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Space for Rough Work

Test - 2 (Paper-II) All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Advanced)-2014
1/19
PART - I : PHYSICS
SECTION - 1
Only One Option Correct Type
This section contains 6 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which ONLY
ONE is correct.
1. A spring of spring constant k connected to a block of mass m is placed on a rough horizontal surface having
coefficient of friction . The spring is given initial elongation
3mg
k
and the block is released from rest. For the
subsequent motion, the maximum speed of the block is
(A)

m
g
k
(B)
2
m
g
k
m
3 mg
k

(C)
2

m
g
k
(D)
2

m
g
k
2. As shown in figure mass of the block resting on the floor is 3 m while that of hanging block is m. The floor is
frictionless and horizontal and all pulleys ideal. The system is initially held stationary with the inclined thread making
an angle = 30 with the horizontal. The blocks are now released from rest and allowed to move. The hanging
block falls through a height h before hitting the floor and at this time the value of becomes 60. The speed with
which the hanging block hits the floor is
3m
m

(A)
2
4
gh
(B)
3
4
gh
(C) 2gh (D)
2
7
gh
TEST - 2 (Paper - II)
Time : 3 Hrs. MM : 186
Space for Rough Work
All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Advanced)-2014 Test - 2 (Paper-II)
2/19
3. Two steel spheres, having radii a and 2a are released from a height h as shown in
figure. Assume that during motion the centres of the spheres lies on a vertical line.
Large sphere collides with the ground and recoils and collides with the small sphere.
Collisions are perfectly elastic. Velocity of small sphere just after its collision is
(A)
9
2 ( 2 )
5
g h a
(B)
9
2 ( 2 )
23
g h a
a
h
2a
(C)
5
2 ( 2 )
9
g h a
(D)
23
2 ( 2 )
9
g h a
4. As shown in figure a solid sphere is rolling without slipping on rough ground. It collides with an identical sphere at
rest elastically. Radius and mass of each sphere is R and m. There is no friction between the two spheres. The
net angular impulse about its centre, imparted to second sphere after impact is

v
at rest
(A)
5
7
mRv
(B)
3
7
mRv
(C)
2
7
mRv
(D)
4
7
mRv
5. A uniform disc of radius R lies in x-y plane with its centre at origin. Its moment of inertia about the axis
17
2
= y R
and z = 0 is equal to moment of inertia about the axis x = d and y = 0. The value of d is
R
(0 0)
y =
17
2
R
d
x
y
(A) 3R (B) 4R
(C) R (D) 2R
Space for Rough Work
Test - 2 (Paper-II) All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Advanced)-2014
3/19
6. As shown in figure an object comprises of a uniform chord AB and a ring of radius R (not necessarily both made
of the same material). Which of the following cannot be the centre of mass of object?
y
x
B
A
(0, 0)
(A)
,
4 4
R R


(B)
,
3 3
R R


(C)
,
3 3
R R


(D)
2 2
,
5 5
R R


SECTION - 2
One or More Options Correct Type
This section contains 5 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which ONE
OR MORE are correct.
7. A plank of length L and mass M is placed at rest on a smooth horizontal surface. As shown in figure a small block
of mass m is projected with a velocity v
0
. The coefficient of friction between the block and the plank is , plank is
very long so that block eventually comes to rest on it.
m
M
v
0
Smooth
(A) The final common velocity is
0
mv
v
M m
=
+
(B) The work done by friction on the plank is =
2
2
0 2
1
2 ( ) +
m M
v
m M
(C) The work done by friction on the block is
2
0 2
1 ( 2 )
2 ( )
+
=
+
mM M m
v
M m
(D) The net work done by friction is
2
0
1
2
=
+
mM
v
M m
Space for Rough Work
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8. A ball of mass m moving at a speed v makes a head on collision with an identical ball at rest. The kinetic energy
of the balls after the collision is
3
4
th of original. Choose the correct statements
m
v
m
v
2
m
v
1
(A) 1
1
is
2
e
v v
+


