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CLASSIFICATION

Direction In each of the following questions find the word which is different from the rest.
Q.1 (A) Rose (B) Lily (C) Marigold (D) Cactus
Q.2 (A) Black (B) Red (C) Yellow (D) Blue
Q.3 (A) Arm (B) Foot (C) Nose (D) Ear
Q.4 (A) Tomato (B) Potato (C) Carrot (D) Onion
Q.5 (A) Cricket (B) Badminton (C) Tennis (D) Hockey

Direction Find out the pair which is different from the others in each of the following
questions.
Q.6 (A) School & Students (B) Court and Advocates (C) Standing Spectators (D) Road and Pedestrians
Q.7 (A) PaperWhite (B) SkyBlue (C) CassetteSong (D) LeafGreen
Q.8 (A) FootHand (B) EyeNose (C) BodyHead (D) WristFinger
Q.9 (A) PetrolCar (B) InkPen (C) GarbageDustbin (D) LeadPencil

Directions In each of the following questions find out the group of letters which is
different from the others.
Q.10 (A) AZ (B) DU (C) EV (D) GT
Q.11 (A) AFL (B) DIN (C) EJP (D) MRX
Q.12 (A) CHG (B) LMM (C) BBC (D) HEG
Q.13 (A) BHE (B) DJG (C) SYT (D) JPM (E) PUS

Directions Choose the number which is different from the rest in each of the following
questions.
Q.14 (A) 27 (B) 64 (C) 125 (D) 144
Q.15 (A) 125 (B) 216 (C) 729 (D) 525
Q.16 (A) 30 (B) 27 (C) 58 (D) 66 (E) 30
Q.17 (A) 215 (B) 126 (C) 65 (D) 28 (E) 9

Directions In each of the following four groups of letters are given. Arrange there letters of
each group to make a meaningful word and then find the odd man out.
Q.18 (A) IST (B) KPSI (C) UPMJ (D) URN
Q.19 (A) AAIS (B) ARACFI (C) IIDNA (D) UOREPE
Q.20 (A) USHOE (B) EECTMN (C) RCBKI (D) ODWO
Q.21 (A) OOTTAP (B) MLNOE (C) PPALE (D) RNEGOA

CLASSIFICATION (ANSWERS)

1 (D) 2 (A) 3 (B) 4 (A) 5 (B) 6 (C) 7 (C) 8 (A) 9 (C) 10 (B) 11 (B) 12 (D) 13 (E)

14 (D) 15 (D) 16 (B) 17 (A) 18 (D) 19 (C) 20 (A) 21 (A)






ANALOGY
Directions - In each of the following questions find out the alternative which will replace the
question mark.
Q.1 Peace: Chaos : : Creation: ?
(A) Build (B) Construction (C) Destruction (D) Manufacture
Q.2 Architect : Building : : Sculptor : ?
(A) Museum (B) Stone (C) Chisel (D) Statue
Q.3 Cloth : Hill : : Newspaper : ?
(A) Editor (B) Reader (C) Paper (D) Press
Q.4 College : Student : : Hospital : ?
(A) Nurse (B) Doctor (C) Treatment (D) Patient
Directions - In each of the following questions, select the alternative that will come in place
of question mark.
Q.5 BLOCKED : YOLXPVW : : ? : OZFMXS
(A) DEBATE (B) RESULT (C) LABOR (D) LAUNCH
Q.6 FIELD : GJFME : : SICKLE : ?
(A) RHBJKD (B) RHJBKD (C) TJLDMF (D) TJDLMF
Q.7 PASS : QBTT : : FAIL : ?
(A) GJBM (B) GBJM (C) MBJG (D) MJBG
Q.8 QIOK : MMKO : : YAWC : ?
(A) UESG (B) USGA (C) VUES (D) SUEG (E) None of these
Directions - In each of the following questions which alternative will replace the question Mark?
Q.9 8 : 24 : : ? : 32
(A) 5 (B) 6 (C) 10 (D) 8
Q.10 123 : 132 : : 235 : ?
(A) 232 (B) 352 (C) 253 (D) 252
Q.11 144 : 10 : : 169 : ?
(A) 14 (B) 11 (C) 13 (D) 12
Q.12 14 : 9 : : 26 : ?
(A) 12 (B) 13 (C) 31 (D) 15
Directions - In each of the following questions consists of pair of words bearing a
relationship among these, from amongst the alternatives, pick up the pair that best illustrate
a similar relationship.
Q.13 Silence : Noise
(A) Quiet : Peace (B) Baldness : Hair (C) Talk : Whisper (D) Sing : Dance
Q.14 River : Ocean
(A) Child : School (B) Book : Library (C) Lane : Road (D) Cloth : Body
Q.15 GLOVE : HAND
(A) NECK : COLLAR (B) TIE : SHIRT (C) SOCKS : FEET (D) COAT : POCKET
Q.16 Chalk : Black-board
(A) Type : Point (B) Table : Chair (C) Door : Handle (D) Ink : Paper
Q.17 Walk is related to Run in the same way as Breeze is related to:
(A) Cold (B) Dust (C) Wind (D) Air
Q.18 Smoke is related to pollution in the same way as war is related to:
(A) Victory (B) Treaty (C) Defeat (D) Destruction
Q.19 Kathak is related to U.P. in the sameway as Oddisy is related to:
(A) Assam (B) Kerala (C) Orissa (D) Gujarat
Q.20 As Flower is related to Bud in the same way as Fruit is related to:
(A) Seed (B) Tree (C) Flower (D) Stem (E) Petal


ANALOGY (ANSWERS)

1 (C) 2 (D) 3 (D) 4 (D) 5 (D) 6 (D) 7 (B) 8 (A) 9 (B) 10 (D) 11 (B) 12 (D) 13 (B)

14 (C) 15 (C) 16 (D) 17 (D) 18 (D) 19 (C) 20 (C)



























CODING AND DECODING

Q.1 In a certain code, APPLE is written as BPPLD and CEAT is written as DEAS, then how
will be HEART written in that code?
(1) GEARS (2) IEARS (3) HEAST (4) TREEH (5) None of these
Q.2 In a certain code language, STRAIN is written as UWTDKQ. How will be PLACES
written in that code?
(1) ROCFGV (2) RNDFGV (3) RODEGV (4) ROCFHV (5) None of these
Q.3 In a certain code language, ANTICIPATION is written as ICITNANOITAP. How will
be PRODUCTIVITY written in that code?
(1) CUDORPYTIVIT (2) CUDORPYTIUIT (3) CUDOPRYTIVIT (4) CUDORPTYIUIT
(5) None of these
Q.4 In a certain code, if LOUD is written as JQSF, then which of the following English
words will be coded as PKQG?
(1) RISE (2) ROPE (3) ROAD (4) RICE (5) ROLE
Q.5 In a certain code language, TEMPORAL is written as OLDSMBSP, how is CONSIDER
written in that code language?
(1) RMNBSFEJ (2) BNMRSFEJ (3) RMNBJEFS (4) TOPDQDCH (5) None of these
Q.6 Ina certain code language, SHOULDER is written as VPITQDCK, how is MORNINGS
written in that code?
(1) OSPNRFMH (2) NPSORFMH (3) OSPNHFMR (4) OSPNSFEM (5) None of these
Q.7 In a certain code language, no more food is written as ta ka da and more than that is
written as sa pa ka. How is that written in that code?
(1) sa (2) ka (3) sa or pa (4) Data inadequate (5) None of these
Q.8 In certain code language, how many goals scored, is written as 5397, many more
matches is written as 982 and he scored five is written as 163. How is goals is written in
that code?
(1) 5 (2) 7 or 5 (3) 7 (4) Data inadequate (5) None of these
Q.9 In a certain code language, SOLDIER is written as JFSCRNK, then how is GENIOUS
written in that code?
(1) PVTHHFO (2) PUTHFDM (3) PVTHMDF (4) TVPHFDM (5) None of these
Q.10 In a certain code, CONQUER is written as MNBRQDT. How is STEAMER written in
that code?
(1) DRSBQDL (2) DSRBLDQ (3) DSRZQDL (4) DSRBQDL (5) None of these

Directions (Q.Nos.11-15) Study the following information to answer the given questions.
In a certain code colours of the sky is written as ki fa so, rainbow colours is written as ro
ki and sky high rocket is written as la pe jo and the rocket world is written as pe so ne.

Q.11 Which of the following is the code for colours sky high?
(1) ro jo la (2) fa la jo (3) la ki so (4) i jo la (5) fa ki jo
Q.12 Which of the following will/may represent the?
(1) Only fa (2) Either fa or la (3) Only so (4) Only la (5) Either so or fa
Q.13 What does pe represent in the code?
(1) colours (2) sky (3) high (4) rainbow (5) rocket
Q.14 How can colours of the sky be written in this codes?
(1) fa la tu ki (2) fa so pe la (3) jo fa ro la (4) ki la fa so (5) ki la fa tu
Q.15 Which of the following is the code for high?
(1) Only la (2) Only jo (3) Either la of jo (4) Only ro (5) None of these



CODING DECODING (ANSWERS)

1 (2) 2 (1) 3 (1) 4 (1) 5 (1) 6 (1) 7 (3) 8 (2) 9 (5) 10 (4) 11 (4) 12 (3) 13 (5)

14 (4) 15 (2)



























SYLLOGISM
PRACTICE SET 1
Directions (Q.1-5): In each of the question-sets below are two/three statements followed by
two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the given statements to be true even if
they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts and then decide which of the given
conclusions logically follows from the given statements, disregarding commonly known
facts. Give answer
1. if only conclusion I follows.
2. if only conclusion II follows.
3. if either conclusion r or conclusion Il follows.
4. if neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows.
5. if both conclusion I and conclusion It follow.

Q.1 Statements: All stars are bottles. Some bottles are papers. No paper is a calendar.
Conclusions: I. All stars being papers is a possibility. II. No calendar is a bottle.
Q.2 Statements: All stars are bottles. Some bottles are papers. No paper is a calendar.
Conclusions: I. All calendars being stars is a possibility. II. At least some bottles are stars.
Q.3 Statements: All stars are bottles. Some bottles are papers. No paper is a calendar.
Conclusions: I. At least some calendars are bottles. II. No calendar is a star.
Q.4 Statements: Some pencils are blankets. All blankets are erasers.
Conclusions: I. At least some pencils are erasers. II. All erasers being pencils is a possibility.
Q.5 Statements: Some pencils are blankets. All blankets are erasers.
Conclusions: I. No eraser is a pencil. II. All blankets being pencils is a possibility.

Directions (Q.6-11):In each question below are given two/three statements followed by two
conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the given statements to be true even if
they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then
decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements,
disregarding commonly known facts. Give answer
1. if only conclusion I follows.
2. if only conclusion II follows.
3. if either conclusion I or conclusion II follows.
4. if neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows.
5. if both conclusion I and conclusion II follow.

Q.6 Statements: All rings are circles. All squares are rings. No ellipse is a circle.
Conclusions: I. Some rings being ellipses is a possibility. II. At least some circles are squares.
Q.7 Statements: No house is an apartment. Some bungalows are apartments.
Conclusions: I. No house is a bungalow. II. All bungalows are houses.
Q.8 Statements: Some gases are liquids. All liquids are water.
Conclusions: I. All gases being water is a possibility.
II. All such gases which are not water can never be liquids.
Q.9 Statements: All minutes are seconds. All seconds are hours. No second is a day.
Conclusions: I. No day is an hour. II. At least some hours are minutes.
Q.10 Statements: Some teachers are professors. Some lecturers are teachers.
Conclusions: I. All teachers as well as professors being lecturers is a possibility.
II. All those teachers who are lecturers are also professors.
Q.11 Statements: Some teachers are professors. Some lecturers are teachers.
Conclusions: I. No professor is a lecturer. II. All lecturers being professors is a possibility.

Directions (Q.12-17) In each question below are given two/three statements followed by two
conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the two/three given statements to be true
even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts and then decide which of the
given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known
facts.
1. if only conclusion I follows.
2. if only conclusion II follows.
3. if either conclusion I or conclusion II follows.
4. if neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows.
5. if both conclusions I and II follow.

Q.12 Statements: Some colours are paints. All colours are varnishes. No varnish is a dye.
Conclusions: I. No paint is a dye. II. All paints being varnishes is a possibility.
Q.13 Statements: Some colours are paints. All colours are varnishes. No varnish is a dye.
Conclusions: I. Some varnishes are paints. II. No dye is a colour.
Q.14 Statements: All squares are triangles. No triangle is a circle. All circles are rectangles.
Conclusions: I. No rectangle is a square. II. All rectangles being squares is a possibility.
Q.15 Statements: All squares are triangles. No triangle is a circle. All circles are rectangles.
Conclusions: I. No square is a circle. II. At least some circles are squares.
Q.16 Statements: No paper is a book. Some books are libraries.
Conclusions: I. All libraries being books is a possibility. II. No library is a paper.
Q.17 Statements: All hills are mountains. All mountains are rocks.
Conclusions: I. All those rocks which are mountains are also hills. II. All hills are rocks.

