AIIMS MAY 2011

DENTAL: Discussion
==============
again a repeat paper.mixture of AIPG
DENTAL 2009 AND AIIMS RECENT
.MEDICAL QUESTIONS ARE ALSO
REPEATED FROM AMIT ASHISH 2009
AND 2010
http://www.aippg.net/forum/f23/dental-
aiims-may-2011-a-96600/
http://rxdentistry.co.in/forum/showthread.p
hp?219-Aiims-may-2011-discussion

Anatomy:-
Q.1 C.nerve not carrying psn stimulatn
a)4th b)3rd c)7th d)9th c.n.
Nerve Not carrying parasympathetic
fibres - Trochlear

Q.2 TMJ dev. (AIPG 2009)
a)2wk
b)10wk @@@
c)20wk
d)22wk

Q3. area that lies immediately lateral to the
ant. Perforating substance is-
a.orbital gyrus
B.UNCUS
C.OPTIC CHIASMA
D.LIMEN INSULE@@@
Q. Lateral to optic chiasma
Limen insulae @@@

Q.4.which organ posterior 2 pancreas
a)kidney @@@
b)stomach
c)colon
d)duodenum

Q.5. all structure pierced buccinater .except
a)parotid gland
b)molar glands of cheeks
c)buccal br of facicl n
d)buccal br of mand n. @@@

Physiology:-
Q.6 intrinsic factor secreted by
parietal cells..refer aiims may 2010 a a

Q.7 A pt diagnosed withincrease in ldl.his
father n broalso had same ds.
a)l dl recepter mutation @@@
b)familial lipoprotein lipese def

Q8. primary func of muscle spindle
a)length b)stretch c)metabolism
d}propioception
Q. golgi spindle detect
a)muscle length @@@
b)m.tension
c)motor n. stimulation

Q.9. cortical representation of body in
cerebrum
a) vertical @@@
b)oblique
c)tandem

Q.10. which one associated with increased
aging
a)increased cross linkages in collagen
b)increased superoxides dismutase
c)increased accumulation of free radicals
/ free radical injury @@@



Q.11 main cause of increased blood flow to
exercising muscles
a)raised blood flow
b)vasodilatation due 2 local metabolite
c)increased heart rate
Q. Vasodilatation - Accumulation of
metabolites

Q.12 visual cycle / Visual transduction -
a) Depolarization
b) Repolarization
c) Hyperpolarization
d) hyper depolarisation

Q.13 Bezolds jarrisch reflex which of the
following is true. ?
a. Tachycardia with hypovolemia
b. Bradycardia with hypovolemia@@@
c. Hypertension inspite of hypovolumia
d. Bradycardia with normovolemia
Ref : Neural Blockade in Clinical Anesthesia
and Pain By Michael J. Cousins 4th Ed Pg
249 250
Bezold-Jarisch Reflex
A cardiovascular decompressor reflex
involving a marked increase in vagal
(parasympathetic) efferent discharge to the
heart, elicited by stimulation of
chemoreceptors, primarily in the left ventricle.
This causes a slowing of the heart beat
(bradycardia) and dilatation of the peripheral
blood vessels with resulting lowering of the
blood pressure.
The concept was originated by a German
physiologist Albert von Bezold in 1867, later
revised by an Austrian dermatologist Adolf
Jarisch in 1937

Q.14. hereditry intestinal polyposis gene
a)BRCA
b)p53
c)APC
d)????
Q. Non hereditary colon ca gene ?
Hmlh1>>>
APC
P53

