MOCK TEST 1005/ SET - B

SET -B

MOCK TEST 1005 /SET B

09.04.2013

Together we can do more ( mmm)

Marks : 150
Time : 3 Hrs.

Which of the following Islands of the Pacific Ocean belongs to Melanesia

group of Islands ?
(a) Soloman Island
(b) Gilbert Island
(c) Society Island
(d) Marshall island

In which of the following countries are Pampas Grasslands located ?

(a) Paraguay
(b) Bolivia
(c) Argentina
(d) Uruguay

Which of the following areas of India receives winter rainfall ?

(a) North - West (b) South -West
(c) North -East
(d) South -East

Where the area known as Jangal Mahal is situated ?

(a)
West (b) Jharkhand
(c) Assam
Bengal

(d) Bihar

Which of the following is a specific example of Out Port

(a) Porbandar
(b) Haldia
(c) Panaji
(d)
Vishskhapatnam

The famous Tiger Reserve Sariska is situated in which of the following

States ?
(a)
Uttar (b) Rajashtan
(c) Uttarakhand (d)
Madhya
Pradesh
Pradesh

The most controversial Babli Project is situated in which of the

following States ?
(a)
Andhra (b) Gujarat
(c)
Madhya (d)
Pradesh
Pradesh
Maharashtra

The first Nuclear reactor of India is named ___

(a) Apsara
(b) Kamini
(c) Rohini

10

(d) Urvashi

The biggest producer of spices in India is ______

(a)Gujarat
(b) Kerela
(c)
Madhya (d) Punjab
Pradesh
The largest Milk producing country in the world is :
(a) Canada
(b) Denmark
(c) England
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(d) India

MOCK TEST 1005/ SET - B

11

The Earth is located between ______

(a) Venus and Mars
(b) Mars and Jupiter
(c) Venus and Jupiter
(d) Mercury and Venus

12

Which of the following mountains is located in Germany ?

(a)
Black (b) Atlas
(c) Pyrenees
(d) Apennines
Forest

13

Which of the following countries is called Garden of Lakes ?

(a) Poland
(b) Finland
(c) Netherlands
(d) Switzerland

14

Which of the following systems of rocks in India contain major deposits

of Iron -ore ?
(a) Gondwana System
(b)
Cuddpah
System
(c)
Dharwar
(d)
Vindhyan
System
System

15

Which one of the following rivers cuts across all the three ranges of the
Himalayas ?
(a) Ravi
(b) Sutlej
(c) Chenab
(d) Jhelum

16

Tsunami Warning Centre in India is located in ____

(a) Chennai
(b)
(c) Hyderabad
Vishakhaptanam

(d) Port Blair

17

Which one of the following Tiger reserves of India is located in

Mizoram ?
(a) Melghat
(b) Buxa
(c) Dampha
(d) Bhadra

18

According to Census 2011 , the state having the highest density of

population is __
(a) Bihar
(b) Kerala
(c)
Uttar (d) West Bengal
Pradesh

19

According to Population Census 2011, which of the following states of

India has lowest percentage of Urban Population to its total population ?
(a)
Himachal (b) Odisha
(b) Jharkhand
(d) Rajasthan
Pradesh

20

The Hot Spots ( in context of environment) found in India are ______

(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

Eastern Ghat, Western Ghat

Vidhyan Range, Eastern Ghat
Eastern Himalayan Range , Western Ghat
Shivalik Range, Eastern Ghat

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MOCK TEST 1005/ SET - B

21

Which State of India recorded the negative growth - rate of population

during 2011 - 11 ?
(a) Goa
(b) Kerala
(c) Karnataka
(d) Nagaland

22

Which state of India has the largest percentage of its area under forest
cover ?
(a)
Arunachal (b)
(c) Mizoram
(d) Nagaland
Pradesh
Meghalaya

23

The final match of World Cup Cricket 2011 was played at ___
(a) Delhi
(b) Kolkata
(c) Mumbai
(d) Mohali

24

The 9th World Hindi Conference was held on ____

(a) Chicago
(b)
(c) London
(d) New York
Johannesburg
In July 2012 Enrique Pena Nieto was elected as President of --(a) Bolivia
(b) Colombia
(c) Honduras
(d) Mexico

25
26

In which country FIFA - 2014 World Cup is proposed to be held ?