Directions (Q.18-24) In each question below are two/three statements followed by two
conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the two/three given statements to be true
even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts and then decide which of the
given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known
facts. Give answer
1. if only conclusion I follows.
2. if only conclusion II follows.
3. if either conclusion I or conclusion II follows.
4. if neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows.
5. if both conclusion I and conclusion II follow.

Q.18 Statements: Some institutes are banks. All institutes are academies. All academies are
schools.
Conclusions: I. Some institutes are not schools. II. All academies being banks is a possibility.
Q.19 Statements: Some institutes are banks. All institutes are academies. All academies are
schools.
Conclusions: I. All banks can never be schools. II. Any bank which is an institute is a school.
Q.20 Statements: All energies are forces. No force is torque. Air torques are powers.
Conclusions: I. All energies being power is a possibility. II. All powers being force is a possibility.
Q.21 Statements: All energies are forces. No force is torque. Air torques are powers.
Conclusions: I. All those powers if they are forces are also energies. II. No energy is torque.
Q.22 Statements: All circles are squares. Some squares are rectangles.
Conclusions: I. All rectangles being squares is a possibility. II. All circles being rectangles is a
possibility.
Q.23 Statements: No gadget is a machine. All machines are computers.
Conclusions: I. No computer is a gadget. II. All computers being gadgets is a possibility.
Q.24 Statements: Some paintings are drawings. All sketches are paintings.
Conclusions: I. All sketches are drawings. II. Some sketches being drawings is a possibility.
SYLLOGISM
PRACTICE SET 1 (ANSWER KEYS)

1 (1) 2 (5) 3 (4) 4 (5) 5 (2) 6 (1) 7 (4) 8 (1) 9 (1) 10 (1) 11 (2) 12 (2) 13 (5)
14 (4) 15 (1) 16 (1) 17 (2) 18 (2) 19 (2) 20 (1) 21 (2) 22 (5) 23 (4) 24 (2) Syllogism














































SYLLOGISM
PRACTICE SET 2
Directions (Q.1-8) In each question below are two/ three statements followed by two
conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they
seem to be at variance with commonly known facts and then decide which of the given
conclusions, logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known
facts. Give answer
1. If only conclusion I follows.
2. If only conclusion II follows.
3. If either conclusion I or conclusion II follows.
4. If neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows.
5. If both conclusion I and conclusion II follow.

Q.1 Statements: All buildings are houses. No house is an apartment. All apartments are flats.
Conclusions: I. No flat is a house. II. No building is an apartment.
Q.2 Statements: All buildings are houses. No house is an apartment. All apartments are flats.
Conclusions: I. All buildings being flats is a possibility. II. All apartments being building is a
possibility.
Q.3 Statements: Some oceans are seas. All oceans are rivers. No river is a canal.
Conclusions: I. All rivers can never be oceans. II. All canals being oceans is a possibility.
Q.4 Statements: Some oceans are seas. All oceans are rivers. No river is a canal.
Conclusions: I. No ocean is a canal. II. At least some seas are rivers.
Q.5 Statement: No day is night. All nights are noon. No noon is an evening.
Conclusions: I. No day is noon. II. No day is an evening.
Q.6 Statement: No day is night. All nights are noon. No noon is an evening.
Conclusions: I. No evenings are nights. II. All days being noon is a possibility.
Q.7 Statements: Some papers are boards. No board is a card.
Conclusions: I. No card is a paper. II. Some papers are cards.
Q.8 Statements: Some papers are boards. No board is a card.
Conclusions: I. All cards being papers is a possibility. II. All boards being papers is a possibility.

Directions (Q.9 - 13) In each question below are three statements followed by two
conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the three given statements to be true even if
they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts and then decide which of the given
conclusions logically follows from the three statements disregarding commonly known facts.
Give answer
(1) if only conclusion I follows.
(2) if only conclusion II follows.
(3) if either conclusion I or conclusion II follows.
(4) if neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows.
(5) if both conclusion I and conclusion II follow.

Q.9 Statements: All keys are locks. No lock is a door. All doors are windows.
Conclusions: I. No key is a door. II. Some windows are locks.
Q.10 Statements: All districts are cities. All states are cities. Some cities are countries.
Conclusions: I. Some states are districts. II. Some countries are states.
Q.11 Statements: All books are pages. All libraries are books. All words are pages.
Conclusions: I. All words are books. II. All libraries are pages.
Q.12 Statements: All ships are aeroplanes. All trucks are ships. All cars are trucks.
Conclusions: I. Some ships are not cars. II. All cars are aeroplanes.

Q.13 Statements: Some clouds are ashes. Some ashes are particles. All particles are elements
Conclusions: I. No particle is a cloud. II. Some elements are ashes.

Directions (Q.14-23) In each question below are either two or three statements followed by
two conclusions I and II. You have to take the two or three given statements to be true and
then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the two/three given
statements, disregarding the commonly known facts. Give answer
1. If only conclusion I follows.
2. If only conclusion II follows.
3. If either conclusion I or II follows.
4. If neither conclusion I nor II follows.
5. If both conclusions I and II follows.

Q.14 Statements: No table is wood. Some woods are chairs. All chairs are stones.
Conclusions: I. No stone is table. II. Some stones are woods.
Q.15 Statements: All letters are black. All black are blue. No blue is green.
Conclusions: I. No letter is green. II. Most blue are black.
Q.16 Statements: Some fruits are mangoes. Some mangoes are red. All red are vegetables.
Conclusions: I. No fruit is red. II. Some fruits are red.
Q.17 Statements: Some eyes are ears. Some ears are hands.
Conclusions: I. No hand is an eye. II. Some eyes are hands.
Q.18 Statements: Some books are pens. Some pens are pencils. Some pencils are buttons.
Conclusions: I. Some buttons are pens. II. Some pencils are books.
Q.19 Statements: Some caps aye shirts. All shirts are papers.
Conclusions: I. All shirts which are caps are papers. II. Some shirts are caps.
Q.20 Statements: 10% shoes are chappals. 5% chappals are papers. 99% papers are pens.
Conclusions: I. Some shoes are papers. II. Seine shoes are pens.
Q.21 Statements: All A are Z. All Z are X. All Y are A.
Conclusions: I. All A are Y. II. All Y are X.
Q.22 Statements: Some water is cold. No cold is milk. Some milk is water.
Conclusions: I. Some water that is cold is milk. II. Some milk that is water is cold.
Q.23 Statements: Some waste is white. Some white is water. Some water is waste.
Conclusions: I. Some waste which is white is water. II. Some water is neither waste nor white.

SYLLOGISM
PRACTICE SET - 2 (ANSWER KEYS)

1 (2) 2 (4) 3 (4) 4 (5) 5 (4) 6 (5) 7 (3) 8 (5) 9 (1) 10 (4) 11 (2) 12 (2)

13 (2) 14 (2) 15 (1) 16 (3) 17 (3) 18 (4) 19 (5) 20 (4) 21 (2) 22 (4) 23 (4)







DIRECTION SENSE
Q.1 Going 50 m to the South of her house. Radhika turns left and goes another 20 m. Then,
turning to the North. She goes 30 m and then starts walking to her house. In which direction
is she facing now?
(1) North (2) North-West (3) South (4) South-East (5) East
Q.2 Amit walked 30 m towards East, took a right turn and walked 40 m. Then, he took a left
turn and walked 30 m. In which direction is he now from the starting point?
(1) North-East (2) East (3) South-East (4) South (5) None of these
Q.3 A river flows West to East and on the way turns left and goes in a semi-circle round a
hillock and then turns left at right angles. In which direction is the river finally flowing?
(1) East (2) West (3) North (4) South (5) None of these
Q.4 Ankit started walking towards North. After walking 30 m, he turned towards left and
walked 40 m. He then turned left and walked 30 m. He again turned left and walked 50 m.
How far is he from his original position?
(1) 50 m (2) 40 m (3) 30 m (4) 20 m (5) None of these
Q.5 A walks 10 m in front and 10 m to the right. T hen every time turning to his left, he walks
5, 15 and 15 m respectively. How far is he now from his starting point?
(1) 5 m (2) 10 m (3) 15 m (4) 20 m (5) 23 m
Q.6 W walked 40 m towards West, took a left turn and walked 30 m. Then, he took a right
turn and walked 20 m. He again took a right turn and walked 30 m. How far was he from the
starting point?
(1) 70 m (2) 60 m (3) 90 m (4) Cannot be determined (5) None of these
Q.7 Ashok started walking towards South. After walking 50 m he took a right turn and
walked 30 m. Then, he took a right turn and walked 100 m. He again took a right turn and
walked 30 m and stopped. How far and in which direction was he from the staring point?
(1) 50 m South (2) 150 m North (3) 180 m East (4) 50 m North (5) None of these
Q.8 Rama travels a distance of 5 km from a place A towards North, turns left and walks 3 km
again turns right and walks 2 km. Finally turns right and walks 3 km to reach the place B.
What is the distance between A and B?
(1) 7 km (2) 13 km (3) 2 km (4) 10 km (5) None of these
Q.9 Mohan walked 30 m towards South, took a left turn and walked 15 m. He then look a
right turn and walked 20 m. He again took a right turn and walked 15 m. How far is he from
the starting point?
(1) 95 m (2) 50 m (3) 70 m (4) Cannot be determined (5) None of these
Q.10 Facing towards South, Ram started walking and turned left after walking 30 m, he
walked 25 m and turned left and walked 30 m. How far is he from his starting position and in
which direction?
(1) At the starting point only (2) 25 m West (3) 25 m East (4) 30 m East (5) None of these

DIRECTION SENSE (ANSWER KEYS)

1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (1) 4 (5) 5 (1) 6 (2) 7 (4) 8 (1) 9 (2) 10 (2)






INPUT OUTPUT
PRACTICE SET 1
Directions (Q.1-5): Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.
A word and number arrangement machine when given an input line of words and numbers
rearranges the in following a particular rule in each step. The following is an illustration of
input and rearrangement.
Input: say dry 42 96 get 39 kite 67
Step I: 96 say dry 42 get 39 kite 67
Step II: 96 dry say 42 get 39 kite 67
Step III: 96 dry 39 say 42 get kite 67
Step IV: 96 dry 39 say 67 42 get kite
Step V: 96 dry 39 say 67 get 42 kite
Step V is the last step of the rearrangement.

Q.1 If the second step of an input is 76 from 48 super itself 56 18 went, how many more
steps will be required to complete the arrangement?
(1) Five (2) Six (3) Four (4) Three (5) None of these
Q.2 Which step will be the last step of an input for which the third step is 91 go 28 mock pet
43 lead 37?
(1) Eighth (2) Seventh (3) Sixth (4) Fifth (5) None of these
Q.3 What will be the third step if the input is thirty days from now 32 56 87 24?
(1) 87 thirty days from now 32 56 24 (2) 87 days thirty from now 32 56 24
(3) 87 days 24 thirty from now 32 56 (4) 87 thirty 24 days 32 from now 56 (5) None of these
Q.4 If the third step of an input is 65 daily 12 tie 42 23 foreign urgent, what will definitely
be the input?
(1) foreign 65 tie urgent 12 42 23 daily (2) foreign 65 urgent tie 42 daily 23 12
(3) foreign 65 12 urgent tie 42 daily 23 (4) Cannot be determined (5) None of these
Q.5 If the second step of an input is 52 at deep follow 41 16 road 32, what will be the fifth
step?
(1) 52 at 16 road 32 deep follow 41 (2) 52 at 16 road 41 deep follow 32
(3) 52 at 16 road 32 follow 41 deep (4) There will be no such step. (5) None of these

Directions (Q.6-10): Study the following information to answer the given questions: A word
and number arrangement machine when given an input line of words and numbers
rearranges them following a particular rule. The following is an illustration of input and
rearrangement.
Input: sum 28 have 19 96 48 luck nice 78 rope
Step I: have sum 28 19 48 luck nice 78 rope 96
Step II: luck have sum 28 19 48 nice rope 96 78
Step III: nice luck have sum 28 19 rope 96 78 48
Step IV: rope nice luck have sum 19 96 78 48 28
Step V: sum rope nice luck have 96 78 48 28 19
And step V is the last step of the rearrangement.
As per the rules followed in the above steps, find out in. each of the following questions the
appropriate step for the input given below:
Input: 49 last zen 16 82 yet can vast 33 aim 87 54
Q.6 How many steps will be needed to complete the arrangement?
(1) IV (2) V (3) VI (4) VII (5) None of these
Q.7 vast last can aim zen 16 yet 33 87 82 54 49
(1) III (2) II (3) VII (4) IV (5) There will be no such step
Q.8 Which of the following would be step I?
(1) aim 49 can zen 16 yet vast 33 54 87 82 last (2) vast last can aim zen 16 yet 33 87 82 54 49
(3) zen 49 last 16 82 yet can vast 33 aim 54 87 (4) aim 49 last zen 82 yet can vast 33 87 54 16
(5) None of these
Q.9 In step V, which of the following words numbers would be at 6th position from the right?
(1) 87 (2) 16 (3) zen (4) aim
Q.10 Which of the following would be the final arrangement?
(1) zen yet vast last can aim 16 33 49 54 82 87 (2) aim can last vast yet zen 16 33 49 54 82 87
(3) aim can last vast yet zen 87 82 54 49 33 16 (4) zen yet vast last can aim 87 82 54 49 33 16
(5) None of these