Microbiology:-
Q.15 . all r diamorphic except a/e
a)blastomyces dermatidis
b)histoplasma
c)penicillium marneffi
d)phialospora @@@
The term Dimorphic fungus has been
employed to potential pathogens that
grow as mycelial form when incubated at
room temperature under laboratory
conditions and yeast phase, yeast like
cells or spherule form when grown in
human tissue or incubated at 37C on
synthetic laboratory media.
Fungi which can exist in two forms-
1-as filamentous form or
2- as yeast depending on conditions of
growth.
In host tissue or culture at 37 00 c they
occur as yeast while in soil and in
cultures at 22 0 c appear as mould.
Most fungi causing systemic infection
are dimorphic fungi. Example-
1. Histoplasma capsulatum
(histoplasmosis)
2. Blastomyces
dermatitidis(Blastomycosis)
3. Coccidiodes immitis
(coccoidiomycosis)
4. Paracoccidiodes brasiliensis
(paracoccoidimycoosis)
5. Sporothrix schenekii sporotrichosis)
6. Penicillium marneffei
7. Malasezia furfur,
but cryptococcoosis is not a dimorphic
fungus
mnemonics-mala sinha bombay primary
health center par rahti hai.
Highly virulent dimorphic fungi are:
Histoplasma capsulatum var.
capsulatum,
Histoplasma capsulatum var.
duboisii,
Blastomyces dermatitidis,
Paracoccidioides brasiliensis,
Sporothrix schenckii,
Penicillium marneffei and
Coccidioides immitis.
Dimorphic fungi cause systemic mycosis
often termed as
histoplasmosis,
blastomycosis,
paracoccidioidomycosis,
sporotrichosis,
penicilliosis marneffei and
coccidioidomycosis.

Q.16. culture media 4 leptospirosis..
a)korthoff @@@@
b)perkin
c)baker
d)tinsdale
Some examples of selective media
include:
eosin-methylene blue agar (EMB) that
contains methylene blue toxic to
Gram-positive bacteria, allowing only
the growth of Gram negative bacteria
YM (yeast and mold) which has a low
pH, deterring bacterial growth
blood agar (used in strep tests), which
contains bovine heart blood that
becomes transparent in the presence
of hemolytic Streptococcus
MacConkey agar for Gram-negative
bacteria
Hektoen enteric agar (HE) which is
selective for Gram-negative bacteria
mannitol salt agar (MSA) which is
selective for Gram-positive bacteria
and differential for mannitol
Terrific Broth (TB) is used with
glycerol in cultivating recombinant
strains of Escherichia coli.
xylose lysine desoxyscholate (XLD),
which is selective for Gram-negative
bacteria
buffered charcoal yeast extract agar,
which is selective for certain gram-
negative bacteria, especially
Legionella pneumophila
Examples of differential media include:
eosin methylene blue (EMB), which
is differential for lactose and sucrose
fermentation
MacConkey (MCK), which is
differential for lactose fermentation
mannitol salt agar (MSA), which is
differential for mannitol fermentation
X-gal plates, which are differential for
lac operon mutants
Examples of transport media include:
Thioglycolate broth for strict
anaerobes.
Stuart transport medium - a non-
nutrient soft agar gel containing a
reducing agent to prevent oxidation,
and charcoal to neutralise
Certain bacterial inhibitors- for
gonococci, and buffered glycerol
saline for enteric bacilli.
Venkat-Ramakrishnan(VR) medium
for v. cholerae.

Q.17 microaerophilic
a)campylobacter @@@
b)vibrio
c)bacteriods
d) pseudomonas
Microphillic bacteria. Examples include:
Borrelia burgdorferi, a species of
spirochaete bacteria that causes Lyme
disease in humans.
Helicobacter pylori, a species of
proteobacteria that has been linked to
peptic ulcers and some types of gastritis.
Some don't consider it a true obligate
microaerophile.
[1]

Campylobacter has been described as
microaerophilic.
[2]

Streptococcus intermedius has also
been described as microaerophilic.
Streptococcus pyogenes, a well
known microaerophile that causes
streptococcal pharyngitis.

Q.18 autoinfection seen in
a)giardia
b) gnathosp
Autoinfection is the infection of a
primary host with a parasite, particularly
a helminth, in such a way that the
complete life cycle of the parasite
happens in a single organism, without the
involvement of another host. Therefore,
the primary host is at the same time the
secondary host of the parasite. Some of
the organisms where autoinfection occurs
are : - Strong Tea Entertains
Nana'(mnemonic)
Strongyloides stercoralis,
Teania solium
Enterobius vermicularis,
Hymenolepis nana

Q.19 gas gangrene all except
a) cl.histolyticum
b)cl.septicum
c)cl.sporogens@@@@
d)cl.novyi

General Medicine:-
Q.20In which area gall stones pain not
percieved
a)epigastrium
b)rt.hypochondrium
c)rt.iliac
d)shoulder @@@

Q.21 all r feature of systemic inflammatory
disorder SIRS except :
a)oral temp>38 c
b)leucocytosis
c)thrombocytopenia @@@??

