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Question Bank of Agricultural Engg.
GATE, ICAR, MCEAR Exams
Question Bank
of
Agricultural
Engineering
By
Er. Jayant Potekar

M. Tech. (IIT Kharagpur)
FARM MACHINERY AND POWER
A. Complete the Statements

1.
Human beings are the main source of power for operating small tools and
implements.
2.
It is generally believed that there is surplus human power available for

agricultural Operations in India.
3.
There is a steady decline in the number of landless laborers available for doing
farm work in rural areas.

4.
A tractor and new industries are leading to a shortage of labor on agricultural
land plus an increase in the cost of labor.

5.
The indications are that the decline in number of labor employed in agriculture
is likely to increase in future resulting a greater involvement in labor saving
devices and mechanical power.
6.
The most important source of power on the farm all
over
the
world
and
particularly in India is animal.

7.
Among the cattle the bullocks and buffaloes happen to be the principal source
of animal power on Indian farms.
8.
The utilization of animals for draft purpose as well as the power developed by
them depends mainly as to how they are tamed, trained and harnessed.
9.
The third important source of farm power is mechanical power that is available
through tractors and oil engines.

10.
The oil engine is highly efficient device for converting fuel into mechanical
power.
11.
Now a days electricity has become a very important source of power on the
farms in various states of the country.

12. Electrical power is becoming steadily more and more available with the increase of
various river valley projects and thermal power stations.
13. The larger use of electric power in the rural area is for irrigation and
domestic water supply.
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14. The use of electric power in dairy industry, cold storage, fruit processing and
cattle feed grinding has tremendously increased.
15.
Even today in India wind power has not been fully harnessed because of the
most
16.
important reason is its uncertainty.

Tractors and power tillers have limited overload for whereas bullocks have very
high load capacity for short time.

17.
Acceptability of tractor and power tiller is not very common because of
high initial investment.

18. Tractor
and
power
tiller
is
the
best
source
of
power
for any traction job and with cage wheel it can be used for puddling also.
19. All kinds of stationary works can be performed by tractor and power tiller
whereas bullocks have limited use for such works.
20.
Tractor and power tiller is a quick means of medium distance transport
whereas bullocks are also used for short and medium distant transport work.
21. In case of tractor and power tiller the cost per horse power is low
but
over
all investment per unit area to be controlled is high.

22. In case of bullocks cost per horse power is high but overall investment is less.
23. In case of bullocks the value of the rate of depreciation increases
in
the
beginning and then decreases

24. Cost of operation of tractor and power tillers is cheaper per horse power but bullock is
costlier than tractors.
25. The technical know how of the people in case of tractor and power tiller in general is low
and as such farmers got discouraged to buy a tractor.
26. To some extent medical facilities are now available and such as it is not very
difficult
to cure a sick animal in rural areas.
27. Tractor and power tiller do not consume any fuel or lubricant while not in use
but bullock need care feed and fodder even during idle period.
28. Output of tractor and power tiller is very high and are suitable for timely
operations where as bullocks give low output.
29. It is quite true that the Indian farmers have the lowest earnings per capita
because of
the low yield per hectare they get from their holdings.
30. Mechanization in India have to be done at various levels by introducing the

improved agricultural implements on small size holdings to be operated by
bullocks.
31. Mechanization in India can be done by using the small tractors and machines
on the
tractor drawn holdings.
32. Mechanization can also be done by using large size tractors and machines on
the remaining holdings.
33. Many people are of the opinion that Indian agriculture can not be fully
mechanized.
34. It is felt that only improved animal drawn implements should be introduced for
agricultural operations.
35.
There are enough draft animals available in the country to do the farm work
efficiently.
36.
The size of farm holdings of the majority of Indian farmers is too small to
justify the
37.
use of a tractor on their farms.
The investing capacity of the farmers is too poor to buy a tractor and tractor
drawn implements
.
38.
In the absence of suitable farm roads system the tractor and the tractor drawn
machines cannot be effectively utilized under the present conditions.
39.
It will not be possible to mechanize every bit of farm operations and

mechanization
40.
will not result in lowering the cost of production.
History indicates that the development in farm mechanization is very closely

4
related
to the shortage of human labor and industrial development in the
country.
41.
As a result of higher rates daily wages in the nearby centers, the agriculture
labor seeks employment there.
42. There is gradual movement of village population to the cities and industrial
towns.
43.
Mechanization will not bring any unbalance in the present pattern of village life.
43. One of the major handicaps in mechanization of Indian agriculture is the low-I
investing capacity of farmers to buy machines.
44. The manufacturers can also encourage the farmers to buy machines on easy
installments basis.
45. The effective mechanizationcontributes to increase production in two major
ways, firstly the timeliness of operation and secondly the quality of work.
46. It is quite obvious that the number of operations required to raise a particular
crop is comparatively reduced when tractor drawn machines are employed.
47. By using mechanical power, man will be able to control large area and as such his
family members will get more free time.
48. According to Giles the inadequacy of mechanical power is the main problem that
Indian agriculture is facing today.
49. The first alternative for providing mechanical power on small farms for field
operations could he common for wheel tractors on cooperative basis.
50. The second alternative could be the organization of custom service of tractor
operation through agro-service centers set up by the agro industries and private
entrepreneurs.
51. Farmers particularly in rice growing areas are gradually accepting the power
5
tiller as a source of power on their farms since the machines are better suited for
rice growing puddling operations.
52. There
is a very great
scope
for
further
increase
in
availability
farm tractors and power tillers which will give high yield in return.
5 3 . Availability of proper agency for manufacturing of machine components like
plow shares, cultivating shovels and discs is no longer a difficulty for these
category equipments.
54.
In
the
rice
growing
areas,
tractor
and
animal
operated
puddler
have been developed and are being manufactured by few agencies in the
country.
55.
Power tiller attached with rotary tillers have been used quite satisfactorily
for puddling operations.
56.
Recently the work in the field of seeding and planting is being carried out to
develop multicrop machines to cut down the investment at the farmer's level.
57. After attaining self sufficiency in wheat production in the country emphasis is
now being placed on rice production as it is the staple food of a large number
of people in India.
58. Transplanting of paddy seedlings is very time consuming process which has
been a bottle neck in the implementation of multiple cropping
system in
paddy lands.
59. Irrigation is extremely important in wheat and summer paddy in India because
the monsoon rains fall entirely outside the region in which the crops are grown.
60. Irrigation makes it practical to grow a second crop each year in India during the
season of inadequate rainfall.
61. Harvesting of cereals like wheat and paddy has become critical operation
due to inadequate labor availability.
62. Combines for wheat and paddy crops have been introduced during last few years
in more mechanized states of India.
63. Due to lack of labor for harvesting and threshing crops within short time, the
mechanization of grain harvesting is gaining priority in India.
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64.
The introduction of rubber roll shellers made
significant
contribution
in
achieving higher rice out turn, pure bran and other by-products.
65. Most people believe that India is burdened with severe surplus land
and there are far too many draft animals for the cultivation of available farm
land.
66. There is a fear that farm mechanization will precipitate wide spread rural
unemployment as agriculture contributes over two thirds of all jobs.
67. India's increased food requirements must be met through increased productivity
of the land from higher yields and more multiple cropping which would require
additional labor for carrying different farm operations.
68. The tractorization does offer the opportunity to reduce number of farm workers
per
hectare.
69. Most of the Indian experts also agree that only careful selective mechanization
adjusted to the existing condition could be justified by the social and economic
conditions.
70. On the machine production utilization front, it may be stated that in long run the
agricultural
machines
and
tractors
market
in
India
would
be one of the largest in the world.

71. Agriculture must continue to productively employ as many or more laborers
per cultivated hectares in the foreseeable future.
72. The small and scattered land holdings and poor economic conditions of the
average farmers restrict the use of units designed for large scale mechanization.
73. Emphasis should be given to accelerate the pace of electrification
so
that
more number of motor driven pump sets may be installed.

74. Custom hiring of farm equipments should he encouraged as it has resulted in
the increased power availability on the farms and in turn increased land
productivity.
75. A large size diesel engine is equipped with a blower to supply extra air to remove
exhaust gases more thoroughly and also to increase volumetric efficiency.
76. In diesel engines, the fuel is injected into superheated air of the combustion space
7
where burning takes place.

77. In diesel engines, air fuel ratio is not constant as the quantity of air drawn into the
cylinder is always the same.
78. For the same size engine the two stroke engine would give twice the power of the
four stroke.
79. Cylinders and liners are subjected to piston thrust and high combustion chamber.
80. Cylinders and liners must be constructed for resistance to wear and adequate
cooling.
81. Close contact between the dry liner and the cylinder is absolutely necessary to
reduce
resistance to heat flow.
82. Design of cylinder heads must provide openings for valve, stroke plugs or
injection nozzles and passage for cooling water.
83. Specific fuel consumption is the quantity of fuel consumed by an oil engine on
the basis of per horse power hour.
84. Thermal efficiency is the ratio of the horse power output of an engine to the fuel
horse power input.
85. Valve and valve operating mechanism admit air and fuel to
the
cylinder
and
remained waste combustion products.

86. The space between the cylinder and piston is known as the combustion chamber
where the fuel burns and release energy to move the piston.
87. In four stroke carburetor type engine, the air fuel mixture is drawn into the
cylinder through the intake valves as the piston moves downward in the cylinder.
88. As the piston moves upward, both intake and exhaust valves remain closed and
the air fuel mixture is heated by compression.
89. The only difference is that instead of air fuel mixture, only air is drawn into the
cylinder through the intake valve.
90. Compression of the mixture in the combustion chamber and suction in the crank
case
occur when the piston is moving upward.
91. In a four stroke engine, there is only one power stroke for every two revolutions
of
the crank shaft.

8
92. expansion take place in two strokes of the piston.

