QP HY 09-10 - Class - 10

GARDEN HIGH SCHOOL
CLASS X
Half-Yearly Examination, 2009 10
Bengali
Time: 3 hours Full Marks: 80
Answers must be written in the script/s provided. You will not be allowed to write for the first
15 minutes. This time must be spent in reading the Question Paper.
The time given at the head of this Paper is the time allowed for writing answers.
This Paper is divided into two sections.
Attempt all the questions of Section A and any four of Section B, answering at least one
question on each of the two books you have read.
Maximum marks for a question or parts of a question are given in brackets [ ].
!y (SECTION A)
. |-||: || +|-| =+| |- |-||-+ ~| - =+| + -| ~
| [.]
(+) |+ |+|
() =~ - ++|:|
(~) -| || -| |~ +| - | || - :|| | - , | | |
( 2 )
() | |+ | ` = -| - =+| ||+ ~ -| +|
(.) ||+ |-+ |-|. +`
= . | | | :|| : |.||:-| || +|
~ |-||-+ .~| - |- |: +|-| =+| ||o | [-]
(+) ++|:| =+| -| | |-- |||-- +|-| +|| =||- :|| ||+
=+| ||o |
() =+| | |-|+ |:| |+-| + = | ||+ --|- |-|
+ =+| =-.|=.` |++:|+ ||o |
-| -| -|| + , | |-= -|| - | -| [.]
-- |: |:- =+| |.|+ | :|| =|- ++| | + s
| :|| ||- || + + =+| -- ~ | +|| ||||
: | -- - :- |-|: |+ -- -|| = -- -| -+
- o+|| ||||- ||- ||: -|-|| |+| |:-|| | +|| |||-
|| |:|+ :|| +|-| -:- || |=: ||||-, + |-+
:|- |=|| ||||
||- || || || || =+| | | || -~|| | |-
= | ++:| |-||=: |- -|:+ -- || -| |: | |
=-|-| ||: =|:| ~|: | -| :. |-` -|
+|||- = | -- .~|- ~|:, --|-|~ +|:| |o:, --| |-|| -|:
-|-: --| ||+ : : ...
=||:-|-| -|~ ||- =+| -| || |=-||| |- :||
-||: | |-|-+ -| +|+|:| =+| ~| + =+ || ||: -|
|: -| . -|- |: | : :|| + ~|-|:|| =+|
-+ | ||- | |=| | =| - | |+ | -| || +| +||
+| +|: |:| :|| ||- ||| =||-:- -| +| ||- , ||- ++|,
-|| ||- ~+, +| ||- | | |: + | :, | |- |+
|=- | -| || :| ||- = -| - | = -| || =- =+|
|| : || + || | - || || |:| | - +|
||- |+ | -| = -| ||- +|- +|= =-| |- ||-|
(#,! |-| o|+)
(+) |-| o|+ |:| -| +| :| |:| |:-|| |: |- -|~ +| |+|:
|~ |-| +|- -| +- [. +~ =]
() ||` |- +| | | -|:.|-` ~|-| + -| +|-
[~ +. =]
(~) |-|-+ -|` +|| : -| +| : [. + =-]
- (+) |--- -|| |+ |:- +| [~]
() || | =+| |~| |-| + (+|)
(|) || | -| |: |-|- (=| |+)
() =+ +| +|- +| [
=.]
() | |- |-| -| + +|= +
(|) - --
(~) |~+||| | + =+| |+ |+ -| +| [.]
|- ||.
() -| + |+| || | [.]
:| +~| | :| |-
(.) |: -|| | [.]
|++|- | ||- |, || ||- | - =| ||: |+
: ||~-
() +|-` -| -| + |~ + -| |+ |+ -| +| [.]
() |||: -~ |+ |--- +| [
=.]
() , -
(|) , -
!y (SECTION B)
: =+| + :|-| :| +|+|| |- -- +|| =|-`
(+) : - ` : +|+ |+|-| [~]
() =|-` | +|-|- [~]
(~) + :|-| :| +|+|| |-`| +|, :| |+ | []
() : |+| : ~++ :` -| | +- +- []
( 3 )
( 4 )
-| |-. ~|=| |+ || -: -~|- |+ - :| |+ |
+|`` `
(+) -| + [~]
() +| +|- +| |:|- + -| : +|| |- [~]
(~) |~ | +|-| -: |.; | +: |- []
() ||=- +| ||: | []
- |+z |= - -| : =+ -: || :| -:`
(+) : - + =+| -|- [.]
() +|- -| : +| =|- | = +- []
(~) +|- :| =+| - | []
() ~ -| |:|- +|- |||: |- :|: |:|| |- []
- + | +||: +:=| +
|| |`
(+) : |-|: +|- +| | [~]
() +|| +- - + []
(~) = +|:| +| =|- ~-` + +| - [-]
() +| | +|- |= +|:| - = +|:|| | [.]
: || || ||-+| ||`
(+) : +|:| + +|| || +|- | |-| [~]
() | || +|| || || =|~|- + ~ +- [. +. =~]
(~) :| +|- -: + |. +| + [~ +. =]
() :| |. |: | .|-|: :| | +| []
. -||: |-:| ~||
|- -- -| +||
| + =- -||, =- - ||. -|-|`
(+) : +|:|- +|- -|| +| | [.]
() |-:|` ~||` + :|| +|-| -|+||` =-|- [. +~ =]
(~) = -||+ +| - ||. -|-|` +- - []
() +|:|| :| - +| +|- +|- +||||:+ -| +- +- []
GARDEN HIGH SCHOOL
CLASS X
Ha
BioIogy
Answers must be written in the script/s provided. You will not be allowed to write for the
first 15 minutes. This time must be spent in reading the Question Paper.
Attempt all the questions of Section A and any four of Section B.
SECTION A (40 marks)
Answer all the questions.
Question No 1
(a) Name the following: [5]
(i) The cytoplasmic organelle that helps in the manufacture of starch
(ii) The tissue that connects the two cerebral hemispheres of the brain
(iii) A combined vaccine given to babies which helps build immunity against three
common diseases
(iv) The organization that provides help and relief to victims of flood, earthquakes,
and other natural disasters
(v) The longest phase in a normal cell cycle
(b) Give the specific function of each of the following structures: [5]
(i) Genes (iii) Hypothalamus (v) Organ of corti
(ii) Guard cells (iv) Antigens
(c) Give the exact location of each of the following: [5]
(i) Tympanic membrane (iii) Pons (v) Lenticels
(ii) Ribosomes (iv) Aqueous humour
(d) Draw a neat and labelled diagram of a neuron. [5]
(e) Explain the following terms: [5]
(i) Binocular vision (iii) Neurotransmitter (v) Plasmolysis
(ii) Disinfectant (iv) Suicidal bags
( 2 )
(f) State which of the following statements are true and which false. f a statement is
false, rewrite it correctly by changing only the first or last word. [5]
(i) Hypermetropia can be corrected by using a concave lens.
(ii) Tears shed by the human eye contain an antibacterial agent lysozyme.
(iii) Thirty-one pairs of cranial nerves arise from the brain.
(iv) Photolysis of water takes place in the cytoplasm.
(v) ATP is the energy currency of the cell.
(g) Pick the odd one out and justify your choice: [5]
(i) cell membrane, fat droplets, starch, glycogen
(ii) photosynthesis, photolysis, glycolysis, carbon dioxide fixation
(iii) cholera, ADS, dysentery, typhoid
(iv) hydathodes, cuticle, stomata, lenticels
(v) osmotic pressure, turgor pressure, wall pressure, capillary force
(h) Given below is the diagram of an apparatus used to study a particular process in
plants. Study the diagram carefully and then answer the questions which follow.
(i) Name the apparatus. [1]
(ii) Name the process under study. [1]
(iii) What is the function of the part marked 'reservoir'? [1]
(iv) What is the role of the air bubble in the experiment? [1]
(v) Mention one limitation of this apparatus. [1]
( 3 )
SECTION B (40 marks)
Answer any four questions.
Question No 2
(a) Draw a neat and labelled diagram of the different parts of the nucleus of a cell.
[2
(b) Given below is a diagram of an experiment in which the phloem tissue of a potted
plant was removed (ringed) and the xylem tissue left intact. Study the diagram and
answer the questions which follow.