Oral Surgery:
Q22 based on tension and compression
trajectories fracture of condyle is best treated
by / acc to rule of tensiona and compressional
forces acting along the condylar border best
way to stabilise a condylar frac against these
forces wud require?
a) One plate on anterior & one plate on
posterior border @@??
b) One anterior only
c) One laterally only
d) One posterior only
OR. 1. one plate at the ant border and one
plate at the post @@@
2. a plate at the anterior border
3. a plate at the posterior border
4. a plate at the lateral border
iin neeraj wadhwan the answer given is 1.
and the answer is 4. ???

Q23. In a condylar fracture and bone plate
synthesis to counteract the dynamic tension &
compression zones the most acceptable
place for plating is
a. A plate fixed laterally in the neck of the
condyle.@@@
b. Plate on posterior border of the condyle
only.
... c. Plate on the anterior border of the
condyle only.
d. Plate on the anterior & posterior border of
the condyle.
Ans. A (A plate fixed laterally in the
neck of the condyle) Ref: Oral and
Maxillofacial Trauma, Raymond J.
Fonseca, Robert V. Walker, 3rded,
volume 1/552
Condylar neck fractures are usually
treated by closed reduction.
"The mandible is exposed, via a
submandibular incision, which allows
access to the inferior border and entire
ramus. A groove is drilled in the lateral
ramus to with in the several centimeters
with in the fracture line"
Rigid fixation of a right condylar neck
fracture uses a miniplate and
monocortical screws

Q24. treatment of communicated fracture
a) Reconstruction plates 2.5 mm @??
b) Dynamic screws / dynamic compression
plates with eccentric screws
c) Single Miniplate 1.5mm
d) Multiple miniplates

Q25. subcondylar fracture >5 deg. & >37mm
overlap is treated with
a) Closed reduction & imf
b) ORIF @@@

Q26.fracture of symphsis canot be treated by
(Refer Aiims may 2009 Ques)
a) 1.5mm One single miniplate
b) 2.5mm mono cortical plate
c) Lag screws
d) 2mm compression plates
Q. a/e in symphysis # - single plate
Q. A transverse fracture of symphysis is
treated by all of the following except
a. Two Compression plates. (2mm)
b. Two lag screws
3.single Miniplate fixation (1.5mm) @@
4.2.4 mm reconstruction plate.
single mini plate fixation cannot support
the dynamics of fracture at symphysis
region
Symphyseal fractures had negative
bending moments only that caused
compression at the alveolar side and
tension at the lower border of the
mandible and relatively high torsion
moments. Compressive strain develops
along the buccal aspect, whereas tensile
strain develops along the lingual aspect.
This produces a fracture that begins in
the lingual region and spreads toward the
buccal aspect. The anterior mandible
undergoes shearing and torsional
(twisting)
forces during functional activities.
Application of fixation devices must
therefore take these factors into
consideration. This is why most surgeons
advocate two points of fixation in the
symphysis: either two bone plates, two
lag screws, or possibly one plate or lag
screw combined with an arch bar.
Depending on the size of the plate and
whether or not an arch bar will also be
used
to provide another point of fixation, the
fixation could be rigid or functionally
stable
Fixation schemes for mandibular
symphyseal fracture.
A large compression plate in
combination with an arch bar for a
symphysis fracture (two-point fixation).
Two lag screws inserted across a
symphysis fracture (two-point fixation).
Two bone plates for a symphysis
fracture (two-point fixation). These may
or may not be compression plates.
Typically the larger one at the inferior
border is a compression plate and the one
located more superiorly may or may not.
Symphysis fracture with either two 2.0
mm miniplates, or a stronger bone plate
at the inferior border, as well as using the
arch bar as another point of fixation