(a) Argentina
(b) Spain
(c) Italy
(d) Brazil

27

In London Olympic 2012 India won --(a)

1 Silver and 5 Bronze Medals
(b)
2 Silver and 4 Bronze Medals
(c)3 Silver and 3 Bronze Medals
(d)
4 Silver and 2 Bronze Medals

28

With which country, India has signed Social Security Agreement in June
2012 ?
(a) Estonia
(b) Finland
(c) Norway
(d) Sweden

29

The Winner of Golden Boot award in Euro - Cup 2012 was ____
(a) Cristiana Ronaldo
(b) Fernando Torres
(c) Mario Balotelli
(d) Mario Gomez

30

Who was Indias flag bearer at the London Olympics 2012 ?

(a) Mary Kom
(b)
Sania (c) Sushil Kumar (d) Vijay Kumar
Nehwal

31

Who among the following is the 29th Grand Master in India ?

(a) Deep Sen Gupta
(b) M.R. Lalit Babu
(c) M.R. Venkatesh
(d) Sahaj Grover

32

In which country FIFA -2010 World Cup was held ?

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MOCK TEST 1005/ SET - B

(a) Argentina

(b) Spain

(c) Brazil

(d) South Africa

33

Which country won Gold Medal in Mens Hockey in London Olympics

2012 ?
(a) Australia
(b) Britain
(c) Germany
(d) Netherlands

34

Who among the following has been given Ramon Magsaysay Award for
the year 2012 ?
(a) Anupam Mishra
(b) Dr. Binayak Sen
(c) Kulandei Francis
(d) R.K. Pachauri

35

Yellow Revolution is related with ____

(a) Flori Culture
(b) Fish Culture
(c) Rape seed - Mustard production (d) Wheat production

56

Lalit is an improved variety of ___

(a) Mango
(b) Guava
(c) Banana
(d) Strawbery
National Academy of Agricultural Research Management (NAARAM) is
located at __
(a) New Delhi
(b) Hyderabad
(c) Nagpur
(d) Nainital

57

58

Preferred variety of Mango for export is ___

(a) Dashahri
(b) Langra
(c) Alphanso

59

Which of the following controls the working of Share Market in India ?

(a) FEMA
(b) SEBI
(c) MRTP Act
(d) None

60

Dalal Street is situated at ___

(a) New Delhi
(b) London

61

The Public Sector undertaking included in Navratna is _____

(a) SAIL
(b) GAIL
(c) MTNL
(d) All
above

(c) Mumbai

(d) Amrapali

(d) Paris
of

the

62

Which one the following crops can be grown in all the three seasons of
the year ?
(a) Sunflower
(b) Safflower
(c) Mustard
(d) Linseed

63

First Agricultural University in India was established at ____

(a0 Pantnagar
(b) Ludhiana
(c) Jabalpur
(d) Kanpur

64

Rourkela Steel Plant was established in collaboration with ______

(a)
United (b) Russia
(c) U.S.A
(d) Germany
Kingdom

65

VAT is imposed ______

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MOCK TEST 1005/ SET - B

(a)
On first stage of production
(b)
Directly on consumer
(c)On all stages between production and final sale
(d)
On final stage of production
66

Indian Meteorological Department is established at ____

(a) New Delhi
(b) Nagpur
(c) Jodhpur
(d) Pune

67

In Uttar Pradesh , the first Viklang Viswa Vidyalaya has been established
at ___
(a) Banda
(b) Kanpur
(c) Chitrakoot
(d) Sonbhadra

68

In Uttar Pradesh Rani Laxmibai Dam Project has been constructed on

the river ____
(a) Ghagra
(b) Betwa
(c) Sone
(d) Chambal

69

Kanhaiyalal Maniklal Central Hindi Institute is situated at __(a) Agra

(b) Bareilly
(c) Gorakhpur
(d) Meerut

70

Who among the following acted as President of Indian National

Congress for six consecutive years ?
(a) Dadabhai Naoroji
(b) Abul Kalam Azad
(c) Gopal Krishna Gokhale
(d) Jawaharlal Nehru

71

Which one among the following statements is correct ?

(a)
All enzymes are proteins
(b)
All proteins are enzymes
(c)None of the enzymes is protein
(d)
None of the proteins is enzymes

72

Which one among the following statements is corrects ?

(a)
All bases are alkalies
(b)
None of the bases in alkali
(c)There are no more bases except the alkalis
(d)
All alkalis are bases but all bases are not alkalis

73

Which one among the following statements about NATO is not correct ?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

NATO has 28 independent member States

The US is an ex - officio member of NATO
NATO is a collective defence organization in Europe
Turkey is a member of NATO

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MOCK TEST 1005/ SET - B

74

The National Commission for Women was created by ____

(a)
An amendment in the constitution of India
(b)
An order of the President of India
(c)A decision of the Union Cabinet
(d)
An Act passed by the Parliament

75

A monument resembling the Taj Mahal was got created by Aurangzeb in

____
(a) Ahmedabad
(b) Daultabad
(c)
(d)
Hoshangabad
Aurangabad

76

Who had propose partyless democracy in India ?

