ratified by the IETF
(Internet Engineering Task Force) in early 2003 to ensure interoperability.

Question: 34
A new SCSI adapter is being installed in a file server. The installation seems to go well. However,
when the server is started, the boot process fails before the operating system can load. Which
action would MOST likely enable the server to start successfully?

A. disabling the SCSI adapter's BIOS


B. upgrading the SCSI card's firmware
C. reinstalling the driver for the SCSI card
D. downloading and installing the latest driver for the SCSI adapter.

Answer: A

Explanation:
Not D: You cannot update device driver if the OS cannot boot.

Question: 35
Which of the following is the primary advantage to memory interleaving?

A. decreased page file size requirements


B. dramatically lower BER (Bit Error Rate)
C. increased redundancy across multiple banks
D. effective multiplication of memory reads/writes

Answer: D

Explanation:
Memory interleaving is a way to get your machine to access your memory banks simultaneously,
rather than sequentially.

Question: 36
A new SAN (Storage Area Network) that uses Fibre Channel technology is being implemented.
Users utilize the IP network to connect to servers. The servers must us the ____________ to
connect to the SAN.

A. Ethernet
B. SCSI BUS
C. Fibre Channel Bus
D. Fibre Channel Fabric

Page 10 of 151
Exam Name: CompTIA Server+ (2005)
Exam Type: CompTIA
Exam Code: SK0-002 Total Questions: 671

Answer: D

Question: 37
Company.com is installing a new application on a company server. Which action should be taken
after the application is installed and fully functional?

A. Nothing further is required.


B. An installation log file should be printed.
C. A new server baseline should be created.
D. A new application should be benchmarked.

Answer: C

Question: 38
A database server is being set up that is using an external rack mounted SCSI drive enclosure.
The SCSI cables are connected to the server, but the server still does not recognize the drive
enclosure. Which two actions should be taken to troubleshoot this problem? Select two.

A. ensure that each drive has the proper SCSI ID setting


B. ensure there is proper termination for the SCSI chain prior to starting up
C. ensure the server is powered on first, and after log in power on the SCSI enclosure
D. ensure the SCSI enclosure is powered on first, and after the disks initialize, power on the
server

Answer: B, D

Question: 39
A server was recently upgraded from a DAT (Digital Audio Tape) to a DLT (Digital Linear Tape)
tape backup system. There is a catastrophic loss of data. The data need to be restored from an
older DAT tape. Which of the following is needed?

A. a DAT-to-DLT converter
B. a DLT tape drive, with DLT drivers
C. a DLT tape drive, with DAT drivers
D. a DAT tape drive, with DAT drivers

Answer: D

Explanation:
Note: DLT is short for Digital Linear Tape, a type of magnetic tape storage device originally
developed by DEC and now marketed by several companies.DLTsare ½-inch wide and the
cartridges come in several sizes ranging from 20 to over 40 GB. DLT drives are faster than most
other types of tape drives, achieving transfer rates of 2.5MBps. DAT is an acronym for digital
audio tape, a type of magnetic tape that uses a scheme called helical scan to record data. A DAT
cartridge is slightly larger than a credit card in width and height and contains a magnetic tape that
can hold from 2 to 24 gigabytes of data. It can support data transfer rates of about 2MBps. Like
other types of tapes,DATsare sequential-access media. The most common format for DAT
cartridges is DDS (digital data storage).

Question: 40
How can the telnet client in Windows 2000 Server be started?

A. type telnet at a command prompt


B. Select Start->Programs->Accessories->Communications->Telnet

Page 11 of 151
Exam Name: CompTIA Server+ (2005)
Exam Type: CompTIA
Exam Code: SK0-002 Total Questions: 671

C. Select Start->Programs->Accessories->Communications->Hyperterminal
D. obtain a copy of the Telnet.exe file from a Windows NT server, rename it to Telnet32.exe, and
then copy it to the Windows 2000-bassed server.

Answer: A

Question: 41
Which type of server is designed to serve as a gateway for communications between clients
using C and a mainframe computer?

A. fax server
B. FTP server
C. SNA server
D. Database server

Answer: C

Question: 42
There is 8U available in a server rack. How much space is this?

A. 4 inches (10.2 cm)


B. 8 inches (20.4 cm)
C. 14 inches (35.6 cm)
D. 16 inches (40.6 cm)

Answer: C

Question: 43
Which two are key factors that make a SAN different from a NAS? (Choose two.)