(i) What do you expect to happen to the leaves? [1]
(ii) After a few days, why is a swelling observed above the ringed area? [1]
(iii) Removal of the phloem tissue would ultimately result in the death of the lower
part of the plant. Explain why. [2]
(iv) What would you have observed if the xylem tissue and not the phloem was
removed? [1]
(v) What is the aim of the experiment? [1]
Question No 3
(a) Draw a neat, labelled diagram of a simple reflex arc. Show, with the help of arrows,
the path of an impulse from its entry into to its exit from the spinal cord. [4
(b) Differentiate between: [5]
(i) Karyokinesis and Cytokinesis
(ii) Occipital lobe and Temporal lobe
(iii) Guttation and Bleeding
(iv) Light reaction and Dark reaction
(v) Active immunity and Passive immunity
( 4 )
Question No 4
(a) A colourblind woman marries a normal man. Trace the genotype and phenotype of
the sons and daughters of the F1 generation. [4]
(b) Explain the following terms: [4]
(i) Dihybrid ratio (iii) Active transport
(ii) Crossing over (iv) Accommodation
(c) Mention any two functions of the World Health Organization. [2]
Question No 5
(a) Given below is a diagram of an experimental set-up used to study the process of
transpiration in plants. Study the diagram carefully and answer the following questions:
(i) State whether the l eaf used i n the
experiment is a monocot or dicot. Give
reasons for your answer. [2]
(ii) Why are glass slides placed over the cobalt
chloride paper on both the surfaces of the
leaf? [1]
(iii) After half an hour, what change do you
expect to see? [1]
(iv) What will be your conclusion if any change
does take place? [1]
(b) Fill in the blanks (numbered 110) with appropriate words/terms. Do not rewrite the
sentences. Write the numbers of the blanks in the correct serial order, and against
each number write the word/term appropriate to it. [5]
The two eyes are located in deep (1) in the front of the skull. The
(2) is a thin membrane covering the entire front of the eye and extends to
the inner eyelids. The wall of the eyeball is composed of three concentric layers, the
outer (3) , the middle (4) , and the inner (5) . The
(6) is an extension of the middle layer and gives the eye its colour. The
innermost layer is sensitive to (7) and contains sensory (8) ,
called (9) and (10) .
Question No 6
(a) The apparatus shown below was set up to study a physiological process in green
plants. Study the set-up carefully and answer the questions that follow.
(i) Define the process under study. [1]
(ii) Write a balanced chemical equation for the above process. [1]
(iii) Name the gas that accumulates in the test tube. What test will you perform to
ascertain its identity? [1]
(iv) f the set-up is kept in a dark room for 23 hours, what do you expect to
happen? [2]
(v) Give any one precaution that needs to be taken while setting up the experiment.
[1]
(b) Give the technical/biological terms for the following: [4]
(i) The structure which initiates division of cells in animals.
(ii) The type of cell division which leads to vegetative growth in plants.
(iii) The condition when both the alleles are identical.
(iv) The fluid in the CNS.
Question No 7
(a) Draw a neat diagram showing the structure of the inner ear and label any 6 parts.
[2
(b) Answer in brief:
(i) Give any two characteristics of a pea plant which made it a suitable material
for Mendel's experiments. [2]
(ii) Mention any two ways in which photosynthesis and respiration in plants are
opposite to each other. [2]
(iii) Name the smallest bones of the human body. [1]
( 5 )
Attempt all the questions of Section I and any four of Section II.
SECTION I (40 marks)
Question No 1
(a) Choose the correct option from those given. Write only the letter - A, B, C, or D - of
the correct option. [5]
(i) An aqueous solution of ammonium chloride contains
(A) only molecules.
(B) only ions.
(C) ions as well as molecules.
(D) only atoms.
(ii) Ferric chloride is stored in airtight bottles because it is
(A) an efflorescent substance.
(B) a highly deliquescent substance.
(C) a hygroscopic substance.
(D) a dehydrating substance.
(iii) Which of the following contains the maximum number of H-atoms?
(A) 9 gm of water.
(B) 8.5 gm of ammonia.
(C) 112 ml of steam at STP.
(D) 1 mole of hydrogen sulphide.
GARDEN HIGH SCHOOL
CLASS X
Half-Yearly Examination, 200910
Chemistry
( 2 )
(iv) The optimum conditions for the manufacture of ammonia gas by Haber's
process are
(A) low temperature and low pressure.
(B) low temperature and high pressure.
(C) moderate temperature and high pressure.
(D) moderate temperature and low pressure.
(v) When sulphur dioxide is passed over potassium permanganate solution, the
solution turns
(A) colourless.
(B) green.
(C) pink.
(D) red.
(b) Give a balanced chemical equation for the reaction that takes place and the colour of
the precipitate obtained when [10]
(i) ammonium hydroxide is added to lead () nitrate solution.
(ii) hydrogen sulphide is passed over lead () acetate solution.
(iii) sodium hydroxide solution is added to aluminium sulphate solution.
(iv) barium chloride solution is added to sodium carbonate solution.
(v) dilute hydrochloric acid is added to silver nitrate solution.
(c) The combustion of ethane at 25
0
C can be represented as follows: [5]
O(g) 6H (g) 4CO (g) 7O (g) H 2C
2 2 2 6 2
+ +
Assume that X molecules of ethane undergo combustion.
(i) Then how many molecules of oxygen are involved in the process?
(ii) Then how many molecules of carbon dioxide are formed?
(iii) f the volume of carbon dioxide gas actually formed is 5.6 dm
3
at STP, calculate
the actual number of molecules in X. (Avogadro's no = 6.023 10
23
)
(iv) Calculate the percentage of carbon in ethane.
(v) What is the vapour density of ethane? (H = 1, C = 12)
(d) Explain why: [5]
(i) a freshly prepared ferrous sulphate solution is used for the Ring Test.
(ii) electrolysis is a redox reaction.
(iii) the bleaching action of sulphur dioxide is temporary.
(iv) aqua regia is used as a solvent for noble metals.
(v) hydrogen chloride in carbon tetrachloride does not conduct electricity.
( 3 )
(e) Give the chemical equations for the following preparations: [5]
(i) a neutral oxide using concentrated sulphuric acid
(ii) a coloured acidic gas using concentrated nitric acid
(iii) a weak dibasic acidic gas using dilute sulphuric acid
(iv) an acidic gas using concentrated sulphuric acid
(v) a basic gas by the hydrolysis of a metallic nitride
(f) Give the reactions at the anode involved in the following: [5]
(i) electrorefining of copper
(ii) electrolytic extraction of aluminium
(iii) electrolysis of copper () sulphate solution using Pt-electrodes
(iv) electrolysis of molten caustic soda
(v) electrolysis of brine
(g) Give one chemical test to distinguish between: [5]
(i) a solution containing Pb
2+
-ions and a solution containing Zn
2+
-ions
(ii) ferrous sulphate and ferric sulphate
(iii) dilute hydrochloric acid and dilute nitric acid
(iv) Na
2
CO
3
and Na
2
SO
3
(v) Na
2
SO
3
and Na
2
SO
4
SECTION II (40 marks)
Question No 2
(a) (i) A compound has the following percentage composition by mass:
carbon = 26.7%, oxygen = 71.1%, hydrogen = 2.2%
Determine the empirical formula of the compound. f the vapour density of
the compound is 45, determine the molecular formula of the compound.
[C = 12, O = 16, H = 1] [4]
(ii) Calcium hydroxide reacts with ammonium chloride to give ammonia in
accordance with the following equation:
O 2H 2NH CaCl Cl 2NH Ca(OH)
2 3 2 4 2
+ + +
f 5.35 gms of ammonium chloride is used, calculate
(A) the weight of the calcium chloride formed.
(B) the volume of ammonia liberated at STP.
[H = 1, N = 14, O = 16, Cl = 35.5, Ca = 40] [3]
( 4 )
(b) What will you observe when: [3]
(i) an excess of ammonium hydroxide is passed over a zinc sulphate solution.
(ii) sulphur dioxide is passed over a potassium permanganate solution.
(iii) concentrated sulphuric acid is added gently to a mixture of a freshly prepared
ferrous sulphate solution and sodium nitrate solution.
Question No 3
(a) Given below is a list of some methods used in the preparation of salts: [5]
A : metal + acid
B : direct combination
C : carbonate + acid
D : titration
E : precipitation (double decomposition)
Which of the above methods can be used to prepare each of the following salts:
(i) a soluble sulphate
(ii) a soluble salt of a weak alkali
(iii) a soluble nitrate
(iv) a deliquescent salt
(v) an insoluble carbonate
(b) Explain why: [2]
(i) silver nitrate is kept in a dark bottle.
(ii) in electroplating, a weak current for a long period is preferred to a strong current
for a short period.
(c) Complete and balance the following equations: [3]
(i) +
3 2
NH CaOCl
(ii) + HCl O S Na
3 2 2

(iii) +
3
HNO S
Question No 4
(a) (i) Give the balanced chemical equation involed and the conditions required for
the preparation of ammonia by Haber's process.
(ii) Briefly discuss the effect of temperature and pressure on the optimum yield of
ammonia. [3 + 2 = 5]
( 5 )
(b) Give balanced chemical equations to show that: [3]
(i) ammonia contains nitrogen.
(ii) nitric acid contains hydrogen.
(iii) sulphuric acid contains oxygen.
(c) Define: (i) ionization potential (ii) molar volume [2]
Question No 5
(a) The following questions relate to the laboratory preparation of sulphur dioxide gas: [3]
(i) Give a balanced chemical equation for the reaction involved.
(ii) How is the gas obtained, purified?
(iii) How is it collected?
(b) 'Sulphur dioxide can act both as an oxidant as well as a reductant.'
