Practice Set SBI ASSOCIATE PO PDF

K
KUNDAN
PRACTICE SET
SBI Associate PO
Test-I: English Language
Directions (Q. 1-15): Read the passage carefully and
answer the questions given below it. Certain words/phrases
are given in bold to help you locate them while answering
some of the questions.
The question before the new government is whether
the statistically undeniable economic slide of the last
decade can be halted and a fresh impetus be given to growth
in the Indian economy.
The answer is yes if good governance norms are
properly enforced to enable the Indian economy to grow
at 12 per cent per year in GDP for a decade, which means
efficiently deploying resources to reduce the current
incremental capital output ratio from 4.0 to 3.0, and by
incentivising the people to save more to increase the current
rate of investment (which is domestic saving plus net
foreign investment).
The United Progressive Alliance (UPA) government,
judged statistically by the dangerous level of fiscal and
capital accounts deficit indicators, has squandered national
financial and physical resources mainly due to a lack of
accountability, corruption and high transaction costs
arising for archaic bureaucratic procedures.
Efficient, corruption-free deployment of existing
resources that implies a reduction in the capital-output
ratio, means a 12 per cent GDP growth rate per year, i.e., a
doubling of GDP every six years, and that of per capita
income doubling every seven years.
This growth rate over a five-year period can take us
into the league of the top three most populated nations of
the world, ie of the United States, China and India that
is by 2020. Thereafter, India would be able to overtake
China over the next decade. That should be the goal of
governance for us today.
India is not yet an economically developed nation.
India has demonstrated its prowess in the IT, biotech and
pharmaceutical sectors and has accelerated its growth rate
to nine per cent per year in the first decade of this century,
up from an earlier 40-year (1950-90) socialist era average
annual growth rate of a mere 3.5 per cent, to become the
third largest nation in terms of GDP at Purchasing Power
Parity (PPP) rates.
However, it still has a backward agricultural sector of
62 per cent of the people, where there are farmer suicides
because of inability to repay loans. There is a national
unemployment rate that is of over 15 per cent of the adult
labour force, a prevalence of child labour arising out of
nearly 50 per cent of children not making it to school beyond
standard five, a deeply malfunctioning primary and
secondary educational system, and 300 million illiterates
and 250 million people in dire poverty.
Indias infrastructure is pathetic, with frequent electric
power breakdowns even in metropolitan cities, dangerously
unhealthy water supply in urban areas, a galloping rate of
HIV infection, and gaping potholes that dot our national
highways.
To become a developed country, therefore, Indias GDP
will have to grow at 12 per cent per year for at least a
decade. Technically this is within Indias reach, since it
would require the rate of investment to rise from the present
28 per cent of GDP to 36 per cent, while productivity growth
will have to ensure that the incremental capital output ratio
declines from the present 4.0 to 3.0.
These are modest goals that can be attained by an
efficient decision-making structure, tackling corruption,
increased Foreign direct investment (FDI) and use of IT
software in the domestic industry. But for that to happen,
what is required is more vigorous market-centric economic
reforms to dismantle the remaining vestiges of the Soviet
model in Indian planning, especially at the provincial level.
The Indian financial system also suffers from a
hangover of cronyism and corruption which has left
government budgets on the verge of bankruptcy. This too
needs fixing. It cannot be rectified by a Reserve Bank of
India vitiating the investment climate with an obsession to
contain inflationary pressure. It is like killing a patient to
lower his body temperature.
Indias infrastructure requires about $150 billion to
make it world class, while a new innovation climate requires
investment in the education system of six per cent of GDP
instead of 2.8 per cent today. But an open competitive
market system can find these resources provided the quality
of governance and accountability is improved. Auctioning
of natural resources such as spectrum, coal, oilfields, and
land for commercial exploitation can largely substitute for
tax impositions. Obviously, a wide-ranging second
generation of reforms is necessary for all this to accelerate
Indias growth rate to 12 per cent per year.
1. What does the author want to express by using the
phrase It is like killing a patient to lower his body
temperature?
1) The author is very much in favour of the steps
taken by the RBI to curb inflationary pressure.
2) The author is not satisfied with the steps taken by
the government to remove corruption.
K
KUNDAN
3) The author is concerned about the systemic
reforms before it is too late.
4) The author wants to express his resentment against
the steps taken by the central bank of India to
contain inflationary pressure.
5) The author is of the opinion that it is better to
dismantle the faulty system than to try to make it
better by investing further into it.
2. According to the given passage, which of the
following steps may help India become a developed
nation?
1) To become a developed nation India will have to
register a continuous GDP growth rate for ten years.
2) To become a developed nation India will have to
raise the rate of investment by 8 per cent from its
present percentage of GDP.
3) To become a developed nation, the productivity
growth will have to ensure a decline in the
incremental capital output ratio to one.
4) Technically it is not possible for India to become
an advanced nation.
5) None of these
3. What charges have been levelled by the author against
the UPA govt in respect of national financial
resources?
1) The UPA govt wasted a huge amount of money on
populist welfare schemes like NREGA.
2) The UPA period has been characterised by faster
growth, higher savings and investment, growing
foreign trade and capital inflows.
3) The UPA govt was unable to bring about a
fundamental change in the public education system
and solve the continued process of low quality.
4) Rampant corruption, lack of accountability and
outdated administrative procedures are the chief
characteristics of the UPA govt.
5) All the above
4. What is/are the prerequisite(s) for India to enter into
the league of top three most populated nations of the
world by 2020?
(A) India will require to have a continuous GDP
growth rate of twelve per cent for a period of five
years.
(B) India will have to double not only its GDP every
year for six years but also its per capita income
every seven years.
(C) Efficient and corruption-free deployment of
existing resources for a minimum period of ten
years.
1) Only (A) 2) Only (B) 3) Only (C)
4) Only (A) and (B) 5) All (A), (B) and (C)
5. What is the most pertinent question before the new
government at the Centre? Reply in the context of the
passage.
1) The most pertinent question before the new
government is whether the new govt will last for its
full term.
2) The most important question before the new govt
is whether it will fulfil the aspirations of the voters
who have given it mandate to rule the country.
3) The most pertinent question before the new govt
is if it would be able to stop the ongoing economic
slowdown and infuse fresh energy for the growth
of Indian economy.
4) The most pertient question is whether the new govt
would be able to attract FDI and bring stability in
the Indian economy.
5) None of these
6. How can the present status of the Indian economy be
improved to a greater extent? Give your answer in the
context of the given passage.
(A) The present status of the Indian economy can be
improved in a better way by taking loans from the
World Bank and giving incentives to those who
help in increasing the current rate of investment.
(B) The present status of the Indian economy can be
improved if the Indian economy continues to grow
at a rate of twelve per cent at least for a period of
ten years.
(C) The present status of the Indian economy can be
improved by enforcing good governance norms.
1) Only (A) and (B) 2) Only (B) and (C)
3) Only (A) and (C) 4) Only (C)
5) All (A), (B) and (C)
7. According to the author of the given passage, how
can the resources required for the desired growth rate
of 12 per cent per year be managed?
1) The required resources can be managed by
auctioning of natural resources such as spectrum,
coal, oilfields etc.
launching competitive market system and
increasing governance accountability.
expanding the area of taxation and making suitable
machinery for tax collection.
4) The required resources can be had by improving
education system and checking students dropout.
5) None of these
8. Which of the following statements is not in
accordance with the facts mentioned in the given
passage?
1) I ndia deserves a pat on its back for the
development in the field of IT, biotech and
pharmaceutical sectors.
2) India deserves applaud for its growth rate of 9%
per year during the period between 2001 and 2010.
3) The average annual growth rate during the forty
K
KUNDAN
years of socialist era was exactly one-third of Indias
growth during the period between 2001 and 2010.
4) It is worth noting that India became the third largest
nation in terms of GDP calculated at PPP rates on
the basis of the growth rate in the first decade of
the current century.
5) All the above
9. What is/are the problem(s) that compel(s) India to bow
down its head in shame and need(s) a meaningful
solution? Give your answer on the basis of the given
passage.
(A) Corruption, black money and red-tapism
(B) Poverty, farmers suicide, unemployment and
illiteracy
(C) Pathetic infrastructure, frequent electric
breakdown, poor healthcare facilities, and very
bad condition of roads
1) Only (A) 2) Only (A) and (B)
3) Only (B) 4) Only (A) and (C)
5) All (A), (B) and (C)
Directions (Q. 10-12): Choose the word/group of
words which is MOST SIMILAR in meaning to the word/
group of words printed in bold as used in the passage.
10. Prevalence
1) superiority 2) precedent 3) constancy
4) influence 5) predominance
11. Squandered
1) hoarded 2) accumulated 3) frittered away
4) gathered 5) set aside
12. Archaic
1) contemporary 2) antique 3) outmoded
4) modern 5) in vogue
Directions (Q. 13-15): Choose the word/group of
words which is MOST OPPOSITE in meaning of the word/
group of words printed in bold as used in the passage.
13. Prowess
1) capacity 2) expertise 3) fame
4) inability 5) adroitness
14. Galloping
1) hurry 2) slow 3) sprint
4) stride 5) leap
15. Hangover
1) withdrawal 2) shaking 3) hanging
4) walking 5) sobriety
Directions (Q. 16-20): Which of the phrases (1), (2),
(3) and (4) given below each statement should be placed in
the blank space provided so as to make a meaningful and
grammatically correct sentence? If one of the sentences
is appropriate, mark (5) as the answer.
16. The third plan was largely devoted ________.
1) for nearly three years when the economy fluctuated.
2) to a very low growth in industrial production of 3.9
per cent against the targeted rate of 5-10 per cent.
3) on the development of capital-and producer-goods
industries.
4) to long - run benefits and was in line with the
objectives of increase in the national output and
income generating huge employment.
5) None of these
17. After the wake-up call of economic reforms and trade
liberalisation ________.
1) reveals the fact that the increase in GDP growth
has not turned into increasing exports.
2) indicates that the exports are not responding as
fast as compared to imports.
3) the role of external sector became crucial in
determining the fate of Indian economy.
4) agriculture and allied sector being close to Hindu
growth rate means more need of the Gods blessing.
5) None of these
18. Like our indigenous seeds are becoming extinct
________.
1) we will have to return to the wisdom of our
traditions, our own desi seeds, plough-bullocks and
cow-dung fertiliser-based farming if we want to save
our tradition.
2) so also are we losing agriculture-related vocabulary.
3) entire culture around our farming activities and life
system is being hampered.
4) people would be involved at every step, every
procedure of farming, right from the day it was
planted to the day it was harvested.
5) None of these
19. ________ a large capital flow helped making varieties
of quality goods and services, cheap telephone
services, internet and computers, airline services, etc
available offering choices in the free market.
1) As a result of economic reforms
2) This rising menace of unethical and misleading
advertisements by
3) Moreover, there is a growing dissatisfaction and
serious concern raised by
4) The rate of growth of consumerist culture is
expected to increase
5) None of these
20. Media play significant role in bringing ________
1) assets in spreading consumer awareness.
2) regularly the free-market wrongdoings.
3) underweight, undermeasurement, substandard
quality of products and materials.
4) the trader bodies and associations can be roped in
by giving them confidence that the consumer rights
protection is for the benefit of all stakeholders.
5) None of these
Directions (Q. 21-25): Each question below has two
blanks, each blank indicating that something has been
omitted. Find out which option can be used to fill up the
K
KUNDAN
blank in the sentence in the same sequence to make it
meaningfully complete.
21. The domain name system (DNS) is ________ to make
internet ________ to human beings.
1) devised, handy 2) drafted, open
3) cast, usable 4) designed, accessible
5) delineated, approachable
22. The RBI has said, the primary responsibility to
________ grievances of customers related to
________ ATM transaction shall be with issuing
bank.
1) redress, failed 2) amend, fizzled
3) remedy, fallen 4) ease, aborted
5) aid, futile
23. While quantitative ________ of rates of return to
investment in education are unavailable, in view of
the ________ youth population of India the social
rate of return is likely to be higher.
1) appraisal, prospering
2) assessment, diminishing
3) estimates, burgeoning
4) conclusion, growing
5) evaluation, expanding
24. The time has come for Indian planners to view
education _______ as an essential investment for
________ economic growth.
1) cost, ceased
2) disbursement, delayed
3) outlay, quickening
4) expense, running
5) expenditure, speeding
25. In fact, except for duration of compulsory education
and hours of _______ for pupils aged 9, Indias
performance is ________.
1) direction, dead 2) instruction, lacklustre
3) coaching, nothing 4) lesson, zero
5) training, sombre
Directions (Q. 26-30): Which of the phrases 1), 2), 3)
and 4) given below each statement should replace the
phrase printed in bold in the sentence to make it
grammatically correct? If the sentence is correct as it is
given and No correction is required mark 5) as the
answer.
26. India since independence has made a significant
progress in rural development with an integrated
approach to improve the quality for life of the rural
poor and by ensuring equity and effective peoples
participation.
1) to improved quality of life
2) to life for improving the quality
3) towards improving the quality of life
4) of life to improve the quality of
5) No correction required
27. It is the implementation of integrated Rural
Development (IRD) programme that is posing most
formidable managerial challenges when financial and
even material inputs are not serious constraints.
1) when financial or material
2) when financial, material and even
3) when even financial or material
4) even when financial and material
28. Expanding coverage to a large number of Indians is a
desirable policy goal with the potential of improving
health and lowering financial hardships faced by
millions of Indians.
1) of improving health and lowered
2) of improved health and lower
3) of improved health by lowering
4) of improving health or lowered
29. A person qualified enough to be a secondary school
teacher is most likely to look after other full-time
employment, and it naturally follows that the teacher
shortage is the worst at the college level.
1) most likely to look into
2) more likely to look for
3) unlikely to look out
4) much likely to look at
30. Asset allocation involves division of an investment
portfolio into different asset categories, such as stock,
bonds and cash.
1) dividing an investment portfolio among
2) dividing an investment portfolio of
3) distribution of an investment portfolio for
4) collection of an investment portfolio through
Directions (Q. 31-35): Rearrange the following six
sentences (A), (B), (C), (D), (E) and (F) in the proper
sequence to form a meaningful paragraph and then answer
the questions given below.
(A) As the name signifies there is no cash payment
involved.
(B) With the increasing use of credit cards, debit cards
and ATM cards, the society is moving towards
cashless transactions.
(C) Banks run the credit risk on the holders as and
when the credit cards are issued whereas debit
cards are free of such risk on banks because the
risk is limited to available balance in the holders
account.
(D) In India, however, the use of credit cards is
restricted mostly to personal transactions.
(E) Credit cards are available at a certain charge and
overdue rate of interest varies from 18 per cent to
36 per cent per annum whereas the debit cards
K
KUNDAN
are issued free to user banks customer or holder.
(F) Credit and debit cards popularly also known as
plastic money, are used to make payments for
purchase of goods and services by the holder
from the member establishments.
31. Which of the following would be the SECOND
sentence after rearrangement?
1) C 2) B 3) A 4) E 5) D
32. Which of the following would be the FOURTH
1) B 2) A 3) C 4) D 5) F
33. Which of the following would be the LAST (SIXTH)
1) F 2) D 3) B 4) C 5) A
34. Which of the following would be theFIRST sentence
after rearrangement?
1) D 2) E 3) B 4) A 5) C
35. Which of the following would be the THIRD sentence
after rearrangement?
1) F 2) C 3) E 4) D 5) B
Directions (Q. 36-40): In each of the given sentences,
select the sentence which would either follow or precede
the given sentence in grammatically and conceptually
appropriate manner. The instruction is given at the end of
every statement.
36. It was envisaged that an overall increase in economic
activity, with the rise of middle class, will ultimately
benefit the poorer members of the society through
trickle down effect.
Which of the following sentences would immediately
precede the above sentence?
1) The incentives for private investment have
increased the investment flow in capital-intensive
technologies and not in labour-intensive
technologies.
2) The rise of middle class was expected to fuel the
growth of the economy through the multiplier
effect.
3) This has been the key logic for giving tax breaks
and benefits to business and higher-income groups.
4) The proponents of reforms have been gala about
the new jobs made available due to reforms.
5) None of these
37. Through a Gazette notification of May 15, 2013 a new
Drug Price Control Order (DPCO) is in place.
follow the above sentence?