93. The exhaust gases flow out causing a reduction of pressure in combustion
chamber.
94. Piston and piston rings seal the cylinder and transmit the gas pressure to the
connecting rod.
95. Aluminum alloys pistons used for high speed engines are electroplated with a
metal like
cadmium and tin.
96. The top of the piston is called crown and lower section the skirt.
97. Two most common types of rings use on a piston are oil control and compression
control rings.
98. Rings are provided with grooves through which excess oil moves inside the
piston and
drains back to the crank case.
99. Oil control rings are designed to scrape excess oil from the cylinder walls on its
downward stroke.
100. A connecting rod is attached to the piston at one end and the crank shaft on the
other end.
101. The piston pin is generally hollow and is accurately ground and polished for
tight fit in
piston bosses.
102. Connecting rod transmits the gas pressure to the crank shaft
and makes it to
rotate.
103. The connecting rod of four stroke engine is subjected to both compression and
tension alternately where as in a two stroke engine, it is subjected to compression
only.
104. The small end bearing of the connecting rod is bronze bushing but the big end
bearing into two shells.
105. Engines with pressure lubrication system use drilled passages connecting rod
for forcing oil from the crank pin to the pin
106. Crank shaft is subjected to bending as well as twisting from the connecting rod
thrust.
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107. In order to relieve loads on the main bearings especially in an engines counter
weights are added the crank shaft.
108. Most of the modern engines are equipped with one piece from the carbon steel or
cast from the chrome-nickel iron.
109. The main function of the crank shaft is to make the engine power available for
the useful work.
110. To ensure a good support, the crank shaft is placed between each pair of
cylinders.
111. The crank shaft is generally located at the upper crank case level and is driven
from the,crank shaft by means of positive drives or chain and sprockets.
112. A positive drive is essential to obtain a crank shaft exactly half the speed of the
crank
shaft in a four stroke engine.
113. The crank shaft is to operate inlet and exhaust valves, fuel pump, lubricating oil
pump
and the ignition system of the engine.
114. Flywheel absorbs the excess energy during power stroke supplies back part of the
energy during other stroke.
115. Flywheel provides extra energy over and above that developed by the engine
when the engine has to overcome heavy loads.
116. Most engines are provided one inlet and one exhaust valve for each cylinder.
117. The arrangement of the valves on the engine may be either overhead type or Lheadtype.
118. In the overhead arrangement the valve stem is surrounded by a removable
guide and spring holds the valve against its seat.
119. The rotor arm assembly which is operated by a cam shaft through a push rod,
forces the valve open at the desired time.
120. Due to constant use, both inlet and exhaust valves thin sheets are subjected to mechanical
wear.
121. To overcome mechanical wear a separate value seat of high wear resisting
material is inserted.
123. Clearance between rocker arm and valve stem is provided to enable the valves
10
to seat properly.
124. Clearance between rocker arm and valve stem is also known as tappet clearance
and
should be adjusted with feeler gauge according to the manufacturer
specifications.
125. Reduction in the pressure is mainly due to leaky valves and can be avoided by
reconditioning the valves properly.
126. Reconditioning of the valves includes valve refacing, valve seat cutting and
resetting of the valve on its seal
127. After the proper cutting and refacing the valve is rotated on its scat in the
presence o valve grinding paste until a continuous line of constant width is formed on
the valve.
128. In most cases it has ban observed that intake valves wear more than exhaust
valves
129. The troubles most often encountered with the exhaust valve are valve burning
and
excessive carbon deposits on the stem.
130. Boon inlet and exhaust valves remain closed during compression stroke and most
of the time in power stroke.
131. The internal combustion engine is the most important part of a tractor and is
only source of power on the tractor.
132. To obtain maximum performance, tractor engine systems must be periodically
serviced and adjusted.
133. The development of efficient air cleaner has been of importance extending the
useful life of farm tractor improving their operation efficiency.
134. The dirtiest the air cleaner becomes lesser the airflow to the engine and thus the
performance of the engine is affected.
135. The air cleaner assembly, the piece connecting and the cleaner constitute the air
intake systems.
136. The oil soaked element type cleaner consists of a container filled with wire
screens saturated with lubricating oil used in the crank case.
137. Light fuel should never be used because they lack sufficient lubricating
11
qualities to keep, the finely finished surfaces of injection pump parts from the
scouring.
138. Diesel fuels are rated according to octane number is the indication of the
ignition quality of the fuel.
139. The cetane number is the percentage of cetane in a
mixture of and Alfa
methyl naphthalene by volume.

140. To get the maximum amount of power from the engines, it is necessary to
maintain the proper proportion of fuel and air and ignite the mixture at the proper
instant.
141. Under normal engine operating conditions, preignition is avoided and engine
starts the combustion.
142. The spark raises the temperature of the mixture adjacent to it and local burning
starts.
143. In diesel engines, the fuel is injected into the compressed air of the cylinder in
the form
of solid system as well as drops.
144. Since the vaporizing, mixing and heating of mixture of the ignition
temperature
requires time, more and more fuel is added before the ignition starts.
145. In the powerine tractors the fuel tanks are located above the level of the
carburetor and the fuel flows to the car carburetor by gravity.
146. Between the tank and carburetor there are general three strainers and a fuel
sediments bowl to impurities like sediments and water.
147. The oil bath container is the most common type of air cleaner used on farm
tractors.
148. At least once a year the entire air cleaner system should be thoroughly worked.
149. Whilst refilling the oil cup, ca r e should be taken that the proper oil level is
maintained
in the cup.
150. Most of the precleaners function on the principles of centrifugal actions the
bigger one dust particles being separated out before air is passed on the oil cup.
151. Detonation or engine knocking refers to violent noises heard in an engine
during the process of combustion alter the piston has passed over the top dead center.
152. When a full charge knocks, power and economy are sacrificed and engine
12
operating temperatures are greatly increased.

153. Pre-ignitions refer to the burning of the mixture in the combustion chamber
before piston has reached the top dead center.
154. Most powerine operated tractors are provided with two fuel tanks, a petrol tank
and a
powerine tank.
155. Powerine being less volatile does not vaporize well and so can not be used for
starting tractor engine.
156. Overflowing of a carburetor is due to improper starting of the float needle value.
157. The light diesel fuel weighs heavier per liter and is the main source of fuel for
slow speed cold starting engine.
158. The carburetor is a mixing valve which measures the correct amount of liquid
fuel, atomizes it with air entering the cylinders.
159. Careless handling will result in breaking the gasket which will ultimately give
leaky
joints.
160. The air pressure in the throat is less than the pressure surrounding air because
of the
increased velocity.
161. A sample carburetor which does not employ compensating devices fails to meet
the variable speed and load requirements of the throat engine.
162. Compensating carburetors are used for automatically regulating amount of
fuel and air to provide correct mixture at varying loads and speeds.
163. As the friction on the main jet increases causing a mixture, the air bleed
compensates
by supplying more air.
164. Before adjusting a carburetor, newly serviced spark plugs are installed and
then the
engine is warmed up to the proper operating temperature.
165. First the idling jet screw is turned in completely and then slowly turned out till
the engine runs smoothly and does not stall.
167. Undraft carburetor are prepared because of the peculiar location of the
carburetor with respect to full tank and the engine.
168. In diesel system, the fuel is gravity fed from the fuel tank through strainers to
the fuel supply pump.
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169. In most tractors, diesel fuel system is also equipped with hand operated priming
pump
for bleeding air out of the system
.
170. The position of the helix in relation to the inlet bypass ports in the pump barrel
determines the amount of the fuel discharge per stroke
171. When the plunger is at the bottom of the stroke, both inlet and bypass ports are
open, allowing fuel to f ill the space above the plunger.
172. Fuel from the pump is delivered to the nozzle on cylinder head which converts
the high
pressure fuel into the fine atomized spray.
173. The opening and closing of the nozzle is done by the high pressure developed by
the fuel injection pump.
174. When the fuel spray has to cover a large area in a wide shallow chamber,
multiple hole nozzle are preferred.
175. The governor is a mechanical device used on a tractor or stationary engine for
maintaining constant engine speed under varying loads.
176. Governor weights may be either mounted on the engine crankshaft or on a shaft
positively driven by crank shaft.
177. As the engine speed increases, centrifugal weights fly apart and operate the
butter fly valve of the carburetor
.
178. The correct engine speed is set at the factory and the governor is sealed before
the
tractor is allowed to be taken out of the factory premises.
179. Before timing the ignition, it should be checked whether distributor points are
burnt, pitted or dirty.
14
180. The ignition coil is a pulse transformer that transforms or steps up the low
battery
generator voltage the high voltage, necessary to jump the gaps at spark
plugs.
181. The ignition coil is sealed to prevent entry of moisture which would cause
short
circuiting within the coil
.
182. Generator is equipped with a voltage regulator, which automatically varies the
rate of generator charge.
183. Generators are also equipped with an element called
cut
out,
which
disconnects the voltage from the battery whenever the engine is running too slow.
184. For efficient operation, the generator bearings should be lubricated and the
belt tension adjusted.
185. If the generator commutator becomes dirty or slightly grooved, it can be
cleaned and
smoothen by fumes and paper.
186. Most of the diesel starting motors are equipped with an over running clutch
which is designed to provide positive meshing and demeshing
pinion and flywheel
of
the
drive
ring gear.
187. Positive plates are made of lead and antimony where as spongy lead is used
for negative plates
.
188. I f corrosion forms on the terminals, it should be cleaned off with a stiff brush
and by applying a solution of water and bicarbonate of soda.
189. Do not smoke near the batteries being charged not break line circuits at the
terminals of batteries.
190. In spite of the fact that the engine governor is used for maintaining a constant
speed there is some variation observed in the speed of the engine at no load
15
and at full load.

191. The throttle level used on the tractor controls the engine speed as this is connected
to throttle valve through the governor speed.
192. Pneumatic governor is a simple device used on both carburetor engines to control
thequantity of the fuel-air mixture or fuel depending upon the requirements of the diesel
engine at different loads.
193. When the accelerator pedal is fully depressed the venture valve gets fully opened
causing only a slight vacuum in the vacuum compartment.
194. In a diesel engine, the fuel ignites when it is sprayed into the cylinder when
contains highly compressed hot air.
195. Distributor is a rotating switch driven by the engine through gearing at half the
engine speed.
196. The distributor directs the high voltage surge through distributor rotor, cap and
high tension wiring to the spark plug which is ready to fire
.
198. Distributor opens and closes the low tension circuit
between
the
source
electrical energy and the ignition coil.
199. As the speed of the engine is increased the spark must be advanced to
allow the
air fuel mixture sufficient time to start the combustion.
200. The condenser in the distributor is connected across the contact breaker points
and is used to produce a quick collapse of the magnetic field in the coil to obtain
the extremely high voltage.
201. The heat range of spark plug is determined by the distance the heat must
travel from the
lower most tip of the central electrode to the engine block via the
spark plug gasket.