Give two balanced chemical equations to justify the above statement. [2]
(c) (i) D is a sodium salt. When a solution of D is added to barium nitrate, a white
precipitate E is formed. E is soluble in dilute nitric acid, and reacts with nitric
acid to produce a gas F that turns lime water milky. dentify D, E, and F. [2]
(ii) When aqueous sodium hydroxide is added to an aqueous solution of P, a white
precipitate Q is obtained. Q is dissolved in an excess of sodium hydroxide
solution to form a colourless solution R, but Q is insoluble in excess ammonium
hydroxide. f P is a nitrate salt of a bivalent metal, then identify P, Q, and R. [3]
Question No 6
(a) (i) A gas occupies 360 cm
3
at 87
o
C and 380 mm of mercury. f the mass of the
gas is 0.546 gm, find its relative molecular mass. [4]
(ii) A gas cylinder contains 2.8 10
24
molecules of nitrogen gas. f Avogadro's
number is 6 10
23
and the atomic mass of nitrogen is 14, calculate: [3]
(A) the mass of nitrogen in gm in the cylinder.
(B) the volume of nitrogen at STP in dm
3
in the cylinder.
(b) How do you distinguish between [3]
(i) a copper sulphate solution and a zinc sulphate solution by using sodium
hydroxide solution?
(ii) a lead nitrate solution and a zinc nitrate solution by using dilute hydrochloric
acid?
(iii) a zinc sulphate solution and an aluminium sulphate solution by using ammonium
hydroxide?
Question No 7
(a) A, B, C, D, E, and F are six elements, the atomic numbers of which are z2, z+1, z,
z1, z3, z+2 respectively. C has a stable octet configuration. Answer the following
questions: [5]
(i) Which element has the lowest ionization potential?
(ii) Which element has the highest electron affinity?
(iii) State the nature and solubility of the compound formed by B and D.
(iv) Give the reaction at the cathode in the electrolysis of the molten hydroxide of F.
(v) Compare the atomic radii of B and F.
(b) Draw the electron-dot diagrams of [3]
(i)
+
4
NH (ii)
+
O H
3
(iii)
4
CCl
(c) Give an example of: [2]
(i) a nitrate which on decomposition produces no residue.
(ii) a nitrate which on decomposition produces a yellow residue.
( 6 )
GARDEN HIGH SCHOOL
CLASS X
Ha
CommerciaI AppIications
Question No 1
Differentiate between:
(a) Commodity Market and Money Market [2]
(b) Skimming Pricing and Penetration Pricing [2]
(c) Advertising and Sales Promotion [2]
(d) Sale by Inspection and Sale by Description [2]
(e) Packing and Packaging [2]
Question No 2
(a) Define marketing. [2]
(b) What is meant by product planning? [2]
(c) State four important features of a product's life cycle. [2]
(d) Mention any two advantages of direct selling. [2]
(e) State two ways in which advertising benefits consumers. [2]
Question No 3
(a) State four essential qualities of a good brand. [2]
(b) What is meant by salesmanship? [2]
(c) Give two functions of an industrial bank. [2]
(d) What is a recurring deposit account? [2]
(e) Mention any four objectives of credit control by the Central Bank. [2]
( 2 )
Question No 4
Assess the validity of the following statements by giving reasons in favour or against:
(a) Pricing is fundamental to all marketing efforts. [2]
(b) Advertising is a social waste. [2]
(c) An appropriate marketing mix is necessary to enable an enterprise to meet its
goals. [2]
(d) Branding is a myth, not a reality. [2]
(e) The Central Bank acts as a lender of last resort. [2]
Question No 5
(a) Discuss the advantages of marketing research. [5]
(b) What do you understand by the selling process? Mention the steps involved. [1
(c) What is direct selling? Explain any two methods of direct selling. [1
Question No 6
(a) Explain the objectives of modern marketing. [5]
(b) State any five features of a service. [5]
(c) What are the significant features of the maturity stage of a product's life cycle? Mention
the strategies which can be adopted to lengthen this stage. [2
Question No 7
(a) Discuss five important factors that should be taken into consideration while fixing the
price of a product. [5]
(b) State the essential qualities of a good advertisement. [5]
(c) Write short notes on the following:
(i) Broker [2]
(ii) Del-credere agent [2]
Question No 8
(a) What are the qualities that you would look for in a person before appointing him/her
as a salesperson? Explain. [5]
(b) Describe the different methods of granting loans and advances by the commercial
banks. [5]
(c) Explain the quantitative methods of credit control adopted by the Central Bank of a
country. [5]
Question No 9
(a) State any five functions of commercial banks as agents. [5]
(b) What is meant by mark-up pricing? What are the merits and demerits of this method
of pricing? [1
(c) Describe any five techniques of sales promotion meant for customers. [5]
Question No 10
Case Study:
Dabur ndia Ltd. took the following steps at the beginning of this century to widen its consumer
base. t expanded to cover international markets, and within ndia, it focused on regions
like south ndia. t repositioned itself as a FMCG (Fast Moving Consumer Goods) company,
offering a wide range of herbal products, thereby moving away form its earlier image of a
manufacturer of ayurvedic medicines. The company began offering new products in
attractive packaging. t also adopted a new advertising technique, featuring Bollywood
stars and sportspersons. t discarded the umbrella branding strategy and went in for
individual branding. t even re-designed its old logo.
n the context of the above, answer the following questions:
(a) Explain:
(i) Umbrella Branding [2]
(ii) ndividual Branding [2]
(b) dentify and explain the elements of marketing mix which have been developed by
Dabur to boost the sales and profit of the company. [5]
(c) Which stage of the product life cycle is Dabur currently in? Justify your answer. [5]
( 3 )
GARDEN HIGH SCHOOL
CLASS X
Ha
CommerciaI Studies
Attempt Q No 1 of Section A and any four of Section B.
Question No 1 [2 20 = 40]
(a) Name the first four steps involved in a stakeholder analysis.
(b) State the two main objectives of the Companies Act, 1956.
(c) What is fair trade?
(d) Mention the four methods of protecting the interests of consumers.
(e) Distinguish between the traditional concept and the modern concept of marketing.
(f) Mention two important functions of warehouses.
(g) State two disadvantages of the collective opinion method of assessing demand.
(h) Point out two differences between advertising and publicity.
(i) Name four forms of press advertising.
(j) State two physical qualities of a successful salesman.
(k) What is the Double Entry System?
(l) Mention, in brief, two limitations of accounting principles.
(m) Define recruitment.
(n) State two drawbacks of interviews.
(o) Give two reasons why training is important.
(p) Name four kinds of industrial disputes.
(q) State two ways in which industrial relations can be improved.
(r) Define restrictive trade practice.
(s) What do you mean by the Right to Safety?
(t) Define grading.
( 2 )
Question No 2
Who are stakeholders? Cite the various differences between stakeholders and
customers. [2
Question No 3
Describe the salient features of the Consumers Protection Act, 1986. [10]
Question No 4
What is meant by advertising media? Mention the different factors that you should take
into consideration in choosing an appropriate advertising medium. [2
Question No 5
(a) Mention five different techniques of brand promotion. [5]
(b) Write a short note on the Accounting Cycle. [5]
Question No 6
Describe, with examples, the problems faced by trade unions in ndia. [10]
Question No 7
(a) Mention five differences between recruitment and selection. [5]
(b) What are the merits of appraisal by results? [5]
GARDEN HIGH SCHOOL
CLASS X
Ha
Computer AppIications (Theory)
Attempt all the questions of Section A, and any four of Section B.
Question No 1
(a) What is the use of the keyword this? [2]
(b) Define the term encapsulation. [2]
(c) State the difference between constructor and method. [2]
(d) Give the Java expression for the following: [2]
( )
y x
x 5
n

+
+
(e) Write the results of the following expressions: [4]
String S = "GENERATON NEXT!;
System.out.println(S.indexOf('T'));
System.out.println(S.endswith("NEXT));
System.out.println(S.concat(" 3050));
System.out.println(S.replace('E','e'));
Question No 2
(a) What is the significance of arrays? Determine the total bytes required to store
A[12], a char array. [2]
(b) What is a Wrapper class? State its applications. [2]
(c) Differentiate between System.in and System.out. [2]
(d) What is meant by Exceptions in Java? [2]
( 2 )
Question No 3
(a) What do you mean by pure and impure functions? [2]
(b) Write the function prototype for the function "count that takes a String object (str) as
its argument and returns a value of Boolean data type. [2]
(c) Give the output of the following code fragment: [3]
when (i) code = 'B' (ii) code = 'G' (iii) code = 'A'
switch (code)
{
case 'A' : System.out.println("Grade One);
break;
case 'B':
case 'C': System.out.println("Grade Two);
case 'D':
case 'E': System.out.println("Grade Three);
break;
case 'F': System.out.println("Grade Four);
break;
default: System.out.println("nvalid Entry);
}
(d) Convert the following segment into an equivalent 'do' loop: [3]
int i, j ;
for(i = 5, j = 15; j >= 5; j = j 2)
i
Question No 4
(a) Write the outputs of the following code snippets: [2]
(i) int x[ ] = { 5, 4, 3, 2, 1 };
for(int i = 2 ; i <= 4 ; i
{
x[ i ]
if (x[i] % 2 ! = 0)
System.out.println(x[ i ]);
}
( 3 )
(ii) int a = 5, b = 2; [2]
a = ++a b++ + ++b;
b+ = a a + ++b;
System.out.print(a+" +b);
(iii) byte x = 36, y = 25, z = x<<2; [2]
System.out.println((x&y));
System.out.println(z);
(b) Differentiate between: [2
(i) String object and StringBuffer object
(ii) break statement and continue statement
Answers to this Section should consist of programs in either BIue J environment or any
program environment with Java as the base.