1) But a closer look reveals that the DPCO 2013 has
major problems and would lead to regulation of
only 17-18 per cent of the sales in the market.
2) It has been claimed that some medicines will be
cheaper by 80 per cent.
3) It has been welcomed in some quarters on the
grounds that it will substantially reduce the price
of the 348 medicines in the National List of Essential
Medicines (NLEM).
4) The SC, during the hearing in Oct 2013, had said
that the Government should continue with the cost
Based Pricing (CBP) that has been used for the 14
medicines that have been under price control since
1995.
5) None of these
38. There are different phases of growth of Indian
economy.
1) But total reforms were initiated only after 1991.
2) Partial reforms were started during 1980s.
3) The currency crisis of the 1990s compelled the
policy makers to initiate the reforms.
4) Before 1980s there was relative stagnation in the
economy with average growth rate of GDP at 3.5
per cent.
5) None of these
39. Importantly, 63 per cent of these households are in
rural areas.
Which of the following sentence would immediately
precede the above sentence?
1) Going by the 2011 census data, 102 million
households out of a total of 247 million in India are
not covered by the banking system.
2) The coverage of urban household by banks,
according to the Census data, is more compared to
rural households.
3) It is noteworthy, however, that between 2001 and
2011, there was a 23 per cent increase in the number
of households serviced by banks.
K
KUNDAN
4) The increment was more pronounced in the rural
areas, where the share of such households rose
from 30 per cent to 54 per cent.
5) None of these
40. Coming out of a damaging crisis, the microfinance
sector in general and MFIs (microfinace institutions)
in particular have been looking forward to a robust
regulatory arrangement?
1) Its emphasis on encouraging Self Regulatory
Organisations (SRO) gives some hope that sector
networks will get to play more definite and
constructive role in helping MFIs stick to the
regulated path.
2) However, RBI has limited its focus only to MFIs as
of now.
3) The intervention of the central bank on several
occasions has helped ease the situation
substantially by boosting the confidence of the
banking system and facilitating increased funds
flow to MFIs.
4) In the absence of an appropriate regulatory
umbrella, the non-profit and community-based
microfinance organisations are left with only one
option transform into either an NBFCMFI or
into a profit-earning company.
5) None of these
Directions (Q. 41-50): In the following passage, some
of the words have been left out, each of which is indicated
by a number. Find the suitable word from the options given
against each number and fill up the blanks with
appropriate words to make the paragraph meaningful.
In the recent past, the Indian economy has had to (41)
varied challenges in its resolve to (42) its economic success.
The major challenges included: unsupportive external
environment, domestic structural (43), growth slowdown
and inflationary pressures. The slowdown (44) in the
decline in the growth of Gross Domestic Product (at factor
cost at constant 2004-05 prices) from 8.9 per cent in 2010-
11 to 6.7 per cent in 2011-12 and 4.5 per cent in 2012-13.
With the economy (45) to have registered a growth rate of
4.9 per cent in 2013-14, the declining trend in growth seems
to have reversed. The growth slowdown in India is (46) in
sync with trends in similar emerging economies. The sharp
downturn in growth owes to the (47) of domestic factors
with global economic environment of uncertainties and
slow growth in many advanced economies. The growth of
real GDP has generally shown a declining trend since the
first quarter (Q1) of 2011-12, and is characterised by a (48)
in services growth and (49) slowdown in industry. The
(50) in agriculture on the back of a steady monsoon and
robust growth in financial and business services led to a
modest uptick in growth in 2013-14.
41. 1) move 2) overcome 3) modify
4) surpass 5) triumph
42. 1) approve 2) endorse 3) sustain
4) bolster 5) preserve
43. 1) commitment 2) repression 3) compulsions
4) restraints 5) constraints
44. 1) proclaimed 2) manifested 3) exposed
4) declared 5) embodied
45. 1) projected 2) outnumbered 3) neglected
4) arranged 5) envisaged
46. 1) commonly 2) typically 3) broadly
4) usually 5) publicly
47. 1) bond 2) part 3) network
4) interface 5) integration
48. 1) moderation 2) patience 3) equanimity
4) discomposure 5) relaxation
49. 1) incurable 2) distant 3) stretched
4) protracted 5) elongated
50. 1) renewal 2) restoration 3) awakening
4) suppression 5) revival
Test-II: General Awareness,
Marketing and Computers
51. India is negotiating the Broad-based Trade and
Investment Agreement (BTIA) with which of the
following groups/countries? The agreement is now in
its final leg.
1) ASEAN 2) EU 3) Mauritius
4) Japan 5) None of these
52. Which of the following countries has recently
announced to make match-fixing a specific crime for
the first time to ensure sport remains corruption-free?
The country is preparing to co-host 2015 ICC World
Cup.
1) England 2) Australia 3) Zimbabwe
4) New Zealand 5) None of these
53. Indias Kamal Chawla, who won a bronze medal in the
Asian Championship held in the United Arab Emirates
(UAE) recently, is associated with which of the
following games?
1) Table tennis 2) Squash 3) Snooker
4) Chess 5) Badminton
54. The Reserve Bank of India asked banks not to levy
penalties on customers in which of the following
conditions as part of a consumer protection initiative
recently?
1) Not paying minimum amount due of credit cards
up to three months
2) Not maintaining a minimum balance in an
inoperative account
3) Defaulting on EMI of housing loans up to three
months
K
KUNDAN
4) Defaulting on EMI of theft vehicles whose claims
are under process with insurers
5) None of these
55. As per news published in financial newspapers, Indian
Rupee is appreciating these days. Which of the
following statements is/are correct in this regard?
1) The exchange rate of rupee has gone up.
2) The value of rupee has gone up and now it is 110
paise and not 100 paise.
3) You can purchase more items in one rupee than
you earlier did.
4) All the above
5) Only 1) and 3)
56. Which of the following films was given the Best Picture
Award at the International Indian Film Academy (IIFA)
Awards held in Tampa Bay in the US recently?
1) D Day
2) Jolly LLB
3) Yeh Jawani Hai Deewani
4) Bhaag Milkha Bhaag
5) Chennai Express
57. The RBI said that banks will not be permitted to charge
foreclosure charges or pre-payment penalties on all
floating rate term loans sanctioned to individual
borrowers, with immediate effect. Floating loan
products include
1) housing loans 2) corporate loans
3) vehicle loans 4) personal loans
5) All the above
58. Afghanistan started using its first-ever satellite,
AFGHANSAT 1, recently, which will support
broadcasting, mobile telephony and IP connectivity
in the country. This satellite has been leased from
which of the following agencies?
1) ISRO, India 2) Eutelsat, EU
3) NASA, US 4) Roscosmos, Russia
5) CNES, France
59. The Reserve Bank of India makes changes in various
rates/ratios from time to time. What is the reason
behind this action of the central bank?
1) It ensures that banks do not earn huge profits at
the cost of public money.
2) It ensures that Indian Rupee does not lose its market
value.
3) It attempts to keep inflation under control.
4) Only 1) and 3)
5) Only 2) and 3)
60. Indias foreign exchange reserves, which are held and
managed by the RBI, comprise which of the following?
1) Foreign currency assets
2) Gold
3) Special Drawing Rights (SDRs) allocated to India
by the IMF
4) All the above
5) Only 1) and 3)
61. The book titled The Candidate has been authored by
who among the following?
1) Anirudh Bhattacharyya 2) Hanif Qureshi
3) Narendra Jadhav 4) SY Quraishi
5) None of these
62. What is Indias ranking in the State of Worlds
Mothers Index 2014, an annual report prepared by
the London-based aid agency Save the Children?
1) 89th 2) 116th 3) 130th
4) 137th 5) 147th
63. Which of the following teams clinched the 20th Senior
National Womens Football Championship title
recently?
1) Manipur 2) Odisha 3) West Bengal
4) Karnataka 5) Maharashtra
64. Following approvals from IRDA and Ministry of
Corporate Affairs, ING Vysya Life Insurance Company
Limited has now been renamed as
1) Apollo Life Insurance
2) Eveready Life Insurance
3) Exide Life Insurance
4) Pidilite Life Insurance
5) None of these
65. Which of the following statements is/are correct with
respect to treasury bills issued in India?
1) T-bills offer short-term investment opportunities,
generally up to one year.
2) At present, the Govt of India issues three types of
treasury bills through auctions, namely, 91-day, 182-
day and 364-day.
3) State govts too issue T-bills in India.
4) All the above
5) Only 1) and 2)
66. Badakhshan province was in news, recently, for which
of the following reasons?
1) Boko Haram militants kidnapped more than 200 girls
from a school.
2) Pro-Russia protesters captured many govt offices
there.
3) A ferry carrying students capsized here, killing
hundreds of them.
K
KUNDAN
4) A devastating landslide killed hundreds of people
there.
5) None of these
67. Which of the following Indian firms leads the list of 54
Indian companies included in the recent Forbes Global
2000 list of the worlds largest and most powerful public
companies measured by revenues, profits, assets and
market value?
1) Reliance Industries 2) Tata Motors
3) ICICI Bank 4) ONGC
5) State Bank of India
68. President Jacob Zuma got a second term in office in
the recent election in South Africa. He belongs to
which of the following parties?
1) Economic Freedom Fighters
2) Democratic Alliance
3) African National Congress
4) African Anti-Apartheid Party
5) None of these
69. An advisory group of the RBI recommended creating
BBPS to facilitate single window to pay all bills. What
does BBPS stand for?
1) Bank-Based Payment Services
2) Broad-Based Payment Services
3) Bharat Bill Provisioning Services
4) Bharat Bill Processing Services
5) Bharat Bill Payment Services
70. The term ASBA (Application Supported by Blocked
Amounts) is associated with which of the following?
1) International aid 2) Capital market
3) World Bank grants 4) Ponzi schemes
5) None of these
71. In one of the worst mining disasters, at least 300 people
were killed in the coal mine explosion and fire in which
of the following countries recently?
1) Turkey 2) Afghanistan 3) China
4) South Korea 5) Australia
72. The 2014 version of the Ambient Air Pollution (AAP),
released by the WHO, declared which of the following
cities as the worlds most polluted city with highest
concentration of PM 2.5 recently?
1) Beijing 2) Shanghai 3) Delhi
4) Mumbai 5) Kuala Lumpur
73. Which of the following stock exchanges ceased to
exist from May 30 after it failed to adhere to several
new regulatory requirements outlined by market
regulator Sebi? It was a 76-year-old stock exchange.
1) Jaipur Stock Exchange
2) Bhubaneswar Stock Exchange
3) Bangalore Stock Exchange
4) Madras Stock Exchange
5) Ahmedabad Stock Exchange
74. India launched its own payment gateway RuPay,
equivalent to Visa and Mastercard recently. Which of
the following statements is/are NOT correct about the
new card?
1) I t is developed by the National Payments
Corporation of India (NPCI).
2) It will work on three channels ATMs, Point of
Sales (POS) and Online Sales.
3) It is the third such payment gateway in the world.
4) A variant of RuPay would shortly be launched by
IRCTC, which will help in booking railway tickets.
5) For clearing and settlement of each transaction,
banks will have to pay 40 per cent lower fees on
RuPay platform compared to other international
platforms.
75. The youngest state of the country, Telangana, has
how many Parliamentary and Assembly seats
respectively?
1) 9 and 98 2) 11 and 109 3) 13 and 112
4) 15 and 114 5) 17 and 119
76. Which of the following is used as a tool to increase
revenue for the country and some time also to protect
domestic products?
1) Import tariff 2) Embargo 3) Subsidy
4) Quota 5) None of these
77. Pepsi and Coca Cola satisfy thirsty consumers in every
hemisphere. This is an example of
1) Nationalisation 2) Globalisation
3) Institutionalisation 4) Customisation
5) None of these
78. When two usual rivals come together to do business
on a worldwide basis, this partnership is called
1) multinational venture 2) joint licencing
3) strategic alliance 4) conglomerate
5) None of these
79. When a manufacturer is allowed to sell only a certain
number of items in a particular country, it is called that
the firm is facing
1) embargo 2) quota 3) tariff
4) discrimination 5) None of these
80. The classification of products into goods, services
and ideas is determined by which of the following?
1) Type of markets
2) Skill of the service provider
3) Degree of labour-intensiveness
4) Dominant component
5) None of these
81. Find the only correct statement among the following.
1) All customers are profitable customers.
2) The higher the price, the higher the sales.
3) Mission statement is part of a market plan.
4) More salespersons lead to more sales.
5) None of these
82. Buyer resistance refers to
1) buyers hesitation in buying the product.
2) buyers interest in the product being sold.
K
KUNDAN
3) buyers fighting with the seller.
4) buyer becoming a seller.
5) None of these
83. Which of the following is the correct sequence of a
sales process?
1) Lead generation, call, sale, presentation
2) Lead generation, call, presentation, sale
3) Presentation, lead generation, call, sale
4) Presentation, lead generation, sale, call
5) None of these
84. Bank marketing is the same as
1) Indoor marketing
2) Transaction marketing
3) Service marketing
4) All the above
5) None of these
85. A customers relationship with a bank is NOT
influenced by the
1) attitude of salespersons.
2) interest rates of the bank.
3) customers attitude.
4) attitude of the bank staff.
5) None of these
86. The experts who strive to gain access to other peoples
computers to get information illegally or to damage
the computer, are called
1) spammer 2) hacker 3) spoiler
4) tracker 5) None of these
87. In MS Word you can force a page break by
1) using the Insert/Section Break
2) changing the font size of your document
3) positioning your cursor at the appropriate place
and pressing Ctrl+Enter
4) positioning your cursor at the appropriate place
and pressing F1 key
5) None of these
88. The two parts of an email address are
1) user name and password
2) user name and domain name
3) users legal name and password
4) user name and recipient name
5) None of these
89. Which of the following reasons is responsible for
magnetic tape not being practical for applications
where data must be quickly recalled?
1) It is a sequential access medium.
2) It is a random access medium.
3) It is an expensive medium.
4) It is fragile and easily damaged.
5) It is a read-only medium.
90. Why should you delete unknown e-mail attachments?
1) It is a bad manner.
2) It can land you in jail.
3) The sender can track you down and hurt you.
4) It might contain a virus that could hurt your
computer.
5) None of these
91. Which of the following controls the manner of
interaction between the user and the operation
system?
1) Platform 2) Interpreter 3) User interface
4) I-O devices 5) None of these
92. Which of the following is NOT included in the several
primary categories of procedures?
1) Design 2) Firewall development
3) Backup and recovery 4) Testing
5) None of these
93. The operating system called UNIX is typically used
for which of the following?
1) Web servers 2) Laptop computers
3) Desktop computers 4) Super computers
5) All the above
94. Which of the following statements is false with respect
to file names?
1) File extension is another name for file type.
2) Files may share the same name or the same
extension but not both.
3) Every file in the same folder must have a unique
name.
4) The file name comes before the dot (.) followed by
the domain name.
5) None of these
95. What is a kiosk? [Choose the correct option]
1) The description of a computers type, processor
and operation system
2) A computer station that provides the public with
specific and useful information and services
3) The data organised and presented in a manner that
has additional value beyond the value of the data
itself
4) It combines microscopic electronic components on
a single integrated circuit that processes bits
according to software instructions.
5) None of these
96. How is it possible that both programs and data can be
stored on the same floppy disk?
1) Floppy disks can store only data, not programs.
2) A floppy disk has to be formatted for one or for the
other.
3) Programs and data are both software and both can
be stored on any memory device.
4) A floppy disk has two sides, one for data and the
other for programs.
5) None of these
97. Which of the following is the process of finding errors
in software code?
1) Testing 2) Compiling 3) Debugging
4) Scanning 5) Assembling
K
KUNDAN
98. The term peripheral equipment refers to
1) large-scale computer systems
2) office equipment not associated with a desktop
computer
3) any device that is attached to a computer system
4) different input devices attached to a computer
system
5) None of these
99. If a memory chip is volatile
1) it can be used to both read and write data
2) it may melt when exposed to high temperature
3) it will be used for data storage only
4) it will lose its contents if power is turned off
5) None of these
100. To access a mainframe or supercomputer, which of the
following is used?
1) PDA 2) Terminal 3) Modem
4) Node 5) None of these
Test-III: Data Analysis and
Interpretation
Directions (Q. 101-105): Study the radar graph
carefully and answer the questions that follow:
The graph shows the income of various aviation
companies (in ` crore) in different years.
Number of passengers =
passenger per Fare
Income
0
5
10
15
20
25
30
35
2009
2010
2011
2012
2013
2014
Jet Airways Kingfisher Indigo Air India
101. If the fare of Indigo is `5000 in 2013 and that of Air
India is `4000 in 2010 for all classes of passengers,
then what is the ratio of the number of passengers of
Indigo in the year 2013 to that of Air India in the year
2010?
1) 4 : 23 2) 4 : 25 3) 2 : 23 4) 1 : 12 5) 3 : 22
102. The total income of Indigo is what per cent of the total
income of Jet Airways from the year 2012 to 2014?
1) 80% 2) 100% 3) 120%
4) 110% 5) 130%
103. The fare of Jet Airways is 10% more than that of
Kingfisher and the fare of Indigo is 25% less than that
of Kingfisher. If the fare of Kingfisher is `7000 per
passenger in 2014, then what is the total number of
passengers of Jet Airways in the year 2014?
1) 25327 2) 29132 3) 20135
4) 19481 5) 25975
104. In which year is the total income of all aviation
companies together the maximum?
1) 2014 2) 2013 3) 2012
4) 2011 5) 2010
105. Which aviation company carried the maximum number
of passengers during the given six years?
1) Jet Airways 2) Kingfisher 3) Indigo
4) Air India 5) Cant be determined
Directions (Q. 106-110): Study the bar-chart and pie-
chart carefully to answer the given questions.
Working male and female population (in lakh) in
various cities
30
22.5
35
30
25 25
30
32.5 32.5
25
17.5
17.5
0
5
10
15
20
25
30
35
40
Delhi Chennai Mumbai Kolkata Bangalore J aipur
P
o
p
u
l
a
t
i
o
n