16
of
202. Hot plugs are used for powerine engine or for engines operated on light loads
most of the time.
203. Each spark plug consists of a threaded outer shell with an outside electrode
insulators and a copper gasket.
204. Spark plugs are made in many thread sizes and the correct size
should be
chosen for a particular use.
205. The central electrode is never bent, otherwise the porceline insulator may break.
206. If the spark plugs are found to be oily or wet after being removed, it is usually
due to lubricating oil being pumped up above the piston top.
207. While replacing the plugs on the cylinder they should be sufficiently
tightened to press down the gasket between outer shell and the engine body.
208. The diesel engine is a CI engine, which requires no electrical ignition system.
209. To check the timing on a diesel engine turn it until it is on the compression
stroke for cylinder one.
210. Auxiliary engine starting is accomplished by a small petrol engine which is

started by hand cranking.
211. The flywheels of air cooledengines are generally equipped with fan blades to
create the air blast.
212. Normally the air cooled engines run hotter than water cooled engines and
heavier lubricating oil recommended.
17
213. Only source of the old stationary engines are seen with a small water reservoir
placed just above the water jacket as their integral part.
214. The thermosyphon system works on the principle that heated water surrounding
the cylinder gets lighter in weight and rises.
215. A fan located between the radiator and engine, sucks the air through the radiator
tubes
thus the radiator water.
216. The forced circulation cooling system consists of a radiator, fan, fan belt, water
jacket water pump, thermostat., temperature gauge at sufficient hose to complete the
cooling system.
217. To maintain the correct engine operation temperature, a thermostat valve is

placed at the forward end of the cylinder head.
218. To save the radiator tubes from collapsing the vacuum operated disc is pushed
down allowing air to get in.
219. Flexible bellows are fixed under vacuum with alcohol which has a narrow
boiling.
220. Prolonged cranking causes overheating of the electrical circuit and will cause
damage.
221. Electric motor starting system has been very satisfactory and does not involve
any
additional equipment as the auxiliary engine starting system.
222. Engine lubricating system is accomplished by the important systems, namely,

sparks system and forced feed system.
223. The engine valve mechanism is also lubricated by oil can at regular intervals
224. In forced feed system, the oil is supplied under pressure to ensure adequate oil
flow to all the moving parts.
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225. In addition to the gear type pumps, vane type oil pumps are also used on some
tractors.
226. All tractor engines are equipped with an oil filter which keeps the oil free from
abrasive materialor any other foreign materials that normally collects in the
crank case.
227. Almost all engine oils available in the market contains detergent as an additive
to keep the fuel, moisture, varnish and other products in suspension.
228. Crank case oil must have minimum formation of hot and cold sludges arising
from fuel and oil decomposition.
229. Containers used for transporting lubricants must be kept clean and stored
under
cover to prevent entry of dust and dirt.
230. The majority of tractor engines designs utilize the principle developed in the
automotive industry.
231. Specific fuel consumption versus load characteristics should be flat enough to
give
low fuel consumption at loads less than full loads.
232. An increase in load applied to a tractor by a hitched implement demands from
the
engine a corresponding increased crankshaft torque.
233. A diesel engine has less reserve of torque but the torque is constantly high at
lower
than rated speed.
234. Proper combination of torque speed curve and gear spacing give desirable
drawbar hp versus drawbar characteristics.
235. The tractor is a self propelled machine, used either for pulling or pushing leads
for
stationary belt work.

19
236. Almost all the tractors used for earth moving and land clearing operations are of
the crawler type.
237. It is always possible to operate at the highest possible ground speed so that the
drawbar pull requirement is met without excessive fuel consumption.
238. The clutch is a device used to disconnect the tractor engine from its power
trains for changing gear ratios and is known as master clutch.
239. As for as possible the clutch should not he used means of controlling the speed
of the tractor while it is in motion.
240. Transmission systems of modern tractors are mostly of the selective sliding gear
type.
241. Final drive on tractors provides additional gear reduction between the engine
and rear axle
.
242. The p.t.o. shafts get its drive either directly from the engine or from the
transmission or from output shaft.
243. When the engine crank shaft is mounted across the tractor chassis, the pulley is
placed on the crankshaft itself.
244. Traction is achieved by friction and soil reaction between the wheel/or the
tracks and the ground over which tractor moves.
245. Nearly all traction wheel tires are marked with the arrow on the side walls
indicating the direction of travel.
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246. Before pneumatic tires became popular for traction use tractors were provided
with steel wheels with spade lugs on them.
247. Development of tracks as a ground drive components for tractors was made to
overcome driving difficulties in swampy land.
248. Usually the pump and other parts of the steering system are placed in the rear
axle housing of the tractor.
249. The implement can be raised or lowered from the tract seat simply by operating
the
hand control lever.
250. If periodic maintenance of the tractor is successfully performed, it is likely to

give trouble free service throughout the working season.
251. While working the tractor, watch the charging of battery and see that it neither
undercharged nor overcharged.
252. Depreciation is of course, the largest single item in the fixed cost and is referred
to as loss in value with the passing time.
253. The straight line method reduces the value of machine by an equal amount each
year during its useful life.
254. Tractor engine is used as prime mover for active tools a stationary farm
machinery through pto shaft or belt pulley.
255. For very hot zone and desert area air cooled engines
preferred
over
water
cooling engines.
256. The torque converter takes low torque at high speeds and connects it to high
21
torque at
low speed.
257. Differential unit is a special arrangement of gears to permit one of the rear
wheels of the tractor to rotate slower or faster than the other.
258. The device for final speed reduction, suitable for rear wheels is known as final
drive mechanism.
259. The system, governing the angular movement of front wheels of a tractor is
called
steering systems.
260. Drawbar is a device by which the pulling power of a tractor is transmitted to the
trailing implements.
261. Rear part of the tractor is heavier than the front part to get higher tractive
efficiency.
262. If the steering wheel vibrates excessively or it tends catch while the tractor is in
motion, check the toe-in of the front wheels.
263. The clutch is a device used to disconnect the tractor engine from its power trains
for changing gear ratios, and it is known as master clutch.
264. Due to constant use, the friction material of the clutch plate wears out and needs
replacements.
265. If the friction material of the plate is allowed to wear beyond the
allowablelimit,
the rivets which held the materials together are exposed.
266. The wet type clutch consists of a number of driving and driven plates alternately
arranged.
267. Generally six to eight forward and driven two reverse speeds
through a two speed epicyclic unit of three forward and one reverse.
22
are
achieved
268. Steel shafts on which the gears are mounted hardened to give lasting wear and
trouble free service.
269. The transmission is put into operation by the engagement of shifting coupling
which slide along the splines on the counter and output shafts.
270. As the tractor has to transmit transmission all the time, lubricants of high quality
free from dirt, sediment, acid, alkali and excessive moisture should be used.
271. It is always desirable to flush the transmission with suitable flushing oil with a
suitable before fresh oil is filled.
2 7 2 . I f an implement is attached to the tractor hydraulic control lever should be

moved slowly to the lower position.
273. Wheel slip is the relative movement of the wheel or track in the direction of
travel for a given distance under load and at no load condition.
274. Engine power is transmitted to the driving wheels through a series of

intermediaries
called power trains.
275. Tractors used in the production of row crop should have a large axle clearance
for tread
adjustments to suit the different row spacing.
276. It is always economical to operate tractors at highest possible ground speed

so that the drawbar pull requirement met without excessive fuel consumption.
277. If the tractor does not have enough gear ratios it has to be operated at the lower
speed resulting in higher fuel consumption.
2 7 8 . I f a low ground pressure is required wheel type tractors will not he suitable.
279. Garden tractors with one or two one or two forward speeds and a reverse are
best suited for small fields.
23
280. Before deciding the tractor size, one must consider the major types of farm work
the tractor will be accepted to perform most of the time.
281. Though the initial cost of a diesel tractor is greater than that of the powerine one
for the same siz e, but if it is constantly used throughout the year, the diesel
tractor will be economical to operate in the long run.
282. The bevel gears are mounted at the end of the output shaft of the gear box
drives the crown gear.
283. The differential side gears and differential pinions rotate
along
with
the
housing as a unit.
283. While turning a short corner the inner wheel is slowed down and the outer one
is speeded up.
2 8 4 . Sometimes one of the drive wheels of a tractor happening to meet a soft

ground as a result it starts spinning.
285. Final drives on tractors provide additional gear reduction
between
the
engine and rear axle.
286. When the final drive is housed in the main transmission housing, it shares the
housing lubricating oil.
287. In some tractors, the final drive is placed in a separate housing in which the
correct level of the oil is maintained all the times for efficient operation.
288. The pto shaft gets its drive either directly from the engine or from the
24
transmission or
from output shaft.
289. When a pto driven machine is connected to a tractor, a telescopic shaft with a
universal joint is placed in between as a complete to take care of the angularity
drive.
290. When the engine crank shaft is mounted across the tractor chassis, the pulley
is placed on the crankshaft itself.
291. Pulley drive is engaged or disengaged from the engine by means of a clutch
provided for this job.
292. After every 750 working hours the oil level in other places like fuel injection
pump housing and steering worm and sector housing should also be changed.
293. It has been observed that in a majority of cases tractors need major repairs due to
breakdowns which occur during operation.
294. The storage batteries will render reliable service if they are constantly charged,
the electrolyte has the prescribed specific gravity and its level is sufficient to prevent
exposure the plates to air.
295. Prolonged application of the starter also causes sulphation, warping of plates
and
crumbling out of the active material.
296. The battery cells must be topped up only by the distilled water and not
electrolyte,
using ceramic or glass vessels.
297. During weekly maintenance of the batteries, the oxidized wire clamps and
terminals should be cleaned to a metallic luster and non-contacting surfaces should
be coated with petroleum jelly.
298. During seasonal maintenance bring the specific gravity electrolyte to the
25
prescribed level and protect the batteries with warm covers.

299. Particular care must be exerted in checking the reliable contact of wires with
storage battery terminals.
300. Wheels are tracts used on a tractor are primary meant for converting engine
torque to the drawbar pull.
301. Swinging drawbar reduces side draft and leaves only small area uncovered on
corners of the field.
302. Traction is achieved by friction and soil reaction between the wheels or tracks
and the ground over which the tractor moves.
303. The modern wheel type is provided with steel rims and pneumatic tires as the
ground drive component.
304. Crawler tractors while being transported along the public roads are equipped
with steel plates so that the grousers do not penetrate the road surface.
305. The clutch and brake type steering mechanism is most commonly used on
crawler tractors.
306. In order to take a short term with wheel type tractors, steering brake may be
employed
307. Usually the pump and other parts of the system are placed in
rear
wheel
housing of the tractor.
308. The implement can be lowered and raised from the tractor seat simply by
operating the hand control lever.
309. Correctly carried out maintenance is probably the best guaranty of reliability, low
26
repair costs and satisfactory life.