Use variable description/mnemonic codes, and each program should be written in a way
that makes the logic of the program clear.
Flow charts and algorithms are not required.
Question No 5
Write a program to print the following pattern: [15]
nput = NDA
Output = N D A A D N
N D D N
N D D N
N N

N N
N D D N
N D D N
N D A A D N
Question No 6
Write a menu-driven program to perform the following functions as per the user's choice:
[15]
(a) Convert all uppercase characters to lowercase ones and vice versa.
(b) Count the number of vowels in the string.
Question No 7
Define a class PrimeSeries containing the method SumSeries( ) to compute the result of
the series: [15]
terms .....n
13!
P

11!
P

7!
P

5!
P

3!
P

2!
P
1 Sum
13 11 7 5 3 2
+ - + - + - + =
Question No 8
A shop has announced the following discounts: [15]
Value of Purchase (Rs) Discount on Laptop Discount on Desktop PC
0 25000 0.0% 5.0%
25001 57000 5.0% 7.5%
57001 100000 7.5% 10.0%
More than 100000 10.0% 15.0%
Write a program, based on the above criteria, to input: (i) the name and address of a
customer, (ii) the value and type of purchase (L for Laptop and D for Desktop). Compute
and print the net amount to be paid by the customer along with his/her name and address.
(Net amount = amount of purchase discount)
Question No 9
Write a menu-driven program to accept a number from the user and perform the following
functions as per the user's choice: [15]
(a) Check for a palindrome number (the digits read from left to right will be the same
when read from right to left).
(b) Check for a perfect number [ sum of the factors (except the number itself) is equal to
the number, eg. 6 = 1
Question No 10
Define a class which initializes an array of 10 integers and performs a binary search to
look for an integer inputted by the user. [15]
( 4 )
GARDEN HIGH SCHOOL
CLASS X
Ha
Economic AppIications
Question No 1
(a) A farmer grows both rice and wheat. How will an increase in the price of rice affect
his cultivation of wheat? [2]
(b) dentify the market forms of the following: [2]
(i) The Government of ndia is the sole buyer of fighter aircraft.
(ii) The goods sold are homogeneous.
(iii) The market in ndia for motor cars
(iv) The market in ndia for toilet soaps
(c) What is the impact of reduction of the cash reserve ratio on loanable funds? [2]
(d) Distinguish between joint demand and composite demand. [2]
(e) State any two ways of raising the productivity of land. [2]
Question No 2
(a) State, giving reasons, in which form of market is the seller a price-maker. [2]
(b) Distinguish between fixed capital and circulating capital. [2]
(c) State two differences between the private sector and the public sector. [2]
(d) State any two exceptions to the Law of Demand. [2]
(e) State any two objectives of the wage policy for workers in ndia. [2]
( 2 )
Question No 3
(a) The price of a commodity falls from Rs. 15 to Rs. 10. As a result, demand rises from
100 units to 150 units. Find the price elasticity by the expenditure method. [2]
(b) What do we mean by product differentiation? [2]
(c) Distinguish between current and fixed deposits. [2]
(d) What do we mean by efficiency of labour? State any two reasons for the low efficiency
of labour in ndia. [2]
(e) State any two features of money. [2]
Question No 4
(a) Distinguish between land and labour as factors of production. [2]
(b) Why does elasticity of demand differ for different commodities? [2]
(c) Distinguish between demand pull inflation and cost push inflation. [2]
(d) How many industries are reserved for the public sector at present? Name them. [2]
(e) There are three firms A, B, and C in the market. The supply schedule for the market
and A and B are given below. Prepare the supply schedule for C. [2]
Price Firm A Firm B Firm C Market Supply
Rs 10 0 25 35
Rs 20 10 30 60
Rs 30 20 35 85
Rs 40 30 40 110
Question No 5
(a) Explain any five factors that lead to a monopoly. State any three differences between
a perfectly competitive market and a monopoly. [8]
(b) Who is an entrepreneur? Discuss the functions of an entrepreneur. [7]
Question No 6
(a) Explain the different factors on which the elasticity of demand depends. [8]
(b) Define money. Explain the primary and secondary functions of money. [7]
( 3 )
Question No 7
(a) What do we mean by privatization? Give three arguments in favour of and three
against privatization of industries in ndia. [8]
(b) What are the factors affecting the size of the market for a product? [7]
Question No 8
(a) Explain the three stages in the process of capital formation. Suggest any five ways
to increase the rate of capital formation in ndia. [8]
(b) Read the extract given below and answer the questions that follow: [7]
The Times of India, New Delhi, February 21, 2004:
InfIation rises to 5.9% Beating the expectations of the Reserve Bank and the
Government, inflation rose by 0.11% to 5.91% for the week ending February 7, mainly
due to costlier food products, textiles, and fuel used as inputs for manufacturing. The
point to point wholesale price index (WP) inflation rose from 5.8% in the previous
week, notwithstanding the sharp fall in the prices of vegetables, and it was 5.35% in
the previous year.
(i) What is meant by inflation?
(ii) Give any three reasons for the rise in inflation in the economy at any point of
time.
(iii) How can mild inflation have a good effect on the economy of a country?
Question No 9
(a) State the Law of Supply. Explain some exceptions to this law. [8]
(b) What do we mean by fiscal policy? Distinguish between direct taxes and indirect
taxes. [7]
Question No 10
(a) State the Law of Demand. Why does a demand curve slope downwards? [8]
(b) Discuss the role played by the public sector in ndia. What are the three types of
public sector enterprises? [7]
GARDEN HIGH SCHOOL
CLASS X
Ha
Economics
Question No 1
(a) Explain: 'The nature of a commodity determines its price elasticity of demand.' [2]
(b) Explain: 'All capital is wealth, but all wealth is not capital.' [2]
(c) Distinguish between redeemable and irredeemable debts. [2]
(d) State the impact of each of the following on the demand curve of a commodity: [2]
(i) An increase in individual income
(ii) A rise in the price of the commodity
(iii) An increase in the supply of a substitute good
(iv) An increase in the price of a complementary good
(e) Explain the term: plan holiday. Give an example. [2]
Question No 2
(a) What is the bandwagon effect? [2]
(b) What is meant by plan strategy? [2]
(c) State any two exceptions to the law of supply. [2]
(d) What is the effect of inflation on the value of money? [2]
(e) Give two arguments in favour of the privatization of banks. [2]
Question No 3
(a) What is the implication of a vertical demand curve? [2]
(b) How can inflation be controlled through price control and rationing? [2]
(c) Explain: 'An entrepreneur is a special type of labourer.' [2]
(d) Distinguish between money capital and concrete capital. [2]
(e) What is the difference between direct expenditure and transfer expenditure. [2]
( 2 )
Question No 4
(a) The price elasticity of a commodity X is unitary. The demand for X at a price of
Rs 5 is 1000 units. What will be the demand for X if the price is Rs 10 per unit? [2]
(b) Why is the Reserve Bank of ndia known as the 'lender of the last resort'? [2]
(c) State any two characteristics of land. [2]
(d) State any two demerits of direct taxes. [2]
(e) Distinguish between primary deposits and secondary deposits. [2]
Question No 5
(a) Explain the Law of Demand with the help of a demand schedule and demand curve.
State two assumptions involved in and two exceptions to the law. [5]
(b) Explain: progressive, regressive and degressive taxations. Discuss, with reasons,
which type of taxation is suitable for the ndian economy. [5]
Question No 6
(a) State and explain the difficulties of a barter system. [5]
(b)
nternal Liabilities of the Govt of ndia during 1980 2003 [5]
Liabilities Year 1980 81 Year 2002 03
Total nternal Liabilities 48,451 Crores 14,35,663 Crores
(i) nterpret the above data.
(ii) State any two reasons why the Government borrows from the public.
(iii) s the growing burden of public debt justified? State your views with reasons.