(a)
S.
A (b) Jaya Prakash (c)
Vinobha (d)
Mahatma
Dange
Narayan
Bhave
Gandhi

77

Under which law is it prescribed that all preceedings in the Supreme

Court of India shall be in English Language ?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

78

The Supreme Court Rules, 1966

Article 145 of the Constitution of India
Article 348 of the Constitution of India
A Legislation made by the Parliament

Which one of the following reactions is the main cause of the energy
radiation from the Sun ?
(a)
Diffusion reaction
(b)
Chemical reaction
(c)Fission reaction
(d)
Fusion reaction

79

In SONAR , we use
(a)
radio waves
(b)
audible sound waves
(c)infrasonic waves
(d)
ultrasonic waves

80

A liquid is kept in a regular cylindrical vessel up to a certain height. If

this vessel is replaced by another cylindrical vessel having half the area
of cross section of the bottom, the pressure on the bottom will ___
(a)
be increased to twice the earlier pressure
(b)
be reduced to one- fourth the earlier pressure
(c)remain unaffected
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MOCK TEST 1005/ SET - B

(d)

be reduced to half the earlier pressure

81

The time period of a simple pendulum having a spherical wooden bob is

2 second. If the bob is replaced by a metallic one twice as heavy , the
time period will be _____
(a) more than 2 second
(b) 1 second
(c) 2 second
(d) less than 1 second

82

Which one among the following statements about an atom is not correct
?
(a)
Atoms are the basic units from which molecules and ions are
formed
(b)
Atoms always combine to form molecules
(c)
Atoms aggregate in large numbers to form the matter
that we can see, fell and touch
(d)
Atoms are always neutral in nature

83

Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched ?

(a)
Vitamin B1 -- Retinol
(b)
Vitamin C -- Calciferol
(c)Vitamin B6 - Niacin
(d)
Vitamin B2 - Reboflavin

84

Which of the following was impeached by the British Parliament ?

(a)
Lord (b)
T.B. (c)
Warren (d) Lord Clive
Cornwallis
Macaulay
Hastings

85

The first hour of every sitting of the Lok Sabha is called ______
(a) Public hour
(b)
Question (c)
Privilege (d) Zero hour
hour
hour

86

Wind actions create Mushroom rocks which are usually found in ___
(a) Tropical coastal (b) Hills
(c) Plateaus
(d) Deserts
area

87

The Black rust of disease of wheat is caused by :

(a)
Xanthomonas graminis
(b)
Puccinia graminis
(c)Puccinia recondita
(d)
None of the above

88

The most abundant gas in the earths atmosphere is ____

(a) Nitrogen
(b) Oxygen
(c)
Carbon (d) Hydrogen
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MOCK TEST 1005/ SET - B

dioxide
89

Which of these continents has maximum per capita land ?

(a) Europe
(b) Asia
(c) Australia
(d)
America

North

90

The working principle of a washing machine is ____

(a) Dialysis
(b)
(c)
Reverse (d) Diffusion
Centrifugation osmosis

91

Central Vigilance Commission was set - up on the recommendations of

____
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

Gorwala Report
Administrative Reforms Commission of India
Santhanam Committee
Kripalanit Committee

92

Lightning and Thundering are the characteristic feature of ______

(a) Mesophere
(b) Ionosphere
(c) Stratosphere (d)
Troposphere

93

Which of these volcanoes is

Mediterranean ?
(a) Elgon
(b) Stramboli

called

the

(c) Etna

Light

House

of

the

(d) Vesuvius

94

With which one of the following products is De Beers associated ?

(a) Diamond
(b) Tea
(c)
Nuclear (d) Textiles
Energy

95

Through which mountain range does the Konkan Railway Track pass ?
(a)
Western (b) Himadri
(c) Eastern Ghat (d) Neelgiri Hills
Ghat

96

FATF stands for ___

(a)
Financial Accountability Task Frame
(b)
Fiscal Accountability Trade Force
(c)Fiscal Action Task Force
(d)
Financial Action Task Force

97

Major producer of mulberry silk in India is ______

(a)
(b)
(c)

Jharkhand
Jammu and Kashmir
Karnataka

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MOCK TEST 1005/ SET - B

(d)

Himachal Pradesh

98

Which was mainly responsible for the Bhopal Mishap in 1984 ?

(a) Methyl Isocyanate
(b) Carbon dioxide
(c) Ammonia
(d) Carbon monoxide

99

In which year was Family Planning Programmed started in India ?