(B)
2
1
is
2
e
v v



(C) Coefficient of restitution is
1
2
(D) Coefficient of restitution is
1
2
9. A uniform slender rod of length L and mass M is pivoted at one end. It is held horizontal and released. Given that
the pivot is frictionless, select the correct alternative(s).
L
M
(A) The angular acceleration of the stick immediately after it is released is
3
2
g
L
(B) The angular acceleration of the stick immediately after it is released is
2
3
g
L
(C) The force F
0
exerted on the stick by the pivot immediately after release is
4
Mg
(D) The force F
0
exerted on the stick by the pivot immediately after release is
2
Mg
10. The net force (F) acting on a particle depends on its position (x) as shown in figure. Choose the correct statement.
F
A
B
C
x
(A) A is the point of stable equilibrium (B) C is the point of unstable equilibrium
(C) B is the point of neutral equilibrium (D) B is the point of stable equilibrium
Space for Rough Work
Test - 2 (Paper-II) All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Advanced)-2014
5/19
11. A particle of mass m is suspended from a string of length R and at the bottom it
is given velocity 3 = u gR . Choose the correct velocity and tension for different
points given in the figure.
(A) Velocity at point B is 7gR (B) Tension at point B is 7mg
D B
C
u
R
(C) Velocity at point C is 5gR (D) Tension at point C is 4mg
SECTION - 3
Paragraph Type
This section contains 2 paragraphs. Each describing theory, experiment, data etc. Four questions relate to two paragraphs
with two questions on each paragraph. Each question of a paragraph has only one correct answer among the four choices
(A), (B), (C) and (D).
Paragraph for Question Nos. 12 to 13
A constant horizontal force F = mg starts acting on a suspended pendulum bob of mass m, initially at rest.
m
F
12. The maximum angular deflection of the string
(A)
3

(B)
6

(C)
2

(D)
4

13. Tension is maximum at angular deflection of the string


(A)
3

(B)
6

(C)
2

(D)
4

Space for Rough Work


All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Advanced)-2014 Test - 2 (Paper-II)
6/19
Paragraph for Question Nos. 14 to 15
Two smooth balls A and B, each of mass m and radius R have their centres at (0, 0, R) and at (5R, R, R)
respectively, in a coordinate system as shown. Before collision, ball A is moving along positive x-axis with speed
of 4 m/s and ball B is stationary. The collision between the balls is elastic.
x(m)
y
A
B
14. Velocity of the ball A just after collision is
(A)

3 i j (B)

3 + i j
(C)

3 + i j (D)

3 i j
15. Impulse of the force exerted by A on B during collision is equal to
(A)

3 3 mi mj (B)

3 3 + mi mj
(C)

3 3 + mi mj (D)

3 3 mi mj
SECTION - 4
Matching Column Type
This section contains 2 multiple choice questions. Each question has matching Columns. The codes for the Columns
have choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
16. The figure shows a fixed hemisphere of radius R. A small ball of mass m is projected horizontally along the tangent
with a speed v from a point C. The centre O, lowest point A and point C lie in same vertical plane.
Column I Column II
(P) Angular momentum about O (1) mvR
(Q) Angular momentum about C (2) 2mvR cos
2


A
O
C
(R) Angular momentum about A (3) mvR sin
(S) Angular momentum about OA (4) Zero
Space for Rough Work
Test - 2 (Paper-II) All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Advanced)-2014
7/19
Codes :
P Q R S
(A) 1 3 4 2
(B) 3 2 1 4
(C) 1 4 2 3
(D) 4 2 1 3
17. When a wheel rolls without slipping on a horizontal surface, any point (B) on its circumference moves along a
curved path called cycloid. Consider a point B on the circumference, initially in contact with the surface, consider
that point as origin. Match column I having coordinate of point B and velocity of point B after the time interval t with
the column II.

v
B
c
Column I Column II
(P) x-coordinate of point B (1)
cos
c
v t
r r
r



(Q) y-coordinate of point B (2)
cos
c
c c
v t
v v
r



(R) Horizontal component of velocity of point B (3)
sin



c
c
v t
v t r
r
(S) Vertical component of velocity of point B (4)
sin
c
c
v t
v
r