310. If the ammeters need continuously a large charging current the trouble should
be traced either to a faulty storage battery or an excessively high voltage of the
generator.
311. Do not hold the foot on the pedal unless necessary to avoid heavy wear of clutch
bearings and discs.
312. It is desirable to blow the dust settled
on
different
parts
of
tractor
with
pressurized air.
313. The operating cost of a tractor includes the fixed cost and variable cost.
314. The straight line method, reduces the value of the machine by an equal amount
each year during its useful life
315. If the tractor is expected to be kept by the owner for its entire life a constant
Percentage per year can be charged against this item.
B. Select the Right Choice

1.
Mechanization deserves special attention on

(a) state farms
(c) Indian farms
2.
(b) cultivator's farms

(d) Government farms
Installation of more motor driven pump sets would make it possible to grow
second crop each year in India during the season of
(a) adequate rainfall
(c) adequate winter
3.
4.
(b) inadequate rainfall

(d) inadequate winter
A suitable rice transplanter is badly needed for planting paddy seedlings in

(a) Northern regions
(c) North East regions
(c) Southern regions
(d ) rice growing regions
Cropping intensity for the present level is in between

(a) 80-100%
(c) 100-120%
(h) 90-110%
(d) 100-130%
27
5.
6.
Cropping intensity should be increased to a level of

(a) 100-150%
(b) 125-175%
(c) 150-200%
(d) 200-250%
To achieve the objectives under intensive agriculture the power availability on

farm should be increased by
(a) two times
(c) three times
7.
(b) two and half times

(d) three and a half times
Power tillers attached with rototiller are better suited in rice growing regions
for
8.
(a) plowing operations
(b) p u l verizing operations
(c) puddling operations
(d) tilling operations
The establishment of a country's own tractor and agricultural mad industry is
keeping
with interest of the country in general
(a) tracroization
(c) industrialization
9.
(b) mechanization
(d) cultivation
Between 1961 census and the 1971 census the percent of all wor employed on
the farms increased from
(a) 49.9-60.7%
(b) 51.9-61.7%
(c) 55.9-62.7%
(d) 57.9-65.7%
10. Because of marked increase in cropping intensity and yield per hoe the
employment in the field increased by about
(a) 5%
(b) 6%
(c) 7%
(d) 8%
11. Recent studies have shown that as a result of tractorization, the use of bullock
power went
(a) up
(c) rising
(b) down
(d) galling
12. A little incentive in India may be given to substitute tractors for workers
because about 25 man Years of labour can be purchase the price of a typical,
28
farm tractor of horse power about

(a) 30
(b)35
(c) 45
(d) 55
13. Agriculture contributes for all jobs in India over its population about
(a) Full
(c) 1/3 rds
(b) nds
(d) 2/3 rds
14. Significant contribution in achieving higher out turn, pure bran and other by
products was made in mid sixteen by introduction of
(a) under runner disc shellers
(c) hullers
(b) rubber roll shellers
(d) huller cum shelters
15. There is danger of high moisture harvest and storing losses if job is delayed
due to non-availability of
(a) labour
(b) machines
( c ) power
(d) electricity
16. In India post harvest operations go the same way from human labour to
animal power to small tractors and large tractors and finally
(a) combine
(b) harvest-binder
(c) tractor driven harvesting machines
(d) self driven harvesting machines
17. The optimum horse power required per hectare of land has bet recommended
about
(a) 0.8 hp/ha
(b) 0.9 hp/ha
(c) 1.0 hp.ha
(d) 1.2 hp/ha
18. As a thumb rule horse power required for one hectare of land is
(a) 1.00 hp
(c) 0.8 hp
(b) 09 hp
(d) 0.7 hp
19. It has been found that only 4% farmers who own tractors in the size holding
groups of less than
(a) 8 ha
(c) 10 ha
(b)19 ha
(d) 12 ha
29
20. For obtaining good yields the optimum power input required is
(a) hp/ha
(b) 0.8 hp/ha
( c ) 10 hp/ha
(d) 1.25 hp/ha
21. On Indian farms the current power available is barely

(a) 0.2 hp/ha
(b) 0.4 hp/ha
(c) 0.6 hp/ha
(d) 0.8 hp/ha
22. The mechanization of Indian Agriculture is in the

(a) primary stage
(b) secondary stage
(c) growing stage
(d) final stage
23. One of the major handicaps in mechanization of Indian agricultural is the low
investing capacity of the farmers to buy
(a) fertilizer
(b) seeds
(c) irrigation equipments
(d) farm machines
24. Indian agriculture can not be fully

(a) industrialized
(b) mechanized
(c) capitalized
(d) economized
25. It will not he possible to have increased yield by using

(a) farm machines
(b) electrical power
(c) mechanical power
( d ) tractor power
26. It has been found that the demand for high capacity threshers is increasing which are
capable of threshing the wheat and paddy crop at moisture content about
(a) 10-20%
(b) 12-20%
(c) 15-20%
(d) 18-20%
27. I n growing a second crop each year and India's food production through increased
yields has been contributed by pump sets about
(a) 4 %
(b) 5 %
(c) 6 %
(d) 8 %
28. Use of seed cum fertilizer drill by permitting the side placement of fertilizers at
proper depth increased the maize yields by
(a) 0-20%
(b) 15-20%
30
(c) 18-211%
(d) 20-25%
29. From that of conventional planting use of a single row planter with a metering device
and side placement of fertilizers increased maize yields by
(a) 30%
(b) 35%
(c) 40%
(d) 45%
30. The power tillers attached with rotary tiller have been used quite satisfactory for
(a) tillage operations
(c) puddling operations
(b) pulverizing operations

(d) tilling operations
31. The gap of mechanization through power tillers will be narrowed down by importing
the tillers mostly from
(a) France
(b) China
(c) Japan
(d) Korea
32. Use of power tillers is gradually accepted by fanners of rice growing regions on their
farms as a source of
(a) employment
(b) power
(c) income
(d) increased yields
33. The best result of world hectare yields has been shown by those countries which have
a high level of tractor stock with more than
(a) 0.6 hp/ha
(b) 0.7 hp/ha
(c) 0.8 hp/ha
(d) 0.9 hp/ha
34. The most unfavorable result has been shown by those countries with the lowest level
of tractor stock less than
(a) 0.4 hp/ha
(b) 0.5 hp/ha
(c) 0.6 hp/ha
(d) 0.7 hp/ha
36. The tractor and the tractor drawn machines can not be effectively utilized under
the
present conditions in the absence of a suitable
(a) land holding
(c) crop sequence systems
(b) large fields

(d) farm road systems
37. Holding size of farmers in India covers the total area about
31
(a) 0.6%
(b) 0.7%
(c) 0.8%
(d) 0.9%
38. Small farmers cover a total area about

(a) 8.9%
(c) 10. 9%
(b) 9.9%
(d) 11.9%
39. Semi medium farmers cover a total area about

(a) 15.5%
(c) 17.5%
(b) 16.5%
(d) 18.5%
40. Holding size of medium farmers in India is about

(a) 263%
(c) 28.7%
41.
(b) 27.7%
(d) 29.7%
Farm having more than 10 ha of land covers a total area about

(a) 28.9%
(b) 29.9%
(c) 30.9%
(d) 31.9%
42. In India total no. of large size of holding at present comes to about
(a) 1.9%
(c) 3.9%
(b) 2.9%
(d) 4.9%
43. For medium size holding percent of total nos. is approximately

(a)92
(b) 10.2
( c ) 11.2
(d) 12.2
44. Percent of total numbers of holding for semi-medium fanners is upto

(a) 20.2
(c) 16.2
(b) 18.2
(d) 15.2
45. Total number of holding size of small farmers is about

(a) 21%
(c) 19%
(b) 20%
(d) 18%
46. Marginal fanners occupy holding size approximately

(a) 60.6%
(b) 50.6%
(c) 48.69
(d) 56.6%
47. Marginal farmers are those whose holding size is less than
(a) 1.0ha
(b) 1.5 ha
32
(c) 2.0 ha
(d) 2.5 ha
48. Small farmers size holding category is in the range of

(a) WS-1.0 ha
(b) 1.0-1.5 ha
(c) 1.0-2.0 ha
(d) 2.0-25 ha
49. Holding s i n of semi medium farmers falls between

(a) 1.0-20 ha
(b) 1.5-2.5 ha
(c) 2.0 -3.0 ha
(d) 2.0-4.0 ha
50. In India medium holding size of farmers fall in the range of

(a) 2-I0 ha
(c) 4 to 10 ha
(b) 3 to 10 ha
(d) 5 to 10 ha
51. Tractor and power tiller are suitable for timely operations with the output as
(a) high
( c ) very high
(b) medium
(d)A less
52. Tractor in small field gives

(a) high efficiency
( b ) low efficiency
( c ) normal efficiency
(d) optimum efficiency
53. Cost of operation of tractor and power tiller per horse power hour is
(a) cheapest
(b) cheaper
(c) costlier
(d) lower
54. In case of tractor and power tiller the rate of depreciation per about
(a) 12%
(b) 10%
(c) 8%
(d) 6%
55. Tractor and power tiller are the best source of power for any.
(a) tractive work
(c) field work
(b) stationary work

(d) industrial work
64. Out of the total electrical power regenerated in India on an average consumed
for the farm work is about
(a) 1/2th
(b) 1/5th
(c) 1/8th
(d) 1/10th
65. For Industrial production consumption of total power is about

33
(a) 45%
(b) 55%
(c) 65%
(d) 75%
66. A very important source of power on farms in various states o country now a
days is
(a) mechanical
(b) electrical
(c) wind
(d) bullock
6 7 . Efficiency of diesel engines varies from

(a) 42.48%
(b) 52-58%
(c) 62-68%
(d) 32-38%
68. Efficiency of the carburetor engines is in the range of