(
i
n

l
a
k
h
)
Male Female
Percentage income of the people among six cities
J
a
i
p
u
r

4
%
Bangalore
10%
Kolkata
14%
Mumbai
20%
Chennai
16%
Delhi
36%
Total income = `200 crore
K
KUNDAN
106. What is the difference between the number of working
females in Bangalore and the number of working males
in Chennai?
1) 12.5 lakh 2) 11 lakh 3) 9 lakh
4) 12 lakh 5) 10 lakh
107. In which city is the income per working person the
minimum?
1) Delhi 2) Jaipur 3) Bangalore
4) Chennai 5) Mumbai
108. What is the sum of the average working male and
average working female population of the given six
cities (calculate approximate value)?
1) 63.35 lakh 2) 49.96 lakh 3) 51.48 lakh
4) 53.75 lakh 5) 65.51 lakh
109. In Delhi, what is the difference between the income of
males and that of females? [Assume each person (male/
female) has equal income.]
1) `6.545 crore 2) `5.055 crore 3) `2.935 crore
4) `3.455 crore 5) `4.565 crore
110. The number of working females in Mumbai is what per
cent of the number of working males in Bangalore?
1) 95% 2) 110% 3) 120% 4) 132% 5) 144%
Directions (Q. 111-115): Study the following pie-chart
carefully to answer the given questions.
Pie-chart I and pie-chart II show the percentage of
various types of cattle in Denmark and Spain respectively.
Pie-chart I
Cow
26%
Goat
12%
Buffalo
20%
Others
24%
Camel
18%
Denmark
Pie-chart II

Cow
30%
Goat
8%
Buffalo
24%
Others
22%
Camel
16%
Spain
111. If the total cattle in Denmark is 1200000 and the ratio
of cows in Denmark to that in Spain is 3 : 5, then what
is the total number of cattle in Spain? (You are not
expected to calculate the exact value.)
1) 16.2 lakh 2) 20.8 lakh 3) 19.2 lakh
4) 17.3 lakh 5) 20.14 lakh
112. If the total cattle in Spain is 1000000 then what is the
difference between the number of camels and that of
goats in Spain?
1) 44000 2) 72000 3) 60000 4) 80000 5) 41000
113. If the total number of other animals in Denmark
increases by 10% per annum then what will the number
of other animals be after 2 years? (Given that the
number of other animals at present is 1.5 lakh)
1) 181500 2) 202500 3) 214500 4) 195500 5) 162500
114. If the number of buffaloes in Spain increases by 5%
per annum, then what was the number of buffaloes in
Spain two years ago? (Given that the number of
buffaloes is 2.5 lakh as of now)
1) 165172 2) 189872 3) 325450 4) 282120 5) 226757
115. If the total number of goats in Spain is 50000 and the
ratio of goats in Spain to that in Denmark is 2 : 3 then
what is the total number of cattle in Denmark?
1) 125000 2) 625000 3) 325000
4) 425000 5) 525000
Directions (Q. 116-120): Study the pie-chart and line
graph carefully to answer the given questions.
The pie-chart shows the percentage of train accidents
in different years
2014
18%
2013
16%
2012
14%
2011
2%
2010
8%
2009
20%
2008
22%
Total number of train accidents = 200
The line graph shows the number of persons who died
in train accidents in various states in different years
0
100
200
300
400
500
600
700
800
2008 2009 2010 2011 2012 2013 2014
Year
N
u
m
b
e
r