Codes :
P Q R S
(A) 1 3 2 4
(B) 3 1 2 4
(C) 3 2 1 4
(D) 4 2 3 1
Space for Rough Work
All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Advanced)-2014 Test - 2 (Paper-II)
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SECTION - 5
Integer Value Correct Type
This section contains 3 questions. The answer to each of the question is a single digit integer, ranging from 0 to 9. The
appropriate bubbles corresponding to the respective question numbers in the ORS have to be darkened. For example,
if the correct answers to question numbers X, Y and Z (say) are 6, 0 and 9, respectively, then the correct darkening of
bubbles will look like the following :
0
X
Y
Z 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
18. A uniform rod of mass m and length I is free to rotate about hinge O. A slight disturbance causes the rod to rotate
freely about O. Horizontal force applied on rod by hinge just before the rod hits the surface is .
xmg
y
Find the value
of x + y.
O
l
19. The system of blocks must be released from >
nmg
h
k
with the spring unstretched so that after perfectly inelastic
collision (e = 0) with ground, B may be lifted off the ground. Find the least possible value of n. (k is spring constant).
m
2m
A
B
h
Space for Rough Work
Test - 2 (Paper-II) All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Advanced)-2014
9/19
20. A uniform disc of mass m and radius R is projected horizontally with velocity v
0
on a rough horizontal floor so that
it starts off with a purely sliding motion at t = 0. After
0
0
=

v
t
n g
second it acquires a purely rolling motion as
shown in figure. Find the value of n.
v
0
t = 0
v
t t =
0
PART - II : CHEMISTRY
SECTION - 1
Only One Option Correct Type
This section contains 6 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which ONLY
ONE is correct.
21. 10 ml of 0.2 M acid is added to 250 ml of a buffer solution with [H
+
] = 10
6.34
mol/L. The [H
+
] of the solution becomes
10
6.32
mol/L. The buffer capacity of the solution is
(A) 0.1 (B) 0.4
(C) 0.5 (D) 0.6
22. The rates of diffusion of SO
2
, SO
3
, O
3
and CO
2
in the following order
(A) CO
2
> O
3
> SO
2
> SO
3
(B) O
3
> CO
2
> SO
2
> SO
3
(C) SO
3
> CO
2
> SO
2
> O
3
(D) CO
2
> SO
2
> O
3
> SO
3
23. Compressibility factor for N
2
at 27C and 100 atm pressure is 1.66. Calculate number of moles of N
2
gas required
to fill a gas cylinder of 821 ml under these conditions.
(A) 3.5 (B) 3
(C) 2.5 (D) 2
24. A
2
(g) is dissociated to A (g) of 33% and 40% if total pressure P
1
and P
2
atm respectively at 300 K then the ratio
1
2
P
P
is
(A) 1.55 (B) 2.55
(C) 3.425 (D) 4.425
Space for Rough Work
All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Advanced)-2014 Test - 2 (Paper-II)
10/19
25. The solubility of Ag
2
CO
3
in presence of Na
2
CO
3
is expressed by
(A)
sp
2
3
2K
CO

(B)
sp
2
3
K
1
2
[CO ]

(C)
sp
1
[Na ]
2K
+

(D) 2K
sp
[CO
3
2
]
26. The entropy change when 1 mole of ideal gas expands reversibly from an initial volume of 2 litres to final volume of
20 litres at 25C is
(A) 19.15 JK
1
mol
1
(B) 4.6 JK
1
mol
1
(C) 0.1914 JK
1
mol
1
(D) 46.06 JK
1
mol
1
SECTION - 2
One or More Options Correct Type
This section contains 5 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which ONE
OR MORE are correct.
27. C
p
C
v
= R. This R is not equal to
(A) Change in KE
(B) Change in rotational energy
(C) Work done which system can do on expanding the gas per mol per degree increase in temperature
(D) Change in PE
28. Chemical equilibrium for a reversible change means for
(A) The forward reaction proceeds as fast as the backward reaction i.e. velocity of opposing reaction is equal
(B) No change in concentration of reaction species with time
(C) Dynamic equilibrium
(D) The concentration of reactant molecules must be equal to the concentration of product molecules
29. Which of the relationships is/are correct?
(A)
av
8RT
C
M
=

(B)
rms
3RT
C
M
=

(C) PM = dRT (D) C


av
= 0.816 C
rms
Space for Rough Work
Test - 2 (Paper-II) All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Advanced)-2014
11/19
30. For which reactions given fact(s) is /are correct?
(A)
2 2 3
H S H O H O HS
+
+ +

: K
c
is ionisation constant for acid
(B)
2 2 3
H O H O H O OH
+
+ +

: K
c
is ionic product of water
(C)
3 2 2 3 3
CH NH H O CH NH OH
+

+ +

: K
c
is ionisation constant of base
(D)
2 2
3 3 4
Cu 4NH [Cu(NH ) ]
+ +
+

: K
c
is stability constant of complex
31. In the reaction
2 4 2
Cl OH Cl ClO H O