(a) 40-775
(b) 30-37%
( c ) 25-32%
(d) 24-30%
69. Now a days small pumping sets are in very much demand wind within the range
of
(a) 2.5 to 10 hp
(c)
5-10 hp
(b) 3-10 hp
(d) 10-15 hp
70. Oil engines of low to medium speed are successfully used for flour mills, oil
ghanis, cotton gins etc. which develop power about
(a) 10.20 hp
(b) 12-20 hp
( c ) 14-20 hp
(d) 15-25 hp
71. It has been estimated that out of total cattle population the work animals may be
about
(a) 30%
(b) 31%
(c) 32%
(d) 33%
72. Animals if raised by the farmer himself can be a very cheap source of
73.
(a) transport power
(b) cart power
(c) farm power
(d) bullock power
Acceptability of the tractor and power tiller is not very common because of
high initial
(a) price
(b) c o v e rage
34
(c) investment
(d) power requirement
74. The average capacity of a wind mill would be about
75.
(a) 2.0 hp
(b) 1.5 hp
(c) 1.0 hp
(d) 0.5 hp
A wind mill having 3.6m diameter wheel mounted on 12.0 m tower is able to
produce
0.1 to 0.9 hp with a wind velocity varying from
(a) 2.4-27 kmph
(b) 1.437 kmph
( c ) 2.4-37 kmph
(d) 3.447 kmph
76. Cost of lifting 4550 liters of water using a man power for 15m head is about
(a) Rs. 1.25
(b) Rs 1.5
(c) Rs. 1.75
(d ) Rs. 2.5
77. For head equal to 15 m cost of lifting 4550 liters of water using bullock power
comes
to about
(a) Rs. 2.5
(b) Rs. 2.0
(c) Rs.1.50
(d) Rs. 1.25
78. Cost of using diesel power for lifting 4550 liters of water for a head of 15 m is
approximately
(a) Rs. 0.65
(b) Rs. 2.0
(c) Rs. 0.35
(c) Rs. 0.17
79. For lifting 4550 liters of water up to the head of 15 m cost of using electricity
comes
about
(a) Rs. 1.0
(b) Rs. 0.75
(c) Rs. 5.50
(d) Rs. 0.10
80. Cost of using wind power for lifting 4550 liters of water up to a head of 15 m is
approximately
(a) Rs. 0.52
(b) Rs. 0.32

35
(c) Rs. 0.22
(d) Rs. 0.12
81. Generally a medium size bullock can develop power in the range of
(a) 0.25.275 hp
(b) 0.35-0.75 hp
(d) 0.75 1.0 hp
(b) 0.5-0.75 hp
82. The largest number of cattle in the world is available in

(a) U.S.A.
(b) USSR
(c) China
(d) India
83. The total Indian rural population now a days is more than
(a) 100 crores ( b ) 103 crores
(c) 104 crore s (d) 105 crores
84. Out of total rural population available for farm work is only about
(a) 40%
(b) 35%
(c) 12%
(d) 30%
85. On the average a man develops power nearly
(a) 0.5 hp
( b ) 0 . 4 hp
( c) 0.25 lip
(d) 0.1 hp
86. Intake valves wear more than exhaust valves is probably due tc performance by the
(a) air nozzles
(b) air cleaner
(c) top dead center
(d) bottom dead center
87. Intake valves wear more than

(a) valve seats
(c) exhaust valves
(b) valve grinding plates

(d) outlet valves
88. On the power stroke before bottom dead center the exhaust valve to open between
(a) 10 and 15
( c ) 30 and 45
(b) 15 and 30
(d) 35 and 45
89. The exhaust valve remains open about

(a) 200
(c) 225
(b) 2150
(d) 230
90. During compression stroke and most of the time in power stroke both inlet and
exhaust valves remain
36
(a) opened
(b) closed
(c) semi-open
(d) semi-close
91. Due to constant use both inlet and exhaust valves and their seats subjected to
(a) stress wear
(b) strain wear
(c) mechanical wear
(d) tensile wear
92. Most engines arc provided with one inlet and one exhaust valve for each
(a) piston
(c) combustion chamber
(b) cylinder
(d) compression cylinder
93. Fly wheel is made of

(a) cast steel
(b) carbon steel
(c) stainless steel
(d) cast iron
94. Crank shaft is subjected to bending as well as twisting from the

(a) cam thrust
(b) crank shaft thrust
(c) connecting rod thrust (d) bearing thrust

95. The number of maul bearings on a crank shaft ranges between
(a) one and three
(b) two and four
(c) two and five
(d) two and six
96. The piston rings amounts to 200 mm diameter of the piston about
(a) 0.5 mm
(b) 1.00 mm
(c) 1.5 mm
(d) 2.0 mm
97. The total number of piston rings on a piston varies between

(a) 1 and 5
(b) 2 and 6
(c) 3 and 7
(d) 4 and 8
98. Compression rings are placed in the upper part of the

(a) cylinder skin
(b) piston skirt
(c) cam shall
(d) crank shaft
99. Oil control rings arc designed to scrape excess oil from the cylinder walls on its
(a) upward stroke
(b) downward stroke
(c) cylinder stroke
(d) wall stroke
100. Piston rings are usually made of

37
(a) high carbon silt

(c) cast steel
(b) carbon steel

(d) cast iron
101. In terms of crank angle both the valves remain closed for about
(a) 225
(b) 235
(c) 245
(d) 285
102. Total time through which the exhaust valve remains open about
(a) l / l 1 second
(b) 1/17 second
(c) 1/19 second
(d) 1/21 second
103. After the piston has reached the top dead center intake valve begins to
(a) close shortly
(b) open shortly
(c) closes lately
(d) opens lately
104. Inlet valve continues to open till the piston has passed over the bottom
dead caner about
(a) 10
(b) 20
(c) 30
(d) 43
105. Total time through which the valve remains open

(a) 1/12 second
(b) 1/18 second
(c) 1/20 second
(d) 1/24 second
106. Tractor engine compression pressure goes down considerably after constant
operation of
about
(a) 1000 hours
(b) 1500 hours
( c ) 2000 hours
(d) 2500 hours
107. Clearance between the rocker arm and valve stem is known as
(a) rocker clearance
(b) stem clearance
(c) tappet valve clearance
(d) liner clearance
108. The valve tappet clearance is adjusted when both the valves arc in
(a) open position
(b) close position
(c) shut position
(d) stem open position
109. A typical valve of tappet clearance is given as

38
(a) 0 .28 mm
(b) 0.38 mm
(c) 0 .48 mm
(d) 0 58 mm
110. The valve face is generally made of heat resisting material like
(a) carbon steel
(b) stainless steel
(c) high carbon steel
(d) alloys
111. The top of the piston is called the crown and the lower section the
(a) bottom cover
( c ) skirt
(b) bottom space

(d) brush
112. Piston and piston nags seal the cylinder and transmit the gas pressure
to the
(a) cam shaft
(c) crank case
(b) crank shaft

(d) connecting rod
113. Close contact between the dry liner and the cylinder is absolutely
necessary to reduce the resistance to
(a) wear
(c) oil flow
(b) tear
( d ) heat flow
114. Weight of two stroke engine per hose power is

(a) high
( b ) low
(c) medium
(d) optimum
115. Weight of four stroke engine per horse power is

(a) low
(b) high
(c) optimum
(d) medium
116. Type of two stroke engines are available only as

(a) all speed
(c) medium sped
(b) low speed

(d) high speed
117. Type of four stroke engine available through manufacturers are

(a) only high speed
(c) medium spend
(b) only low speed

(d) all speeds
118. Four stroke cycle engines can be operated in the direction of

( a ) only one
(c) clockwise
(b) only opposite

(d) counterclockwise
39
119. Flywheel of four stroke cycle engine is comparatively

(a) larger
(b) smaller
(c) medium
(d) optimum
120. Flywheel of two stroke cycle engine is comparatively

(a) smaller
(c)
(b) large
medium
(d) optimum
121. Thermal efficiency of two stroke cycle engine is comparatively

(a) high
(c) minimum
(b) low
(d) maximum
122. Thermal efficiency of four stroke cycle engine is comparatively

(a) higher
(c) minimum
(b) lower
(d) maximum
123. Operating cost of diesel engine is comparatively

(a) high
(c) low
(b) very high

(d) optimum
124. Operating cost of carburetor engine is comparatively

(a) low
(c) very high
(b) high
(d) maximum
125. Initial cost of diesel engine is comparatively

(a) low
(c) minimum
(b) high
(d) maximum
126. Initial cost of carburetor engine is comparatively

(a) high
(c) minimum
(b) low
(d) maximum
127. Thermal efficiency of diesel engine varies between

(a) 30 & 38%
(b) 31 & 38%
(c) 32 & 38%
(d) 33 & 38%
128. Thermal efficiency of carburetor engine varies between
(a) 23 & 38%
(b) 2432%
(d) 2632%
(c) 25 & 32%
& power is
129. Diesel engine weight per horse
&
40
(a) low
(b) high
(c) maximum
(d) minimum
130. Weight of carburetor engine per horse power is comparatively

(a) high
(c) very low
(b) low
(d) very high
131. After being heavily loaded diesel engine develops more

(a) draft
(c) pull hour
(b) force
(d) torque
(a) bottom cover
(c) skirt
(b) bottom space

(d) brush
(a) cam shaft
(c) crank case
(b) crank shaft

(d) connecting rod
134. Close contact between the dry liner and the cylinder is absolutely necessary to
reduce
the resistance to
(a) wear
(b) tear
(c) oil flow
(d) heat flow

(a) high
(c) medium
(b) low
(d) optimum

(a) low
(c) optimum
(b) high
(d) medium
137. Type of two stroke engines arc available only as

(a) all speed types
(c) medium speed
(b) low speed

(d) high speed

(a) only high spud
(c) medium sped
(b) only low speed

(d) all speeds
41

(a) only one
(b) only opposite
(c) clockwise

(a) larger
(c) medium
(b) smaller
(d) optimum

(a) smaller
(c) medium
142.
(b) large
(d) optimum
Amount of fuel for 20 hp diesel engine is sufficient about

(a) 2.5 litres
(b) 3. 5 litres
(c) 4 .5 litres
(d) 5.5 litres
143. For 12 hp hour carburetor engine amount of fuel is sufficient about

(a) 2.5 litres
(b) 3.5 litres
( c ) 4.5 litres
(d) 5.5 litres
144. Amount of specific fuel consumption of diesel engine per bhp per hour is about
(a) 0.1 kg
(c) 0.25 kg
(b) 0.2 kg
(d) 0.28 kg
145. Specific fuel consumption of carburetor engine per bhp per hour is about
(a) 0.25 kg
(b) 0.27 kg
(c) 0.28 kg
(d) 0.29 kg
146. Compression ratio of diesel engine varies between

(a) 12 to 20:1
(b) 13 to 20:1
(d) 15 to 20:1
(c) 14 to 20:1
147. Air and fuel ratio of carburetor engine is always in the ratio of
(a) 12:1
(b) 13 :1
(c) 14:1
(d) 15:1
148. Compression pressure and compression temperature of diesel engine rise to a
(a) very low value
(c) low value
(b) very high value