o
f

p
e
r
s
o
n
s

d
i
e
d
Bihar UP Maharashtra Odisha
116. The number of persons who died in train accidents in
2013 is how much per cent more than the number of
persons who died in the train accident in 2011?
1) 143.5% 2) 137.5% 3) 37.5%
4) 127.5% 5) 147.5%
K
KUNDAN
117. What is the average of the number of persons who
died in train accidents in 2008 in all states together?
1) 182 2) 290 3) 275 4) 284 5) 307
118. In which state is the number of persons who died in
the train accidents the maximum during the given
period?
1) Odisha 2) UP 3) Bihar
4) Only 1) and 2) 5) Marashtra
119. What is the difference between the number of train
accidents in 2014 and that in 2012?
1) 5 2) 6 3) 7 4) 8 5) 9
120. What is the ratio of the number of persons who died
in train accidents in 2010 to that in 2014?
1) 8 : 7 2) 10 : 9 3) 12 : 11 4) 14 : 13 5) 16 : 15
Directions (Q. 121-125): Study the pie-chart carefully
to answer the questions given below:
The pie-chart shows the percentage quantity of
fruits at two fruit shops A and B.
Shop A
Mango
24%
Guava
10%
Others
30%
Orange
20%
Apple
16%
Total quantity = 1200 kg
Shop B
Mango
24%
Guava
16%
Others
26%
Orange
20%
Apple
14%
Total quantity = 1000 kg
121. What is the difference between the quantity of Guava
at Shop B and that at Shop A?
1) 40 kg 2) 45 kg 3) 35 kg 4) 30 kg 5) 50 kg
122. If the price of Mango is `30 per kg, Apple `40 per kg
and Orange `20 per kg, then what is the ratio of their
costs at Shop A?
1) 1 : 4 : 6 2) 9 : 8 : 5 3) 3 : 7 : 8
4) 5 : 4 : 1 5) 2 : 5 : 7
123. The quantity of Mango at Shop B is what per cent of
the quantity of Mango at Shop A?
1) 20% 2) 220% 3) 120% 4) 80% 5) 180%
124. If the price of Mango is `30 per kg, Apple `40 per kg,
Orange `20 per kg, Other fruits `15 per kg and Guava
`18 per kg for both Shop A and B, then what is the
difference between the cost of all fruits at Shop A and
that at Shop B?
1) `7200 2) `3500 3) `6400
4) `5100 5) `4600
125. The quantity of Orange at Shop A is what per cent
more than that of Apple at Shop B?
1) 161.52% 2) 195.5% 3) 182%
4) 190% 5) 171.42%
Directions (Q. 126-130): Study the given bar-chart
carefully and answer the following questions.
The graph shows the number of villages in four
different states where electrification was done in
different years
Number of villages
0 20 40 60 80
Tripura
Manipur
Assam
Nagaland
2012 2013 2014
126. The number of villages in Nagaland where
electrification was done in 2013 is what percentage of
the number of villages inTripura where electrification
was done in 2014?
1) 55.5% 2) 44.4% 3) 77.7%
4) 66.6% 5) 33.3%
127. What is the ratio of the villages in Assam to those in
Manipur where electrification was done in 2013?
1) 1 : 4 2) 3 : 4 3) 1 : 2 4) 4 : 5 5) 3 : 2
128. In which state was the electrification work done in
maximum villages during the given three years?
K
KUNDAN
1) Assam 2) Manipur
3) Manipur and Tripura 4) Nagaland
5) Manipur and Assam
129. If the cost of electrification of a village is `75 lakh then
what is the cost of electrification in four states during
the given period?
1) `4319000000 2) `3825000000 3) `4143000000
4) `355700000 5) `2721000000
130. In which year was the electrification work done in
maximum number of villages?
1) 2012 2) 2013 3) 2014
4) 2013 and 2012 5) 2012 and 2014
Directions (Q. 131-135): Study the given table
carefully to answer the following questions.
Following table shows the investment (in ` crore) in
various sectors in different years
2011 2012 2013 2014
Dome-
stic
Fore-
ign
Dome-
stic
Fore-
ign
Dome-
stic
Fore-
ign
Dome-
stic
Fore-
ign
Industry 5000 2000 1000 1500 4000 3000 6000 1500
Cement 3000 1600 3000 2500 5000 2800 4000 1800
Metals 4000 2800 3500 2000 3200 2200 1500 500
Machinery 2000 3000 2500 3000 3600 6000 1000 1500
Transport 2500 2000 1500 3200 3000 1600 4000 1000
Fuel 1500 2500 1000 2800 1500 5000 1200 2000
Chemical 3500 1000 500 4000 2400 3200 2000 3000
131. What is the difference between the total domestic
investment and the total foreign investment in the year
2011?
1) `6400 crore 2) `6200 crore 3) `6600 crore
4) `7000 crore 5) `7100 crore
132. What is the ratio of the total investment in Metals to
that in Machinery?
1) 135 : 302 2) 24 : 49 3) 2 : 4
4) 197 : 226 5) 123 : 233
133. What is the average domestic investment in the year
2014? (You are not expected to calculate the exact value)
1) `2814.28 crore 2) `2519.75 crore 3) `2234.82 crore
4) `3151.51 crore 5) `3329.79 crore
134. Domestic investment in 2013 is what per cent of foreign
investment in 2011?
1) 176.5% 2) 179.7% 3) 181.6%
4) 183.5% 5) 152.3%
135. The average domestic investment in the year 2011 is
what per cent of the average investment in Transport
during the given four years?
1) 201% 2) 65.34% 3) 125.45%
4) 147.97% 5) 167.23%
Directions (Q. 136-140): Study the given table
carefully to answer the following questions.
Field
Name
Shape
Side
(in
m)
Base
(in
m)
Height
(in m)
Radius
(in m)
Cost of
flooring (in
` per sq
metre)
Cost of
fencing
(in `
per m)
A Triangle 16 12 50 20
B Rectangle
10
20
30 15
C Square 15 40 18
D
Parallelog-
ram
20 12 60 25
E Circle 10 45 22
136. What is the cost of flooring of A?
1) `4000 2) `4600 3) `4800
4) `5000 5) `4400
137. What is the difference between the cost of fencing of
C and that of B?
1) `180 2) `120 3) `240
4) `360 5) `480
138. What is the ratio of the cost of flooring to that of
fencing of field D?
1) 4 : 1 2) 6 : 1 3) 8 : 1 4) 9 : 1 5) 5 : 1
139. The cost of fencing of field E is approximately what
per cent of the cost of flooring of field C?
1) 10.5% 2) 19.46% 3) 18.71%
4) 15.36% 5) 13.82%
K
KUNDAN
140. The cost of fencing of field C is what per cent of the
cost of fencing of field D?
1) 87.54%2) 67.5% 3) 72.13%4) 54.36%5) 46.5%
Directions (Q. 141-145): Study the given chart
carefully and answer the following questions.
Train A
Station
Arrival
time
Departure
time
Distance
from
origin
(in km)
Number of
passengers
boarding at
each station
Fare
(in ` )
Ahmedabad Starting 5:00 pm 400
Vadodara 6:30 pm 6:35 pm 100 100 50
Bharuch 8:50 pm 9:00 pm 250 90 120
Mumbai 4:00 am 4:10 am 800 300 400
Pune 7:30 am 7:45 am 1050 150 500
Solapur 10:20 amTerminates 1280 620
Train B
Station
Arrival
time
Departure
time
Distance
from
origin
Number of
passengers
boarding at
each station
Fare
(in ` )
Solapur Starting 6:00 pm 300
Pune 7:40 pm 7:45 pm 230 150 120
Mumbai 9:30 pm 9:35 pm 480 270 220
Bharuch 5:40 am 5:55 am 1030 50 500
Vadodara 9:00 am 9:10 am 1180 100 570
Ahmedabad
12:00
noon
Terminates 1280 620
141. The number of passengers boarding Train A at
Vadodara is what per cent of the number of passengers
boarding Train B at Mumbai?
1) 37.03% 2) 47.03% 3) 27.03%
4) 47.30% 5) None of these
142. What is the difference between the speed of Train A
and that of Train B?
1) 2.73 kmph 2) 1.97 kmph 3) 3.6 kmph
4) 2.62 kmph 5) 3.9 kmph
143. What is the ratio of the total passengers of Train A to
that of Train B?
1) 102 : 792) 104 : 873) 103 : 874) 110 : 795) 113 : 87
144. The total income of Train A is what per cent of the
total income of Train B?
1) 180% 2) 159.51% 3) 123.29%
4) 125% 5) 127.64%
145. If the average speed of Train A increases by 10%,
then when will it reach to its destination?
1) 7:45 am 2) 9:45 am 3) 8:45 am
4) 10:45 am 5) 11:45 am
146. In how many different ways, can eleven cricket players
be selected out of a batch of fifteen players?
1) 1365 2) 1465 3) 1265 4) 1565 5) 1165
147. Two cards are drawn from a well-shuffled pack of 52
cards. The probability that either both of them are
black or both of them are King is
1)
44
13
2)
221
55
3)
35
19
4)
27
14
5)
193
22
Directions (Q. 148-150): Study the following
information carefully to answer the questions given below:
There are 64 members of parliament (MPs) in a
standing committee. Of these, three-fourths are males and
the remaining are females. Among male members two-thirds
belong to the Congress and 75% of the remaining belong
to the BJP. Three-fourths of female members belong to the
BJP and two belong to the BSP. The remaining female
members belong to the Samajwadi Party (SP).
148. What is the number of male members who do not
belong either to Congress or to BJP?
1) 12 2) 16 3) 8 4) 2 5) 4
149. What is the ratio of female SP members to female BJP
members in the committee?
1) 2 : 3 2) 1 : 4 3) 1 : 6 4) 2 : 5 5) 3 : 1
150. The female members of the BJP in the committee is
what per cent of the male members of the BJP in the
committee?
1) 90% 2) 80% 3) 75% 4) 100% 5) 50%
Test-IV: Reasoning (High Level)
information to answer the given questions.
A word and number arrangement machine when given
an input line of words and numbers rearranges them
following a particular rule. The following is an illustration
of input and rearrangement. (All the numbers are two-digit
numbers.)
Input: yogurt jovial 48 cinema total 20 correct
sunny thin 78
Step I: 20 total yogurt jovial 48 cinema correct
sunny thin 78
Step II: 20 total 48 jovial yogurt cinema correct
sunny thin 78
Step III: 20 total 48 jovial 78 thin yogurt cinema
correct sunny
Step IV: 20 total 48 jovial 78 thin yogurt sunny
cinema correct
Step V: 20 total 48 jovial 78 thin yogurt sunny
correct cinema
Step V is the last step of the rearrangement. As per
the rules followed in the above steps, find out in each
of the following questions the appropriate step for
the following input.
Input: united madrid 89 chair 21 aircraft liverpool
beneath honey 11 everyday
K
KUNDAN
151. Which step number will be the following output?
11 honey 21 chair 89 madrid united aircraft liverpool
beneath everyday
1) Step II
2) Step III
3) Step IV
4) There will be no such step.
5) None of these
152. How many steps will be required to get the final
output?
1) Five 2) Six 3) Seven
4) Four 5) None of these
153. Which word/number would be the fifth from the right
in Step V?
1) madrid 2) united 3) 89
4) liverpool 5) None of these
154. What is the position of beneath in Step IV?
1) 9th from the left 2) 11th from the left
3) 2nd from the right 4) 4th from the right
5) None of these
155. If in a certain way honey is related to aircraft and
chair is related to beneath then madrid would be
related to which of the following in the last step?
1) 21 2) united 3) everyday
4) liverpool 5) None of these
Directions (Q. 156-160): Read the following
information carefully and answer the questions that follow.
Twelve friends are sitting in two squares. One square
is inside another. P, Q, R, S, T and V are in the outer square
facing inward. A, B, C, D, E and F are sitting in the inner
square facing outward. They all are sitting in such a way
that in each square four persons are sitting in the middle of
the sides and two persons are sitting on diagonally
opposite corners. Each friend in the inner square is facing
another friend of the outer square. There are exactly two
persons sitting between P and T. E sits second to the left
of A. R is on the immediate left of the one who is facing A.
Neither E nor A faces either T or P. S is facing F and Q is not
opposite R in the outer square. T is not sitting adjacent to
S. B is not facing P. Between B and D there are as many
persons as between R and V.
156. Who is sitting opposite B?
1) V 2) Q 3) T
4) Data inadequate 5) None of these
157. V is facing which of the following persons?
1) E 2) D 3) A
158. Who is sitting on the immediate left of R?
1) A 2) S 3) P
159. Four of the five are alike in a certain manner. Select the
one which is not similar to the other four.
1) R, E 2) A, S 3) D, T
4) F, Q 5) C, E
160. Who is sitting second to the left of D?
1) A 2) E 3) F
Directions (Q. 161-165): In each question below are
given three statements followed by two conclusions
numbered I and II. You have to take the given statements to
be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly
known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide
which of the given conclusions logically follows from the
given statements, disregarding commonly known facts.
Give answer
1) if only conclusion I follows.
2) if only conclusion II follows.
3) if either conclusion I or II follows.
4) if neither conclusion I nor II follows.