Q27. most difficult fracture to treat
a) Body of mandible
b) Condylar
c) Angle
d) Symphyseal fracture
Which of the following are most
complicated fractures. (AIIMS may 2009)
a. Symphysis@@@???
b) Body
c) Condyle????
d) Angle
Condylar fractures are the most
complicated fractures because they can
effect growth of the fcial structures and
because of their close approximity to
brain structures.
Overview of Mandibular Fractures:-
Location of mandibular fractures -
Fridrich and associates showed that most
fractures occur in the body (29%),
condyle (26%), and angle (25%) of the
mandible. The symphyses account for
17% of mandibular fractures, whereas
fractures of the ramus (4%) and coronoid
process (1%) have lower occurrence
rates. In automobile accidents, the
condylar region was the most common
fractured site. In motorcycle accidents,
the symphysis was fractured most often.
When assault was the cause, the angle
demonstrated the highest incidence of
fracture.[29]
Associated injuries with mandibular
fractures - Fridrich and associates
reported that in patients with mandible
fractures, 43% of the patients had an
associated injury. Of these patients, head
injuries occurred in 39% of patients, head
and neck lacerations in 30%, midface
fractures in 28%, ocular injuries in 16%,
nasal fractures in 12%, and cervical spine
fractures in 11%. Other injuries present
in this group were extremity trauma in
51%, thoracic trauma in 29%, and
abdominal trauma in 14%. Of the 1067
patients studied, 12 (2.6%) died of their
associated injuries before the mandible
fracture could be treated.[29]
Number of fractures per mandible - In
patients with mandible fractures, 53% of
patients had unilateral fractures, 37% of
the patients had 2 fractures, and 9% had
3 or more fractures

Q28. In fracture of atrophic mandible
treatment modality is
a) Bone grafting & load bearing ??
b) Bone grafting & load sharing
c) Open reduction
d) Semi rigid
Q. Mand with bone loss - Reconstruction
plates @@
Refer Q. AIIMS May 2009
Q. In fracture through mental foramen in
mandible with less than 10mm of bone
loss treatment would be,
a..Champys plate.
b..Lag screw
c..Non rigid fixation
d..Reconstruction plates@@@
In the above question there is bone loss of
10mm and the fracture line is passing through
mental foramen. To prevent damage to nerve
instead of two plates a load bearing
reconstruction plate is given.
The most simplistic way to discuss fixation
schemes for fractures are to divide them into
Load-Bearing versus which bear the
original load
Load-Sharing Fixation that share the
loads with the bone on each side of the
fracture
Load-bearing fixation is a device that is of
sufficient strength and rigidity that it can bear
the
entire load applied to the mandible during
functional activities. Injuries that require
load-bearing fixation are comminuted
fractures of the mandible, those fractures
where there is very little bony interface
because of atrophy, or those injuries that
have resulted in a loss of a portion of the
mandible (defect fractures). Load bearing
fixation is sometimes called bridging fixation
because it bridges areas of comminution or
bone loss. Such plates are relatively large,
thick, and stiff. They use screws that are
generally greater than 2.0 mm in diameter
(most commonly 2.3 mm, 2.4 mm, or 2.7
mm). When secured to the fragments on each
side of the injured area by a minimum of
three bone screws, reconstruction
bone plates can provide temporary stability to
the bone fragments.
Load-sharing fixation is any form of internal
fixation that is of insufficient stability to bear
all of the functional loads applied across the
fracture by the masticatory system. Such a
fixation device(s) requires solid bony
fragments on each side of the fracture that
can bear some of the functional loads.
Fractures that can be stabilized adequately
with load-sharing fixation devices are simple
linear fractures, and constitute the majority of
mandibular fractures. Fixation devices that
are considered load-sharing include the
variety of 2.0 mm miniplating systems, Lag
screw techniques etc..,. However Simple
linear fractures can also be treated by load-
bearing fixation but reverse is not true..
For the majority of fractures in the dentulous
mandibular body and symphysis there is
sufficient height of bone to place one load-
sharing plate along the inferior and one along
the superior aspect of the lateral cortex.
Because fixation devices are applied to the
lateral surface of the mandible, the ability to
use two-point fixation requires that there be
sufficient height of bone so that the fixation
devices can be placed far apart from one
another. For instance, an atrophic mandibular
fracture, where there is a vertical height of
only 15 mm, would not gain much
mechanical
advantage from placing two bone plates on
the lateral surface . In such instances Use of
a single strong bone plate (reconstruction
plate) is recommended when the vertical
height of the mandible is small
.
Q.29. alv grafting in cleft palate pt. - a)after
max expansion,cross bite correction
before canine correction @

Q.30. most common impaction
a)mesio angular @@
b)vertical
c)distoangular
d)horizontal

Q.31 Route not used in children (AIPG 2009)
a)I/M
b)subdermal @@@
c)sub mucosal
d)I/V