Directions (11-16): Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions:
A word and number arrangement machine when given an input line of words and numbers
rearranges them following a particular rule in each step. The following is an illustration of
input and rearrangement.
Input: sale data 18 23 for 95 then 38
Step I: data sale 18 23 for 95 then 38
Step II: data 95 sale 18 23 for then 38
Step III: data 95 for sale 18 23 then 38
Step IV: data 95 for 38 sale 18 23 then
Step V: data 95 for 38 sale 23 18 then
Step VI: data 95 for 38 sale 23 then 18 and step VI is, the last step of the rearrangement of
the above-input.
As per the rules followed in the above steps, find out in each of the following questions the
appropriate step for the given input.
Q.11 Input: year 39 stake 47 house full 94 55
How many steps will be required to complete the rearrangement?
(1) Five (2) Six (3) Four (4) Seven (5) None of these
Q.12 Step II of an input is: car 83 lost ever 32 46 74 now How many more steps will be
required to complete the rearrangement?
(1) Three (2) Four (3) Five (4) Six (5) None of these
Q.13 Step III of an input is: and 79 code 27 18 new goal 34 Which of the following will
definitely be the input?
(1) code and 79 27 18 new goal 34 (2) code 27 18 new goal 34 and 79
(3) code 27 and 18 79 new goal 34 (4) Cannot be determined (5) None of these
Q.14 Input: water full never 35 78 16 height 28 Which of the following steps will be the last?
(1) VI (2) VII (3) VIII (4) IX (5) None of these
Q.15 Step II of an input is: high 69 store pay 36 43 15 there Which of the following will be step
VI?
(1) high 69 pay 43 store 36 there 15 (2) high 69 pay 43 store 36 15 there
(3) high 69 pay 36 43 store 15 there (4) There will be no such step (5) None of these
Q.16 Input: train more 29 53 fast gear 37 84 Which of the following steps will be the last but
one?
(1) IX (2) VIII (3) VII (4) VI (5) None of these


INPUT OUTPUT
PRACTICE SET 1 (ANSWER KEYS)
1 (3) 2 (2) 3 (3) 4 (4) 5 (2) 6 (3) 7 (4) 8 (5) 9 (2) 10 (4) 11 (2) 12 (2) 13 (4)
14 (1) 15 (4) 16 (5)

INPUT OUTPUT
PRACTICE SET 2
Directions (Q.1-5): Study the following information carefully and answer the given question.
A word and number arrangement machine, when given an input line of words and numbers,
rearranges them following a particular rule in each step. The following is an illustration of
input and rearrangement.
Input: gone over 35 69 test 72 park 27
Step I: 27 gone over 35 69 test 72 park
Step II: 27 test gone over 35 69 72 park
Step III: 27 test 35 gone over 69 72 park
Step IV: 27 test 35 park gone over 69 72
Step V: 27 test 35 park 69 gone over 72
Step VI: 27 test 35 park 69 over gone 72
Step VII: 27 test 35 park 69 over 72 gone
Step VII is the last step of the rearrangement.
As per the rules followed in the above steps, find out in each of the following questions the
appropriate step for the given input.

Q.1 Input: 86 open shut door 31 49 always 45
How many steps will be required to complete the rearrangement?
(1) Five (2) Six (3) Seven (4) Four (5) None of these
Q.2 Step III of an input: 25 yes 37 enemy joy defeat 52 46 Which of the following is definitely
the input?
(1) enemy 25 joy defeat yes 52 37 46 (2) 37 enemy 25 joy yes defeat 52 46
(3) enemy joy defeat 25 52 yes 46 37 (4) Cannot be determined (5) None of these
Q.3 Step II of an Input: 18 win 71 34 now if victory 61. How many more steps will be required
to complete the rearrangement?
(1) Three (2) Four (3) Five (4) Six (5) More than six
Q.4 Input: where 47 59 12 are they going 39 Which of the following steps will be the last but
one?
(1) VII (2) IV (3) V (4) VIII (5) None of these
Q.5 Step II of an input: 33 store 81 75 full of goods 52 Which of the following will be step VI?
(1) 33 store 52 of 75 81 full goods (2) 33 store 52 of 75 full 81 goods
(3) 33 store 52 of 75 goods 81 full (4) There will be no such step. (5) None of these

Directions (Q.6-10): Study the following information carefully and answer the given
questions. A word and number arrangement machine when given an input line of words and
numbers rearranges them following a particular rule. The following is an illustration
of input and rearrangement. (All the numbers are two digit numbers.)
Input: gate 20 86 just not 71 for 67 38 bake sun 55
Step I: bake gate 20 just not 71 for 67 38 sun 55 86
Step II: for bake gate 20 just not 67 38 sun 55 86 71
Step III: gate for bake 20 just not 38 sun 55 86 71 67
Step IV: just gate for bake 20 not 38 sun 86 71 67 55
Step V: not just gate for bake 20 sun 86 71 67 55 38
Step VI: sun not just gate for bake 86 71 67 55 38 20
And Step VI is the last step of the above input.
As per the rules followed in the above steps, find out in each of the following questions the
appropriate step for the given input.
Input: 31 rise gem 15 92 47 aim big 25 does 56 not 85 63 with moon
Q.6 How many steps will be required to complete the rearrangement?
(1) Eight (2) Six (3) Seven (4) Five (5) None of these
Q.7 Which word/number would be at 7th position from the left in step IV?
(1) rise (2) aim (3) big (4)15 (5) 47
Q.8 Which step number is the following output? rise not moon gem does big aim 15 with 92
85 63 56 47 31 25
(1) Step V (2) Step VII (3) Step IV (4) Step VIII (5) There is no such step.
Q.9 Which of the following represents the position of 92 in step VI?
(1) Ninth from the left (2) Fifth from the right (3) Sixth from the right
(4) Ninth from the right (5) Seventh from the left
Q.10 Which word/number would be at 5th position from the right in the last step?
(1) gem (2) 63 (3) 56 (4) 85 (5) does

Directions (Q.11-19): Study the following information and answer the questions given:
When a word arrangement machine is given an input line of words, it arranges them
following a particular rule. The following is an illustration of input and rearrangement:
Input: deep snow built offer zinc note find answer can
Step I: answer deep snow built offer zinc note find can
Step II: answer built deep snow offer zinc note find can
Step III: answer built can deep snow offer zinc note find
Step IV: answer built can deep find snow offer zinc note
Step V: answer built can deep find note snow offer zinc
Step VI: answer built can deep find note offer snow zinc
Step VI is the last step of the above arrangement as the intended arrangement is obtained.
As per the rules followed in the above steps, find out in each of the following questions the
appropriate steps for the given input.

Directions (Q. 11-15) Input: held nature yeast rich win alter infer lost so done
Q.11 Which of the following is second to the right of the one that is seventh from the right
end of step IV?
(1) infer (2) lost (3) yeast (4) nature (5) None of these
Q.12 Which of the following will be step VI for the given input?
(1) alter done held infer lost nature rich so win yeast
(2) alter done held infer nature lost rich so win yeast
(3) alter done held infer lost nature rich so yeast win.
(4) alter done held infer lost nature so rich yeast win
(5) None of these
Q.13 What will be the position of infer in step III?
(1) Fifth from the left end (2) Eighth from the right end (3) Fourth from the right end
(4) Eighth from the left end (5) None of these
Q.14 How many steps will be required to complete the arrangement?
(1) VII (2) VIII (3) IX (4) VI (5) None of these
Q.15 Which of the following is the third word from the right of step IV?
(1) win (2) rich (3) yeast (4) lost (5) None of these

Directions (Q.16-19): Following are steps of an input. Rearrange them and answer the
questions:
(A) ancient cones dish vault rope yell hint (B) ancient cones vault dish rope yell hint
(C) ancient cones dish hint rope vault yell (D) ancient vault dish rope cones yell hint
(E) ancient cones dish hint vault rope yell


Q.16 Which of the following is step V?
(1) D (2) A (3) E (4) B (5) C
Q.17 Which of the following is step III?
(1) E (2) B (3) D (4) C (5) A
Q.18 Which of the following is step IV?
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (5) E
Q.19 Which of the following is step II?
(1) A (2) C (3) B (4) E (5) D

INPUT OUTPUT
PRACTICE SET 2 (ANSWER KEYS)

1 (2) 2 (4) 3 (2) 4 (5) 5 (3) 6 (1) 7 (4) 8 (2) 9 (3) 10 (3) 11 (4) 12 (3) 13 (5)
14 (1) 15 (2) 16 (5) 17 (5) 18 (5) 19 (3)





















BLOOD RELATIONS
Q.1 How is sohans fathers brothers only sibling related to her?
(a) Grandfather (b) Uncle (c) Father (d) Cousin
Q.2 Q is the only son of P who is the only daughter of R. T is the mother of U and daughter-
in law of P. How is U related to P?
(a) Son (b) Daughter (c) Grandson (d) Cannot be determined
Q.3 Rohans fathers sisters sons father is related to Rohan as:
(a) Brother (b) Uncle (c) Cousin (d) Cannot be determined
Q.4 How is Roshns daughter-in-laws sons son related to Roshans wife?
(a) Grandson (b) Great grandson (c) Son (d) Son-in law
Q.5 D, the son-in-law of B, is the brother-in-law of A who is the brother of C. How is A related to B?
(a) Brother (b) Son (c) Father (d) None of these
Directions (Q.6-10): Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given below
it: There are six persons P, Q, R, S, T and U. R is the sister of U. Q is the brother of Ts husband. S is
the father of P and grandfather of U. There are two fathers, three brothers and a mother in the group.
Q.6 Who is the mother?
(a) P (b) Q (c) S (d) T
Q.7 Who is Ts husband
(a) Q (b) R (c) P (d) U
Q.8 How many male members are there in the group?
(a) One (b) Two (c) Three (d) four
Q.9 How is U related to T?
(a) Uncle (b) Husband (c) Son (d) Daughter
Q.10 Which of the following is a group of brothers?
(a) PQU (b) PQS (c) QUR (d) QSU
Directions (Q.11-15): if x y means x is brother of y,X y means x is husband of y,
X + y means x is daughter of y.
Q.11 What does the relation a b c show?
(a) a is cousin of c (b) a is son-in-law of c (c) c is wife of c (d) None of these
Q.12 Which of the following statement does not hold?
(a) P + q r (b) P + r + q (c) P q r (d) None of these
Q.13 If p q + r s, then how is q related to s?
(a) Daughter (b) Niece (c) Mother (d) Sister
Q.14 If p q r s then which of the following statement is not necessarily true?
(a) q is brother of r (b) r is brother of p (c) s is brother of r (d) p, q, r are male
Q.15 If the oldest generation in this group is the first generation then what is the present
generation of p in the relation p + q r + s t + u v ?
(a) 1st generation (b) 2nd generation (c) 3rd generation (d) 4th generation
Q.16 How is sunitas fathers father-in-lawss sons only sister related to her?
(a) Sister (b) Sister-in-law (c) Mother (d) None of these
Q.17 Facing a man in the eve, Raghav said, Your son is my sons uncle. How is the man
related to Raghav?
(a) Uncle (b) Cousin (c) Grandfather (d) Father
Q.18 Rani presents a Rajesh as the son of the brother of her mother. How is Rajesh related to
Rani?
(a) Brother (b) Brother-in-law (c) Cousin (d) Uncle
Q.19 Raj has two mothers. Ragini is the stepdaughter of Sadhana and step-sister of Raj.
How is Sadhana related to Raj?
(a) Grandmother (b) Step-mother (c) Mother (d) Cannot be determined
Q.20 Mrs. Dixit meets a man at a marriage party who is the brother of the sister of her
husband. How is the man related to Mrs. Dixit.
(a) Father (b) Father-in-law (c) Cousin (d) Brother-in-law
BLOOD RELATIONS (ANSWER KEYS)

1 (c) 2 (d) 3 (b) 4 (b) 5 (b) 6 (d) 7 (c) 8 (d) 9 (c) 10 (a) 11 (d) 12 (c)
13 (b) 14 (c) 15 (d) 16 (c) 17 (d) 18 (c) 19 (c) 20 (d)



