5) if both conclusions I and II follow.
(161-162):
Statements: All seconds are hours.
No minute is a needle.
Some hours are needles.
161.Conclusions: I. All needles being seconds is a
possibility.
II. Some seconds are hours.
162.Conclusions: I. No hour is a minute.
II. Some minutes are hours.
(163-164):
Statements: No sweet is a drink.
Some liquids are solids.
All drinks are liquids.
163.Conclusions: I. All drinks are solids.
II. Some liquids are definitely not
sweets.
164.Conclusions: I. All sweets being liquids is a
possibility.
II. All liquids being sweets is a
possibility.
165.Statements: Some stones are woods.
Some woods are not leaves.
All branches are stones.
Conclusions: I. Some stones are not leaves.
II. All branches are woods.
information carefully and answer the questions.
In a certain code language, newspaper enhance the
knowledge is written as yo no co po, new enhance good
version is written as co so ro jo, good knowledge is
necessary is written as bo to ro po, the new brand book
is written as qo jo do yo, and book is necessary is written
as bo do to.
166. What is the code for version?
1) so 2) ro 3) jo
4) Cant be determined 5) None of these
167. Which of the following is the code for brand enhance
version?
K
KUNDAN
1) do qo co 2) so qo co 3) do ro co
4) Cant say 5) None of these
168. What is the code for new?
1) so 2) ro 3) jo
4) yo 5) None of these
169. What is the code for necessary?
1) bo 2) to 3) ro
170. necessary is talent will be coded as
1) mo bo to 2) mo lo to 3) bo to no
Direction (Q. 171-175): Study the following
information carefully and answer the given questions.
Six friends P, Q, R, S, T and U from six different areas,
viz Rohini, Indirapuram, Dwarka, Kaushambi, Munirka and
Vaishali, go for shopping in six different shopping
complexes, viz Sahara, GIP, CSM, V
3
S, Shipra and Select
Citywalk, but not necessarilily in the same order. Three
different types of transports are used by them, viz Car, Bus
and Metro, in such a manner that two persons use the
same type of transport but not necessarily in the same
order.
P uses car and lives in Vaishali but he does not go to
CSM and Select Citywalk.
The person going to Shipra Complex uses car and the
one going to GIP uses bus.
T uses the same type of transport as the person from
Dwarka.
CSM Complex is chosen by the person who uses bus.
R is neither from Rohini nor from Munirka and he
goes to Shipra Complex.
One of the persons who use Metro goes to Sahara
Complex.
Q is from Kaushambi and goes to GIP. He does not
use the same transport as S.
U is neither from Indirapuram nor from Munirka.
Select Citywalk and GIP Complex are not visited by
the persons who use car.
The persons from Kaushambi and Rohini are using
the same type of transport.
171. Who are using Metro?
1) S and T 2) U and S 3) T and P
4) P and U 5) None of these
172. Who is going to V
3
S Complex for shopping?
1) U 2) P 3) R
4) S 5) None of these
173. Who is using the same transport as U?
1) P 2) Q 3) T
4) R 5) None of these
174. S belongs to which of the following places?
1) Indirapuram 2) Vaishali 3) Munirka
4) Dwarka 5) None of these
175. R is using which of the following transports?
1) Car 2) Bus 3) Metro
Directions (Q. 176-180): Each of the questions given
below consists of a question and three statements. I, II and
III given below it. You have to decide whether the data
provided in the statement are sufficient to answer the
question.
176. P, Q, R, S, T and U are six teachers in a school teaching
a different subject each M, P, S, B, G and H but not
in the same order. There are only four female teachers.
Who teaches subject B?
I. Q teaches subject H. No female teacher teaches
subject B or M. S, who teaches subject S, is the
oldest.
II. P is older than R and teaches subject P.
III. The youngest teacher teaches subject B. U is not
the youngest. T teaches subject M and is older
than P but younger than Q and U.
1) Only I 2) Only II 3) Only III
4) All I, II and III are necessary
5) All are not sufficient
177. Six participants A, B, C, D, E and F participate in a
painting competition. Out of these, two are ladies. Who
is the sister of E?
I. E and his unmarried sister participated for the
second time and completed the painting in the
given time. A is brother of C.
II. Neither Ds husband nor the new participants won
the competition. B could not complete the
painting.
III. In the result, C was ahead of A but behind E only.
1) Only I 2) Only II
3) Only II & III 4) All are required
5) All I, II & III are not sufficient
178. Eight friends P, Q, R, S, T, V, X and Z are sitting around
a circular table facing outward from the centre. Who is
sitting between X and V?
I. P sits third to the left of X and second to the right
of R. T sits second to the right of V.
K
KUNDAN
II. S and T do not sit next to each other. S sits second
to the left of Q, who is not a neighbour of P.
III. There are as many persons between R and S as
between Q and P.
1) Only I and II 2) Only II 3) Only I and III
4) All I, II, III 5) None of these
179. What is the code for sky?
I. sky is beautiful and white is written as lo no po
so do.
II. beautiful is water is written as po ro so.
III. white water is transparent is written as so no ro
qo.
1) Only I and II 2) Only II and III 3) Only I and III
4) All I, II and III 5) All are not sufficient
180. Four elevators P, Q, R and S have a different speed
and weight. Is the elevator with the lowest speed the
heaviest?
I. P is the heaviest but does not have the highest
speed.
II. S is heavier than R while Qs speed is greater than
Ss which is more than P.
III. Rs weight is not the minimum but has the highest
speed.
1) Only I and II 2) All I, II and III 3) Any of the two
4) Cant be determined 5) None of these
181. If the expression A B >C =D E >F is definitely true,
then which of the following is definitely true?
1) B D 2) F >A 3) C F
4) A >D 5) None of these
182. If R <P is definitely true and R =P is definitely false,
then what will come in place of question marks in the
given expression?
U >A <D >R ? S ? T ? P
1) <, <, 2) >, >, 3) , ,
4) =, =, = 5) None of these
183. If O >V U P S =L >M, then which of the
following is definitely true?
1) V >P 2) U =S 3) M >P
4) O >S 5) None of these
184. What will come in place of blank spaces respectively
if Q R is definitely true and T >W is definitely false?
P <Q _ W _ X =R _ T
1) >, , > 2) , , > 3) =, =, <
4) , , < 5) None of these
185. If I S and P <I are definitely true and C <S is definitely
false then what will come in place of blanks spaces
respectively?
P _ R _ I _ C _ E _ S
1) , <, , =, 2) , >, , =, 3) , <, , =, <
4) >, <, , =, 5) None of these
information carefully and answer the given questions:
A B means A is son of B.
A @ B means A is father of B.
A B means A is mother of B.
A B means A is sister of B.
A B means A is brother of B.
A +B means A is daughter of B.
186. Which of the following represents T is daughter of
R?
1) P @ Q R S T 2) P Q R S +T
3) R @ P Q T S 4) P +Q T S +R
5) None of these
187. What will come in place of question mark (?) if Q is
maternal grandfather of R?
P Q @ S ? T R
1) @ 2) 3) 4) 5) None of these
information carefully and answer the questions.
Too little has changed with the practice of child labour
in our country, despite tall promises made by our leaders.
A good proportion of children throughout the world,
especially in India, form a part of the working labour force.
Millions of children work in fields and factories, on street
corners and in garbage dumps, in private houses and public
houses. These children certainly would pose a threat to
society, if they are not treated equal and given opportunities
to develop towards the best of their potential despite being
poorly educated. The existence of child labour in India is a
complex reality. However, it is a symptom, not the disease.
188. Which of the following is the main cause of the rising
child labour in India?
1) Extreme poverty
2) Unstable and poor income
3) Parental illiteracy
4) More number of dependent children
5) All of these
189. Which of the following can be the main effect of the
increasing child labour in India?
I. Increasing number of crimes in India
II. Increasing unemployment
III. Increased number of unskilled labour force
IV. Increase in illiteracy rate
1) Only I 2) Only I and II 3) Only II and III
4) Only III and IV 5) Only III
190. What course of action should the government take to
reduce the problem of child labour in India?
I. The govt should make strict laws against the
practice of child labour.
II. The govt should provide social security to the
people.
III. The govt should provide quality work.
IV. The govt should promote social values among
the people.
1) Only I 2) Only I and II 3) Only III
4) Only IV 5) All of these
191. Which of the following conclusions can be drawn from
the given passage?
K
KUNDAN
1) Child labour can be reduced by providing skill
development to the people.
2) Child labour has created the wrong image of India
in international arena.
3) The condition of child labour has not improved in
India and is causing threat to the society.
4) Child labour is reducing the quality of education.
5) None of these
information and answer the given questions.
Indias sex ratio for the females is alarming. The ratio
has declined from 976 females (for every 1000 males) in
1961 to 940 in 2011. Every national census has documented
a decline in the ratio, signaling a ubiquitous trend.
Preliminary data from the 2011 census have recorded many
districts with sex ratios of less than 850. The ratio in urban
areas is significantly lower than that in rural parts of the
country. Reports suggest evidence of violence and
trafficking of poor women and forced polyandry in some
regions with markedly skewed ratios. The overall steep
and consistent decline in the ratio mandates serious review.
192. Which of the following is the main cause of declining
sex ratio?
1) Preference for the male child
2) Poor condition of the females in the society
3) Female infanticide
4) Poverty in India
5) All of these
193. Which of the following is the effect of declining sex
ratio in India?
1) Increase in cases of polyandry
2) Increase in female molestation
3) Increase in superstitions in the society
4) Decrease in women empowerment
5) All of these
194. What course of action should the government take to
improve the sex ratio in India?
I. Make the females self-dependent.
II. Increase female literacy.
III. Strict punishment for practicing gender inequality
IV. End of patriarchal society
1) Only I 2) Only I & II 3) Only I, II & III
4) Only II, III & IV 5) All of these
195. Which of the following conclusions can be drawn from
the passage?
1) Absence of strict laws is decreasing sex ratio
2) Human trafficking and forced polyandry are
skewing the sex ratio.
3) The child sex ratio in rural areas is low due to the
lower rate of literacy
4) Lack of women empowerment
5) None of these
Direction (Q. 196-200): In each of the questions given below, which of the five Answer Figures on the right should
come after the Question Figures on the left, if the sequence were continued?
Question Figures Answer Figures
196.
1 2 3 4 5
197.
1 2 3 4 5
198.
1 2 3 4 5
199.
1 2 3 4 5
200.
1 2 3 4 5
K
KUNDAN
Answers
1. 4 2. 2 3. 4 4. 1 5. 3
6. 2 7. 2 8. 3 9. 5 10. 5
11. 3 12. 3 13. 4 14. 2 15. 5
16. 4 17. 3 18. 2 19. 1 20. 5
21. 4 22. 1 23. 3 24. 5 25. 2
26. 3 27. 4 28. 5 29. 2 30. 1
(31-35): BDFAEC
31. 5 32. 2 33. 4 34. 3 35. 1
36. 2 37. 3 38. 4 39. 1 40. 3
41. 2 42. 3 43. 5 44. 2 45. 1
46. 3 47. 4 48. 1 49. 4 50. 5
51. 2 52. 4 53. 3 54. 2 55. 1
56. 4 57. 5 58. 2 59. 3 60. 4
61. 1 62. 4 63. 1 64. 3 65. 5
66. 4 67. 1 68. 3 69. 5 70. 2
71. 1 72. 3 73. 4 74. 3 75. 5
76. 1 77. 2 78. 3 79. 2 80. 4
81. 3 82. 1 83. 2 84. 3 85. 5
86. 2 87. 3 88. 2 89. 1 90. 4
91. 3 92. 2 93. 5 94. 4 95. 2
96. 3 97. 1 98. 3 99. 4 100. 2
101. 2; Total income of Indigo in 2013
=`5 crore
Fare of Indigo =`5000 per passenger
Total number of passengers =
5 crore
5000
=10000
Total income of Air I ndia in 2010
=`25 crore
Number of passengers
=
25crore
62500
4000