+ + +
; Chlorine (Cl
2
) is
(A) Oxidised
(B) Reduced
(C) Disproportionated
(D) Neither oxidised nor reduced
SECTION - 3
Paragraph Type
This section contains 2 paragraphs. Each describing theory, experiment, data etc. Four questions relate to two paragraphs
with two questions on each paragraph. Each question of a paragraph has only one correct answer among the four choices
(A), (B), (C) and (D).
Paragraph for Question Nos. 32 to 33
The methods employed for the determination of equilibrium constant are different for different equilibria depending
on the nature of the system and the types of reaction. In simple gaseous dissociation such as
2 4 2
N O (g) 2NO (g)

; 1 mole of N
2
O
4
(g) is decomposed under atmospheric condition at 25C.
32. Value of K
P
increased by when degree of dissociation becomes equal to 50% at constant temperature
(A) 1.5 times (B) Remains constant
(C) 2 times (D) Decreases
33. If the degree of dissociation of the above equilibrium is 50%, then observed vapour density is
(A) 30.6 (B) 54.22
(C) 90.23 (D) 25.46
Space for Rough Work
All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Advanced)-2014 Test - 2 (Paper-II)
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Paragraph for Question Nos. 34 to 35
Iron metal is produced commercially by reducing iron (III) oxide into iron ore with carbon monoxide as follows
2 3 2
Fe O (s) 3CO(g) 2Fe(s) 3CO (g) + +
Fe O
2 3
CO (g) Fe (s) CO (g)
2
H (kJ/mol)
f
S (J/mol K)
824.0 110.5 0 393.5
87.5 197.5 27.0 213.5
34. The standard free energy change for the reaction at 25C is
(A) + 15.0 kJ (B) 29.3 kJ
(C) 15.0 kJ (D) 20 kJ
35. Choose the correct statement
(A) The reverse reaction becomes spontaneous at a lower temperature
(B) The reverse reaction becomes spontaneous at a higher temperature
(C) The reverse reaction is not spontaneous at any temperature
(D) The forward reaction is not spontaneous at any temperature
SECTION - 4
Matching Column Type
This section contains 2 multiple choice questions. Each question has matching Columns. The codes for the Columns
have choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
36. Match the following
Column I Column II
(Mixture) (pH values)
(P) 0.1 M CH
3
COOH + 0.1 M (1) 7.4
CH
3
COONa (pK
a
of CH
3
COOH = 4.74)
(Q) 100 ml of 0.1 M HCl + 100 ml of 0.1 M NaOH (2) 9.26
(R) 100 ml of 0.1 M NH
4
OH (3) 7.0
(pK
b
= 4.74) + 50 ml of 0.1 M HCl
(S) Blood buffer (4) 4.74
Space for Rough Work
Test - 2 (Paper-II) All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Advanced)-2014
13/19
Codes :
P Q R S
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 2 3 4 1
(C) 4 3 2 1
(D) 4 2 3 1
37. Match the following
Column I Column II
(P)
2
Cu Cu Cu
+ +
+ (1) Oxidation
(Q)
3
ClO Cl

(2) Reduction
(R)
2
4 4
MnO MnO

(3) Disproportionation
(S)
2 2
2 7 4
Cr O CrO

(4) Neither oxidation nor reduction
Codes :
P Q R S
(A) 3 2 1 4
(B) 2 3 1 4
(C) 3 2 4 1
(D) 3 1 2 4
SECTION - 5
Integer Value Correct Type
This section contains 3 questions. The answer to each of the question is a single digit integer, ranging from 0 to 9. The
appropriate bubbles corresponding to the respective question numbers in the ORS have to be darkened. For example,
if the correct answers to question numbers X, Y and Z (say) are 6, 0 and 9, respectively, then the correct darkening of
bubbles will look like the following :
0
X
Y
Z 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
Space for Rough Work
All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Advanced)-2014 Test - 2 (Paper-II)
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38. The n-factor of the underline compound is
4 3 2 2
NH NO N O 3H O +
39. 100 ml of 0.75 N NH
4
OH is mixed with 100 ml of 0.50 N HCl. The K
b
of NH
4
OH is 2 10
5.
Hence pOH of the
solution is _________.
40. The ratio of excluded volume and actual molecular volume of real gas is _________.
PART - III : MATHEMATICS
SECTION - 1
Only One Option Correct Type
This section contains 6 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which ONLY
ONE is correct.
41. Number of positive integers n 2014 such that '6' is a factor of n
2
+ 3n + 2 is
(A) 2014 (B) 1342
(C) 1343 (D) 1341
42. Sides of a triangle are distinct positive integers in an arithmetic progression. If the smallest side is 20 cm, then the
number of such triangles is
(A) 20 (B) 30
(C) 21 (D) 19
43. Let A = {1, 2, 3,.........., 12}, B = {101, 102,..........., 106}, number of functions defined from A to B such that
f(1) + f(2) +........ + f(12) is even is
(A) 6
12
(B) 3. 6
11
(C) 6
11
(D) 3
12
1
44. Let A denote the matrix
0
0
i
i