(d) high value
149. In case of carburetor engine the compression pressure and compression

42
temperature are
(a) quite high
(b) quite low
(c) optimum
(d) maximum
150. Compression ratio of carburetor engine varies between

(a) 2.5 to 8:1
(b) 3.5 to8:1
(d) 55to8:1
(c)4.5to8:1
150. A large diesel engine is equipped with a blower to supply extra air to increase the
(a) mechanical efficiency
(b) thermal efficiency
(c) volumetric efficiency
(d) work efficiency
151. The piston is connected to the crank shaft through

(a) connecting bearing
(c) crank case
(b) connecting rod

(d) frame
152. The ratio of the horse power output of an engine to the fuel horse power is known
as
(a) Mechanical efficiency
(b) brake thermal efficiency

(d) fuel consumption
153. The quantity of fuel consumed by an oil engine on the basis of 1 horse power
hour is
known as
(a) specific heat
(c) specific fuel consumption
(b) thermal equilibrium

(d) air-fuel mixture
154. The ratio of actual weight of air induced by the engine on the intake stroke to the
theoretical weight of air that should have been induced by filling the piston
displacement
volume with air at atmosphere temperature and pressure is known as
(a) thermal efficiency

(d) mechanical efficiency
155. The ratio of the brake horse power to the indicated horse power is called
(a) Brake thermal efficiency
(c) denial efficiency
(b) volumetric efficiency

156. The horse power available at the crank shaft is called

43
(a) crank horse power
(b) brake horse power
(c) horse power
(d) indicated horse power
157. The total horse power developed by all the cylinders and needed piston,
disregarding
friction and losses within the engine is said to
(a) horse power
(b) indicated horse power
(c) frictional horse power
(d) brake horse power
158. The average net pressure in kg/m2 on the piston during the power stroke only is
called
(a) brake mean effective pressure
(b) indicated mean effective
pressure
(c) engine pressure
(d) cylinder pressure
159. There are a few European tractor manufacturers who have been employing
engines
on tractors running at
(a) high speed
(b) low speed
( c ) medium speed
(d) very high speed
160. The four cylinder four stroke cycle engine provides power stroke after even
half
revolution of the crank shaft has the maximum application as
(a) truck engine
(b) motor grader engine
(c) combine engine
(d) tractor engine
161. A few large tractors are also equipped with six cylinder engine which the
power
stroke occurs after every flywheel travel to
(a) 360
(b) 2800
(c) 240
(d) 120
162. Tractors are mostly equipped with

(a) single cylinder engines
(b) two cylinder engines
(c) t h r e e cylinder engines
(d) multiple cylinder engines

44
163. Tractor engine compression pressure generally goes down considerably after
constant operation of about
(a) 1000 hours
(b) 1500 hours
(c) 2000 hours
(d) 2500 hours
164. Two stroke engine have very limited use on

(a) dairy farm
(b) cattle farm
(c) general farms
(d) specific farms
165. Multiple cylinder, high speed, vertical engines are mostly used as automotive
engines
on
(a) farm truck
(b) feed grinding machines
( c ) farm tractors
(d) farm combines
166. Some of the small size garden tractors are equipped with
(b) four stroke engines
(c) two stroke engines
167. Diesel type engines in which liquid fuel alone is injected under high pressure of
(a) 85 kg/cm2
(b) 95 kg/cm2
(c) 100 kg/cm2
(d) 105 kg/cm2
168. At maximum power the percentage of maximum torque is

(a) 100%
( c ) 120%
(b) 110%
(d) 125%
169. The maximum torque is produced at

(a) 1440 rpm
(c) 1540 rpm
(b) 1500 rpm

(d) 1600 rpm
170. It may be seen that at the speed corresponding to maximum power 1900 rpm, the
torque
is maximum required for about
(a) 66%
(b) 78%
( c ) 88%
(d) 92%
171. A tractor engine is required to be operated at full load of the operating time
approximately
45
(a) 20-25%
(c) 30-32%
( b ) 25-30%
(d) 32-35%
172. Crank case oil is changed after operations of about

(a) 100 hour
(c) 120 hours
(b) 110 hours

(d) 130 hours
173. Pressure developed in the lubricating system using pump transferring oil in the
system is
about
(a) 1.0 kg/cm2
(b) 15 kg/cm2
(c) 2.5 kg/cm2
(d) 3.0 kg/cm2
174. Thermostat used on tractors is generally of

(a) bimetallic strip type
(b) metallic strip type
(c) bellows type
(d) vane type
175. The boiling temperature of the water in the radiator is raised to about
(a) 100C
(b) 104C
(c) 106C
(d) 110C
176. A pressure radiator requires a spring loaded, sealed radiator cap system by
which a
moderate pressure is created in the range of
(a) 0.14 to 0.34 kglcm2
( c ) 0 . 34 to 0.4 kg/cm2
(b) 0.24 to 0.34 kg/cm2

(d) 0.42 to 0.52 kg/cm2
177. Normally the thermostat begins to open at about

(a) 70C
(b) 72C
(c) 74C
(d) 76C
178. The thermostat opens widely at about

(a) 75C
(b) 78C
(c) 80C
(d) 82C
46
Set B
1. For heavier fuels the cooling system of an internal combustion maintains
the engine temperature at
(a) 78 to 88C
(b) 80 to 90C
(c) 88 to 90C
(d) 90 to 92C
2. After release of press button diesel engine must start within

(a) 10 sees
(b)12 secs.
(c) 15 secs
(d) 17 secs
3. I f the engine does not start on the first attempt, subsequent attempt should be
made at an interval of about
(a) one minute
(c) three minutes
(b) two minutes

(d) four minutes
4. Current taken by the motor in cranking the engine normally is about

(a) 300 amperes
(c) 500 amperes
(b) 400 amperes

(d) 600 amperes
5. The electric system of diesel tractor generally consists of

(a) two six volts or 12 volts batteries
(b)one six volts battery
(c)three six volts battery
(d)two 12 volts batteries
6.Magneto points need to be regapped after operation of about
(a) 100 to 200 hours
(c) 200 to 300 hours
(b) 150 to 300 hours

(d) 250 to 500 hours
7.Usually the spark plug gap setting are kept between

(a) 0.25 to 0.50 mm
(b) 0.35 to 05 mm
( c ) 0.5 to 0.85 mm
(d) 0 6 to 0 9 mm
8.The battery should be recharged when the specific gravity falls below
(a) 1.025
(b) 1.125
(c) 1.225
(d) 1.325
47
9.Whilst the battery is being stored specific gravity should be checked with hydrometer
for every
(a) two to three weeks
(b) three to five weeks
(c) four to six weeks
(d) five to eight weeks
10.A complete discharged battery will have electrotype of specific gravity of equal to or
less than
(a) 1.125
(c) 1.175
(b) 1.150
(d) 1.225
11.When the battery is filly charged the electrotype consisting of sulphuric acid and
distilled water is with a specific gravity of
(a) 1.225
(b) 1.250
(c) 1.280
(d) 1.288
12Diesel engines are equipped with a more rugged starting motor of

(a) 6 or 12 volts
(c) 36 volts
(b) 12 or 24 volts
(d) 48 volts
13.The starting motor used in powerine tractors is mostly a type of

(a) 6 or 12 volts
(b) 12 volts
(c) 24 volts
(d) 36 volts
14. The cleanest mixture which can fire inside the combustion chamber has the airfuel ratio about
(a) 15:1
(b) 18:1
(c) 20:1
(d) 24 :1
15. The reachest cleanest mixture of air-fuel ratio is about

(a) 4:1
(b) 18:1
(c) 8:1
(d) 10:1
16. Capacity of powerine tanks varies from

(a) 12 to 80 liters
(b) 14 to 90 liters
(c) 15 to 95 liters
(d) 20 to 100 liters
17. Voltage can be stepped up approximately from

(a) 6 to 10,000 volts
(b) 6 to 15,000 volts

48
(c) 6 to 20,000 volts
(d) 6 to 25,000 volts
18Generally the gap between breaker points is kept between

(a) 0.2 and 0.5 mm
(b) 0.25 and 0.5 mm
(c) 0 . 3 to 0.5 mm
(d) 0.35 and 0.5 mm
19A variation is found between no load and full load conditions approximately
(a) 80 rpm
(b) 90 rpm
( c ) 100 rpm
(d) 120 rpm
20Between no load and full load conditions the engine speed of a tractor is
respectively
(a) 1000 and 1200 rpm
(b) 1200 and 1400 rpm
(c) 1400 and 1500 rpm
(d) 1500 and 1600 rpm
21The replaceable cartridge filter removes particles down in size of

(a) 3 microns
(b) 4 microns
(c) 5 microns
(d) microns
22The final stage filter will remove particles in size down to

(a) one micron
(c) three microns
(b) two microns

(d) four microns
23The fuel supply pump forces fuel through the fuel filters to the injection pump
under low pressure approximately
(a) 1.5 kg/cm2
(b) 2.0 kg/cm2
(c) 2.5 kg/cm2
(d) 3 kg'cm2
24.Heating of mixture is not necessary in the plains, where the temperature seldom
falls even in winter below
(a) 20C
(b) 40C
(c) 50C
(d) 70C
25.At low temperatures petrol vaporizes as only about

(a) 6%
(b) 8%
(c) 10%
(d) 12%
26.The air fuel ratio for starting the engine is

49
(a) 1:2
(b) 2:1
(c) 1.5:1
(d) 2.5:1
27. The cleanest mixture which can fire inside the combustion chamber has the airfuel ratio about
(a) 15:1
(b) 18:1
(c) 20:1
(d) 24:1
28. The richest cleanest mixture of air-fuel ratio is about

(a) 4:1
(c) 8:1
(b) 6 : 1
(d) 10:1
29. Maximum economy lies between air-fuel ratios in the range of

(a) 11.5 to 15:1
(b) 12.5:2 t o 15:1
( c ) 13.5:1 t o 15:1
(d) 14.1 to 15:1
30Maximum power is obtained from air to fuel ratio between

(a) 8.8 to 13.8:1
(b) 10.5 to 13.8:1
(c) 11.5 to 13.8:1
(d) 12.5 to 13.8:1
31.For a four cylinder high speed engine the idling speed can be taken between
(a) 250 to 500 rpm
(c) 400 to 500 rpm
(b) 350 to 500 rpm