`
`
Reqd ratio =10000 : 62500 =4 : 25
102. 3; Total income of Indigo from 2012
to 2014 =25 +5 +30 =`60 crore
Total income of J et Airways from 2012 to
2014 =5 +25 +20 =`50 crore
Reqd % =
60 100
50
=120% of the total
income of J et Airways
103. 5; Fare per passenger of J et Airways
=
100
110
7000
=`7700
And fare of Indigo per passenger
=
100
75
7000
=`5250
Now, total number of passengers i n J et
Airways in 2014 =
passenger per of Fare
income Total
=
7700
crore 20
=25974 25975
104. 1; Total income of aviation companies
in the year 2009 =10 +15 +20 +25
=`70 crore
Similarly in 2010 =5 +15 +25 +35
=`80 crore
In 2011 =10 +15 +25 +30 =`80 crore
In 2012 =5 +10 +25 +35 =`75 crore
In 2013 =5 +15 +20 +25 =`65 crore
In 2014 =20 +25 +30 +35 =`110 crore
I n 2014 the income of all avi ati on
companies is the maximum.
105. 5; Since fare per passenger is not given,
we cant determine which company carried
the maximum number of passengers.
106. 5; The difference between the working
females in Bangalore and the working males
in Chennai =32.5 22.5 =10 lakh
107. 2; Income per working person
=
Total income of thecity
Number of working people in thecity
Income per working person in Delhi
=
36
200 crore
100
(30 25) lakh