(a) 1950 AD
(b) 1952 AD
(c) 1951 AD
(d) 1955 AD

10
0

Which type of fire extinguisher is used for petroleum fire ?

(a) Soda acid type
(c) Foam type

(b) Powder type

(d) None of the above

10
1

Prince of Pilgrims was the name attributed to _____

10
2

The scientist known as Father of Genetics is ___

(a)
Tsang

Hiuen (b) I - tsing

(a) Johnson
10
3

(b) Morgan

(c) Megasthenes

(c) F.B. Morrison

(d) Fa - Hien

(d) G.J.Mandel

Which of the following terms is used in Cricket ?

(a) LBW

(b) Centre Half

(c) Bulls eye

(d) Love

10
4

With which of the following activities are Golden Globe Awards

associated ?
(a) Social work
(b) Films
(c) Journalism (d)
Women
education

10
5

Which one of the following is the biggest flower in the world ?

10
6

Who was not associated with the Aligarh Movement ?

10
7

Who among the Maratha Peshwas preached the Ideal of Hindu Pad Padashai ?
(a) Baji Rao (b)
Balaji (c) Narayan Rao (d) Madhav Rao

(a) Sunflower

(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

(b) Lotus

(c) Glory Lily

(d) Rafflesia

Nazir Ahmad
Altaf Hussain Hali
Maulana Abul Kalam Azad
Chiragh Ali

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MOCK TEST 1005/ SET - B

I

Vishwanath

10
8

The Chilka Lake Region is situated between the deltas of __-

10
9

Finachetto is a strategy in the game of ____

(a)
Krishna and Kaveri
(b)
Godavari and Krishna
(c)Ganga and Mahanadi
(d)
Mahandi and Godavari

(a) Car Racing

(b) Chess

(c) Billiards

(d) Bull fight

11
0

The du- aspa and seh - aspa rank was first introduced during the
reign of :
(a) Akbar
(b) Babur
(c) Jahangir
(d) Shahjahan

11
1

The ratio between the speed of a car and a train is 15 : 22 respectively.

If the speed of the train is 35 km / hr more than that of the car. What is
the speed of the car ?
(a) 75 km/ hr (b) 110 km/ (c) 85 km/ hr (d)
Cannot (e) None
hr
be
determined

11
2

If ` 5,075 is to be divided among 29 people , how much amount will

each person get ?
(a) ` 195
(b) ` 165
(c) ` 155
(d) ` 175
(e) None

11
3

What is the compound interest accrued on a sum of ` 1,800 at the rate

of 4 p.c.p.a in 2 years ?
(a) ` 146.88 (b)
` (c) ` 156.84
(d)
` (e) None
1,946.88
1,846.84

11
4

If 3 men or 9 boys can finish a piece of work in 21 days, in how many

days can 5 men and 6 boys together do the same piece of work ?
(a) 12 days
(b)
8 (c)
14 (d)
Cannot
be (e) None
days
days
determined

11
5

How many such pairs of digits are there in the number 36725918 each
of which has as many digits between them in the number as when the
digits are arranged in descending order within the numbers ?
(a) None
(b) One
(c) Two
(d) Three
(e)
More
than 3

11
6

What should come next in the following number series ?

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MOCK TEST 1005/ SET - B

6881268612368812346861234568?
(a) 6
(b) 1
(c) 4
(d) 8

(e) None

11
7

In a certain code PAGE is written as 3%7@ , SORE is written as

89@. How is PEAS written in that code ?
(a) 3@8
(b) 3@%9
(c) 2@%8
(d) 3%@8
(e) None

11
8

In a certain code MOUSE is written as PRUQC. How is SHIFT

written in that code ?
(a) VKIRD
(b) VKIDR
(c) VJIDR
(d) VJKRD
(e) None

11
9

How many meaningful English words can be made with the letters
OEHM using each letter only once in each word ?
(a) None
(b) One
(c) Two
(d) Three
(e)
More
than 3

12
0

Among A, B, C, D and E each scoring different marks in a test, C scored

more than D but not as much as E. E scored more than A who scored
less than B. Who score third highest marks ?
(a) B
(b) A
(c) C
(d)
Data (e) None
inadequate

12
1

K walked 5 metres towards North, took a left turn and walked for 10
metres. He then took a right turn and walked for 20 metres , and again
took right turn and walked 10 metres. How far he is from the starting
point ?
(a)
20 (b)
15 (c)
25 (d)
30 (e) None
metres
metres
metres
metres

12
2

Pointing to a girl , Mr. Suraj said she is the only daughter of my fathers
son in - law . How is the girl related to Mr. Suraj ?
(a)
(b) Cousin (c) Sister (d) Daughter (e)
Cannot
be
Niece
determined