A. A SAN is generally less expensive.


B. A SAN allows for loading of applications that run on the server.
C. A SAN does not use a proprietary or a slimmed down version of an operating system.
D. A SAN has a simpler setup process, generally only requiring basic network setup and adding
of users.

Answer: B, C

Question: 44
A server NIC appears to be causing a network broadcast storm. Which tool BEST confirms the
source of the problem?

A. SNMP (Simple Network Management Protocol)


B. Cable tester
C. LAN analyzer
D. Performance Monitor

Answer: C

Question: 45
Which of the following is the minimum number of hard drives needed to implement a RAID 0+1 in
a file server?

A. two
B. four

Page 12 of 151
Exam Name: CompTIA Server+ (2005)
Exam Type: CompTIA
Exam Code: SK0-002 Total Questions: 671

C. six
D. eight

Answer: B

Question: 46
A Novell NetWare 6 server is used for file storage. Which commands run the shutdown without a
prompt?

A. DOWN-f
B. DOWN-ns
C. RESET SERVER-ns
D. RESTART SERVER-f
E. RESTART SERVER-nt

Answer: A

Question: 47
Replacing an existing controller with a newer controller that may have different PCI resource
requirements (e.g. CHs, F/W) is an example of which type of hot plug technology?

A. hot spare
B. hot upgrade
C. hot expansion
D. hot replacement

Answer: B

Question: 48
A server is consistently rebooting every day at the same time. Which of the following
environmental elements has most likely caused this behavior?

A. ESD (Electrostatic Discharge)


B. Humidity
C. Temperature
D. Electrical

Answer: D

Question: 49
Which RAID level stores identical copies of the logical partitions on an even number of
DUPLICATE logical disks?

A. RAID 0
B. RAID 1
C. RAID 3
D. RAID 5

Answer: B

Question: 50
Which three are characteristics of SMP (Symmetrical Multi-Processing)? (Choose three.)

A. Each processor runs all tasks in parallel.


B. Each processor shares the same memory.

Page 13 of 151
Exam Name: CompTIA Server+ (2005)
Exam Type: CompTIA
Exam Code: SK0-002 Total Questions: 671

C. Each processor is defined to specific tasks.


D. Each processor maintains individual memory.
E. SMP is easier to implement than ASMP (Asymmetrical Multi-Processing).
F. ASMP is easier to implement than SMP.

Answer: A, B, E

Question: 51
Which two statements are true about PCI bus mastering? (Choose two.)

A. It enables external devices to be connected to an internal PCI bus.


B. It enables multiple devices to take over the bus without locking each other out.
C. It enables automatic identification and allocation of resources to system devices.
D. It enables the controller connected to the bus to communicate directly with other devices
without going through the CPU.

Answer: B, D

Question: 52
Which of the following is a benefit of a two-node cluster?

A. If two disks in the SCSI storage configuration fail, the two-node cluster will allow quick fault
recovery.
B. If one of the cluster members loses power or experiences a hardware failure, the cluster will
provide quick fault recovery.
C. A two-node cluster using a shared SCSI storage device provides the quickest way of
implementing patch management.
D. If one of the cluster members corrupts data on the SCSI storage device, data integrity will be
maintained by the other cluster member.

Answer: B

Question: 53
Exhibit

Page 14 of 151
Exam Name: CompTIA Server+ (2005)
Exam Type: CompTIA
Exam Code: SK0-002 Total Questions: 671

From a local machine, connectivity with a server named server1.comptia.org is checked. It cannot
be reached, but it can be accessed via the IP address. The DNS sever is checked and everything
seems to be functioning correctly.
Which of the following is the MOST common cause of this error?

A. The server is down.


B. The DNS server is down.
C. The local DNS cache is full.
D. The local DNS client is stopped.
E. The local DNS cache is corrupted.

Answer: B

Question: 54
File sharing between two or more hosts with no central point of administration is an example of
which server application model?

A. dedicated application
B. distributed application
C. SMB (Server Message Block) share application
D. peer-to-peer application
E. client server application

Page 15 of 151
Exam Name: CompTIA Server+ (2005)
Exam Type: CompTIA
Exam Code: SK0-002 Total Questions: 671

Answer: D

Question: 55
Which two types of servers are capable of caching the results of requests made on behalf of
network clients? Select two.