=
720000000
5500000
=`130.9
In Chennai =
16
200 crore
100
(22.5 17.5) lakh

=`80
In Mumbai =
20
200 crore
100
(35 30) lakh

=`61.53
In Kolkata =
14
200 crore
100
(30 32.5)lakh

=`44.8
In Banglaore =
10
200 crore
100
25 32.5

=`34.78
In J aipur =
4
200
100
(17.5 25)lakh

=`18.82
The income per working person in J aipur is
the minimum.
108. 4; Average number of working males
=
1
6
(30 +22.5 +35 +30 +25 +17.5)
=26.66 lakh
Average number of working females
=
1
6
(25 +17.5 +30 +32.5 +32.5 +25)
=27.08 lakh
Reqd sum =26.66 +27.08 53.75 lakh
109. 1; Total income of Delhi
=
36
200
100

=`72 crore
Income per person =
72 crore
55lakh
=`130.9
Reqd difference of income
=5 lakh 130.9 =`654.5 lakh
=`6.545 crore
110. 3; Reqd % =
100
25
30

=120%
K
KUNDAN
111. 4; Total cattle in Denmark =1200000
Cows in Denmark =1200000
26
100
=312000
Cows in Spain =312000
3
5
=520000
Total cattle in Spain =
100
520000
30
=1733333.3 1733333 =17.3 lakh
112. 4; The difference between the
number of Camels and that of Goats in Spain
=1000000(16 8)
100
1
=80000
113. 1; The total number of other animals
in Denmark after 2 years
=
2
10
1.5 1
100

lakh =181500
114. 5; The total number of Buffaloes two
years ago in Spain
=
2
25
5
1
100

=226757.38 226757
115. 2; The total number of Goats in Spain
=50000
The total number of Goats in Denmark
=
3
50000
2
=75000
Total number of cattle in Denmark
=
100
75000
12
=625000
116. 3; The number of people who died in
train accidents in 2013 =400 +500 +600
+700 =2200
The number of peopl e who died in train
accidents in 2011
=100 +200 +600 +700 =1600
Reqd % =
1600
100 ) 1600 2200 (
=37.5%
117. 3; Average number of people who died
in train accidents in all states in 2008
=
1
4
(100 +200 +300 +500)
=
1100
4
=275
118. 2; The number of deaths in train
accidents in Bihar
=100 +300 +300 +200 +500 +600 +400
=2400
Similarly, in UP =500 +600 +500 +700 +
600 +700 +600 =4200
In Maharashtra =200 +400 +100 +100 +
300 +400 +300 =1800
In Odisha =300 +200 +700 +600 +400 +
500 +200 =2900
I n UP the number of people who died in
train accidents is the maximum.
Quicker method I t is clear from the graph
that the highest number of people died in UP.
119. 4; The number of trai n acci dents
in 2014 =
18
200
100
=36
The number of train accidents in 2012
=
14
200
100
=28
Reqd difference =36 28 =8
120. 5; The ratio of the number of deaths
in 2010 to that in 2014 =(100 +300 +500
+700) : (200 +300 +400 +600) =1600 :
1500 =16 : 15
121. 1; Quantity of Guava at Shop A
=1200
10
100
=120 kg
Quanity of Guava at Shop B =
16
1000
100
=160 kg
Reqd difference =160 120 =40 kg
122. 2; Cost of Mango at Shop A
=30 1200
24
100
=`8640
Cost of Apple =40 1200
16
100
=`7680
Cost of Orange =20 1200
20
100
=`4800
Reqd ratio =8640 : 7680 : 4800
=9 : 8 : 5
123. 3; Quantity of Mango at Shop B
=
24
1000
100
=240 kg
Quantity of Mango at Shop A
=
24
1200
100
=288 kg
Reqd % =
100
288
240
= 120% of the
quantity of Mango at Shop A
124. 4; Cost of total fruits at Shop A =Cost
of Mango +Cost of Apple +Cost of Guava
cost of Orange +Cost of Other fruits
(1200
24
100
30 +1200
16
100
40 +
1200
10
100
18 +1200
20
100
20 +
1200
30
100
15)
=8640 +7680 +2160 +4800 +5400
=`28680
Cost of total fruits at Shop B
=(1000
24
100
30 +1000
14
100
40 +
1000
16
100
18 +1000
20
100
20 +
1000
26
100
15
=7200 +5600 +2880 +4000 +3900
=`23580
Reqd difference =28680 23580 =`5100
125. 5; Quantity of Orange at Shop A
=
20
1200
100
=240 kg
Quantity of Apple at Shop B =
14
1000
100
=140 kg
Reqd % =
240 100
140
% =171.42% more
than the quantity of Apple at Shop B.
126. 5; Reqd % =
100
60
20

= 33.3% of
electrification of villages in Tripura in the
year 2014.
127. 4; Number of villages in Assam where
electrification was done in 2013 =40
Number of vill ages in Manipur where
electrification was done in 2013 =50
Reqd ratio =4 : 5
128. 3; I n Assam, the number of villages
where electrification was done
=30 +40 +30 =100
In Manipur =40 +50 +60 =150
In Tripura =40 +50 +60 =150
In Nagaland =40 +20 +50 =110
Maximumelectrification was done in both
Tripura and Manipur.
129. 2; Total number of vil lages in four
states where electrification was done
=100 +150 +150 +110 =510
Cost of electrification =7500000 510
=`3825000000
130. 1; Number of vil lages where
electrification was done in 2012
=50 +30 +60 +40 =180
Number of villages where electrification was
done in 2013 =20 +40 +50 +50 =160
Number of villages where electrification was
done in 2014 =40 +30 +40 +60 =170
In 2012 maximum electrification work was
done.
131. 3; Total domestic investment
in 2011 =5000 +3000 +4000 +2000 +
2500 +1500 +3500
=`21500 crore
Total foreign investment in 2011
=2000 +1600 +2800 +3000 +2000 +
2500 +1000 =`14900 crore
Reqd difference =21500 14900
=`6600 crore
132. 4; Total investment in Metals
=4000 +2800 +3500 +2000 +3200 +
2200 +1500 +500 =`19700 crore
Total investment in Machinery
=2000 +3000 +2500 +3000 +3600 +
6000 +1000 +1500 =`22600 crore
Reqd ratio =19700 : 22600 =197 : 226
133. 1; Average domestic investment in
2014
6000 4000 1500 1000 4000 1200 2000
7

=
19700
7
=`2814.28 crore
134. 5; Domestic investment in 2013
=4000 +5000 +3200 +3600 +3000 +
1500 +2400 =`22700 crore
Foreign investment in 2011 =2000 +1600
+2800 +3000 +2000 +2500 +1000
=`14900 crore
=
22700 100
14900
=152.3%
135. 2; Average domestic investment in
2011 =`
21500
7
crore
Average investment in transport
2500 2000 1500 3200 3000 1600
4000 1000
4

K
KUNDAN
=`4700 crore
Reqd % =
21500
100
7 4700

=65.34%
136. 3; A is a triangle
area of A =
1
16 12
2

=96 sqm
Cost of flooring of A =96 50 =`4800
137. 1; Perimeter of B =2(10 +20) =60m
Cost of fencing of B =60 15 =`900
Perimeter of C =4 15 =60m
So, cost of fencing of C =60 18 =`1080
Reqd difference =1080 900 =`180
138. 4; Area of D =Base Height
=20 12 =240m
2
Cost of flooring of D =240 60 =`14400
Perimeter of D =2(20 +12) =64m
Cost of fencing of D =64 25 =`1600
Reqd ratio =14400 : 1600 =9 : 1
139. 4; Perimeter of E =2 r =
22
2 10
7

=
440
7
m
Cost of fencing of E =
440
22
7

=`1382.85
Area of C =(15)
2
=225m
2
Cost of flooring of C =225 40
=`9000
Reqd % =
1382.85 100
9000
=15.36% of flooring cost of C.
140. 2; Fencing cost of C =`1080
Fencing cost of D =`1600
Reqd % =
1080
100
1600