12
3

How many such digits are there in the number 37152869 each of
which is as far away from the beginning of the number as when the
digits are arranged in ascending order within the number ?
(a) None
(b) One
(c) Two
(d) Three
(e)
More
than 3

12
4

How many such pairs of letters are there in the word CONFIRM each
of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the
English alphabet ?
(a) None
(b) One
(c) Two
(d) Three
(e)
More
than 3
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MOCK TEST 1005/ SET - B

12
5

KN is related to QT in the same way as DG related to :

(a) JN

(b) IM

(c) JM

(d) IN

(e) IL

Directions : Q 126 to : Following questions are based on the five three

digit numbers given below :
518 849 365 783 291
12
7

If the positions of the first and third digits in each number are
interchanged, which of the following will be second digit of third highest
number ?
(a) 1
(b) 4
(c) 8
(d) 9
(e) 6

12
8

If the first digit in all the numbers starting with an even digit is replaced
in a number preceding it, then which of the following will be the sum of
the first digit of the resulting highest and the lowest numbers ?
(a) 4
(b) 8
(c) 7
(d) 6
(e) 3

12
9

If the positions of the first and the second digits in each number are
interchanged , which of the following will be the second highest number
?
(a) 849
(b) 365
(c) 783
(d) 291
(e) 518
Directions : Q 130 to : Study the following information carefully and
answer the question given below :
A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting around a circle facing the centre. C is
fourth to the left of t F who is fifth to right of E. D is third to the right of
A who is not immediate neighbour of E of F. B is third to left of H who is
not immediate neighbour of E.

13
1

Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their
positions in the above sitting arrangement and so form a group. Which
is the one that does not belong to that group ?
(a) HFE
(b) DCG
(c) BHF
(d) AEF
(e) CGB

13
2

Who is between D and E ?

(a) C

13
3

(b) B

(c) A

(d)
Inadequate

Data (e) None

Which of the following pairs are sitting between A and D ?

(a) FB
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(b) GB

(c) FG

(d) FE

(e) GE

MOCK TEST 1005/ SET - B

13
4

Who is third to the right of E ?

13
5

Who is to the immediate right of A ?

13
6

What is Ds
respect to B ?

(a) B

(a) G

(b) F

(b) B
positions

(c) D

(c) F

(d) G

(d)
inadequate

(e) None

Data (e) None

F

with
D

B
(a)
Immediate right
E
(b)
Fourth to the right
(c)Third to the left
(d)
Immediate left
(a) Only (b)
(c) Only (b) and (d)
(a)
Only(b)
(c)
(d)

G
A
H
C

Only (e) only either (a)

or (d)

13
7

In which of the following pairs is the first person sitting to the

immediate left of the second persons ?
(a) CH
(b) GA
(c) BD
(d) FG
(e) None

13
8

If 40% of a number is 256 , then what is 25% of that number ?

(a) 260

(b) 150

(c) 160

(d) 210

(e) None

13
9

A number consists of two digits whose sum is 8. If 18 is subtracted from

the number, the digits interchange their places. What is the number ?
(a) 54
(b) 53
(c) 35
(d) 45
(e) None

14
0

What number should replace both the question marks (?) in the
following questions ?
121
?

?
81

(a) 89

(b) 73

(c) 99

(d) 85

(e) None

14
1

If 15 men can do a piece of work in 60 days, then , how many men will
do the same work in 25 days ?
(a) 26
(b) 36
(c) 42
(d) 29
(e) None

14
2

The length of a rectangle exceeds its breadth by 7 cms. If the perimeter

of the rectangle is 126 cm, then , what will be the breadth of the
rectangle ?
(a) 56 cms
(b) 38 cms
(c) 25 cms
(d) 32 cms
(e) None
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MOCK TEST 1005/ SET - B

14
3

Meena bought two fans for ` 1200 each. She sold one at a loss of 5%
and the other at a profit of 10% . What will be the total profit percent or
loss percent ?
(a) 1.2 % (b)
1.2% (c)
2.5% (d) 2.5% loss (e) None
loss
profit
profit

14
4

What is the least number to be subtracted from 2486 to make it a

perfect square ?
(a) 50
(b) 80
(c) 74
(d) 65
(e) None

14
5

In how many ways, the letters of the word ATTEMPT can be arranged ?
(a) 980

(b) 840

(c) 520

(d) 780

(e) None

14
6

The difference between two two digit numbers is 18. If four times the
second number is less than three times the first number by 18, then ,
what is the sum of these two numbers ?
(a) 100
(b) 80
(c) 86
(d) 92
(e) None

14
7

One -fourth of a number exceeds its one - seventh by 24. What is the
number ?
(a) 244
(b) 322
(c) 224
(d) 342
(e) None

14
8

What would be the compound interest obtained on an amount of `

6,000 at the rate of 7 p.c.p.a for 2 years ?
(a) ` 767.50 (b) ` 846.2
(c) ` 769.4
(d) ` 869.4
(e) None

14
9

The sum of three consecutive number is 294. What is the sum of the
smallest and the largest numbers ?
(a) 174
(b) 185
(c) 196
(d) 200
(e) None

15
0

300 apples are distributed equally among a certain number of students.