A. RAS (Remote Access Service) server


B. DNS (Domain Name System) server
C. SNA (System Network Architecture) server
D. Proxy server
E. DHCP (Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol) Server

Answer: B, D

Question: 56
A SCSI adapter with six non-hotplug HDDs is being installed in a new server. Which two should
be checked before closing the cover of the server and starting it? Select two.

A. the SCSI IDs


B. the SCSI chain termination
C. the SCSI adapter termination
D. the network operating system for HDD recognition

Answer: A, B

Question: 57
Company.com needs a database server assembled. Company.com's major requirement is having
a SCSI disk subsystem that supports the fastest data transfer rates available. Which of the
following meets the customer's requirement?

A. SCSI-2
B. SCSI-3
C. Ultra 160 SCSI
D. Ultra 320 SCSI

Answer: D

Explanation:
SCSI-2: 20MB/sec
SCSI-3: 40MB/sec
Ultra 160 SCSI: 160 MB/s
Ultra 320 SCSI: 320 MB/s

Question: 58
Which of the following is the primary purpose of the battery on a RAID controller?

A. to power the RAID sync clock


B. to prevent loss of the RAID controller settings
C. to prevent loss of data stored in the write cache
D. to prevent loss of the drive array configuration settings
E. to prevent loss of the IDs for the drives contained within the arrays

Answer: C

Explanation:

Page 16 of 151
Exam Name: CompTIA Server+ (2005)
Exam Type: CompTIA
Exam Code: SK0-002 Total Questions: 671

"Thebattery backup module for Adaptec 2120S and 2200S RAID controllers. Supports up to 72
hours cache memory backup."

Question: 59
Company.com needs to minimize the amount of time required for each weekday backup. Which
daily backup is BEST for Company.com?

A. daily full
B. daily differential and weekly full
C. GFS (Grandfather-Father-Son)
D. daily incremental and weekly full

Answer: D

Explanation:
Just backup thefiles that haschanged from the previous time.

Question: 60
Which guideline should you follow when installing equipment in a server rack?

A. The monitor should be installed in the middle of the rack.


B. The heaviest equipment should be installed at the bottom of the rack.
C. The equipment that produces the most heat should be installed at the top of the rack.
D. The equipment that requires the most vertical space should be installed at the top of the rack.

Answer: B

Question: 61
The original batteries of a UPS are replaced without incident. Which two are proper ways to
dispose of the old batteries? Select two.

A. take the batteries to any recycling center


B. dispose of the batteries in a clearly marked container
C. take the batteries to any local battery disposal location listed in the phonebook or online
D. call the UPS manufacturer to determine a local disposal facility or ship the batteries to a
remote disposal facility.

Answer: C, D

Explanation:
Because UPS batteries contain lead and sulfuric acid, they are considered a biological hazard
and are illegal to dispose of without the guidance of a United States EPA (Environmental
Protection Agency).

Question: 62
Where is the N_port located in a Fibre channel configuration?

A. main port
B. termination card
C. virtual connection
D. randomly defined memory address

Answer: B

Question: 63

Page 17 of 151
Exam Name: CompTIA Server+ (2005)
Exam Type: CompTIA
Exam Code: SK0-002 Total Questions: 671

A corporate file server must be shut down for an upgrade of an internal tape drive.
Which sequence of steps should be performed before the upgrade?

A. perform a backup; notify users before shutdown; shut down the peripherals; shut down the
server
B. perform a backup; notify users before shutdown; shut down the server and the peripherals
together.
C. notify users before shutdown; shut down applications; shut down the peripherals; shut down
the server.
D. have all us log off the server; shut down all applications; back up the server; shut down the
server; shut down the peripherals.

Answer: D

Explanation:
If you perform a backup before all users have logged off you will loose any data after the backup
has completed also there would be a high impact on the server while the backup is taking place.
First you get all users to log off and then close down all applications before completing a full
backup. The answer that looks closest there is D.

Question: 64
Which of the following is the actual size of the rack unit, U?

A. 0.75 inch
B. 1.00 inch
C. 1.25 inch
D. 1.75 inch

Answer: D

Explanation:
One rack unit ("U") is 1.75 inches.

Question: 65
Company.com has 260 clients and one server. The server appears to be compromised by a
secure hole. The operating system manufacturer has provided a security patch. Which two
actions should be taken next? Select two.