Question No 7
(a) Mention and explain three important functions of a commercial bank. What is meant
by cash reserve ratio? [5]
(b) A list of commodities is given below. State, giving reasons, whether the demand for
each of them is more elastic or less elastic. [5]
(i) Textbooks (iv) Diamonds
(ii) Gold Flake cigarettes (v) Colour television sets
(iii) Green vegetables
Question No 8
(a) Explain the effect of inflation on the following: [5]
(i) Distribution of income (iii) Fixed income group in the economy
(ii) Debtors (iv) Producers
(b) Distinguish between quantitative and qualitative measures of credit control. Briefly
explain the quantitative credit control policy of a central bank. [5]
Question No 9
(a) What are the causes of the low rate of capital formation in ndia? [5]
(b) Classify the following as direct or indirect taxes: [5]
(i) House tax (iv) Passenger tax
(ii) Excise duty (v) Sales tax
(iii) ncome tax
Question No 10
(a) State the main objectives of planning in ndia. [5]
(b) What are the limitations of a division of labour? [5]
( 3 )
GARDEN HIGH SCHOOL
CLASS X
Ha
EngIish Language
Attempt all four questions.
Question No 1 [25]
(Do not spend more than 35 minutes on this question.)
Write a composition (350 400 words) on any one of the following:
(a) 'n today's world patriotism has become obsolete.'
Discuss. Conclude by clearly stating your view, either for or against the statement.
(b) Choose a prominent person (living or deceased) whom you would have liked to interview,
and explain why.
(c) Popularity of fast food restaurants
(d) Write an original short story incorporating the line: 'The day had finally come.'
(e) Study the picture given below. Write a story or a description or an account based on
what it suggests to you. There should be a clear connection between the picture and
your composition.
( 2 )
Question No 2 [10]
(Do not spend more than 20 minutes on this question.)
Attempt any one of the following:
(a) Write a letter to your friend telling him why you are interested in a particular sport.
(b) You visited a crockery shop with your mother and selected a beautiful and expensive
dinner set. The shop sent it to your residence, but when it arrived, two items were
found to have been damaged. Write a letter to the manager of the shop informing him
about the damage and asking for a replacement of the two items.
Question No 3 [25]
Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow:
My brightest remembrance of the old house goes back to the confused and noisy second
and last visit of Aunt Mary, who had cut her first visit short because she hated our two dogs,
Judge and Samson, and they hated her. She had snarled at them and they had growled at
her all during her stay with us, and not even my mother remembers how she persuaded the
old lady to come back for a weekend, but she did, and what is more, she cajoled Aunt Mary
into feeding 'those dreadful brutes' the evening she arrived.
n preparation for this seemingly simple act of household routine, my mother had spent
the afternoon gathering up all the dogs of the neighbourhood in advance of Aunt Mary's
appearance, and putting them in the cellar. had been allowed to go with her on her wonderful
forays, and thought that we were going to keep all the sixteen dogs we rounded up. Such
an adventure does not have to have logical point or purpose in the mind of a six-year-old,
and accepted as a remarkable but natural phenomenon my mother's sudden assumption
of the status of Santa Claus.
She did not always let my father in on her elaborate pranks but he came home that
evening to a house heavy with tension and suspense, and she whispered to him the peculiar
truth that there were a dozen and a half dogs in the cellar, counting our Judge and Samson.
'What are you up to now Mame?' he asked her and she said she just wanted to see Aunt
Mary's face when the dogs swarmed up into the kitchen. 'Well, let's get it over with, then,'
my father said nervously. ' want to eat dinner in peace, if that is possible.'
The big moment finally arrived. My mother, full of smiles and insincerity, told Aunt Mary
that it would relieve her of a tedious chore if the old lady would be good enough to set down
two plates of dog food in the kitchen at the head of the cellar stairs and call Judge and
Samson to their supper. Aunt Mary grudgingly took the plates and carried them to the kitchen.
She put the plates down and reached for the handle of the door.
None of us has ever been able to understand why bedlam hadn't broken loose in the
cellar long before this, but it hadn't. The dogs were probably so frightened by their unique
predicament that their belligerence had momentarily left them. But when the door opened
and they could see the light of freedom and get the odour of food, they gave tongue like a
pack of hunting hounds. There was a snarling, barking, yelping swirl of yellow and white,
black and tan, grey and brindle as the dogs tumbled into the kitchen, skidded on the linoleum,
sent the food flying from the plates and backed Aunt Mary into a corner. She screamed but
her counter-attack was swift and terrible. Grabbing a broom she began to beat and flail at
the army of canines, engaged now in half a dozen separate battles over the scattered food.
Dogs flew out of the back door and leapt through the windows, but some of them ran upstairs
and three or four others hid under sofas and chairs in the parlour. The snarling of Judge and
Samson and the cursing of Aunt Mary rose even above the laughter of my mother and the
delighted squeals of her children. Aunt Mary whammed her way from room to room, driving
dogs ahead of her. When the last one had departed and the upset house had been put back
in order, my father said to my mother, 'Well, Mame, hope you are satisfied.' She was.
(a) For each of the underlined words in the passage, give another word or phrase similar
in meaning. [5]
(b) Why did the narrator's mother decide to play a prank on Aunt Mary? [2]
(c) What prompted the narrator to compare his mother to Santa Claus? [3]
(d) What was the reaction of the narrator's father when he was let in on the prank planned
for the evening? [2]
(e) Why were the dogs relatively quiet in the cellar? [3]
(f) n not more than sixty words, describe the commotion that took place once the
kitchen door was opened. Give your summary a title. [9
Question No 4
(a) n the following passage, fill in each of the numbered blanks with the correct form of
the word given in brackets. Do not copy the passage, but write in correct serial order
the word or phrase appropriate to the blank space. [4]
(1) __________ (remember) an aunt who sometimes came to stay with my
grandmother, and who (2) __________ (has) an obsession about watering the flowers.
She (3) __________ (be) at it morning and evening, (4) __________ (hold) an old and
rather lopsided watering can in her frail hands. To everyone's amazement, she would
water the garden in all weathers, even during the rains.
'But it (5) __________ (rain), aunt'. would remonstrate. 'Why are you watering
the garden?'
'The rain (6) __________ (come) from above', she (7) __________ (reply). 'This
(8) __________ (be) from me. They expect me at this time, you know.'
( 3 )
( 4 )
(b) Fill in each blank with a suitable word: [4]
(i) He has taken __________ his father.
(ii) The price of this car is __________ my means.
(iii) He is not qualified to lecture __________ the subject.
(iv) My uncle gave me a gift __________ Christmas.
(v) Trying to get __________ a bus at this hour is always a problem.
(vi) Rishita went __________ town, speaking ill of her friends.
(vii) Ravi hid __________ the curtain.
(viii) The traveller fell __________ thieves.
(c) Join each of the following pairs of sentences to make one complete sentence without
using and, but, or so: [4]
(i) You will be late. You must hurry.
(ii) t is a good book. must read it.
(iii) Sania is a sincere pupil. Every one thinks so.
(iv) The police arrived. The thief had escaped.
(d) Rewrite the following sentences according to the instruction given after each. You
may make changes if necessary, but do not change the meaning of any sentence. [8]
(i) My father always goes for a walk in the morning.
(Rewrite using 'fail'.)
(ii) ' am telling the truth', insisted the boy.
(Rewrite, using reported speech.)
(iii) As soon as the curtain went up, the audience cheered.
(Begin: No sooner...)
(iv) She likes ice creams more than chocolates.
(Use 'prefers'.)
(v) Only trained graduates need apply.
(Use 'none' in place of 'only'.)
(vi) He sold his car to an eminent singer.
(Rewrite, using 'bought' instead of 'sold'.)
(vii) We were waiting for the Chief Guest to arrive.
(Use the noun form of 'arrive'.)
(viii) He will surely succeed.
(Begin: He is .....)
GARDEN HIGH SCHOOL
CLASS X
Ha
EngIish Literature
This Paper is divided into three sections.
You must answer five questions in all, choosing at least one from each of the Sections A, B,
and C. Maximum marks for a question or parts of a question are given in brackets [ ].
SECTION A
(Shakespeare: JuIius Caesar)
Question No 1
Read the extract given below and answer the questions that follow:
Then, lest he may, prevent. And since the quarrel
Will bear no colour for the thing he is,
Fashion it thus: that what he is, augmented,
Would run to these and these extremities;
(a) Who said this, about whom, and in what context? Where exactly in Rome was the
speaker, what was the date, and what the approximate time when he said this?
[(
(b) What does the speaker want to 'prevent', and what example has he just cited to
justify his decision? [1
(c) Explain: 'And since the quarrel / Will bear no colour for the thing he is, .' [3]
(d) Explain, after the speaker, the two ways in which the person he is speaking about is
like a snake and should be dealt with likewise. [1
(e) What light does the speech from which the extract is taken throw on the speaker's
character? You may refer to previous scenes of the play, but not to those that follow.
[3]
( 2 )
Question No 2
Read the extract given below and answer the questions that follow:
Antony: Not stingless too?
Brutus: O yes, and soundless too;
For you have stolen their buzzing, Antony,
And very wisely threat before you sting.
(a) What makes Antony ask the quoted question? Explain the implications of this
question. [2
(b) What does Antony say further on hearing Brutus' reply quoted above? How does
Cassius react to Antony's comments? [3 + 1]
(c) What are the disparaging remarks that Cassius makes about Antony and Octavius
in this scene? Why is the day on which this 'parley' takes place special to Cassius?