Had there been 10 more students, each would have received one apple
less. Find the number of students ?
(a) 70
(b) 40
(c) 55
(d) 50
(e) None

15
1

In a mixture of milk and water of volume 30 litres, the ratio of milk , and
water is 7 : 3 . How much quantity of water is to be added to the
mixture to make the ratio of milk and water 1 : 2 ?
(a) 30 litres
(b) 32 litres
(c) 33 litres
(d) 35 litres
(e) None

15
2

What number should come in the place of question mark (?) in the
series given below :
15 22 36 57 85 ?
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MOCK TEST 1005/ SET - B

(a) 120

(b) 150

(c) 110

(d) 90

(e) None

15
3

If 3 pumps can empty a tank in 2 days by working 8 hours a day,. Then

how many hours a day must 4 pumps work to empty the tank in one
day ?
(a) 12 hours (b) 15 hours (c) 18 hours (d) 9 hours
(e) None

15
4

If the area of a circle is 154 sq. cms, then what is the circumference of
the circle ?
(a) 40 cms
(b) 44 cms
(c) 54 cms
(d) 59 cms
(e) None

15
5

A tap can fill an empty tank in 12 hours and a leakage can empty the
whole tank in 20 hours. If the tap and the leakage are working
simultaneously , how long will it take to fill the whole rank ?
(a) 25 hours (b) 40 hours (c) 30 hours (d) 35 hours (e) None

15
6

The distance travelled by a train is 1830 km. The speed of the train is 1
more than twice the time taken to travel the distance. What will be the
respective ratio of the speed of the train and the time taken to travel ?
(a) 30 : 61
(b) 61 : 30
(c) 25 : 51
(d) 51 : 25
(e) None

15
7

The present ages of Gaurav and Saurah are in the ratio of 6 : 7

respectively. After 6 years , their ages will be in the ratio of 15 : 17
respectively ? What is Gauravs age ?
(a) 28 years (b) 30 years (c) 25 years (d) 23 years (e) None
Directions : Q 158 to162 : In each question below five words are given.
You have to find out which one will be the third after the words are
arranged in the alphabetically order. The number representing the word
is the answer.

15
8

(a) Shine

(b) Shimmer

(c) Shift

(d) Shield

(e) Shelter

15
9

(a) Harsh

(b) Harrow

(c) Harvest

(d) Harmony

(e) Harrow

16
0

(a) Prophet

(b)
Proportion

(c) Properly

(d) Propose

(e) Property

16
1

(a) Prompt

(b) Proof

(c) Promote

(d) Prone

(e) Pronoun

16
2

(a) Remote

(b) Remorse

(c) Remit

(d) Remodel

(e) Remover

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MOCK TEST 1005/ SET - B

Directions : Q 163 to : In the following passage , some of the words
have been left out. First read the passage over and try to understand
what it is about. Then fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives
given.
Education is not an end, but a means to an end. In other words, we do
not educate children only for the purpose of educating them ; our
purpose is to fit them for life. As soon as we realise ____163_____ fact,
we will understand that _____164____ is very important to choose
_____165_____ system of education which will _____166_____ prepare
children for life. It ______167_____ not enough just to choose
_____168____ first system of education one _______169____ or to continue
with ones _______170_____ system of education without examining
______171____ to see whether it is _____172______ fact suitable or not.
16
3

(a) this

(b) the

(c) a

(d) some

16
4

(a) nothing

(b) it

(c) something

(d) this

16
5
16
6

(a) the

(b) some

(c) a

(d) appropriate

(a) normally

(b) really

(c) probably

(d) sometimes

16
7

(a) was

(b) has been

(c) matters

(d) is

16
8

(a) a

(b) very

(c) some

(d) the

16
9

(a) likes

(b) finds

(c) learns

(d) hears

17
0

(a) old

(b) favourite

(c) popular

(d) faulty

17
1

(a) this

(b) that

(c) it

(d) them

17
2

(a) on

(b) by

(c) at

(d) in

Directions : Q 173 to : In these questions , a word in CAPTIAL letters is

followed by four words. Choose the word that is almost similar in
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MOCK TEST 1005/ SET - B