A. install the patch on the server directly


B. test the patch in a lab before installing it on the server
C. backup the system completely and install the patch
D. contact the system supervisor and ask about the installation process
E. call the manufacturer's security department and inquire about the installation process
F. send an email to the manufacturer helpdesk to check on compatibility with the company's
hardware

Answer: B, C

Question: 66
When settings on the SYS: volume of a new server were configured, a misconfiguration
occurred and now the server no longer starts up. Which tool is required to recover from the
system failure and continue configuration?

A. Novell NetWare CD-ROM


B. ERD recovery diskette set

Page 18 of 151
Exam Name: CompTIA Server+ (2005)
Exam Type: CompTIA
Exam Code: SK0-002 Total Questions: 671

C. UNIX/Linux startup diskette or CD-ROM


D. Microsoft Windows Installation CD-ROM

Answer: A

Explanation:
The SYS: volume is used in NetWare.

Question: 67
Company.com purchases a new file server. The system administrator attempts to start the new
server. However, during the POST the server fails to boot and emits a series of beeps. Which
action should be taken FIRST?

A. call the manufacturer with the error/beep code


B. power off the server, wait five minutes, restart the server
C. use a POST diagnostics board to decipher the error message
D. refer to the manufacturer documentation to decipher the error message.

Answer: D

Question: 68
When configuring hard drives in an external SAN (Storage Area Network) attached storage array,
from where should the new drive array be created?

A. one server in the SAN


B. every server in the SAN that will use this particular array
C. every server in the SAN, whether they will use this array or not
D. drive array information comes preconfigured on the drives

Answer: A

Explanation:
Most new SAN scan be configured directly via web page. If not, there is a CLI you place on one
server and perform the configuration. The file systems are also created using one server.

Question: 69
Users are complaining that response times for an application are unacceptable during their
busiest time. The baselines for this server indicate that the number of page faults have increased
to unacceptable levels. Which action would resolve the bottleneck?

A. install faster CPUs


B. install more memory
C. install a RAID controller
D. replace the 100 MB NIC with a 1 GB NIC

Answer: B

Question: 70
A server technician installs a new external Ultra 320 hard drive. When testing the drive by saving
files to it, the technician finds the drive throughput to be less than expected. Which of the
following is the MOST likely cause of this problem?

A. improper ID setting
B. improper bus termination
C. mismatched SCSI-2 firmware

Page 19 of 151
Exam Name: CompTIA Server+ (2005)
Exam Type: CompTIA
Exam Code: SK0-002 Total Questions: 671

D. mismatched server BIOS version


E. improper controller BIOS settings

Answer: E

Question: 71
During the installation of a new server, the following actions are performed.

1. Server hardware components are inventoried.


2. The latest BIOS and firmware are downloaded and applied.
3. The network operating system and patches are loaded.

The after-market tape drive attached to the server fails to initialize. Which of the following is the
MOST likely cause of the failure?

A. The tape drive is not on the backup software HCL (Hardware Compatibility List).
B. The BIOS and firmware upgrades are not properly applied.
C. The tape driver device driver is not enabled in the system BIOS.
D. The network operating system patches are not applied correctly.

Answer: A

Question: 72
A server is unable to boot after a BIOS upgrade. The video display screen is blank and the
system is unresponsive.
Which of the following has the MOST likely occurred and which step should be taken FIRST to
correct this problem?

A. The BIOS is corrupt, refer to documentation for server recovery procedures.


B. The boot hard drive failed, boot from the floppy drive and start hard disk recovery procedures.
C. The BIOS update failed, insert the flash BIOS boot disk and restart the BIOS upgrade
procedure.
D. The power supply is bad, remove the server cover and start the process of troubleshooting or
replacing the power supply.

Answer: A

Explanation:
The BIOS is corrupt, refer to documentation for server recovery procedures.
Not C: If the system video is blank, it is not passing POST. If it is not passing POST, it will be
unable to boot from the BIOS upgrade diskette. Restarting the BIOS Upgrade Procedure would
NOT be possible.

Question: 73
Which type of server should be installed to provide Windows clients access to an AS400
mainframe?

A. proxy
B. router
C. bridge
D. gateway

Answer: D

Question: 74

Page 20 of 151

Anda mungkin juga menyukai