ALPHABET & NUMBER SEQUENCE TEST
PRACTICE SET - 1
Directions (Q.1-5): Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions given
below: H 9 3 P $ K E % 4 F R I U @ W G 2 M I 5 B Q Z 6 * N & 8 V J
Q.1 If all the symbols and numbers are dropped from the above arrangement, which of the
following will be the fourteenth from the right end?
(1) M (2) K (3) W (4) E (5) None of these
Q.2 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following series based on the
above arrangement? PK% RUW M5Q ?
(1) N8 (2)N (3) * (4) 6*8 (5) None of these
Q.3 How many such numbers are there in the above arrangement each of which is
immediately preceded by a letter and immediately followed by a symbol?
(1) None (2) One (3) Two (4) Three (5) More than three
Q.4 Which of the following is the seventh-to the left of the twentieth from the left end of the
above arrangement?
(1) U (2) S (3) M (4) N (5) None of these
Q.5 How many such consonants are there in the above arrangement each of which is
immediately followed by a number but not immediately preceded by a number?
(1) None (2) One (3) Two (4) Three (5) More than three

Directions (Q.6-11): Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions
given below: W 7 @ I R P 3 9 B A $ 4 H D 5 M E 2 % T * 8 U Q N 1 V 6 # K F
Q.6 How many such consonants are there in the above arrangement, each of which Is
immediately preceded by a consonant and immediate followed by a symbol?
(1) None (2) One (3) Two (4) Three (5) More than three
Q.7 If all the symbols are dropped from the above arrangement, which of the following will
be the fifteenth from the left end?
(1) E (2) 5 (3) D (4) 2 (5) None of these
Q.8 How many such numbers are there in the above arrangement, each of which is
immediately preceded by a symbol, and immediately followed by a consonant?
(1) None (2) One (3) Two (4) Three (5) More than three
Q.9 Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their positions in the above
arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
(1) T * 2 (2) Q N (3)3 9 R (4) 6 V K (5) % T E
Q.10 Which of the following is the ninth to the right of the twenty second from the right end
of the above arrangement?
(1) H (2) # (3) T (4) @ (5) None of these
Q.11 How many such symbols are there in the above arrangement, each of which is
immediately preceded by a number and immediately followed by a letter?
(1) None (2) One (3) Two (4) Three (5) More than three

Directions (12-16) : Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions
given below: B M % R 3 J @ K D F 6 9 W 4 * N E P 2 S A Y 5 I Q Z # 7 U G
Q.12 Which of the following is the sixth to the left of the twentieth from the left of the above
arrangement?
(1) J (2) Q (3) W (4) E (5) None of these
Q.13 How many such consonants are there in the above arrangement each of which is
immediately preceded by a symbol and immediately followed by a number?
(1) None (2) One (3) Two (4) Three (5) More than three
Q.14 If all the symbols and all the vowels are dropped from the above arrangement, which of
the following will be twelfth from the right end?
(1) 9 (2) 6 (3) P (4) Y (5) More than three
Q.15 How many such numbers are there in the above arrangement, each of which is
immediately preceded by a letter but not immediately followed by a letter?
(1) None (2) One (3) Two (4) Three 5) More than three
Q.16 What should come in the place of question mark (?) in the following series based on the
above arrangement? M R J F 9 * E 2 ?
(1) Y 5 I (2) Y I Q (3) A 5 Q (4) Y I Z (5) None of these

Directions (Q.17-21): Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions
given below. M? 2 D B 7 A 4 * 9 6 $ T + N 5 @ V E W # U 8 F 3
Q.17 How many such prime numbers are there in the given arrangement each of which is
immediately followed by a symbol and preceded by a consonant?
(1) None (2) One (3) Two (4) Three (5) More than three
Q.18 If the places of the symbols are interchanged with those of the numbers immediately
following them in the given arrangement then which of the following will be the eleventh
from the right end?
(1) V (2) @ (3) 5 (4) N (5) None of these
Q.19 Which of the following is the seventh letter to the left of #?
(1) A (2) N (3) T (4) B (5) None of these
Q.20 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following series based on the
-above arrangement? 2 7 B 4 6 9 T 5 N ?
(1) @ W E (2) 5 E V (3) V U # (4) V # W (5) None of these
Q.21 If the symbols and numbers are dropped from the given arrangement and then the
letters are rearranged in alphabetical order which of the following will be the sixth from the
left end?
(1) M (2) F (3) N (4) E (5) None of these


ALPHABET & NUMBER SEQUENCE TEST
PRACTICE SET 1 (ANSWER KEYS)

1 (4) 2 (1) 3 (2) 4 (1) 5 (5) 6 (1) 7 (1) 8 (2) 9 (4) 10 (3) 11 (5) 12 (3) 13 (2)

14 (1) 15 (4) 16 (3) 17 (2) 18 (3) 19 (4) 20 (4) 21 (1)


















ALPHABET & NUMBER SEQUENCE TEST
PRACTICE SET - 2
Directions (Q.1to5): Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions
given below: E 7 G B D M 4 N K H 2 A C Z S V 3 F I J L O Q 5 P R
Q.1 If starting from E each alternate letter/digit is deleted then which letter/digit will be
second to the left of the letter/digit which is 10th from the left?
(1) V (2) B (3) A (4) Q (5) None of these
Q.2 Which group of letters/digits will replace the question mark? GDR, BMP, D45
(1) 4NQ (2) MNQ (3) MKO (4) M4Q (5) None of these
Q.3 If every third element from your right is replaced by the days of week respectively
starting from Monday then which element will represent Thursday?
(1) A (2) S (3) Z (4) F (5) None of these
Q.4 If with the first, 12th, 15th and 21st letters of the given arrangement it is possible to
make a meaningful word then which will be first letter of the world so formed ? If no
meaningful word can be formed then give X as the answer and if more than one word
can be made then give M as the answer:
(1) A (2) T (3) E (4) X (5) M
Q.5 If only the elements from M to L are written in reverse order then which element will be
3
rd
to the right of the element which is 14th from the right?
(1) C (2) A (3) Z (4) S (5) None of these
Q.6 How many pairs of letters are there in the word DABBLE which have as many letters
between them in the word as in the English alphabet?
(1) One (2) Two (3) Nil (4) Three (5) More than three
Q.7 How many pairs of letters are there in the word SEQUENTIAL which have as many
letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?
(1) Nil (2) Two (3) Four (4) One (5) Three
Q.8 How many words can be formed from the word GODOWN in which no letter is repeated
and the letters in the word are in the same order as they are in the given word?
(1) 4 (2) 3 (3) 5 (4) 2 (5) None of these
Q.9 How many pairs of letters are there in the word RECRUITMENT which have as many
letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?
(1) 4 (2) 3 (3) 2 (4) 1 (5) None of these

ALPHABET & NUMBER SEQUENCE TEST
PRACTICE SET 2 (ANSWER KEYS)
1 (1) 2 (2) 3 (2) 4 (5) 5 (3) 6 (5) 7 (5) 8 (4) 9 (4)








LOGICAL VENN DIAGRAMS

Q.1 Which symbol indicates Ieader but not a singer, or an Indian?
(1) g (2) c (3) b (4) f
Q.2 Which symbol indicates India singer but not a leader?
(1) a (2) b (3) f (4) d
Q.3 Which symbol indicates only singer, but not an Indian or leader?
(1) b (2) g (3) f (4) d
Q.4 Which symbol indicates an Indian, a leader as well as singer?
(1) b (2) c (3) d (4) e
Q.5 Which symbol indicates Indian and a leader but not a singer?
(1) b (2) c (3) d (4) e
Q.6 Which letter represents the Artists who are Doctors and Dancers?
(1) H (2) G (3) D (4) A
Q.7 Which letters represent the Artists who are neither Scientists nor Doctors?
(1) A & B (2) A & L (3) B & G (4) L & H
Q.8 Which letters represent the Artists who are Dancers as well Doctors?
(1) A & D (2) G & H (3) C & A (4) C & D
Q.9 Which letter represents the Artists who are neither Doctors nor Scientists nor Dancers?
(1) D (2) F (3) A (4) G
Q.10 Which letter represents the Scientists who are not Artists?
(1) B (2) D (3) L (4) F
Q.11 Which one of the following diagrams represents the relationships between Cows,
Animals and Goats?
(1) (2) (3) (4)
Q.12 Which of the followings figures represents Building materials, Cements and Wood?
(1) (2) (3) (4)
Q.13 Which of the following figures represents the relationship among DOG, CAT and PET?
(1) (2) (3) (4)
Q.14 Identify the diagram that correctly represents the relationship among illiterates, poor
people and unemployed.
(1) (2) (3) (4)
Q.15 In the following diagram the triangle represents doctors, the circle represents players
and the rectangle represents singers. Which region represents doctors who are singers but
not players?
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
Q.16 Which one of the following diagrams best depicts the relationship among Fishes.Snakes
and Birds?
(1) (2) (3) (4)
Q.17 Which one of the following diagrams best depicts the relationship among Pigeons,
Birds and Dogs.
(1) (2) (3) (4)
Q.18 Which one of the following diagrams best depicts the relationship among Cement,
Bricks and Building materials?
(1) (2) (3) (4)
Q.19 Which one of the following grams best depicts the relationship among Honey-bee,
Insects and Housefly?
(1) (2) (3) (4)
Q.20 Which one of the following diagrams best depicts the relationship among horses,
parrots and birds?
(1) (2) (3) (4)


LOGICAL VENN DIAGRAMS
(ANSWER KEYS)

1 (4) 2 (4) 3 (2) 4 (2) 5 (1) 6 (2) 7 (1) 8 (2) 9 (3) 10 (4) 11 (1) 12 (2) 13 (4)
14 (2) 15 (4) 16 (4) 17 (1) 18 (4) 19 (3) 20 (2)



























ARRANGEMENTS: LINEAR & CIRCULAR
PRACTICE SET - 1
Q.1 Who amongst the following sits the immediate right of H?
(1) A (2) D (3) C (4) G (5) None of these
Q.2 Who amongst the following sits third to the right of A?
(1) D (2) E (3) F (4) A (5) None of these
Q.3 Four the following five are alike in a certain way, based on the information given above
and so from a group?
(1) HA (2) FH (3) GC (4) DA (5) None of these
Q.4 If all the people are made to sit in an alphabetical order, in clockwise direction, starting
from A, the position of whom amongst the following remains the same (excluding A)?
(1) E (2) F (3) C (4) G (5) None of these
Q.5 How many people are seated between A and C (counting clockwise from A)?
(1) Two (2) Four (3) None (4) One (5) Three
Q.6 Who amongst the following sits exactly between F and C (and is also their neighbour)?
(1) E (2) B (3) G (4) A (5) None of these

Directions (Q.7-13): Study the following information and answer the questions given below:
Eight friends-A, B, C, 0, E, F, G and H-are sitting around a circular table not necessarily in
the same order. Three of them are facing outward while five are facing towards the centre.
There are equal number of males and females in the group. C is facing the centre. E is
sitting third to the right of C. F is sitting third to the left of E. Three persons are sitting
between F and B. The immediate neighbours of B are females. G is sitting third to the right
of F. 0 is sitting third to the right of A. A is not an immediate neighbor of E. The immediate
neighbours of E are males and are facing the centre. The immediate neighbours of 0 are
females and face outside. The one sitting third to the left of B is a male. No female is an
immediate neighbor of G.

Q.7 Who is sitting second to the right of E?
(1) C (2) B (3) G (4) H (5) None of these
Q.8 How many persons are sitting between H and C when counted from the left side of H?
(1) One (2) Two. (3) Three (4) Four (5) More than four
Q.9 Which of the following statements is true
(1) The one who is second to the right of H is a female. (2) H is facing the centre.
(3) H is a male. (4) The immediate neighbours of H are facing outside: (5) None is true
Q.10 What is Ds position with respect to G?
(1) Third to the left (2) Third to the right (3) Second to the left
(4) Second to the right (5) None of these .
Directions (Q.11-13): Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their
seating positions in the above arrangement and hence form a group. Which of the following
does not belong to the group?
Q.11
(1) BE (2) CG (3) GA (4) OH (5) AF
Q.12
(1) B (2) F (3) G (4) A (5) 0
Q.13 If all the friends are asked to sit in an alphabetical order starting from A in an
anticlockwise direction, the positions of how many will remain unchanged (excluding A)?
(1) Four (2) Three (3) Two (4) One (5) None

Directions (Q.14-20): Study the following information carefully and answer the given
questions. A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting around a circular table, facing the centre.
Each of them has a different profession, viz doctor, engineer, architect, pilot, banker,
teacher, businessman and politician. The politician sits third to the right of G. C is an
immediate neighbour of G. The architect sits second to the right of C. B sits third to the right
of H. H is neither a politician nor an architect. Only one person sits between O and the
teacher. A and F are immediate neighbours of each other. Neither A nor F is a politician.
The doctor sits second to the right of A. Two people sit between 0 and the engineer. D is not
a politician. The pilot is not an immediate neighbour of the politician. The banker sits
second to the left of A.