=67.5%
141. 1; Reqd percentage
=
100
100 37.03%
270

142. 1; Speed of Train A
=
1280
10:20 am 5:00 pm
=
1280
17 hours 20 minutes
=
52
3 1280
=73.84 kmph
Speed of Train B =
1280
12:00 noon 6:00 pm
=
hours 18
1280
=71.11 kmph
Difference between the speed of Train A
and Train B =73.84 71.11 =2.73 kmph
143. 2; Total passengers in Train A =400 +
100 +90 +300 +150 =1040
Total passengers in Train B =300 +150 +
270 +50 +100 =870
Reqd ratio =1040 : 870 =104 : 87
144. 5; Total income of Train A =(400
50) +(500 70) +(590 280) +(890
100) +(1040 120) =`434000
Total income of Train B =(300 120) +
(450 100) +(620 280) +(670 70) +
(770 50) =`340000
Reqd % =
434000 100
340000
=127.64% of the total income of Train B.
145. 3; I f the average speed of Train A
increases by 10%,
then its new speed =
110
73.84
100
=81.22 kmph
Time taken by Train A during the journey
=
1280
81.22
=15.75 hours
=15 hours 45 minutes
The time when the train wil l reach i ts
destination =5 pm +15 hours 45 minutes
=8:45 am
146. 1; Reqd number of ways =
15
11
C
=
15 14 13 12
4 3 2 1

=1365
147. 2; n(S) =
52
2
51 52
C 1326
2

Let E
1
be the event of getti ng both the
cards black be E
2
the event of getting both
the cards King.
Then, E
1
E
2
=event of getting 2 Kings of
black cards
n(E
1
) =
26
2
26 25
C 325
2

,
n(E
2
) =
4
2
4 3
C 6
2

n(E
1
E
2
) =
2
2
C 1
P(E
1
) =
1
n(E )
n(S)
=
325
1326
P(E
2
) =
2
n(E )
n(S)
=
6
1326
P(E
1
E
2
) =
1
1326
P(both Kings on black) =P(E
1
E
2
)
=P(E
1
) +P(E
2
) P(E
1
E
2
)
=
325 6 1
1326 1326 1326

=
330 55
1326 221
(148-150):
Total members =64
Males =
3
64
4
=48, Females =(64 48)
=16
Male Congress members =
2
48
3
=32
Male BJ P members =(48 32)
75
100
=12
Female BJ P members =
3
16
4
=12
Female BSP members =2
Female SP members =16 (12 +2) =2
148. 5; Number of male members who do
not belong either to Congress or to BJ P
=48 (32 +12) =4
149. 3; Rati o of female SP members to
female BJ P members =2 : 12 =1 : 6
150. 4; Reqd % =
12 100
12
=100%
(151-155):
It first arranges one number and one word in
each step till all the numbers are arranged in
ascending order. The words that are arranged
together with numbers are those words which
are preceding the numbers in inputs. Rest of
the words are arranged in reverse alphabetical
order.
Input: united madrid 89 chair 21 aircraft
liverpool beneath honey 11 everyday
Step I. 11 honey united madrid 89 chair 21
aircraft liverpool beneath everyday
Step II. 11 honey 21 chair united madrid 89
Step III. 11 honey 21 chair 89 madrid united
Step IV. 11 honey 21 chair 89 madrid united
liverpool aircraft beneath everyday
Step V. 11 honey 21 chair 89 madrid united
liverpool everyday aircraft beneath
Step VI. 11 honey 21 chair 89 madrid united
liverpool everyday beneath aircraft
151. 2 152. 2 153. 2 154. 3 155. 3
(156-160):
156. 3 157. 1 158. 3 159. 5 160. 1
161. 5; All seconds are hours (A) +Some
hours are needles (I) =A +I =No conclusion.
But there exists a possibility of I . Hence
conclusion I follows.
Again, All seconds are hours (A)
conversion Some seconds are hours. Hence,
conclusion II follows.
162. 3; No minute is a needle conversion
No needle is a minute. Now, Some hours
are needles (I) +No needle is a minute (E) =
I +E =O =Some hours are not minutes. But
conclusions I and II make a complementary
pair (E-I ). Thus, either conclusion I or I I
follows.
K
KUNDAN
163. 2; All drinks are liquids (A) +Some
liquids are solids (I) =A +I =No conclusion.
Hence, I does not follow.
Again, No sweet is a drink (E) +All drinks
are liquids (A) =E +A =O* =Some liquids
are not sweets. Hence, conclusion II follows.
164. 1; No sweet is a drink (E) +All drinks
are liquids (A) =E +A =O* =Some liquids
are not sweets. But the possibility exists in I.
Thus, conclusion I follows but conclusion II
does not follow.
165. 4; Some stones are woods (I) +Some
woods are not leaves (O) = I + O = No
conclusion. Hence, I does not follow.
Again, All branches are stones (A) +Some
stones are woods (I) =A +I =No conclusion.
Hence neither conclusion I nor conclusion
II follows.
(166-170):
newspaper enhance the knowledge
yo no co po ... (i)
new enhance good version
co so ro jo ... (ii)
good knowledge is necessary
bo to ro po ... (iii)
the new brand book qo jo do yo ... (iv)
book is necessary bo do to ... (v)
From (i) & (ii), enhance co ... (vi)
From (i) & (iii), knowledge po ... (vii)
From (i) & (iv), the yo ... (viii)
From (i), (vi), (vii) and (viii)
newspaper no ... (ix)
From (ii) & (iii), good ro ... (x)
From (ii) & (iv), new jo ... (xi)
From (ii), (vi), (x) and (xi),
version so ... (xii)
From (iv) & (v), book do ... (xiii)
From (iv), (viii), (xi) and (xiii)
brand qo ... (xiv)
From (iii) & (v), is/necessary
bo/to ... (xv)
166. 1 167. 2 168. 3 169. 4 170. 1
(171-175):
PersonTransport Place
Shopping
Complex
P Car Vaishali V
3
S
Q Bus Kaushambi GIP
R Car Indirapuram Shipra
S Metro Dwarka
Select
Citywalk/Sahara
T Metro Munirka
Sahara/Select
Citywalk
U Bus Rohini CSM
171. 1 172. 2 173. 2 174. 4 175. 1
176. 4; From I. Q teaches H.
No female teacher teaches B or M. S is the
oldest and teaches subject S.
From II. P >R. P teaches subject P.
From III. The youngest teacher teaches B.
T teaches subject M. Besides, Q >U >T >P
or U >Q >T >P
From I, II & III. There are two possibilities:
(i) S >Q >U >T >P >R
or, possibility (ii) S >U >Q >T >P >R
R is the youngest and therefore teaches subject
B.
177. 5; From I.
C A
) Brother (
) (
E and his sister completed the painting.
Clearly E is a male.
Es sister is unmarried.
From II. D is a female but married.
B could not complete the painting.
From III. E >C >A (Result)
From I, II & III. Either C or F is a female,
who is Es unmarried sister.
Clearly, all statements together are not
sufficient.
178. 1; From I.
or,
From II.
From III. No. of persons between R and S
=No. of persons between Q and P.
From I and II. I(a) and I(b) cant be combined
with II. Hence, go for I(c) and you get
Hence, Q is sitting between X and V.
179. 5; From I. sky is beautiful and white
lo no po so do
From II. beautiful is water po ro so
From III. white water is transparent so
no ro qo
From I, II & III: The code for sky is either
lo or do
All are not sufficient.
180. 2; From I. Speed: P does not have the
highest speed
Weight: P >_ >_ >_
From II. Speed: Q >S >P
Weight: S >R
From III. Speed : R >_ >_ >_
Weight: Rs weight is not the minimum.
From I, II & III. Speed: R >Q >S >P
Weight: P >S >R >Q
Thus, P has the minimum speed and is the
heaviest.
181. 4; Given expression
Comparing B and D B >D
Comparing F and A A >F
Comparing C and F C >F
Comparing A and D A >D
Thus, option 1), 2) and 3) do not follow. But
option 4) follows.
182. 1; R <P is true and R =P is false
K
KUNDAN
From option 1)
Comparing P and R R <P is true
and R =P is false
183. 4; Given expression
O >V U P S =L >M
Comparing V and P V P
Comparing U and S U S
Comparing M and P P >M
Comparing O and S O >S
Thus, option 1), 2) and 3) do not follow.
184. 2; Given: Q R is definitely true and
T >W is definitely false.
Now, check options one by one.
Option 1)
Q >R and W >T are true. Hence does not
follow.
Option 2)
Q R is true and W >T. So, (T >W) is
definitely false. Hence follows.
Option 3) P <Q =W =X =R <T
Q =R is true ie Q R is not true.
Option 4) P <Q W X =R <T
Q R is true. T >W is true. Hence, does not
follow.
185. 1; Given: I S and P <I are definitely
true and C <S is definitely false.
Option 1)
Clearly, I S and P <I is true and C S.
Hence (C <S) is false, Follows.
186. 3; Option 1)
Ts gender is not known. Hence, does not
follow.
Option 2)
T is either father or mother of R.
Option 3)
Clearly, T is daughter of R.
Option 4)

T is wife of R.
187. 2; Option 1)
Q is paternal grandfather of R
Option 2)
Clearly, Q is maternal grandfather of R.
Option 3)
Q is father of R.
Option 4)
Q is father of R.
188. 5; All these are responsible for increased
child labour in India.
189. 4; Child labour will reduce skill
development. And since children are working,
it will also reduce the literacy rate.
190. 2; Social security will help in improving
the living standard and strict laws will create
a fear in the minds of people employing child
labour.
191. 3; Increased child labour is creating social
evil.
192. 5
193. 1; Decrease in sex ratio will increase
the cases of polyandry because of less number
of women in the society.
194. 3; If women become self-dependent, it
will increase their confidence, which in turn
will help women fight for their right. Strict
government laws will force people to follow
it. Female literacy will help women fight
social evils.
195. 4; Violence and trafficking of women
clearly point to lack of women
empowerment.
196. 2; It follow if 1 2 3 then 4 5
6 rule. Shifting of elements follows the
following pattern:
1 2
2 3
197. 2; The whole figure rotates 45 ACW
while it follows if 1 2 3 then 4 5
6 rule.
198. 3; Shifting is repeated in steps 1 2, 3
4, 5 6
199. 1; It follows if 1 2, 3 4 then 5
6 rule and the shifting of the elements follows
the pattern as shown below:
200. 2; It follows if 1 2, 3 4 then 5
6 rule. The pattern of movement of elements
is as given below:

Practice Set SBI ASSOCIATE PO PDF

Diunggah oleh

Informasi Dokumen

Deskripsi Asli:

Judul Asli

Hak Cipta

Format Tersedia

Bagikan dokumen Ini

Bagikan atau Tanam Dokumen

Opsi Berbagi

Apakah menurut Anda dokumen ini bermanfaat?

Apakah konten ini tidak pantas?

Hak Cipta:

Format Tersedia

Practice Set SBI ASSOCIATE PO PDF

Diunggah oleh

Hak Cipta:

Format Tersedia

K

1326 1326 1326

Anda mungkin juga menyukai