(d) 450 to 500 rpm
32.The best results are obtained when the carburetor is so adjusted that for every
kilogram of fuel amount of air entering the cylinder is about
(a) 12 kg.
(b) 14 kg.
( c ) 1 5 kg.
(d) 16 kg.
33. Commercial diesel fuels are available with a cetane rating between
(a) 20 and 40
(c) 30 and 60
(b) 25 and 50
(d) 40 and 80
34.Diesel fuels are related according to

(a) Octane number
(c) Cetane number
(b) Frauds number

( d ) Stoke number
35Capacity of petrol tank of powerine operated tractor is less than

(a) 2.5 liters
(b) 3.5 liters

50
(c) 4.5 liters
(d) 5.5 liters
36.Using the pump for transporting oil in the system pressure develop in the
lubricating system is about
(a) 1.2 kg/sq.cm.
(b) 1.5 kg/sq.cm.
(c) 2.5 kg/sq.cm.
(d) 3 kg/sq.cm.
37. Normally the thermostat begins to open at about 74C and opens widely at about
(a) 75C
(b) 78C
(c) 80C
(d) 82C
(a) 100C
(c) 110C
(b) 105C
(d) 115C
39. When a battery is fully charged the specific gravity is available about
(a) 1 . 2 5 0
(b) 1.280
(c) 1.290
(d) 1.299
40. A completely discharged battery will have electrotype of specific gravity of

(a) 1.150 or less
(b) 1.050 or less
(c) 1.175 or less
(d) 1 . 1 8 5 or less
41.Where the intensity of dust is not severe generally precleaners a placed above the
tractor hood about
(a) 35 cm
(b) 40 cm
(c) 45 cm
(d) 50 cm
42.Due to constant use of work under normal dust condition oil must be replaced by
fresh oil after
(a) 8 hours
(b) 10 hours
(c) 12 hours
(d) 24 hours
43. Oil should only be changed whenever dirt has collected in the bottom of the cup
to a
depth of
(a) 1.5 t o 3 m m
(b) 2 to 4 mm
51
(c) 3 to 6 mm
(d) 4 to 8 mm
44. The most common type of air cleaner used on farm tractor is
(a) oil soaked clement typo
(b) oil bath type
(c) without oil dipped
(d) Liquid soaked type
45. If too much dirt has accumulated it should be washed in

(a) diesel
(b) petrol
(c) kerosene
(d) powerine
46.The minimum torque is produced at

(a) 1200 rpm
(b) 1300 rpm
(c) 1400 rpm
(d) 1500 rpm
47.Most of the time of the engine is required to be operated between

(a) 40 to 70 percent of full load
(b) 50 to 70 percent of full load
(c) 55 to 75 percent of full load
(d) 60 to 90 percent of full load
48.A tractor engine is operated at full load approximately
(a) 20-25% of the operating times
(b) 25-30% of the operating time
(c) 30-35% of the operating time
(d) 35-40% of operating time
49. Using the pump for transporting oil in the system pressure developed in the
lubricating, system is about
(a) 1.2 kg/sq.cm.
(b) 15 kg/sq.cm
(c) 2.5 kg/sq.cm.
(d) 3 kg/sq.cm
(a) 75C
(b) 78C
(c) 800C
(d) 82C
51.The boiling temperature of the water in the radiator is raised to about

(a) 100C
(b) 105C
(c) 110C
(d) 115C
52
52.For heavier fuels the cooling system of an internal combustion engine, the
temperature is maintained at
(a) 78 to 80C
(c) 85 to 88C
(b) 80 to 8 4 C
(d) 88 to 90C
53.In cranking the engine normally motor takes current about

(a) 300 amperes
(b) 400 amperes
( b ) 5 0 0 amperes
(d) 600 amperes
54.A completely discharged battery will have electrotype of specific gravity of

(a) 1.150 or less
(b) 1.050 or less
(c) 1.175 or less
(d) 1.185 or less
55.When the engine is operated under average working conditions oil crank case us
changed after the operation of about
(a) 100 hours
(b) 110 hours
(c) 115 hours
(d) 120 hours
56. The maximum V belt sag when applying finger pressure is

(a) 10 mm
(b) 12 mm
(c) 15 mm
(d) 17 mm
57. The solution of radiator should be drained out when the engine has run for
(a) 10 to 15 minutes
(c) 20 to 25 minutes
(b) 15 to 20 minutes
(d) 25 to 30 minutes
58. To make a solution for filling radiator one bag of washing soda and 0.5 kg of
kerosene oil should be added in water amounting
(a) 6 kg
(b) 8 kg
( c ) 1 0 kg
(d)12 kg
59. The radiator should he filled with the solution and allowed to remain there for
(a) 4 to 6 hours
(b) 6 to 6 hours
( c ) 8 t o 10 hours
(d) 10 to 12 hours
60.The starting motor used on a powerine tractor may be of

(a) 6 or 12 volt type
(c) 16 or 24 volt type
(b) 12 or 24 volt type

(d) 6 or 24 volt type
53
61.Diesel tractors are equipped with a more rugged starting motor of

(a) 6 or 12 volts
(c) 6 or 24 volts
(c) 12 or 24 volts
(d) 12 or 36 volts
62.Voltage can be stepped up from 6 to approximately

(a) 10,000 volts
(b) 15.000 volts
(c) 20,000 volts
(d) 25,000 volts
63.Generally the gap between the contact breaker points is kept between
(a) 0 .1 to 0.3 mm
(b) 0.2 and 0.4 mm
(c) 0.3 and 0.5 mm
(d) 0 .4 and 0.6 mm
64.Variation between no load and full load conditions is found to approx. at

(a) 80 rpm
(b ) 90 rpm.
(c) 100 rpm
(d) 110 rpm
65The economical diesel fuels have got octane rating varying from
(a) 30 to 50
(c) 20 to 30
(b) 30 to 60
(d) 25 to 30
66.Iso-octane has excellent antiknock qualities and gives a rating of

(a) 80
(b) 90
(c) 100
(d) 110
67.Air contains oxygen by weight as

(a) 21 percent
(b) 22 percent
(c) 23 percent
(d) 24 percent
68.Usual spark gap settings are kept between

(a) 0.2 5 and 0.50 mm
(b) 0.35 and 0.75 mm
(c) 0.50 and 0.85 mm
(d) 0.60 and 0.95 mm
69.Above the battery plates level of electrolyte should be about

(a) 8 to 10 mm
(b) 10 to 12 mm
(c) 12 to 14 mm
(d) 14 to 16 nun
70The temperature produced on the power stroke of an engine can be as high as

(a) 1200C
(b) 1400C
(c) 1600C
(d) 1800C
71. Average yearly load on the tractor should not exceed its rated load up to
54
(a) 70%
(b) 72%
(c)75%
(d) 78%
72. The depreciation method which reduces the value of a machine by equal amount
each year during the useful life is known as
(a) Estimated method
(b) constant percentage method
(c) compound interest method (d) straight line method

73. The useful life of a machine is also affected by the rate of which machine
becomes
(a) defunct
(b) non operational
(c) replaceable
(d) obsolete
74. The glow plugs must be inspected and decarbonized during

(a) daily maintenance
(b) weekly maintenance
(c) periodic maintenance
(d) seasonal maintenance
75. The governor should be cleaned from the outside in

(a) every two work shift
(c) every four work shift
(b) even three work shift

(d)every work shift
76. A battery must be turned over to a charging station in winter if discharged by

(a) 50%
(b) 40%
(c) 30%
(d) 25%
77. In summer season a battery must be turned over to a battery charging station if
discharged by
(a) 25%
(b) 30%
(c) 40%
(d) 50%
78. The battery covers should be wiped out with clean rags soaked with a solution of
ammonium hydroxide or solution of soda ash concentration about
(a)6%
(b) 7%
(c) 8%
(d) 10%
79.The height of the electrolyte column should be about

(a) 6 to 8 mm
( b ) 8 to 10 mm
(c) 10 to 15 mm (d) 10 to 20 mm
55
80.The starter must not be applied at a time for longer than

(a) 10 secs
(b) 12 sees
(c) 15 secs
(d) 1l sees
81.Before the next application of starter an interval should be made for about
(a) 20-25 secs
(b) 25-30 sees
(d) 40-50 sec
(c) 30-40 secs
82.The backbone of entire system of technical servicing is
(a) replacement
(b) overhauling
(c) repairs
(d) maintenance
83.While assembling the engines, all the gaskets should preferably be

(a) oiled
(b) cleaned
(c) greased
(d) replaced
84.Grinding of crank shaft and cam shaft bearings is normally done after the engine
operation about
(a) 6000 hours
(b) 7000 hours
(c) 8000 hours
(d) 10,000 hours
85.Transmission of oil should be changed after every working hours about

(a) 550 hours
(b) 650 hours
(c) 750 hours
(d) 850 hours
86.Engine oil should be changed and replaceable type filters should be changed
after even working hours about
(a) 420 hours
(b) 320 hours
(c) 220 hours
(d) 12 0 hours
87.Front and rear wheel axle bearings may be washed and replaced once in
(a) four years
(b) three years
(c) two years
(d) one year
8 8 . I f the spark plugs have become found it should be cleaned after working hours
of
(a) 25 hours
(c) 40 hours
(b) 30 hours
(d ) 50 hours
89Under dusty conditions, air cleaner oil is changed after every working hours of
56
(a) 6 hours
( b ) 8 hours
(c) 10 hours
(d) 12 hours.
90.Hydraulic system is mainly used for operating

(a) one point hitch
(b) two point hitch
(c) three point hitch
(d) four pond hitch.
91.Hydraulic pump delivers a pressure of about

(a) 125kg/cm2
(b) 130kg/cm2
(c) 140kg/cm2
(d)150kg/cm2
92. The tie rod connects the front wheel spindle arms and is actuated by the steering
shaft through
(a) chain link
(b) gear link
(c) tension link
(d) drag link
93. Multiple disc type clutches and contracting band type breaks are employed on
the
two stroke cycle cosine tractors
four stroke cycle engine tractors
garden tractors
(d) crawler tractors
94Under normal operating conditions, the bearings are filled with the proper type of
lubricant after every hours of working about
(a) 6 hours
(c) 10 hours
(b) 8 hours
( d ) 1 2 hours
95.Depending upon the size of the tractor the width o f the tracks varies for
(a) 10-50 cm
(c) 2 0 - 2 5 cm
(b) 15.50 cm
( d ) 25-50 cm
96.The inflation pressure o f the front wheel varies from