Q.14 Who amongst the following is a businessman?
(1) A (2) H (3) C (4) F (5) D
Q.15 What is the position of F with respect to the politician?
(1) Immediate right (2) Third to the left (3) Second to the right
(4) Fourth to the left (5) Second to the left
Q.16 Who sit(s) exactly between the teacher and the engineer?
(1) C and H (2) Only the politician (3) Only the doctor
(4) C and B (5) The architect and the banker
Q.17 Which of the following is true with respect to the given seating arrangement?
(1) D is an immediate neighbour of G. (2) G is a banker.
(3) The banker and the teacher are immediate neighbours of each other.
(4) The pilot sits exactly between the architect and the businessman.
(5) The doctor sits second to the right of the businessman.
Q.18 What is the profession of G?
(1) Businessman (2) Pilot (3) Banker (4) Teacher (5) Architect
Q.19 Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on the given seating
arrangement and thus form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
regarding H?
(1) G-Doctor (2) E-Architect (3) H-Businessman (4) E- Politician (5) D-Pilot
Q.20 What is the profession of E?
(1) Businessman (2) Architect (3) Banker (4) Politician (5) Engineer




ARRANGEMENTS: LINEAR & CIRCULAR
PRACTICE SET 1 (ANSWER KEYS)

1 (4) 2 (3) 3 (3) 4 (2) 5 (1) 6 (2) 7 (1) 8 (2) 9 (1) 10 (2) 11 (3) 12 (4) 13 (4)

14 (1) 15 (3) 16 (3) 17 (5) 18 (2) 19 (4) 20 (4)










ARRANGEMENTS: LINEAR & CIRCULAR
PRACTICE SET - 2
Directions (Q.1-7): Study the following information to answer the given questions: P Q R S T
V and Ware sitting in a straight line facing north. Each one of lives on a different floor in the
same building which is numbered from one to seven. Q sits fourth to the left of the person
living on the 6
th
floor. Either Q or the person living on the 6th floor sits at the extreme ends of
the line. Only one person sits between Q and W. W lives on the 3rd floor. The person livening
the 1st floor sits third to right of S. S is not an immediate neighbour of W. Only one person
lives between T and the person who lives on the 2nd floor. P and R are immediate
neighbours of each other. P does not live on the 6th floor. One who lives on the 5
th
floor sits
third to right of the one who lives on the 7
th
floor.
Q.1 Who amongst the following lives on the 4
th
floor?
(1) P (2) Q (3) R (4) S (5) V
Q.2 On which of the following floors does T live?
(1) 1
st
(2) 2
nd
(3) 5
th
(4) 6
th
(5) 7th
Q.3 How many floors are there between the floors on which V and P live?
(1) One (2) Two (3) Three (4) Four (5) None
Directions (Q. 4-7): Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on the given
arrangement and thus form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
Q.4
(1) W (2) T (3) S (4) P (5) Q
Q.5
(1) T-2ndfloor (2) R-7th floor (3) V-3rd floor (4) S-5th floor (5) Q-6th floor
Q.6 Which of the following is true with respect to the given arrangement?
(1) The one who lives on the 5th floor is an immediate neighbour of S.
(2) V lives on the 1st floor.
(3) T sits second to the left of the person who lives on the 2nd floor.
(4) R and V are immediate neighbours of each other.
(5) The one who lives on the 4th floor sits at one of the extreme ends of the line.
Q.7 If all the persons are made to live in alphabetical order from the bottom-most floor to the
topmost floor (i.e. P lives on the 1
st
floor, Q lives on the 2nd floor and finally W lives on the
7th floor), who would still live on the same floor as the original arrangement?
(1) R (2) V (3) W (4) T (5) S

Directions (Q.8-12): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions
given below:
M, N, P, Q, R, Sand T are sitting around a circle facing the centre. P is second to the left of S
and third to the right of M. T is third to the left of S. Q is not an immediate neighbour of S. N
is not an immediate neighbour of M.

Q.8 Who is third to the right of N?
(1) Q (2) T (3) P (4) R (5) None of these
Q.9 Who is second to the left of M?
(1) N (2) R (3) S (4) Cannot be determined (5) None of these
Q.10 Who is sitting between P and S?
(1) R (2) R and N (3) N (4) Data inadequate (5) None of these
Q.11 How many persons are sitting between Q and S?
(1) two (2) three (3) four (4) two or three (5) None of these
Q.12 Who is sitting between T and M?
(1) R (2) N (3) Q and P (4) Data inadequate (5) None of these

Directions (Q.13-20): Study the following information carefully and answer the given
questions. Eight family members, viz A, 8, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting around a circular
table, facing the centre but not necessarily in the same order.
F, the wife of D, is sitting third to the right of C.
A is the son of H. A is sitting second to the left of D. D is an immediate neighbour of
neither F nor C. No male is an immediate neighbour of D.
G sits second to the left of Ds son. Only two persons sit between H and As brother.
Neither C nor D is the brother of A.
Ds son and the wife of Ds son are immediate neighbours of each other.
F is the mother of H and is an immediate neighbor of neither 8 nor G.
G is the sister of E.

Q.13 Who among the following is Ds son?
(1) E (2) G (3) A (4) B (5) Cannot be determined
Q.14 Who sits second to the left of G?
(1) As brother (2) Gs mother (3) D (4) Bs father (5) As aunt
Q.15 How many people sit between A and his brother?
(1) None (2) One (3) Two (4) Three (5) Four
Q.16 Who among the following sits exactly between H and F?
(1) Ds wife (2) Ds son (3) C (4) B (5) A
Q.17 Who among the following is the brother of A?
(1) E (2) G (3) A (4) 8 (5) Cannot be determined
Q.18 Based on the given arrangement how is A related to D?
(1) Grandfather (2) Son (3) Grandson (4) Daughter-in-law (5) Cannot be determined
Q.19 Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on the given arrangement and
so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
(1) B (2) C (3) H (4) G (5) F
Q.20 Which of the following statements regarding H is definitely correct?
(1) H is a male (2) H is the cousin of C (3) Both the immediate neighbours of Ha are males(4)
H is the daughter-in-law of D (5) H is the father of A.


ARRANGEMENTS: LINEAR & CIRCULAR
PRACTICE SET 2 (ANSWER KEYS)


1 (4) 2 (1) 3 (2) 4 (3) 5 (5) 6 (5) 7 (5) 8 (5) 9 (3) 10 (3) 11 (4) 12 (5) 13 (4)

14 (2) 15 (2) 16 (5) 17 (1) 18 (3) 19 (1) 20 (3)






PUZZLE TEST
PRACTICE SET 1
Directions (Q.1-9): Study the information given below and answer the given questions. Nine
people, A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H and J stay in a building, but not necessarily in the same order,
The building has nine floors and only one person stays on one floor. All of them own one car
each, and each car is of a different colour, ie blue, grey, white, black, yellow, green, red,
orange and pink, but not necessarily in the same order, The ground floor is numbered 1, the
floor above it is numbered 2, and so on, and the topmost floor is numbered 9, H owns a
black-coloured car and stays on an even- numbered floor. A stays on any evennumbered floor
below the floor on which H stays. The one who owns an orange coloured car stays on the
fourth floor. E stays on the second floor and owns a white-coloured car. The one who owns a
pink-colouredcar stays on the third floor. A does not own a greencoloured car. There are two
floors between the floors on which the people owning the red and the blackcoloured cars
stay. C owns a grey-coloured car. There are three floors between the floors on which C and G
stay. D stays on a floor immediately above Js floor. There is one floor between the floors on
which F and G stay. F does not own the pink- coloured car, The one who owns the blue car
stays on the top most floor. F does not stay on the ground floor.
Q.1 Who amongst the following owns the green coloured car
(1) D (2) J (3) G (4) F (5) None of these
Q.2 Who amongst the following stays on the topmost floor?
(1) F (2) G (3) D (4) C (5) None of these
Q.3 A owns a car of which of the following colours?
(1) Orange (2) Pink (3) Yellow (4) Blue (5) None of these
Q.4 Who stays on the floor which is exactly between the floor on which H stays and the
floor on which A stays?
(1) B (2) G (3) C (4) F (5) None of these
Q.5 How many floors are there between the floor on which J stays and the floor on which C
stays?
(1) One (2) Two (3) None (4) Three (5) More than three
Q.6 Which of the following is true as per the given information?
(1) B stays on a floor immediately below the floor on which H stays.
(2) G stays on a floor immediately above the floor on which A stays.
(3) F stays on the eighth floor. (4) D owns the orange-coloured car. (5) None is true
Q.7 On which of the following floors does G stay?
(1) 1
st
(2) 6
th
(3) 5
th
(4) 7
th
(5) None of these
Q.8 B is related to C in the same way as H is related to E as per the given information,
Following the same pattern, F is related to which of the following?
(1) J (2) D (3) A (4) G (5) None of these
Q.9 What is the colour of the car of the person who stays on the ground floor?
(1) Red (2) Green (3) Yellow (4) Grey (5) None of these
Direction: (10-14) Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given
below: A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are eight friends travelling in three different cars, viz X, Y
and Z, with at least two in one car to three different places, viz. Delhi, Chandigarh and Agra.
There is at least one female member in each car. D is travelling with G to Delhi but not in car
Y. A is travelling with only H in car Z but not to Chandigarh. C is not travelling with either D
or E. F and D are studying in the same only girls college. H, B and G are studying in the
same only boys college.
Q.10 Which of the following represents the group of females?
(1) F, C, A (2) F, G, A (3) D, C, A (4) Data inadequate (5) None of these
Q.11 Which of the following combinations is correct?
(1) Delhi-X-C (2) Chandigarh-X-F (3) Agra-Z-E (4) Delhi-Y-E (5) None of these
Q.12 Which of the following cars is carrying four people?
(1) Either X or Z (2) Y (3) Either X or Y (4) Z (5) None of these
Q.13 In which of the following cars is C travelling?
(1) X (2) Y (3) Z (4) Either X or Y (5) Data inadequate
Q.14 Which of the following cars is carrying people to Chandigarh?
(1) Y (2) X (3) Either X or Y (4) Data inadequate (5) None of these
Directions (Q.15 -19): Study the following information to answer the given questions: Each of
the seven plays viz P, Q, R, S, T, V and W are scheduled to be staged on a different day of a
week starting from Monday and ending on Sunday of the same week. Play V is scheduled on
Thursday. Two plays are scheduled to be held between Play V and Play P, Only one play is
scheduled between Play T and Play S, Play T is not scheduled on the days immediately
before or immediately after the day when Play V is scheduled. Play R is scheduled the day
immediately before the day when Play W is scheduled. Play S is not scheduled after Play Q.
Q.15 How many plays are scheduled to be staged between Play R and Play S?
(1) None (2) One (3) Two (4) Three (5) Four
Q.16 Which of the following plays is scheduled on Saturday?
(1) Q (2) W (3) R (4) S (5) T
Q.17 R is related to S in a certain way. In the same way P is related to V based on the given
schedule. Which of the following is W related to following the same pattern?
(1) P (2) Q (3) R (4) T (5) Cannot be determined
Q.18 On which of the following days is Play W scheduled?
(1) Monday (2) Tuesday (3) Wednesday (4) Saturday (5) Cannot be determined
Q.19 Which of the following plays is scheduled on Friday?
(1) R (2) T (3) Q (4) W (5) S

PUZZLE TEST

PRACTICE SET 1 (ANSWER KEYS)

1 (4) 2 (5) 3 (3) 4 (4) 5 (1) 6 (4) 7 (3) 8 (1) 9 (4) 10 (4) 11 (5) 12 (5) 13 (2)

14 (1) 15 (3) 16 (1) 17 (2) 18 (3) 19 (5)



