[2
(d) To what fact does Cassius make Messala a 'witness'? What omen has added to
his apprehensions? [2
SECTION B
(Whispers of ImmortaIity)
Question No 3
To humbler functions, awful Power!
call thee: myself commend
Unto thy guidance from this hour;
Oh, let my weakness have an end!
Give unto me, made lowly wise, .....
(a) Who or what is being addressed as 'awful Power'? Explain: 'awful Power'.
dentify the figure of speech used in the first line of the extract. [1
(b) What are the 'humbler functions' that the poet wants this Power to perform?
Why does he call these functions 'humbler'? [3 + 1]
(c) n the context of what the poet has said earlier in the fourth stanza of the poem,
explain what he means by 'my weakness'. [4]
(d) What is an 'ode'? What kind of an 'ode' is this poem? Justify your answer. [4]
( 3 )
Question No 4
ask'd thee, 'Give me immortality.'
Then didst thou grant mine asking me with a smile,
Like wealthy men who care not how they give.
But thy strong Hours indignant work'd their wills,...
(a) Who says this and to whom? [
(b) What had the speaker asked for? Why? [1
(c) Was his wish granted? What did he forget to ask for? [1
(d) Explain: 'strong Hours'. Why were they 'indignant'? How did they work their will?
[2
(e) Why is the speaker envious of all living beings? What does he wish for now?
[3
SECTION C
(Three Men in a Boat)
Question No 5
'George got out his banjo after supper, and wanted to play it, but Harris objected:...'
(a) Why did Harris object when George wanted to play the banjo? How did George
respond to his objection? [2
(b) Explain what happened when George tried 'to get a little practice' while they were
going up the river. [4]
(c) When did George resume his 'study of the banjo'? Why was he dissuaded from it?
[1
(d) What finally compelled George to put up the banjo for sale? How did Jerome
sympathize with his friend's plight? [2 + 2]
Question No 6
'We thought it strange and unaccountable that a stuffed trout should break up into little
pieces like that.'
With close reference to the text, explain how the stuffed trout broke into pieces. Bring out
the humour of the incident and comment on the tall claims connected with the same trout.
[16]
GARDEN HIGH SCHOOL
CLASS X
Ha
EnvironmentaI Education
Question No 1
(a) What is the objective of the Chipko movement? [2]
(b) State two reasons why the landscape should be preserved. [2]
(c) What is bioremediation? [2]
(d) Name two acts of Parliament meant to protect the environment. [2]
(e) Mention two non-point sources of water pollution. [2]
Question No 2
(a) What is the NIMBY Syndrome? [2]
(b) State any two causes of desertification. [2]
(c) What are the ill effects of burning garbage? [2]
(d) What is biopiracy? [2]
(e) Mention any two methods of disposing of industrial waste water. [2]
Question No 3
(a) Mention two aims of the Ganga Action Plan. [2]
(b) What are endangered species? [2]
(c) What caused the Bhopal Gas tragedy? [2]
(d) Mention two man-made sources of radioactive pollution. [2]
(e) How do scrubbers help to control pollution? [2]
( 2 )
Question No 4
(a) State two advantages of captive breeding. [2]
(b) What is the Red List? [2]
(c) Mention two antibiotics used to kill microorganisms that cause diseases. [2]
(d) Mention any two water-borne diseases. [2]
(e) Give the full form of CNG. State one advantage of using CNG. [2]
Question No 5
(a) 'Oil spills harm marine life.'
Mention any four such adverse effects. [4]
(b) What is an incinerator? What are its uses? Mention two disadvantages of an
incinerator. [6]
Question No 6
(a) Give four differences between sanctuaries, national parks, and biosphere reserves. [4]
(b) Vehicular pollution in cities has become a major problem. Suggest three ways in
which this problem can be controlled. [6]
Question No 7
(a) What is El Nino? Mention two effects of El Nino. [4]
(b) What is the relevance of the practices of the Warli tribe in today's world? [6]
Question No 8
(a) What is smog? How does it differ from photochemical smog? [4]
(b) Explain the concept of stewardship among the tribals with respect to forest resources.
[6]
Question No 9
(a) State four principles of the Beej Bachao Andolan. [4]
(b) What is noise pollution? Mention two man-made sources of noise pollution.
Give two effects of noise pollution. [6]
Question No 10
(a) What is thermal pollution? Mention two causes of thermal pollution. [4]
(b) Write short notes on: [6]
(i) Johad (ii) Vermicompost
GARDEN HIGH SCHOOL
CLASS X
Ha
Geography
Attempt all the questions of Section A and any five of Section B.
Question No 1
Study the extract from the Survey of ndia map, sheet no 45D/10, and answer the questions
which follow: [20]
24
14
26 15
45 D/10
(a) What do the figure 1:50,000 below the map extract mean? [1]
(b) dentify the physical feature in the grid square 2118. [1]
(c) Mention two main modes of transport used by the people of this area. [1]
(d) Give the six-figure grid reference of:
(i) the point where the canal leaves the earthwork dam marked 10r. [1]
(ii) the spot height 1425 on the south-east corner of the map [1]
(e) Calculate the length of the canal in metres. [2]
(f) Which is the most important settlement in the given extract? Give one reason
to support your answer. [1]
(g) State the compass direction of Udwaria (2423) from Gulabganj (1920). [1]
(h) On which bank of the Sipu Nadi is Gulabganj situated? [1]
(i) What is the social significance of the village Pamera (1622)? [1]
(j) What does 14 r in grid 1615 indicate? [1]
(k) How does the drainage pattern in grid square 2118 differ from that in grid square
2217? [1]
( 2 )
(l) n which general direction does the Sipu Nadi flow? Give one reason to support
your answer. [1]
(m) Account for the necessity of a 'fireline' in the jungle area of the map extract. [1]
(n) s the reservoir in the map artificial or natural? Give a reason for your answer. [1]
(o) Name two probable occupations of the people in the settlement of Tokra (2220 &
2221). [1]
(p) Why is the water in the well in grid square (1621) not suitable for drinking? [1]
(q) Calculate the area of the given extract in square kilometres. [2]
Question No 2
On the outline map of South Asia provided: 10 1 = 10
(a) Shade and mark the Gulf of Mannar.
(b) Mark and label the Aravallis
(c) Mark and label the River Satluj.
(d) Mark and label the River Kaveri.
(e) Shade a region where black soil is found.
(f) Shade one area north of the Tropic of Cancer where jowar is grown.
(g) Mark with arrows the direction of the westerly depression winds.
(h) Mark and label the Khasi Hills.
(i) Mark and label the Khyber Pass.
(j) Mark and label a private sector oil refinery in ndia.
Answer any five questions.
Question No 3
(a) 'Asia is a land of contrasts.' Give two reasons to justify this statement. [1]
(b) State two common features that unite the SAARC countries. [1]
(c) Explain the term: landlocked country. Name one landlocked SAARC country. [
(d) Name the states of ndia that border Nepal. Why does Nepal have only a limited
amount of cultivable land? [1
(e) What are the latitudinal and longitudinal extents of ndia? [2]
(f) Along which meridian is the ndian Standard Time calculated? f a match between
ndia and England at Lords (England) is scheduled to start at 9.30 a.m., when should
you, in ndia, switch on your t.v. set to see it from the very beginning? [2]
(g) State one difference between the Deccan Plateau and the Baluchistan Plateau. [1]
Question No 4
(a) Describe the course of the River Ganga. Name one left and one right bank tributary
of the River Ganga. [2
(b) Explain why: [1
(i) Bangladesh is prone to flooding.
(ii) The Rann of Kachchh is not suitable for cultivation.
(c) State two reasons for the importance of the Peninsular Plateau. [2]
(d) Name two major dams on the River ndus in Pakistan. How has the construction of
these dams benefited the people of Pakistan? [1
(e) Name two passes in the Western Ghats. [1]
Question No 5
(a) Give reasons why:
(i) Mumbai is warmer than Kanpur in December. [1]
(ii) Ranchi receives more rain than Lucknow. [1]
(iii) Chennai has more rainy months but gets less rain than Kochi which has fewer
rainy months than Chennai. [1]
(iv) Rajasthan is a desert. [2]
(b) Study the data given below and answer the questions that follow:

Stn Month Jan Feb Mar Apr May Jun Jul Aug Sep Oct Nov Dec
Temp (
O
C)
12.7 15.1 22.1 31.8 37.2 39.1 37.3 33.4 28.0 26.7 16.1 13.6
Rainfall (mm) 2.1 2.3 1.0 0.9 1.5 5.6 18.3 18.9 15.1 0.6 0.3 1.8
Temp (
O
C)
23.1 24.8 26.5 29.3 32.0 32.8 33.1 32.1 30.5 29.3 28.7 26.1
Rainfall (mm) 20.3 15.3 0.3 0.1 1.3 4.5 6.1 10.2 10.5 10.1 10.8 20.0
B
A
Both Stations A and B are in ndia.