Q.32. nitrous oxide acts by - non specific
depression

Q.33. when a minimal injury as a glancing
blow is struck 2 what variable its related
a) angulation @@@
b)position
c)location
d)area of strike

CONSERVATIVE
Q34 lubricating gel used while rubber dam
placement all except (AIPG 2009)
a) Soapy water
b) Vaseline @@@
c) Shaving cream
d) Scrub gel

Q35 while placement of ruber dam following
technique is NOT used
a) Place clamp on tooth and insert the dam
b) Place dam on tooth then place clamp over
it
c) Place dam & frame outside the oral
cavity & then on tooth using forcep OVER
the dam @@@@
d) Place dam & frame outside the oral cavity
& then on tooth using forcep UNDER the dam

Q36. to restore ACID eroded non carious
lesion which is used (AIPG 2009)
a) GIC
b) RMGIC
c) Compomer
d) composite

Q.37. bonding of GIC 2 tooth structure (AIPG
2009) -
a)metal ions
b)OH IONS
c)COO- ions / Carboxlic groups@@
d)micromechanical bonding

Q38. fluoride released from GIC restoration is
replaced by
a) Hydoxl ion @@@
b) Aluminium ion
c) Silicate ion
d) Carboxylate ion

Q.39. In caries,which structure becomes
more prominent (AIPG 2009)
a)stiae of retzius @@@
b) pickerill
c)hunter shreger lines
d)stie of wickhem

Q40. amalgam poloshing the outersurface
arranged in layer known as
a) beelby layer @@@
b) weelby layer
c) sealby layer

Q41 In a class V cavity preparation M-D
walls depends on
a. Direction of enamel rods@@@
b. Contours of gingiva
c. Size of carious lesion
d. Location of contact area
Ans. A (Direction of enamel rods) Ref.
Sturdevant, 4th ed. pg 755/ 5th ed. pg 797,
798, 799, 801
- The Outline form Of Class V amalgam tooth
preparation is primarily determined by the
location and size of caries or
- External shape is related to the contour of
marginal gingival
- The direction of mesial & distal wall follows
the direction of the enamel rods
Proper outline from for Class V amalgam
tooth preparations results in extending the
cavosurface margins to sound tooth structure,
while maintaining a limited axial depth of 0.5
mm inside the DEJ and 0.75 mm inside the
cementum (when on the root surface).
Presently, a more conservative philosophy is
used (resulting in smaller restorations with
outline forms that are dictated primarily by the
size of the defect

Q42. on a radiograph an RCT treated tooth 2
years back a radiolucent cyst enlarged even
after sugery what is the reason
a) Leaking from unobturated main canal
@@@
b) Unobturated accessory canal
c) Apex was not resected
d) Actinomyces infection

Q.43. lateral incisor with periapical abcess n
sinus tract. treatment of sinus tract - a) no
treatment @@@@

Q.44 If histologic slide n contents of canal
space could b obtained most common finding
in radioluency region is (AIPG 2009)
a)normal pulp
b)osteoclastic activity @@@
c)A.I.
d)decrease in cellularity

Q45. Acid etching is done to
a) Dec. micro leakage @@@
b) Dec. polymerization shrinkage
c) Dec. coefficient of thermal expansion
d) Dec. porosity in restorative material

Orthodontics:-
Q.46. normal mandibular plane angle
a)17-30 @@@
b)115-130
c)25-40

Q. 47. 131 deg interincisal angle denotes -
Proclined incisors

Q48. Abt y axiswhat is true - obtained by
joining sella gnathion to F H plane

Community Dentistry:-
Q.49. true about simple random sampling
a)every element has an equal probability of
being included
b)based on similar characteristics
c)suitable 4 large hetrogenous population

Q.50. guidelines accordingto baby friendly
hospital initiative includes all except
a) mother n infant 2 b together 4 24 hr.
b)initiate breast feeding in 4 hr of normal
delivery
c)giving no food or drink other than breast
milk
d)encourage breast feeding on demand
e. Mother to feed baby 4 hrs @@@

Q.51. which one is true about normal
distribution
a)meam median mode coincide at 1 pt /
Mean = Mode = Median @@@
b) values distributed in normal range

Q.52. all except are approaches 2 health
education a/e
a)provision of incentives @@@
b)service approach
c)education ....
d)health approach