meaning to the word given in CAPITAL letters.
17
3

CENSURE

17
4

ABERRATION

17
5

EXEMPLARY

(a) Praise

(a) Deviation

(a) Flecting
17
6

REDOLENT

17
7

POTOPOURRI

(a) Stubborn

(a) Medley
17
8

(b) Criticise

(c) Process

(d) Enclose

(b)
Embarrassment

(c) Abhorence

(d) Absence

(b) Eluding

(c) Impartial

(d)
Outstanding

(b) Gleaning

(c) Odorous

(d)
Superfluous

(b) Dose

(c) Preamble

(d)
Overabundance

(b) Tremble

(c) Assuage

(d) Rant

QUENCH
(a) Subdue

Directions : Q 179 to : In these questions, a word in CAPITAL , letters is

followed by four words. Choose the word that is most nearly opposite in
meaning to the word given in CAPITALS.
17
9

PROTEAN

18
0

UNGAINLY

18
1

CUPIDITY

(a) Versatile

(a) Pedantic

(a) Generosity
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(b) Amateur

(c) Dull

(d) Cautious

(b) Graceful

(c) Weird

(d) Unwiedly

(b) Love

(c) Tragedy

(d) Anxiety

MOCK TEST 1005/ SET - B

18
2

SHODDY

18
3

PRECIPITATE

18
4

PERTINENT

(a) Superior

(a) Dull

(a) Understood

(b) Inferior

(c) Astute

(d) Simian

(b) Cautious

(c) Considerate

(d) Anticipatory

(b) Puzzling

(c) Clear

(d) Irrelevant

Directions : Q 185 to : In each of these questions , a related pair of

words is followed by four pairs of words. Select the pair that best
expresses a relationship similar to the one expressed in the original
pair.
18
5

Car : Feline
(a)
Horse
:
Equine
(c) Luid : Vulpine

18
6

Helmet : Head

18
7

Braggart
:
Modesty
(a) Buffoon :
Dignity
(c) Imposter : Indentification

(a)
Gun
Hand

: (b) Pedal
Foot

18
8

Wrathful : Humorous

18
9

Star : Cluster

(b) Tiger : Carnivorous

(d)
Chair
Furniture

: (c)
Breastplate
Chest

(a) Arrogant :
Acuity
(c) Covetous : Enigma

(a) Comet
Orbit
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: (b) Tree : Clump

: (d) Knapsack :
Back

(b) Blackguard : Strength

(d) Gambler
Risk

(b) Indolent :
Sloth
(d) Impatient : Apathetic

(c) Bulb : Lamp

(d)
Mirror
Reflection

MOCK TEST 1005/ SET - B

19
0

Shovel : Implement
(a) Cargo : Hold
(c)
Barge
:
Vessel

(b) Brake : Automobile

(d) Squadron :
Plane

19
1

Find out the number which does not belong to the group of ABCD.

19
2

Directions : In question No. 192 , which answer figure will complete the
question figure ?

19
3

Select the answer figure in which the question figure is hidden

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MOCK TEST 1005/ SET - B

19
4

A triangular sheet of paper has been folded and punched as shown in

the figure. You have to figure out from amongst the four response
figures, how it will appear when opened ?

19
5

Which of the answer figures is exactly the mirror image of the given
figure, when the mirror is held as shown ?

19
6

In the question, one part of the problem figure is subtracted. Select the
option that shows the correct shape after subtraction.

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MOCK TEST 1005/ SET - B

19
7

Identify the answer figure from which the pieces given in question figure
have been cut.

19
8

If a person has intelligence, character and position, which figure

represents all of these ?

19
9

How many squares are there in a given figure ?

(a) 10
20
0

(b) 11

(c) 12

(d) 13

Which figure represents the relationship among Hockey players, Rubber

balls, Poets ?

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MOCK TEST 1005/ SET - B

(a) 2

(b) 5

(c) 1

(d) 4

20
1

The number of times 2 is used while writing the numbers from 1 to 100
is :
(a) 21
(b) 20
(c) 19
(d) 18

20
2

A tank can be filled by pipe A in 2 hours and by pipe B in 3 hours. An

outlet C can empty the tank in 6 hours. If all the three are opned
simultaneously, the tank will be filled in :
1
1
(a) 1 Hour
(c) 2 hours
(b) 1 hours
(d) 1 hours
2

20
3

If the product of two numbers is 2160 and the HCF is 6, then the ratio of
HCF and LCM is
(a) 21 : 60
(b) 60 : 21
(c) 1 : 60
(d) 60 : 1