(i) Calculate the annual rainfall at Station A. [1]
(ii) Which of the two stations is located near the sea? Justify your answer. [2]
(iii) Which winds bring the maximum rainfall to Station B? State a reason for your
answer. [2]
( 3 )
( 4 )
Question No 6
(a) Differentiate between:
(i) sheet erosion and gully erosion [1]
(ii) khadar and bhangar [1]
(b) How is laterite soil formed? Why is it not suitable for cultivation? Name two states
of ndia where it is found. [1
(c) How is regur soil formed? [1]
(d) Mention two characteristics of red soil. [1]
(e) Mention two ways by which soil can get nitrogen. [1]
(f) What is soil conservation? Mention two methods of soil conservation. [1
Question No 7
(a) How is coal formed? Name the different types of coal. Which is the best type?
Justify your answer. [1
(b) Name ndia's first coal mine. Name two raw materials obtained from coal. [1
(c) Why are oil refineries in ndia located near the coast? Name two offshore oilfields of
ndia. [1
(d) Name two important iron ore producing areas in Orissa. [1]
(e) State two reasons why minerals are important. [1]
Question No 8
(a) State any two problems faced by ndian agriculture. What are the steps that have
been taken by the Government to combat the problems mentioned by you? [2
(b) State two characteristics of plantation agriculture. [1]
(c) When are kharif crops sown and harvested? [1]
(d) Give two differences between subsistence agriculture and commercial agriculture. [2]
(e) Differentiate between broadcasting and drilling. [2]
Question No 9
(a) Why are millets referred to as dry crops? [1]
(b) State two important aspects of the Japanese method of rice cultivation. [2]
(c) State two differences between upland and lowland rice. [2]
(d) Name the two types of wheat grown in ndia. What are the climatic requirements for
the cultivation of wheat? [1
(e) Which oil seed is unfit for human consumption? State any two uses of the oil obtained
from it. [1
GARDEN HIGH SCHOOL
CLASS X
Half-Yearly Examination, 2009 10
Hindi
Answers must be written in the script/s provided. You will not be allowed to write for the first
15 minutes. This time must be spent in reading the Question Paper.
Attempt all the questions of Section A and any four of Section B, answering at least one
question on each of the two books you have read.
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+: |-|- ||-|||| | ,|||-| || + |||, | || |+| ||| |-| || ,:
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: || ,| || +| | | , || || | + ||+|||| +| ||+ ||- ||| :
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||| ` [,]
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|| ` [,]
GARDEN HIGH SCHOOL
CLASS X
Ha
History and Civics
This Paper is divided into two parts.
Attempt all the questions of Part I, and any five of Part II.
PART I (30 marks)
Question No 1
With reference to ndia, answer the following questions: [10 1 = 10]
(a) How is the President elected?
(b) How are fundamental rights affected by a Proclamation of Emergency?
(c) Who is the presiding officer of the Vidhan Sabha?
(d) State, with an example, one difference between unicameral and bicameral legisla-
tures.
(e) Who presides over a joint sitting of the two Houses of Parliament?
(f) When can an ordinance be issued? Why is it considered a temporary measure?
(g) Mention two matters in which the Rajya Sabha enjoys the same powers as the Lok
Sabha.
(h) What is meant by the term zero hour?
(i) What is the legislative function of the Rajya Sabha?
(j) How many members can the Governor nominate to the state legislature?
Question No 2
Answer the following questions: [10 2 = 20]
(a) What was the Aunchluss? When did it take place?
(b) State any two functions of the UN General Assembly.
(c) What is the main function of WHO?
( 2 )
(d) How were Denmark and Belgium affected by the Treaty of Versailles?
(e) What was the basic difference between the beliefs of the Moderates and the Radicals?
(f) Mention any two grievances of the ndian rulers that led to the First War of ndependence
in 1857.
(g) What was the original mandate of the LO? Name the judicial organ of the UN.
(h) How was Poland affected by the Treaty of Versailles?
(i) Name two western scholars who made the world aware of the richness of Sanskrit
literature.
(j) Mention any two economic reforms demanded by the early nationalists.
PART II (50 marks)
Section A
Answer any two questions. [2 10 = 20]
Question No 3
'The Governor acts as the nominal Constitutional Head of the State and as an agent of the
Central Government in the State.'
n the light of this statement, answer the following questions:
(a) Explain any three legislative powers of a Governor. [3]
(b) What are the financial powers of a Governor? [3]
(c) State any two judicial powers of a Governor. [2]
(d) State any one special power that a Governor can exercise when President's Rule is
imposed on a state. [1]
(e) Who is the present Governor of West Bengal? [1]
Question No 4
'The President is the Chief Executive of the ndian Republic and the Supreme Commander
of the Defence Forces.'
(a) What are the diplomatic powers of the President? [3]
(b) State the functions of the President as the Supreme Commander of the Defence
Forces. [2]
(c) State any two financial powers of the President. [2]
(d) Explain how the President of ndia can be removed from his/her office? [2]
(e) State the amount of pension a President receives. [1]
( 3 )
Question No 5
(a) State any three ways in which the Lok Sabha is more powerful than the Rajya Sabha.
[3]
(b) State the administrative functions of the Speaker when the Parliament is in session.
[2]
(c) State any two disciplinary functions of the Speaker during a Parliamentary session.
[1]
(d) State four ways in which the Lok Sabha exercises control over the Council of Ministers.
[4]
Section B
Answer any three questions. 3 10 = 30
Question No 6
'The Great War of 1914 was not due to any single cause.'
(a) Explain how the armament race in Europe led to World War . [3]
(b) How did colonial expansion contribute to the outbreak of World War ? [3]
(c) Explain how Europe became divided into two armed camps. [2]
(d) What was the immediate cause of the outbreak of World War ? [2]
Question No 7
'Fascism in taly and Nazism in Germany were both intensely nationalistic, anti-communistic
and anti-democratic movements.'
(a) State any four factors responsible for the rise of Fascism in taly and Nazism in
Germany after the Treaty of Versailles. [4]
(b) Explain any three foreign policies of Hitler which were responsible for the outbreak of
World War . [3]
(c) Explain any three results of World War . [3]
Question No 8
Discuss how the following contributed to the rise of nationalism in ndia:
(a) Western education [3]
(b) Racial discrimination by the British rulers [4]
(c) The Vernacular Press Act [3]
Question No 9
(a) Name the classic work in which Dadabhai Naoroji expounded the Drain Theory. [1]
(b) Explain the main features of the Drain Theory. [3]
(c) Mention any three administrative reforms demanded by the early nationalists. [3]
(d) Mention any two achievements of the Moderates. [2]
(e) Which society was established by Gokhale in 1905? [1]
Question No 10
'The United Nations Organization is an international organization including almost all
sovereign states of the World.'
n this context, answer the following questions:
(a) Mention the objectives and purposes of the United Nations Organization as stated in
the Preamble and Article of its Charter. [3]
(b) State any three functions of the Security Council with regard to world peace. [3]
(c) Mention any two functions of UNDP. [2]
(d) Mention any two functions of UNCEF. [2]
( 4 )
Answer all the questions of Section A and anv four of Section B.
All working, including rough work, must be clearlv shown and done in the
right-hand margin of the page containing the answer. Omission of anv essential
working will result in deduction of marks.
Maximum marks for questions or parts of questions are given in brackets [ ].
))))))) ) ))) ))))))
GARDEN HIGH SCHOOL
CLASS X
Ha
Mathematics
1. (a) II the expression p x 4 x 3 x
2 3
+ + + has (x 6) as a Iactor, Iind p. |3|
(b) Find the mean oI the Iollowing sets oI numbers:
5 x , 4 x , 3 x , 2 x , 1 x , x
2 2 2 2 2 2
+ + + + + |3|
(c) P and Q are the centres oI two circles which intersect at B and C. ACD is a straight line.
Calculate the value oI x
o
. |4|
130
o
D
Q
B
A
P
C
x
o
2. (a) Solve Ior x:
3 2 x 2 7 x 6 = + - +
|3|
(b) Amit deposits Rs 800 per month Ior 1 year in a recurring account that pays interest at the
rate oI 10 p.a. Find the amount Amit will get on maturity. |3|
(c) The line y mx c passes through (1, 4) and (2, 5). Find the values oI m and c. |4|
( 2 )
3. (a) Two circles touch internally. The sum oI their areas is 116p cm
2
and the distance between
their centres is 6 cm. Find the radii oI the circles. |3|
(b) Find the probability that two Iriends, A and B, born in the same year, were born on
(a) the same day, (b) diIIerent days. (Assume that the year oI birth was not a leap year.)
|3|
(c) The entries in a pass book oI a savings bank account are as Iollows:
Months Minimum Balance (Rs)
January 16504
February 18002
March 17003
May 19999
June 20995
September 19004
II the total interest earned Irom January to September amounts to Rs 852.50, Iind the rate
oI interest. |4|
4. (a) II ) 5 3 sin( 2 cos - q = q , Iind the value oI q. |3|
(b) Determine Ior what values oI p, the quadratic equation 0 1 x 8 px
2
= + + has real roots. |3|
(c) A 12 m-long vertical stick casts a 8 cm-long shadow on the ground. Exactly at that point
oI time, a tower casts a shadow 40 m long on the ground. What is the height oI the tower?
|4|
))))))) ) ))) ))))))
Answer anv four questions.