PUZZLE TEST
PRACTICE SET 2
Directions (Q.1-7): Study the following information to answer the given questions: P, Q, R, S,
T, V and Ware sitting in a straight line facing north. Each of them lives on a different floor in
the same building which is numbered from one to seven. Q sits fourth to the left of the
person living on the 6
th
floor. Either Q or the person living on the 6th floor sits at the extreme
ends of the line. Only one person sits between Q and W. W lives on the 3rd floor. The person
living on the 1st floor sits third to right of S. S is not an immediate neighbour of W. Only one
person lives between T and the person who lives on the 2nd floor. P and R are immediate
neighbours of each other. P does not live on the 6th floor. One who lives on the 5
th
floor sits
third to right of the one who lives on the 7
th
floor.
Q.1 Who amongst the following lives on the 4
th
floor?
(1) OP (2) Q (3) R (4) S (5) V
Q.2 On which of the following floors does T live?
(1) 1
st
(2) 2
nd
(3) 5
th
(4) 6
th
(5) 7th
Q.3 How many floors are there between the floors on which V and P live?
(1) One (2) Two (3) Three (4) Four (5) None
Directions (Q. 4-5): Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on the given
arrangement and thus form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
Q.4
(1) W (2) T (3) S (4) P (5) Q
Q.5
(1) T-2nd floor (2) R-7th floor (3) V-3rd floor (4) S-5th floor (5) Q-6th floor
Q.6 Which of the following is true with respect to the given arrangement?
(1) The one who lives on the 5th floor is an immediate neighbour of S.
(2) V lives on the 1st floor.
(3) T sits second to the left of the person who lives on the 2nd floor.
(4) R and V are immediate neighbours of each other.
(5) The one who lives on the 4th floor sits at one of the extreme ends of the line.
Q.7 If all the persons are made to live in alphabetical order from the bottom-most floor
to the topmost floor (ie P lives on the 1st floor, Q lives on the 2nd floor and finally W lives on
the 7th floor), who would still live on the same floor as the original arrangement?
(1) R (2) V (3) W (4) T (5) S
Directions (Q.8-12): Study the following information carefully and answer the given
questions.
(i) Five topics, A, B, C, D and E are to be discussed,one topic on each day, from Monday to
Saturday.
(ii) Topic A will be discussed before E and topic B will be discussed before D.
(iii) Topics Band D will not be discussed-on the first day.
(iv) There will be one rest day denoted by F.
(v) There will be a gap of two days between the days on which topics D and B will be
discussed.
(vi) Topic C will be discussed immediately before the ret day. The rest day will not be the
second or the fourth day.
Q.8 Which of the following is the, correct sequence of the discussion on the topics including
the rest day F?
(1) AEBFCD (2) ABECFD. (3) AEBCFD (4) Cannot be determined (5) None of these
Q.9 Which of the following is a correct statement?
(1) Topic A wiII be discussed on Tuesday.
(2) Discussion on topic C will be immediately preceded by discussion on topic B.
(3) Discussion on topic B will take place before that on A.
(4) Thursday is the rest day. (5) None of these
Q.10 On which of the following days will the topic C be discussed?
(1) Tuesday (2) Wednesday (3) Friday (4) Cannot be determined (5) None of these
Q.11 How many days gap will be there between the days on which topics E and B will be
discussed?
(1) Nil (2) One (3) Two (4) Three (5) None of these
Q.12 With reference to A, the discussion on topic E will take place___.
(1) immediately on the next day (2) after a days gap (3) after three days
(4) Cannot be determined (5) None of these
Directions (Q.13-19): Study the following information to answer the given questions.
Eight people, viz A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting in a straight line facing North. Each
of them has passed a the recruitment exam and must join the office in different months, viz
January, February, March, April, May, June, July and August but not necessarily in the same
order.
G sits third to the right of the person who joins in May. The person who joins in August sits
second to the right of G. A and E are immediate neighbours of each other. Neither A nor E
has joining dates in either Mayor August. Neither A nor-E is an immediate neighbour of G.
H sits third to the right of the person whose joining date is in January. Neither A nor E has
joining dates in January. Hs joining date IS not in August.
Only two people sit between E and the person whose joining date is in July. The person
whose joining date is in February sits on the immediate left of D.
Only one person sits between E and B. C joins
before July. E joins after April. G joins after A.
Q.13 In which of the following months does H join the office?
(1) April (2) June (3) July (4) February (5) March
Q.14 Who among the following sits exactly between E and B?
(1) The person whose joining date is in May (2) The person whose joining date is in January
(3) D (4) A (5) The person whose joining date is in August
Q.15 H is related to July in a certain way based on the above arrangement. B is related to
June following the same pattern. ___ is related to May following the same pattern.
(1) F (2) G (3) A (4) D (5) C
Q.16 Which of the following is true regarding D?
(1) Only two people sit to the left of D.
(2) D is sitting second to the right of the person whose joining date is in July.
(3) E and B are immediate neighbours of D.
(4) Ds joining date is in May.
(5) None is true
Q.17 Who among the following has joining date in June?
(1) F (2) E (3) G (4) D (5) C
Q.18 How many people sit between C and the person whose joining date is in April?
(1) None (2) One (3) Two (4) Three (5) Four
Q.19 Who among the following are sitting at extreme ends of the line?
(1) A and the person whose joining date is in August
(2) The person whose joining date is in May and E
(3) C and G
(4) The persons whose joining dates are in March and June
(5) None of these

PUZZLE TEST
PRACTICE SET 2 (ANSWER KEYS)
1 (4) 2 (1) 3 (2) 4 (3) 5 (5) 6 (5) 7 (5) 8 (3) 9 (2) 10 (5) 11 (1) 12 (1) 13 (4)
14 (1) 15 (1) 16 (5) 17 (2) 18 (3) 19 (1)
ELIGIBILITY TEST
Directions (Q.1-10): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given
below: Following are the conditions for selecting Marketing Manager in an organization:
The candidate must
(i) be a graduate in any discipline with at least 55 per cent marks.
(ii) have a postgraduate degree/diploma in Marketing Management with at least 60 per cent
marks.
(iii) have post-qualification work experience of atleast five years in the marketing division of
an organisation.
(iv) have secured at least 45 per cent marks in the selection examination.
(v) have secured at least 40 per cent marks in the selection interview.
In the case of a candidate who satisfies all the conditions except
(a) at (iii) above, but has post-qualification workexperience of at least three years as Deputy
Marketing Manager, the case is to be referred to GM-Marketing.
(b) at (v) above, but has secured at least 60 per cent marks in the selection examination, the
case is to be referred to VP-Marketing.
In each question below, details of one candidate are given. You have to take one of the
following courses of action based on the information provided and the conditions and sub-
conditions given above and mark the number of that course of action as your answer. You
are not to assume anything other than the information provided in each question. All these
cases are given to you as on 01.05.2010.
Mark answer (1) if the candidate is to be selected.
Mark answer (2) if the candidate is not to be selected.
Mark answer (3) if the case is to be referred to GM Marketing.
Mark answer (4) if the case is to be referred to VP Marketing.
Mark answer (5) if the data provided are not adequate to take a decision.

1. Nidhi Agrawal has secured 60 per cent marks in the selection interview and 40 per cent
marks in the selection examination. She has been working in the marketing division of an
organisation for the past eight years after completing her postgraduate degree in Marketing
Management with 65 per cent marks. She has secured 59 per cent marks in BSc.

2. Navin Desai has secured 56 per cent marks in BA. He has been working in the marketing
division of an organisation for the past seven years after completing his postgraduate degree
in Marketing with 62 per cent marks. He has secured 62 per cent marks in the selection
examination and 38 per cent marks in the selection interview.

3. Sabina Handa has been working for the past four years as Deputy Marketing Manager in
an organisation after completing her postgraduate diploma in Marketing Management with
65 per cent marks. She has secured 45 percent marks in both selection examination and
selection interview. She has also secured 58 per cent marks in BCom.

4. Manoj Malhotra has secured 65 per cent marks in BSc and 60 per cent marks in
postgraduate degree in Marketing Management. He has also secured 50 per cent marks in
both selection examination and selection interview. He has been working in the marketing
division of an organisation for the past six years after completing his postgraduation in
Marketing.

5. Varsha Akolkar has secured 59 per cent marks in BA. She has secured 42 per cent marks in
the selection interview and 48 per cent marks in the selection examination. She has been
working in the marketing division of an organisation for the past seven years after
completing her postgraduation in Marketing Management with 57 per cent marks.

6. Utpal Goswami has been working in the marketing division of an organisation for the past
five years after completing his postgraduate diploma in Marketing Management with per
cent marks. He is a first-class Science graduate with 60 per cent marks. He has secured 45
per cent marks in the selection examination and 40 per cent marks in the selection interview.

7. Anindita Ghosh has been working for the past eight years in an organisation after
completing her postgraduate degree in Marketing Management with 70 per cent marks. She
has secured 56 per cent marks in BA. She has also secured 50 per cent marks in the selection
examination and 45 per cent marks in the selection interview.

8. Samir Phukan has been working in the marketing division of an organisation for the past
five years after completing his post graduate diploma in management with 65 per cent
marks. He has secured 60 per cent marks in BCom. He has also secured 50 per cent marks in
both selection examination and selection interview.

9. Nimisha Patil has secured 59 per cent marks in BCom. She has also secured 50 per cent
marks in both selection examination and the selection interview. She has been working as
Deputy Marketing Manager in an organization for the past three, years after completing her
postgraduate degree in Marketing Management with 63 per cent marks.

10. Sadashiv Ghatge has secured 60 per cent marks in BCom. He has been working for the
past five years in the marketing division of an organisation after completing his postgraduate
degree in Marketing Management with 68% marks. He has secured 35 per cent marks in the
selection/interview and 62 per cent marks in the selection examination.

ELIGIBILITY TEST (ANSWER KEYS)

1 (2) 2 (4) 3 (3) 4 (1) 5 (2) 6 (1) 7 (5) 8 (5) 9 (3) 10 (4)













LOGICAL REASONING
PRACTICE SET 1

Direction for questions (1 to 5) A statement is followed by three courses of action numbered
I, II and III. You have to assume everything in the statement to be true. Decide which
course(s) of action logically follow(s) for pursuing from the given options marked (a), (b), (c)
and (d).
Q.1 Statement: In one of the worst road accidents in the state, 37 people were killed and 15
others were injured when private bus ran off a bridge and plunged 40 feet below into the
Jagbudi River.
Course of Action:
I. All the bridges on rivers should be properly fenced so that no bus falls.
II. The agency running the bus should be banned and tested in court.
III. Driver should be given death penalty for negligence in driving.
(a) Only I follow. (b) Only I and II follow. (c) Only I, II and III follow. (d) None follows.
Q.2 Statement: Dont be fooled by outside beauty. The real beauty is on the inside.
Course of Action:
I. One should not pay attention to the facial beauty..
II. One should realise the importance of a beautiful person..
III. One should not focus on being beautiful from outside only but rather should focus on
inner beauty.
(a) Only I follow. (b) Only I and II follow. (c) Only III follow. (d) None follows.
Q.3 Statement: Due to thick fog these days, commuting via trains and flights has become a
problem in Europe.
Course of Action:
I. People should look for alternative while travelling.
II. News channels should be asked to telecast special episode advising people to plan their
travel in near future keeping the weather conditions in mind.
III. Trains and flights should be temporarily suspended in the region.
(a) Only I follow. (b) Only I and II follow. (c) Only II and III follow.(d) None follows.
Q.4 Statement: Tony has launched a new smart phone in competition to Famsungs latest
phone Brand and R-phones latest version 5 capturing a lot of Famsung and R-phones
market.
Course of Action:
I. Famsung and R-phone should reduce their price in comparison to Tony so that the price
conscious consumer end up buying Tony phones only.
II. Famsung and R-phone should launch a new phone each in competition to Tony.
III. Famsung and R-phone should file a suit against Tony for copying their feature.
(a) Only I follow. (b) Only I and II follow. (c) Only II and III follow.(d) None follows.
Q.5 Statement: A case of fraud and misappropriation of funds has come up in ABCD Bank.
Course of Action:
I. The fraud should be investigated properly.
II. The officers who are found guilty should be duly punished.
III. The bank should work out on such a system for appropriation funds that such frauds are
avoided in future.
(a) Only I follow. (b) All follow. (c) Only II and III follow. (d) None follows.
Direction for questions (6 to 10): In each of the following questions, a statement is given
followed by two conclusions.
Mark the answer as
(a) If only conclusion I follows (b) If only conclusion II follows
(c) If either I or II follows; and (d) If neither I nor II follows.