, i
2
= 1 and let I denote the identity matrix
1 0
0 1



, then A + A
2
+ ..... + A
2020
is
equal to
(A)
0 0
0 0



(B)
1
1
i
i



(C)
0
0
i
i



(D)
1 0
0 1


Space for Rough Work
Test - 2 (Paper-II) All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Advanced)-2014
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45. A = {x
1
, x
2
, x
3
,.........., x
2n
}, x
i
I, i = 1, 2, .............., 2n. Elements of A are arranged along a circle in that order.
If each number is equal to average of its two adjacent numbers. If
2
1
n
m
m
x k
=
=
, then sum of all numbers is
(A) 0 (B)
2
2
k k +
(C) 2k (D) 4k
46. Let A be n n matrix such that it is idempotent matrix. The value of (I + A)
2n
is equal to (where I is the identity
matrix of order n)
(A) I + A (B) I + 2nA
(C) I + 2
2n
A (D) I + (2
2n
1) A
SECTION - 2
One or More Options Correct Type
This section contains 5 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which ONE
OR MORE are correct.
47.
1
2 3 4
2 6 10 14
1 ....up to
3
3 3 3
S = + + + + +
8 4 2 3
2
3 . 3 . 3 ....up to S =
then
(A) S
1
> S
2
(B) S
1
< S
2
(C) Number of positive divisors of S
1
+ S
2
is 6 (D) S
1
= 2S
2
48. Let x
1
, x
2
, x
3
,......x
50
be fifty nonzero numbers such that x
i
+ x
i+1
= k for all 1 i 49. If x
14
= a, x
27
= b, then
(A) x
20
+ x
37
= 3a + 2b (B) x
20
+ x
37
= 2k (a + b)
(C) x
20
+ x
37
= a + b (D) x
20
+ x
37
= 2k
49. Let x
1
and x
2
be the roots of the equation x
2
3x + a = 0, x
3
and x
4
be roots of the equation x
2
12x + b = 0, x
4
,
x
5
be roots of equation of x
2
+ cx + d = 0, if x
1
< x
2
< x
3
< x
4
< x
5
< x
6
are in G.P., then
(A) ab = 64 (B) c + d = 564
(C) c + d = 560 (D) |c d| = 464
50. Let S
3n
= 1 2
2
+ 3
3
+ 4 5
2
+ 6
3
+ .... up to 3n terms then
(A) S
3n
is always divisible by 3 (B) S
3n
is always divisible by 6
(C) S
30
is divisible by 10 (D) S
30
is not divisible by 10
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51. If A is a square matrix of order 3 such that A
3
= I and (A + I)
3
+ (A I)
3
6A = B, where I is the identify matrix
of order 3, then
(A) B = 2I (B) B = 3I
(C) |B| = 2 (D) |B| = 8
SECTION - 3
Paragraph Type
This section contains 2 paragraphs. Each describing theory, experiment, data etc. Four questions relate to two paragraphs
with two questions on each paragraph. Each question of a paragraph has only one correct answer among the four choices
(A), (B), (C) and (D).
Paragraph for Question Nos. 52 to 53
Let a
1
, a
2
, a
3
,......, a
n
be n positive real numbers then
1/ 1 2
1 2 3
...
( . . ... )
n n
n
a a a
a a a a
n
+ + +

equality holds when


a
1
= a
2
= .... = a
n
.
52. For x > 3 the minimum value of
2
2 12 26
( )
3
x x
f x
x
+ +
=
+
is
(A) 8 (B) 4
(C) 6 (D) 12
53. If x + y + z = 55, x, y, z > 0 then x
2
y
4
z
5
will be maximum when x is equal to
(A)
55
3
(B) 5
(C) 22 (D) 10
Paragraph for Question Nos. 54 to 55
Suppose that each term in the sequence x
1
, x
2
, x
3
,......x
n
(n is even) is either 1 or 1 or 0. Let S represent sum
of product of terms taken two at a time i.e. all x
i
x
j
(0 < i < j n) then
54. Minimum value of S is
(A) n (B)
( 1)
2
n