Q.53. increase in false positives cases in
community
a)cefepime
b)cefoperazone
c)cefotaxime
Q. Which cephalo do nt require dose redn -
Cefoperazone
Q. inf false positive - low prevalence

Q.54. All of the following measures are used
for nutrition assessment to indicate
inadequate nutrition except.
a. Increased 1-4yr mortality rate
b. Birth weight < 2500gm
c. Hb< 11.5 g/dl during 3rd trimester of
pregnancy.@@@@
d. Decrease weight for height
ans. C (Hb < 11.5 g/dl during 3rd trimester of
pregnancy) Ref : CMDT 2008/677; Park 19th
/ 515-518; Ghai 6th/101; Nelson's 18th7228
Anemia in pregnancy is defined as
Hemoglobin measurement below lOg/dl and
not 11.5 g/dL Hemoglobin levels less than
lOg/dl during pregnancy may be used to
indicate inadequate nutrition (nutritional
anemia) and not a Hemoglobin level of less
than ll.Sg/dl. This is therefore the single best
answer of exclusion.
Increased 1-4 year mortality rate indicates un
undernutrition / malnutrition in a community
(Park l9th/517)
'Mortality in the age group of 1 to 4 years is
particularly related to malnutrition' - Park
19th/517
Vital & Health Statistics (Mortality & Morbidity
data): Indicators of Malnutrition in Community
1 to 4 year mortality rate
Infant mortality rate
Second year mortality rate
Rate of low birth weight babies
Life expectancy

Q.55. pt on acarbose n insulin has got
hypoglycemic attack..treatment ???
a) maltose
b)glucose @@@
c) galactose
d)sucrose

Q56. a/e causes hypoglycemia - acarbose

Q.57. most cariogenic sugar
a) glucose
b)sucrose @@@
c)lactose
d)fructose

Q. 58) Fructosamine a/e - Screening of
diabetes

Q.59. while reducing # lingual splaying of
segments noted. which will cause increase in
a)intercanthal distance
b)interangular distance @???
c)go-gn distance

Q. 60. hybridization of dna homologous but
not identical inc with

Pharmacology:-
Q. 61. ifosfamide false is -
a) nitrogen mustard
b) metabolized by CPY
c) cloroacetaldehyde
d) less neurotoxic than
cyclophosphamide>>>

Q. 62. piogltazone false is ---
a) peroxisome proliferative activated
receptors PPAR
b) used in DM 1>>
c) metabolized by liver
d) c/I in cardiac dystolic function

Q. 63. exenatide all r true except
a) GLP analogue
b) Releases glucagon>>>
c) Used in DM 2used subcutaneously

Q.64. not a sign of succesful stellate
ganglion block
a)nasal stuffiness
b)guttman sign
c)horner syndrome
d)bradycardia @@@??

Q.65. anesthetic drug injected for
paravertebral block least likely diffuse 2
a)epidural space
b)inter costal space
c)sup n inf paravertebral space
d) sob arachnoid space @@@?

Q.66. adverse effects of valpoic acid
derivative r all except
a)alopecia
b)liver failure
c)wt. gain
d)osteomalacia @@@???

Q.67. drug both anti resorptive n bone
formation
a)calcitonin
b)strontium renelate @@@
c)ibaddronate
d)teriperatide

Q.68. ideal analgesia.....
a)short onset of action, high
efficacy,intermediate
duraton
b)short onset ,high efficacy,short duration
c)intermediate onset,??????
Q. Patient controlled analgesia ?

Periodontics -
Q. 69. Toothbrush abrasions more on -
Maxillary left

Q. 70. All inv in periodontitis except -
Neisseria

Q. 71. All found in healthy perio except -
Eubacterium

Q. 72. Periodontitis A.A. - Gm negative
anaerobes Rods

Q. 73. Role of plaque is obsolete in -
Desquamative gingivitis

Q. 74. Chronic gingivitis h/f - Disruption of
gingival fib n infiltration of lymphocytes
plasma cells

Q. 75. False abt juvenile periodontitis -
Bone loss simultaneous
Q. Which of the following is untrue of LJP
localized juvenile periodontitis? (AIIMs may
2009 )
a) more common in females
b) mirror image type of bone loss is
seen bilaterally
c) Amount of bone destruction is
proportional to the amount of plaque
@@@
d) aggressive periodontal bone
destruction compared to normal periodontitis
ans C
amount of bone destruction is far advanced
then the inflammatory changes caused by
deposition of plaque. The amount of bone
destruction far exceeds the amount of plaque
deposition