Q.6 Statement: RCB is topping the charts in IPL season 5.
Conclusion:
I. All the good players of this season are bought by RCB.
II. RCB has maximum chances of winning IPL season 5.
(a) a (b) b (c) c (d) d
Q.7 Statement: It is better to light a candle than to curse the darkness.
Conclusion:
I. Cursing should not be encouraged.
II. It is better to find a solution of the problem than to crib about it.
(a) a (b) b (c) c (d) d
Q.8 Statement: Indian television is telecasting various shows which may produce negative
effect on children.
Conclusion:
I. The shows that are being telecasted in Indian television are not likely being regulated and
censored by any authoritative body.
II. Watching television is not in best of interests for children.
(a) a (b) b (c) c (d) d
Q.9 Statement: Only a civilized citizen can make society worth living for everyone
Conclusion:
I. Uncivilized citizen makes living in the society unworthy for everyone.
II. For a society to be worth living for everyone it is important that it has civilized citizens.
(a) a (b) b (c) c (d) d
Q.10 Statement: Petrol prices are on a spurt.
Conclusion:
I. People are unable to afford petrol anymore.
II. Petrol has become more expensive than diamonds.
(a) a (b) b (c) c (d) d
Directions for questions (11 to 15): A statement is followed by two arguments I and II. Decide
which of the argument is a strong argument is and which is a weak argument.
Mark answer as:
(a) If only argument I is strong (b) If only II argument is strong
(c) If both I or II are strong; and (d) If neither I nor II is strong
Q.11 Statement: Can corruption be controlled?
Arguments:
I. Yes, if everyone realises the bad implication of it, together we can work in curbing it.
II. No, it is impossible in our country to get any work done without corruption.
(a) a (b) b (c) c (d) d
Q.12 Statement: Should there be elections in schools/colleges?
Arguments:
I. Yes, it is important that students learn politics right from the basic stage as they are the
future leaders of the country.
II. No, it will distract the students from studies.
(a) a (b) b (c) c (d) d
Q.13 Statement: Should the countries those who discover unexplored no mans lands be
given the right of ownership for those lands?
Arguments:
I. Yes, it will give the respective countries more space to adjust their increasing population.
II. No, international borders cannot be altered without consent by all the countries.
(a) a (b) b (c) c (d) d



Q.14 Statement: Should SR College be given autonomous status?
Arguments:
I. Yes, it will help SR College to have fair and impartial admission procedure.
II. No, it will give away the admission procedure in the hands of selected few people making
it biased and impartial.
(a) a (b) b (c) c (d) d
Q.15 Statement: Should civil protests be banned in India?
Arguments:
I. Yes, such protests create an atmosphere of disharmony in the country.
II. No, India is a democratic country and its citizens have right to express themselves.
(a) a (b) b (c) c (d) d

Directions for questions (16 to 20) A statement is followed by three assumptions marked
I, II, III. Check whether these assumptions are implicit in the statement or not. Possible
combinations of assumptions are given against option (a), (b), (c), (d). Choose the
appropriate option.
Q.16 Statement: XYZ ltd. has announced yearly incentives for their employees on the basis of
their performance.
Assumptions:
I. Employees will work better when motivated by the incentive scheme.
II. Without any motivational incentive scheme employees do not deliver quality performance.
III. Incentives are only method of motivating employees.
(a) None follows. (b) Only I and II follow. (c) Only I follow. (d) All follow.
Q.17 Statement: Drink milk for good health.
Assumptions:
I. Milk is easily available for people to drink it.
II. If you dont drink milk you wont have good health.
III. Everyone wants to be in good health.
(a) None follows. (b) Only I and II follow. (c) Only III follow. (d) All follow.
Q.18 Statement: Our AC cools the most with least power consumption. An advertisement
of an Air Condition manufacturing company.
Assumptions:
I. More people may be attracted to switch to this brand of AC after reading the
advertisement.
II. People generally pay heed to advertisements before making any purchase decision.
III. People generally may prefer an AC with not only cools the most but also saves electricity.
(a) None follows. (b) Only I and II follow. (c) Only I follow. (d) All follow.
Q.19 Statement: The young generation of today will make better leaders of tomorrow.
Assumptions:
I. The leaders of today are not efficient enough.
II. Young generation of today is highly interested in politics.
III. The world needs younger leaders.
(a) None follows. (b) Only I and II follow. (c) Only I follow. (d) All follow.
Q.20 Statement: To attain good health practice yoga regularly. Ram advises Shyam.
Assumptions:
I. It is desirable to attain good health.
II. Shyam listens to Rams advice.
(a) None follows. (b) Only I and II follow. (c) Only I follow. (d) All follow.





LOGICAL REASONING PRACTICE SET - 1
( ANSWERS & EXPLANATIONS)
Answer: 1 (a)
What is necessary is the preventive measures to protect the people travelling on such bridges, steps to
avoid reoccurrence of such events. Hence, only (I) follows.
Answer: 2 (c)
The statement stresses on not paying attention to the outside beauty as the real beauty is the inner
beauty. So, only III follows.
Answer: 3 (c)
Keeping in mind the safety and convenience of passengers, both II and III follow. I do not follow as
it does not solve the problem in hand. Hence, option (c) is the right answer.
Answer: 4 (d)
COA I is not feasible as Tony might also reduce prices of its phone after Famsung and R-phone do
it. II is not a practical decision as a company cannot launch a new product each time a competitive
product comes in the market. III is also not feasible as filing a suit may not stop costumers from
buying Tonys new phone. Hence,option (d) none follows.
Answer: 5 (b)
All the courses of action mentioned above are a right procedure of spotting a reason behind a fraud
and taking corrective measures.
Answer: 6 (d)
According to the statement, we cannot conclude that RCB is winning because it has all the good
players rather it can be a result of other teams not performing well as well. We cannot also conclude
from the given statement that since RCB is topping the charts, it will end up winning the IPL season
5 as topping the charts does not ensure victory in upcoming matches too. Option (d) is the right
answer.
Answer: 7 (b)
The statement above is a proverb which signifies that it is important that we fight the evil rather than
complain about it. Hence, II can be concluded. I cannot be concluded as cursing should be
encouraged or not is not implied in the statement. Option (a) is the right answer.
Answer: 8 (a)
Since, shows are likely to produce a negative effect on children we can conclude a probability of the
shows not being regulated and censored. However, II cannot be concluded as it is too general a
statement. Hence, option (a) is the right answer.
Answer: 9 (b)
According to the statement it can definitely be concluded that for a society to be worth living for
everyone it is important that it has civilized citizens but it cannot be concluded that an uncivilized
citizen would necessarily make living in the society unworthy for everyone. Hence, option (b) is the
right answer.
Answer: 10 (d)
The increase in petrol prices does not conclude that people cannot afford it. Also, any comparison
with diamonds is not mentioned in the statement. Hence, option (d) is the right answer.
Answer: 11 (a)
Argument I is strong as it provides the method by which we can control the pollution. Argument II is
weak as it too general a statement and narrows the scope of the argument to a single country whereas
corruption is a problem with broader scope.
Answer: 12 (a)
Argument I is strong as it presents a logical reason for which there should be elections in
schools/colleges. Argument II is not strong as there are a lot of activities that are conducted in
schools/colleges but they do not necessarily distract students from studies.
Answer: 13 (d)
Argument I is weak as it assumes that any country which will discover an unexplored no mans land
will have an increasing population to adjust. Also, even if it is so a case then it is not strong enough a
reason. Argument II is weak too as all the countries giving their consent is not strong enough a
reason for allowing or not allowing alterations in international borders.
Answer: 14 (a)
Clearly, giving SR College an autonomous status will help them in implementing fair and impartial
admission procedure but it will be too much an assumption to say that giving away admission
procedure in the hands of selected few people would necessarily make it biased and impartial.
Answer: 15 (a)
It is a farfetched assumption that civil protests always create disharmony in the country. Hence,
argument I is weak. Argument II is strong as it directly answers the question raised in the statement.
Answer: 16 (c)
If XYZ Ltd. has announced incentive schemes for their employees it is obvious that they assume that
such scheme would motivate their employees to work better. However, it cannot be assumed that
without any motivational incentive scheme employees wont deliver quality performance. Also, it
cannot be assumed that incentives are ONLY method of motivating employees.
Answer: 17 (c)
Statement advises you to drink milk for good health but it doesnt give you a scope to assume that
milk is easily available. Also, it cant be assumed that if drinking milk bring you good health then
without drinking milk you wont be in good health. But since there is an advise given in the statement
then it can definitely be assumed that author believes that people want to be in good health.
Answer: 18 (d)
Assumption I is valid as there has to be some reason behind any company to come up with an
advertisement. Assumption II is also valid for the same reason. Assumption III is also valid that is
why the advertisement is based on these two points only.
Answer: 19 (a)
Assumption I is invalid as better leader of tomorrow doesnt mean that the leaders of today are not
efficient enough. Assumption II is invalid as nothing is implied about young generations interests.
Assumption III is also invalid as nothing can be stated about the need in the statement.
Answer: 20 (b)
Assumption I is valid as advise is given on how to attain good health which shows the importance of
good health. Assumption II is invalid as Ram advises Shyam does not mean that Shyam listens to
what Ram advises him. Assumption III is valid as it is the base of whole statement.



















LOGICAL REASONING
PRACTICE SET - 2
Directions (Q.1-5): In each question below is given astatement followed by two assumptions
numbered I and II.
An assumption is something supposed or taken for granted. You have to consider the
statement and the following assumptions and decide which of the assumptions is implicit in
the statement.
Give answer (1) if only Assumption I is Implicit
Give answer (2) if only Assumption II is implicit.
Give answer (3) if either Assumption I or Assumption II is implicit.
Give answer (4) if nether Assumption I nor Assumption II is implicit.
Give answer (5) if both Assumptions I and II are implicit.
Q.1 Statement: Banks should always check financial status before lending money to a client.
Assumptions:
I. Checking before lending would give a true picture of the clients financial status.
II. Clients sometimes may not present the correct picture of their ability to repay loan amount to the
bank.
Q.2 Statement: The government has decided to run all commercial vehicles on bio-fuels in
order to save the depleting fossil fuel reserves.
Assumptions:
I. It is possible to switch over from fossil fuels to bio-fuels for vehicles.
II. Sufficient amount of bio-fuel can be produced in the country to run all commercial vehicles.
Q.3 Statement: To save the environment enforce total ban on illegal mining throughout the
country.
Assumptions:
I. Mining which is done legally does not cause any harm to the environment.
II. Mining is one of the factors responsible for environmental degradation.
Q.4 Statement: Give adequate job-related training to the employees before assigning them
full-fledged work.
Assumptions:
I. Training helps in boosting the performance of employees.
II. Employees have no skill sets before training is provided to them.
Q.5 Statement: Take a ferry or a boat instead of a bus to reach the Kravi islands faster.
Assumptions:
I. The islands being in remote location are not easily accessible.
II. Ferries and boats are available to travel to Kravi islands.
Directions (Q. 6-10): In each question below a statement is given followed by two courses of
action numbered I and II.
A course of action is a practicable and feasible step or administrative decision to be taken for
followup, Improvement, or further action in regard to the problem, policy, etc. On the basis
of the information given in the statement, you have to assume everything in the statement to
be true; and decide which of the suggested courses of action logically follow(s) for pursuing.
Give answer (1) if only I follows.
Give answer (2) if only II follows.
Give answer (3) if either I or II follows.
Give answer (4) if neither I nor II follows.
Give answer (5) if both I and II follow.
Q.6 Statement: An increasing number of fanners prefer to avail loans from local
moneylenders instead of the banks owing to complicated paperwork involved in banks.
Courses of action:
I. Local money lenders who-charge interest rates lower than the banks should be punished.
II. Banks should simplify the procedure to avail of loans so as to suit the fanners.
Q.7 Statement: A major river in the city was reduced to a polluted and dirty canal after tonnes
of sewage made way into it over the years.
Courses of action:
I. All those who dumped garbage and sewage into the river should be penalized.
II. The government should modify the sewage system and find an alternate way to dump the
citys waste.
Q.8 Statement: Water table in most parts of the State has gone down to such a level that its
extraction for irrigation purposes is not economical any more.
Courses of action:
I. Extraction of ground water for any purpose in the State should be banned for some time in
order to replenish the water table.
II. The Government should make provisions for alternative methods of irrigation so that the
fanners are not compelled to use ground water.
Q.9 Statement: A university librarian reported increased cases of theft of books from the
library.
Courses of action:
I. Stricter security arrangements should be put in place in order to prevent such incidents.
II. All the students in the university should be made to pay a hefty fine in order to replace the
lost books.
Q.10 Statement: Indigenous tribes living near Amazon forests are cutting down trees to cover
their basic needs, thus severely affecting the ecological balance in the area.
Courses of action:
I. All the tribes living near the Amazon rain forests should be forced to shift to urban areas of the
country.
II. The tribes should be allowed to continue doing so as they cut down trees for their basic
needs and not for commercial purposes.
Directions (Q.11-15) In each question below is given a statement followed by two
assumptions numbered I and II. An assumption is something supposed or taken for granted.
You have to consider the statement and the following assumptions and decide which of the
assumptions is implicit in the statement.
Give answer (1) if only assumption I is implicit.
Give answer (2) if only assumption II is implicit.
Give answer (3) if either assumption I or II is implicit.
Give answer (4) if neither assumption I nor II is implicit.
Give answer (5) if both assumptions I and II are implicit.
Q.11 Statement: Please send an official letter rather than semiofficial on this subject this time.
Assumptions:
I. The format and emphasis of different types of letters is different.
II. We can send different types of letters on the same subject.
Q.12 Statement:Please check the availability of two tickets from Delhi to Lucknow.
Assumptions:
I. The person checking knows the desired mode of travel.
II. The person checking knows the details of the person travelling.
Q.13 Statement: If you want to increase your writing speed,use 0.7 pen.
Assumptions:
I. There are different types of pen available.
II. The person being told understands what is 0.7 pen.
Q.14 Statement: In order to build more space, extra FSI needs to be bought.
Assumptions:
I. The person being told does not know the meaning of FSI.
II. More space will reduce the construction cost.