(C)
2
n
(D)
( 1)
2
n +

Space for Rough Work


Test - 2 (Paper-II) All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Advanced)-2014
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55. Maximum value of S is
(A)
2
1
2
n n +
(B)
2
2
n
(C)
2
2
n n +
(D)
2
2
n n
SECTION - 4
Matching Column Type
This section contains 2 multiple choice questions. Each question has matching Columns. The codes for the Columns
have choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
56. Let A = {1, 3, 5}. A number is selected from set A with replacement and this process is done 920 times for each
i = 1, 3, 5. Let f(i ) represents the number of times the number (i ) is selected i.e. f(1) + f(3) + f(5) = 920, Let S
be sum of all 920 numbers selected. If S
3
= 405 f(1). f(3). f(5) then match the statement in column I with statement
in column II and select appropriate code.
Column I Column II
(P) f(1) (1) 120
(Q) f(3) (2) 200
(R) f(5) (3) 600
(S) Harmonic mean of f(1), f(3), f(5) is (4) 100
Codes :
P Q R S
(A) 2 3 2 1
(B) 3 2 1 4
(C) 3 2 1 2
(D) 1 2 3 4
Space for Rough Work
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57. Match the following
Column I Column II
(P) Let x 2y = 1, x y + az = 2, ay + 9z = b. (1) 6
Number of values of a for which given system
of equations does not possess unique solution is
(Q) For above given equation(s) in part (P) number of (2) 2
ordered pair (a, b) for which given system of
equations have infinite solution is
(R) If
5 2
2 1
A

=


and A
1
= A + I then is equal to (3) 12
(S) Let N = 2
5
3
2
5
3
, number of divisors of N which are (4) 11
of the form 8 + 4, N is
Codes :
P Q R S
(A) 2 2 1 4
(B) 2 2 1 3
(C) 1 1 2 3
(D) 2 1 3 4
SECTION - 5
Integer Value Correct Type
This section contains 3 questions. The answer to each of the question is a single digit integer, ranging from 0 to 9. The
appropriate bubbles corresponding to the respective question numbers in the ORS have to be darkened. For example,
if the correct answers to question numbers X, Y and Z (say) are 6, 0 and 9, respectively, then the correct darkening of
bubbles will look like the following :
0
X
Y
Z 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
Space for Rough Work
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58. a, b, c, d be positive real numbers such that a + b + c + d = 12 and abcd = 27 + ab + ac + ad + bc + bd + cd
then value of
2( )
3
a d b c + + +
is __________
59. If
4 4 4
2
4 4 4
1 2 3
1 1 1
1 3 .... (2 1)
1 4 4 4
1 1 1
2 4 .... (2 )
4 4 4
n
k n k n k
n

+ + +


=
+ +
+ + +


then k
1
k
2
+ k
3
is equal to
60. Let
4 1 6
6 4 9
5 0 5
A


=



. If |adj adjA| = 5
k
, then k is equal to

Test - 1 (Paper - II) (Answers & Hints) All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Advanced)-2014
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TEST - 1 (Paper - II)
PHYSICS
1. (B)
2. (C)
3. (A)
4. (D)
5. (B)
6. (C)
7. (B, C)
8. (A, B)
9. (A, C)
10. (A, C, D)
11. (A, B, C, D)
12. (B)
13. (C)
14. (D)
15. (D)
16. (B)
17. (C)
18. (9)
19. (3)
20. (2)
CHEMISTRY
21. (C)
22. (D)
23. (B)
24. (D)
25. (B)
26. (A)
27. (A, B, D)
28. (A, C)
29. (A, D)
30. (A, C, D)
31. (C)
32. (A)
33. (B)
34. (D)
35. (D)
36. (B)
37. (A)
38. (5)
39. (9)
40. (4)
MATHEMATICS
41. (B)
42. (C)
43. (A)
44. (D)
45. (D)
46. (B)
47. (A, B)
48. (A, C)
49. (A, B)
50. (A, B)
51. (A, B, D)
52. (A)
53. (B)
54. (C)
55. (A)
56. (C)
57. (D)
58. (4)
59. (2)
60. (4)
ANSWERS