Q. 76. .tfo least affects (repeat ap 2007)
a)periodontium
b)enamel c)cementum
d)epithelial attachment@@@

Q. 77. wich is not an abrasiv in dentrifice
a)CaCo3
b)amylose @@@
c)silicate

Q. 78. In periodontitis pt.which one used
a)tooth paste with max abrasive
b)tooth paste with min abrasive @@@
c)tooth powder with max abrasive
d) no abrasive

Q. 79. brushing technique in pd patients
a)roll b)scrub
c)bass d)sulcular@@@

Oral Pathology / Oral Medicine
Q. 80. Malignant transformation - Junctional
neavus

Q. 81. Self healing carcinoma among the
following is .
a. Leukoplakia
b. Keratoacanthoma@@
c. Benign neuroma
d. Melanoma
Ans. B (Keratoacanthoma) Ref: Burkets
10thed/167, Shafer 4thEd/88 & 5thEd/116 &
6th ed Pg 82
Keratoacanthoma (self healing carcinoma,
molluscum pseudo-carcinomatosum,
molluscum sebaceum) is a relatively common
low-grade malignancy that originates in the
pilosebaceous glands. Trauma, HPV virus,
genetic factors and immuno compromised
status have been implicated as etiologic
factors. It occurs twice commonly in men than
women, usuaLly on sun exposed areas. Lips
and the vermillion bolder of both the upper
and lower lip are affected with equal
frequency.
The clinical course of the Lesion is one of its
unusual aspects. It begins as a small firm
nodule that develops to full size over period
4-8 wks and then undergoes spontaneous
regression over the next 6-8 wks (self healing
carcinoma)
If spontaneous regression does not occur, the
lesion is usually treated by surgical excision
parakeratin or orthokeratin surface layer with
central plugging is important histologic
feature.
Keratoacanthoma is a localized lesion
(usually found on sun-exposed skin, including
the upper lip

Q. 82. CVS manifestation in AIDS / HIV
include all except A/E -
a)pericardial tamponade(?)
b) Aortic aneurysm @@

Q.83. widening of predentin layer n presence
of large areas of interglobular demtin n
irregular tubular pattern of dentin
a) D.I
b) dentin dysplasia
c) odontodysplasia @@@

Q.84. not associated with natal teeth
a)van de woude syndrome @@@
b)sotos syn
c)cleft palate
d)ellis van crevold

Q.85. most common developmental cyst
a) median ant. palatal cyst @@@
b) globullo max cyst
c)median mand cyst

Radiology:-
Q. 86. RVG sensors are protected from
infection / While using the Radio
visiography, the best method of infection
control for receptors is (Aiims may 2009)
a) Autoclave the receptors after each use
b) immerse the receptors in disinfectant
c) wipe the sensor with 5.25% hypochlorite
solution
d) cover with impervious plastic
sheath@@@@@
Ref : Infection Control & Occupational Safety
Recommendations for Oral Health
Professionals in India 2007 by anil kohli
1
st
/124.
The digital sensors and receptors are
semicritical instruments. The digital receptor
is used in the patient's oral cavity needs to
be sheathed with a plastic sheath extending
at least 5 inches outside the patient's mouth.
The sheath needs to be changed between
patients and the digital receptor and only
needs to be wiped with a disinfectant wipe if
contaminated
Do not immerse Digital Receptors (ones with
electronic leads) in disinfectant as the
leaching of liquids
may short the circuits in the receptor. Digital
Sensors (that do not have leads) may be
immersed in a disinfectant per manufacturer's
recommendation.

Q. 87. rvg use compared to conventional
radiography
a) Same
b) Half @@@
c) 1/5
d) increased

Q.88 which of the following is identified only
by radiographs? (AIPG 2009)
a) mental foramen @@@
b)apical cyst
c) PA granuloma
d)chronic periodontitis

Q.89. ceph radiology distance b/w film n
source - 5 feet from midsagittal plane

Q. 90. RFLP

Q. 91. Upper 2 R/L
Leakage frm main canal