Q.15 Statement: Let there be a signboard also indicating the directions and instructions.
Assumptions:
I. Signboard can be prepared without using any language.
II. Signboard is the only effective tool to indicate directions.

Directions (Q.16-20) Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements
numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the
statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and
Give answer (1) if the data in statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the
data in statement II alone is not sufficient to answer the question.
Give answer (2) if the data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question, while
the data in statement I alone is not sufficient to answer the question.
Give answer (3) if the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone is sufficient to
answer the question.
Give answer (4) if the data in both the statements I and II together are not sufficient to
answer the question.
Give answer (5) if the data in both the statements I and II together are necessary to answer
the question.

Q.16 On which day was Yasir born? (His date of birth is February 29.)
I. He was born between year 2005 and 2011.
II. He will complete 4 years on February 29, 2012.
Q.17 Out of 64 students, 38 play both chess and cricket. How many students play only chess?
I. Out of 64 students, 22 students dont play any game. 4 students play only cricket.
I. Out of 64 students, 20 are girls and 10 of them dont play any game.
Q.18 What is the total number of students in the school?
I. The ratio of girls to boys is 2 : 3.
II. The number of students has grown by 5% this year as compared to 4% last year from the
number 2000, which it was year before last.
Q.19 Who among the six of them is the tallest if Geetha is taller than Shilpa and Deepa is
taller than Meeta? (Sunita and Sadhana are the other two).
I. Sadhana is taller than Sunita.
II. Sadhana is taller than Shilpa and Meeta as well as Deepa.
Q.20 On which date is Amits birthday in September 2010?
I. Last year his birthday was on the last Thursday of the month in September 2009.
II. This year his birthday will be on the last Friday of the month in September 2010.


LOGICAL REASONING PRACTICE SET 2
(ANSWERS)
1 (1) 2 (1) 3 (2) 4 (1) 5 (2) 6 (2) 7 (2) 8 (2) 9 (1) 10 (4) 11 (5) 12 (1) 13(5)
14 (4) 15 (4) 16 (3) 17 (1) 18 (2) 19 (4) 20 (3)






DATA SUFFICIENCY
PRACTICE SET - 1
Directions (1-5): Each of the following questions below consists of a question and two
statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided
in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and give
answer
(1) if the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in
statement II alone are not sufficient in answer the question.
(2) if the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in
statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
(3) if the data in either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer
the question.
(4) if the data in both the statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the
question.
(5) if the data in both the statements I and II are together necessary to answer the question.

Q.1 Who amongst P, Q, R, S and T is the tallest?
I. P is taller than Q. T is not the tallest.
II. R is taIIer than P. S is not the taIIest.
Q.2 In which direction is point E, with reference to point S?
I. Point 0 is. to the east of point E. Point E is to the south of point F.
II. Point F is to the north-west to point S. Point 0 is to the north of point S.
Q.3 In which month of the year did Rahul go abroad for a vacation?
I. Rahul correctly remembers that he went for a vacation in the first half of the year.
II. Rahuls son correctly remembers that they went for a vacation after 31st March but before 1
st
May.
Q.4 On which day of the same week is Rameshs exam scheduled (Monday being the first
day of the week)?
I. Ramesh correctly remembers that his exam is scheduled on a day after Tuesday, but before
Thursday of the same week.
II. Rameshs father correctly remembers that Rameshs exam is scheduled on the third day of the
week.
Q.5 How many marks has Suman scored in the test? (Maximum marks 20)
I. Suman scored two-digit marks. Her marks were not in decimals.
II. Suman scored more than 9 marks in the test.

Directions (Q.6-10): Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements
numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the
statements are sufficient to answer the question. Give answer
(1) if the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in
statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
(2) If the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in
statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
(3) if the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the
question.
(4) if the data given in both the statements I & II together are not sufficient to answer the
question.
(5) if the data in both the statements I & II together are necessary to answer the question,

Q.6 Among M, P, T, Rand W, each of a different age, who. is the youngest?
I.T is younger than only P and W.
II.M is younger than T and older than R.
Q.7 How is gone written in a code language?
I. you will be gone is written as ka pa ni sa in that code language.
II. he will be there is written as ja da ka ni in that code language.
Q.8 On which day of the week (starting from Monday and ending on Sunday of the same
week) did Sushant visit Chennai.
I. Sushant visited Chennai two days after his brother visited Chennai.
II. Sushant did not visit Chennai either on Wednesday or on Friday.
Q.9 Towards which direction is P with respect to the starting point?
I. P walked 20 metres, took a right turn and walked 30 metres, again took a right turn and
walked 20 metres towards West.
II. P walked 30 metres, took a left turn and walked 20 metres, again took a left turn and walked 30
metres towards East.
Q.10 How is K related to Z?
I. Z and P are the only sisters of D.
II. Ds mother is the wife of Ks father.

Directions (Q.11-15): Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements
numbered I and II given below it You have to decide whether the data given in the
statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read, both the statements and give answer
(1) if the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer me question, while the data in
statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question
(2) if the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in
statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question
(3) if the data either in statement I alone or statement II alone are sufficient to answer the
question
(4) if the data given in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the
Questions
(5) if the data in both statements I and II even together are necessary to answer the questions

Q.11 How is J related to K?
I. Js father P is the brother of N. N is Ks wife.
II. J is the son of P. P is the brother of N. N is Ks wife.
Q.12 On which floor of the building does G stay? (The building has five floors 1, 2, 3, 4, 5.)
I. Only the even-numbered floors/are occupied and G does not stay on the second floor.
II. G does not stay on an odd-numbered floor.
Q.13 How, many days did Raju take to complete his assignment?
I. Mohit correctly remembers that Raju took more than 3 days but less than 9 days to
complete his assignment.
II. Mina correctly remembers that Raju took more than 7 days but less than 11 days to
complete his; assignment.
Q.14 How is the word GATES coded in the code language?
I. BRICK is coded as LDJSC and PIN is coded as OJQ.
II. WATER is coded as SFUBX and DISH is coded as ITJE.
Q.15 Among A, B, C and D, which school has the highest number of students?
I. School A has fewer students than school D.
II. School C has fewer students than school D.
Directions (Q.16-20): Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements
numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the
statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and give answer
(1) if the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in
statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
(2) if the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in
statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
(3) if the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the
Question
(4) if the data even in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the
question.
(5) if the data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.
Q.16 Who amongst A, B, C, D and E is the tallest?
I. A is taller than B but shorter than C. D is not the tallest.
II. Two people are taller than C.
Q.17 Which direction is Ali facing?
I. If Ken, who is currently facing East, turns 90 towards his right, he would face a direction
exactly opposite to the direction which Ali is facing.
II. If Priya who, is currently facing South, turns left, walks 1m and then takes a left turn again, she
would face the same direction as Ali.
Q.18 Did 300 Candidates appear for the written examination for admission into College X?
I. The principal of the college correctly mentions that the number of candidates who had appeared
for the examination was more than 200.
II. According to a statistical report; only 175 candidates could qualify the examination.
Q.19 How far is Point P from Point Q? (All the points lie on a straight line.)
I. Point T is exactly midway between Points P and Q. Point T is 5 km towards west of Point R.
II. Point Q is 2 kill towards the east of Point R.
Q.20 How many brothers does A have?
I. A, who is Bs brother, has two siblings.
II. D is brother of A and is youngest in the family.


DATA SUFFICIENCY
PRACTICE SET 1 (ANSWER KEYS)

1 (5) 2 (5) 3 (2) 4 (3) 5 (4) 6 (5) 7 (4) 8 (4) 9 (3) 10 (4) 11 (2) 12 (1) 13 (5)

14 (3) 15 (4) 16 (5) 17 (3) 18 (4) 19 (5) 20 (4)





















DATA SUFFICIENCY
PRACTICE SET - 2
Directions (Q.1-5): Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements
numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided, in the
statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and Give answer
Give answer (1) if the data in statement l alone are sufficient to answer the question, while
the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
Give answer (2) if the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while
the data in statement I alone are hot sufficient to answer the question.
Give answer (3) If the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient
to answer the question.
Give answer (4) if the data even in both the statements I and II together are not sufficient to
answer the question.
Give answer (5) if the data in both the statements I and II together are necessary to answer
the question.
Q.1 How many students are there between Suresh and Mohan in a row of 50 students?
I. Suresh is twelfth from the left end and Mohan is seventeenth from the right end.
II. Suresh is six places away from Jayesh, who is twentieth from the left end.
Q.2 What does $ mean in a code language?
I. 5 $ # 3 means flowers are really good.
II. 7 # 3 5 means good flowers are available.
Q.3 How is P related to J?
I. M is the brother of P and T is the sister of P.
II. Ps mother is married to Js husband, who has one son and two daughters.
Q.4 How is never written in a code language?
I. never ever go there is written as na ja ni ho in that code language.
II. go there and come back is written as ma ho sa ni da in that code language.
Q.5 Among M, P, K, J, T and W, who is lighter than only the heaviest?
I. P is heavier than M and T.
II. W is heavier than P but lighter than J, who is not the heaviest.
Directions (Q.6-10): Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements
numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the
statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and
Give answer (1) if the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while
the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
(2) if the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in
statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
(3) if the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the
question.
(4) if the data even in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the
question.
(5) if the data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.
Q.6 How is letter written in a code language?
I. please write a letter is written as 7218 and received a Greek letter is written as 7513.
II. write in English please is written as 2084 and a letter in Greek is written as 5714.
Q.7 Among A, B, C, D and E, seated in a straight line, facing North, who sits exactly in the
middle of the line?
I. A sits third to the left of D. B sits on the immediate right of C.
II. B sits second to the right of A. E is not an immediate neighbour of D.
Q.8 A six-storey building consisting of an unoccupied ground floor and five floors on top of
the ground floor numbered 1,2,3,4 and 5 houses five different-persons, viz A, B, C, Dand E.
Who lives on the third floor?
I. C lives on an even-numbered floor. A lives Immediately above D. B lives immediately aboveA.
II. D lives on an odd-numbered floor. A and B are immediate neighbours. Similarly, C and E are
immediate neighbours. C does not live on an odd-numbered floor.
Q.9 Are all the four friends, Abhay, Kavita, Prashant and Yasir, who are sitting around a
circular table, facing the centre?
I. Kavita sits second to the left of Abhay. Abhay faces the centre. Yasir sits on the immediate
right of Abhay as well as Kavita.
II. Prashantsits third to the right of Kavita. Abhay sits on the immediate right of Prashant as well as
Yasir.
Q.10 Is R the grand-daughter of C?
I. The only sister of A is the mother of Rs brother B.
II. C, the mother of A, has only one grandson B.
Directions (Q.11-15): Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements
numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the
statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and give answer
(1) if the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in
statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
(2) if the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in
statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
(3) if the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the
question.
(4) if the data even in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the
question.
(5) if the data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.
Q.11 Which bag amongst P, Q, R, S and T is the heaviest?
I. Bag Q is heavier than Rand S. Bag T is heavier than only bag P.
II. Only three bags are lighter than R. The weight of bag Q is 50 kg, which is 2 kg more than
bag R.
Q.12 Are all the five friends A, B, C, D and E who are seated around a circular table
facing the centre?
I. A sits to the left of B. B faces the centre. D and E are immediate neighbours of each other. C sits
second to the fight of E.
II. D sits second to right MC. C faces the centre. Both E and A are immediate neighbours of D. B
sits second to the right of A.
Q.13 In a college, five different subjects, viz Physics,Chemistry, Botany, Zoology and
Mathematics, are taught on five different days of the same week, starting from Monday and
ending on Friday. Is Chemistry taught on Wednesday?
I. Two subjects are taught between Zoology and Mathematics. Mathematics is taught before Zoology.
Chemistry is taught on the day immediately next to the day when Physics is taught. Botany is not
taught on Friday.
II. Three lectures are scheduled between the lectures of Botany and Zoology. Mathematics is taught
immediately before Physics.
Q.14 Is it 9 oclock now?
I. After half all hour, the minute and the hour hands of the clock will make an angle of exactly 90
with each other.
II. Exactly 15 minutes ago, the hour and the minute hands of the clock coincided with each
other.
Q.15 Is F granddaughter of B?
I. L B is the father of M. M is the sister of T. T is the mother of F.
II. S is the son of F. V is the daughter of F. R isthe brother of T.


DATA SUFFICIENCY
PRACTICE SET 2 (ANSWER KEYS)


1 (1) 2 (5) 3 (5) 4 (4) 5 (5) 6 (4) 7 (5) 8 (4) 9 (3) 10 (5) 11 (3) 12 (2) 13 (3)

14 (3) 15 (4)

Minat Terkait