20
3

The difference (in rupees) in discounts between two successive

discounts of 8% each and a single discount of 16% on ` 1,000 is :
(a) 64
(b) 6.40
(c) 4.60
(d) 46

20
4

If a shopkeeper marks the price of goods 50% more than their cost price
and allows a discount of 40% , what is his gain or loss percent ?
(a) Gain 10%
(b) Gain 15%
(c) Loss 15%
(d) Loss 10%

20
5

The next term of the sequence 3, 14, 39, _____ is

(a) 42

(b) 53

(c) 65

(d) 84

20
6

Two numbers are in the ratio 9 : 16. If each number is increased by 15 ,

then the ratio becomes 2 : 3 . The numbers ae :
(a) 18 and 32
(b) 24 and 36
(c) 36 and 48
(d) 27 and 48

20
7

P and Q can finish a work in 15 , 10 days respectively. Q starts the work

and leaves it after 5 days. The number of days in which P can complete
the work is :
1
1
(c) 8 days
(d) 9 days
(a) 6 days
(b) 7 days
2

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MOCK TEST 1005/ SET - B

20
8

The weights of zinc, copper and aluminium in an alloy are in the ratio 2 :
3 : 7. In the alloy weighing 48 kg, the difference in weights of zinc and
aluminium is :
(a) 5 kg
(b) 16 kg
(c) 20 kg
(d) 4 kg

20
9

The average weight of 8 persons is increased by 2.5 kg when one of

them whose weight is 56kg is replaced by a new man. The weight of the
new man is :
(a) 20 kg
(b) 64 kg
(c) 58.5 kg
(d) 76 kg

21
0

Cyclist A started his journey on cycle at 7.30 a.m at a speed of 8 km/ hr.
After 30 minutes , cyclist B started from the same place but with the
speed of 10 km/ hr. At what time did B overtake A ?
(a) 8 a.m
(b) 10 a.m
(c) 9 a.m
(d) 9.30 a.m

21
1

A bought a computer system for ` 40,000 and sold it to B at a loss of

4% . If B sold it to C for ` 40,320, profit percent for B is :
(a) 4
(b) 5
(c) 3
(d) 6

21
2

If the simple interest on a certain sum of money for three years is ` 225
and the compound interest on the same sum at the same rate for 2
years is ` 153 , then the principal invested, in rupees , is :
(a) ` 1,500
(b) ` 2,250
(c) ` 3,000
(d) ` 1,875

21
3

If the radius of a circle is increased by 10% then percentage of increase

of its area is :
(a) 12
(b) 15
(c) 17
(d) 21

21
4

If the height and radius of a hemisphere and a right circular cylinder are
respectively equal, then ratio of the volume of the hemisphere and the
cylinder is :
(a) 2 : 3
(b) 3 : 2
(c) 1 : 2
(d) 1 : 1

21
5

The volume of a solid hemisphere is numerically equal to its total

surface area. Its radius is :
1
1
(a) 3 units
(d) 9 units
(b) 1 units
(c) 4 units
2

21
6

A car covers a distance of 136 kms in 4 hours. What is the speed of the
car ?
(a) 34 kms/ (b) 40 kms/ (c) 36 km/ hr (d) 32 km/ hr (e) None
hr
hr

21
7

A car covers a distance from Town A to Town B at the speed of 58 kms/

hr. and covers the distance from Town B to Town A at the speed of 52
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MOCK TEST 1005/ SET - B

km/hr . What is the approximate average speed of the car ?
(a) 55 km/ hr (b) 52 km/ hr (c) 48 km/ hr (d) 50 km/ hr (e) 60 km/ hr
21
8

How many such pairs of letters are there in the word DOUBTS each of
which has an many letters between them in the word as in the English
alphabet ?
(a) None
(b) One
(c) Two
(d) Three
(e) None

21
9

How many meaningful English words can be made with the letters ESDO
using each letter only once in each word ?
(a) None
(b) One
(c) Two
(d) Three
(e)
More
than 3

22
0

In a certain code GUIDE is written as 49132 and BEAM is written as

8257. How is IMAGE written in that code ?
(a) 17542
(b) 15742
(c) 27541
(d) 18542
(e) None

22
1

What should come next in the following letter series ?

HGFEDCBAHGFEDCBAHFEDCBAH
(a) G
(b) E
(c) F
(d) I

(e) None

22
2

How many such pairs of digits are there in the number 536142 each of
which has an many digits between them in the number as when the
digits are arranged in ascending order within the number ?
(a) None
(b) One
(c) Two
(d) Three
(e)
More
than 3

22
3

Day is related to Night in the same way as White is related to ?

(a) Green

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(b) Red

(c) Yellow

(d) Blue

(e) Black