5. (a) Each side oI a square park is 100 m long. At each corner, inside the park, is a Ilowerbed
in the Iorm oI a quadrant oI radius 14 m. Find the area oI the remaining part oI the park.
|3|
(b) Prove: A cos A sin
A sin A cos
A sin
A tan 1
A cos
2
+ =
-
-
-
|3|
(c) Mrs Das deposits Rs 1600 per month in a cumulative account that pays 9 simple interest
per annum. II she gets Rs 65592 at the time oI maturity, Iind the total time Ior which the
account was held. |4|
6. (a) L, M, and N are the mid-points oI the sides PQ, QR, and PR respectively oI a DPQR.
PK^QR, and PQ PR. PK meets LN at H.
Prove: (i) LK LP
(ii) L, K, M, and N are concyclic. |6|
(b) The shadow oI a tower standing on a level plane is Iound to be 2y m longer when the
sun`s altitude is 30
o
than when it is 45
o
. Find the height oI the tower. |4|
7. (a) The in-circle oI a DABC touches the sides AB, BC, and AC at P, Q, and R respectively.
Show that AP BQ CR PB QC RA
2
1
(perimeter oI the DABC). |3|
(b) Find the value oI x, so that the line passing through the points (1, 4) and (x, 6) makes an
angle oI 45
o
with the positive direction oI the x-axis. |3|
(c) Find the mean oI the Iollowing data:
Marks 010 1020 2030 3040 4050 5060
No oI pupils 4 8 12 15 7 4
|4|
8. (a) In the given Iigure, straight lines AB and CD
pass through the centre O oI a circle.
II OCE 40
o
and AOD 75
o
,
Iind (i) CDE, and (ii) OBE. |3|
(b) Without using tables, evaluate:
o 2
o
o
o
o
45 tan
10 ec cos
80 sec
38 tan
52 cot 2
+ -
|3|
(c) Manish holds 50 shares oI one company and 300 shares oI another, all at par value oI
Rs 100 each. The dividend paid by the Iirst company is 10 p.a. and the second
company pays a quarterly dividend oI 3.75. What is the annual dividend received by
Manish? |4|
( 3 )
A
D
E
K
C
B
O
75
o
40
o
..).).
( 4 )
9. (a) Two coins are tossed simultaneously. Find the probability oI getting: (i) at least one tail,
(ii) at most one head, and (iii) exactly 2 heads. |3|
(b) I(x) x
3
ax
2
bx 30 is exactly divisible by x 5, but leaves a remainder 396
when divided by x 6 . Using the given data, Iactorize the polynomial I(x). |3|
(c) II 1 cu cm oI lead weighs 10 g, Iind the weight oI a lead pipe, 35 cm long with an
external diameter oI 2.4 cm and a thickness oI 2 mm. |4|
10. (a) From the given data draw an ogive:
Age under (in years) 10 20 30 40 50 60
No oI persons 15 32 51 78 97 109
Also Iind the median and the interquartile range using the ogive. |6|
(b) Prove that the ratio oI the areas oI two similar triangles is equal to the ratio oI the
squares on the bisectors oI the corresponding angles. |4|
11. (a) Find the equation oI the line which passes through the point (3, 8) and cuts oII positive
intercepts on the axes whose sum is 7. |3|
(b) Prove:
2
2
2
cot 1
tan 1
cot 1
tan 1
q -
q -
=
q +
q +
|3|
(c) A hemispherical cup oI radius 4 cm is Iilled to the brim with coIIee. The coIIee is then
poured into a vertical cone oI radius 8 cm and height 16 cm. What percentage oI the cone
remains to be Iilled? |4|
GARDEN HIGH SCHOOL
CLASS X
Ha
Physics
Question No 1
(a) What is the magnitude of the force acting on a body the momentum of which is
constant? Name the physical situation in which the mass of a body changes with
time. Which law of motion is also called the law of inertia? [3]
(b) Why are shockers used in scooters and cars? [2]
(c) A bullet of mass 0.04kg moving with a speed of 90ms
1
enters a heavy wooden
block and stops after penetrating 60cm into it. What is the average force exerted
by the block on the bullet? [3]
(d) Why do mountain roads wind their way up instead of going straight up? [2]
Question No 2
(a) A lorry and a car with the same kinetic energy are brought to rest by the application of
brakes that provide the same retarding force in both cases. Which of them will come
to rest in a shorter distance? [2]
(b) n what way will the temperature of water at the bottom of a waterfall differ from its
temperature at the top? Give a reason for your answer. [3]
(c) The bob of a simple pendulum is held in the horizontal
position A as shown in the figure. Calculate the
speed of the bob at the lowest position B when
released. t is assumed that there is no loss of energy
due to friction. Take g = 10ms
2
. [3]
(d) What do you understand by the term horse power? Express it in S unit. [2]
B
A
O
0.5 m
( 2 )
Question No 3
(a) n the block and tackle system, the mechanical advantage increases if the number of
pulleys is increased. Explain. [2]
(b) Show that in a practical machine the velocity ratio is always more than the mechanical
advantage. [2]
(c) Explain why a crack in a windowpane has a silvery appearance. [2]
(d) Why is the power of a lens measured as the reciprocal of its focal length? [2]
(e) Why does the resistance increase in a series combination? [2]
Question No 4
(a) Show that in a parallel combination of two resistors R
1
and R
2
(R
1
< R
2
), the equivalent
resistance is even less than R
1
. [3]
(b) Heat is generated continuously in an electric heater but its temperature becomes
constant after some time. Why? [2]
(c) Why is soft iron generally used as the core of an electromagnet? [2]
(d) 500g of mercury of specific heat capacity 0.14Jg
1
o
C
1
is heated by a 225W heater
for 1 minute 40 seconds. f the initial temperature of the mercury was 0
o
C, calculate
its final temperature. [3]
Attempt any four questions.
Question No 5
(a) Can a transformer be used with a direct source of current? Why? [2]
(b) Why should the core of a transformer be laminated? [2]
(c) Why is the filament of an electric iron placed between mica sheets? [2]
(d) An electric kettle (rated 250V) can make a certain amount of water reach its boiling
point in 6 minutes. f it is connected to a 200V mains, calculate the time it will take to
make the same amount of water reach its boiling point. [4]
Question No 6
(a) Explain why in a cold country, a building can be warmed more effectively by steam
rather than hot water circulating through pipes? [2]
(b) Calculate the mass of steam at 100
o
C that must be passed into 8.4kg of water at
30
o
C to raise the temperature of the water to 80
o
C. (Specific heat capacity of water
= 4.2 Jg
1
o
C
1
; the specific latent heat of vaporization of steam = 2268J) [4]
(c) Draw a labelled diagram of a step-down transformer. State two uses of such a
transformer. [4]
( 3 )
Question No 7
(a) Why are infrared radiations used for signalling during a war? [1]
(b) An object is placed on the principal axis of a convex
lens as shown in the figure. Copy the diagram. Using
three rays, starting from B and the properties of the
points marked F
1
, O, and F
2
, show the image formed
by the lens. [3]
(c) A coin lies at the bottom of a trough, the depth of the water in which is 16m. Find by
how much the coin seems to be raised from the bottom. The refractive index of
water is
3
4
. [3]
(d) From under the water, a diver looks obliquely at a fisherman standing on the bank of
a lake. Would the fisherman look taller or shorter to the diver than he actually is?
Draw a ray diagram to illustrate your answer. [3]
Question No 8
(a) An object under water appears to be at a lesser depth than it really is. Why? [2]
(b) Why do the planets not twinkle? [2]
(c) An effort of 400N is applied through 0.50m on a machine, the efficiency of which is
80%, to overcome a resistance through 0.04m. Calculate: (i) VR, (ii) MA, and
(iii) the resistance overcome by the machine. [4]
(d) State the principle of reversibility of light. [2]
Question No 9
(a) There are two wires of similar dimensions, one made of copper and the other of
nichrome. Which would you use as the element in an electric heater and why? [2]
(b) Under what condition is the heat produced in an electric circuit (i) directly proportional,
(ii) inversely proportional to the resistance of the circuit? [2]
(c) State any two limitations of Ohm's law. [2]
(d) The lengths, diameters, and resistivities of two wires are in the ratio of 1 : 3. f the
resistance of the thinner wire is 20W, find the resistance of the thicker one. [4]
Question No 10
(a) n the circuit shown, calculate:
(i) the effective resistance of the circuit,
(ii) the reading on the ammeter
(iii) the terminal voltage of the cell [6]
(b) A wire of resistance 3W is bent to form a closed circle. What is the effective resistance
between two diametrically opposite points? [2]
(c) State two characteristics of a parallel circuit. [2]
F
1
F
2
B
A
O
A
5W 7W 6W
WW
1W 11V

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