(a) 1 to 1 . 5 kg/cm2
(c) 2 to 2 . 5 kg/cm2
(b) 1.5 to 2 kg/cm2

( d ) 2.5 to 3 kg cm2
97.Inflation pressure in the rear wheels of the tractor varies between

(a) 0.5 to 1.2 kg/cm2 (b) 8 to 1.2 kg/cm2
57
(c) 2 to 1.5 kg/cm2
( d ) 1.5 to 20 kg/cm2
98.The diameter of a flat cross bar hole is

(a) 10 mm
(b) 1 5 mm
(c) 20 mm
(d) 25 mm
99. The pulley diameter should be such that it gives belt speed at full throttle about
(a) 650 m
(c) 850 m
(b) 750 m
(d) 950 m
100. While turning a short corner, the inner wheel is slowed down and the outer one is
(a) rested
(b) speeded up
(c) speeded down
(d) speeded fast
101. As a result of spinning sometimes one of the drive wheels of a tractor happens to
meet a
(a) hard ground
(b) soft ground
(c) muddy gourd
(d ) wet ground.
102. The positive drive employed for education may be either spur gear trains or
chains and sprockets which provide reduction about
(a) 1 to 5:1
(b) 3 to 5:1
(c) 4 to 5:1
(d) 6 to 5:1
103. Depending upon the size of rear wheels used on the tractor generally the speed of
the tractor in the top gear vanes from
(a) 12 to 18 kmph
(c) 20 to 24 kmph
(b) 18 to 24 kmph
(d) 25 to 340 kmph
104. Working hours for draw bar work the useful life of the pneumatic tires under
normal operating conditions would be about
(a) 4000
(b) 5000
(d) 8000
(c) 6000
105. Depending upon the s i z e of the tractor the width of the track varies from
(a) 10 to 20 cm
(c) 20 to 50 cm
(c) 25 to 55 cm
(d) 30 to 60 cm
106. Greased track rollers need lubrication after hours of operations about
58
(a) 1000
(c) 1600
(b) 1200
(d) 2000
107. Hydraulic pump developed a pressure of about

(a) 120 kg/cm2
(b) 130 kg/cm2
(c) 140 kg/cm2
(d)150 kg/cm2
1 0 8 . Under average working conditions the compression of the engine goes down
considerably after working hours of about
(a) 1000
(b) 2000
(c) 3000
(d) 4000
109.Generally the tractor speed in the top gear varies from

(a) 12 to 16 kmph.
(c) 18 to 24 kmph
(b) 16 to 25 kmph
(d) 20 to 24 kmph.
110.The forward speed of a crawler tract in the top gear is restricted to about
(a) 6 kmph
(b) 8 kmph
(c) 10 kmph
(d) 12 kmph.
111.SAE 90 oil is generally recommended for use m temperature a

(a) 1C
(b) 2C
(c) 3C
(d) 4C
112.The smaller w e garden tractors are available in the range of

(a) 1 to 2 hp
(b) 1.5 to 2.5 hp
(c) 2 to 3 hp
(d) 2.5 to 4 hp
113. Small tractors in the range of 1 to 2 hp can pull a plow of size

(a) 10 cm
(c) 20 cm
(b) 15 cm
(d) 25 cm
114.The general purpose garden tractors are provided with engines about
(a) 2 to 4 hp
(b) 3 to 4 hp
(c) 4 to 5 hp
(d) 5 to 7 hp
115.The large garden tractors are manufactured in the range of
(a) 2 to 12 hp
(b) 4 to 12 hp
(c) 5 to 12 hp
(d) 6 to 12 hp
116.For road transport work in a farm tractor, a desirable road speed is about
59
(a) 12 to 25 kmph
(c) 17 to 23 kmph
(b) 15 to 24 kmph
(d) 19 to 24 kmph
117.Reduction of the engine speed through the transmission gear box, at the highest and
lowest speeds ranges between
(a) 0 5 and 0.2
(c)15 ard02
(b) 1 and 0.2

(d) 2 and 0.2
118.If one wheel is locked, the speed of the other one is increased by
(a) 2 times
(b) 2.5 times
(c) 3 times
(d) 3.5 times
119. Engine oil should be changed after every working hours of a

(a) 100
(b) 120
(c) 110
(d) 130
120. Cage wheel is generally used in

(a) vegetable field
(b) horticultural field
(c) paddy field
(d) rabbi crop field
121.Cost of repairs and maintenance varies with the initial cost of per year
between
(a) 2 to 5%
(b) 5 to 10%
(c) 7 to 12%
(d) 8 to 15%
122.Lubricant cost varies with the fuel cost between

(a) 20 to 25%
(b) 25 to 30%
(c) 30 to 35%
( d ) 35 to 40%
123.Brake works on the principle of

(a) contact
(b) gradient
(c) friction
(d) impact
124. First Winnipeg tractors trials were held in the year

(a) 1904
(c) 1908
(b) 1906
(d) 1920
125.First tractor demonstration was held at Omaha (Nebraska) in the year

(a) 1905
(c) 1909
(b) 1907
(d) 1911
60
126.Power take off was introduced in between

(a) 1906 to 1908
(b) 1909 to 1912
(c) 1915 to 1919
(d) 1920 to 1925.
127.All purpose tractor was developed between

(a) 1912 to 1916
(b) 1920 to 1924
(b) 1917 to 1919

(d) 1925 to 1930
128.Diesel engine in tractors and pneumatic tires was introduced between

(a) 1926 and 1927
(b) 1928 and 1930
(c) 1932 and 1933
(d) 1936 and 1937
129.Universal tractors were established in the year

(a) 1981
(c) 1983
(b) 1982
(d) 1984
C. Select the Right Choice
1. Animals if raised by the farmer himself can be a very cheap source of

(a) transport power
(b) cart power
(c) farm power
(d) bullock power
2. Acceptability of the tractor and power tiller is not very common because of high
initial
(a) price
(b) coverage
(c) investment
(d) power requirement
3. The average capacity of a wind mill would be about

(a) 2.0 hp
(b) 1.5 hp
(c) 1.0 hp
(d) 0.5 hp
4. A wind mill having 3.6m diameter wheel mounted on 12 m tower is able to

produce 0.1 to 0.9 hp with a wind velocity varying from
(a) 2.4-27 kmph
( c ) 2.4-37 kmph
(b) 1.437 kmph

(d) 3.447 kmph
5. Intake valves wear more than exhaust valves is probably due to performance by the
61
(a) air nozzles
(b) air cleaner
(c) top dead center
(d) bottom dead center
6. Intake valves wear more than

(a) valve seats
(b) valve grinding plates
(c) exhaust valves
(d) outlet valves
7.
Tractor engine compression pressure goes down considerably after constant
operation of about
(a) 1000 hours
( c ) 2000 hours
(b) 1500 hours

(d) 2500 hours
8. Clearance between the rocker arm and valve stem is known as

(a) rocker clearance
(b) stem clearance
(c) tappet valve clearance
(d) liner clearance
9. The valve tappet clearance is adjusted when both the valves arc in
(a) open position
(b) close position
(c) shut position
(d) stem open position
10. A typical valve of tappet clearance is given as

(a) 0 .28 mm
(b) 0.38 mm
(c) 0 .48 mm
(d) 0 58 mm
11. The valve face is generally made of heat resisting material like
(a) carbon steel
(b) stainless steel
(c) high carbon steel
(d) special alloys
(a) bottom cover
( c ) skirt
(b) bottom space

(d) brush
13. Piston and piston rings seal the cylinder and transmit the gas pressure
to the
(a) cam shaft
(b) crank shaft
(c) crank case
(d) connecting rod
14. Close contact between the dry liner and the cylinder is absolutely
62
necessary to reduce the resistance to

(a) wear
(c) oil flow
(b) tear
( d ) heat flow

(a) high
(c) medium
( b ) low
(d) optimum

(a) low
(b)
high
(c) optimum
(d) medium
17. Type of two stroke engines are available only as

(a) all speed
(b) low speed
(c) medium sped
(d) high speed

(a) only high speed
(b) only low speed
(c) medium spend
(d) all speeds

( a ) only one
(b) only opposite
(c) clockwise

(a) larger
(b) smaller
(c) medium
(d) optimum

(a) smaller
(b) large
(c) medium
(d) optimum
22. Thermal efficiency of two stroke cycle engine is comparatively

(a) high
(b) low
(c) minimum
(d) maximum
23.Thermal efficiency of four stroke cycle engine is comparatively

(a) higher
(b) lower
63
(c) minimum
(d) maximum
24. Operating cost of diesel engine is comparatively

(a) high
(b) very high
(c) low
(d) optimum
25. Operating cost of carburetor engine is comparatively

(a) low
(b) high
(c) very high
(d) maximum
26. Initial cost of diesel engine is comparatively

(a) low
(c) minimum
(b) high
(d) maximum
27. Diesel engine weight per horse power is

(a) low
(b) high
(c) maximum
(d) minimum
28. Weight of carburetor engine per horse power is comparatively

(a) high
(c) very low
(b) low
(d) very high
29. After being heavily loaded diesel engine develops more

(a) draft
(b) force
(c) pull hour
(d) torque
(a) bottom cover
(c) skirt
(b) bottom space

(d) brush
(a) cam shaft
(c) crank case
(b) crank shaft

(d) connecting rod
32. The ratio of the horse power output of an engine to the fuel horse power is known
as
64
(a) Mechanical efficiency
(d) fuel consumption
33. The quantity of fuel consumed by an oil engine on the basis of 1 horse power hour
is known as
(a) specific heat
(h) thermal equilibrium
(c) specific fuel consumption
(d) air-fuel mixture
34. The ratio of the brake horse power to the indicated horse power is called
(a) Brake thermal efficiency
(b) volumetric efficiency
(c) denial efficiency
35. The horse power available at the crank shaft is called

(a) crank horse power
(b) brake horse power
(c) horse power
(d) indicated horse power
36. The total horse power developed by all the cylinders and needed piston,
disregarding friction and losses within the engine is said to
(a) horse power
(b) indicated horse power
(c) frictional horse power
(d) brake horse power
37. The average net pressure in kg/m2 on the piston during the power stroke only is
called
(a) brake mean effective pressure
(b) indicated mean effective pressure
(c) engine pressure
(d) cylinder pressure
38. Tractors are mostly equipped with

(b) two cylinder engines
(c) t h r e e cylinder engines
39. Tractor engine compression pressure generally goes down considerably after
constant operation of about
(a) 1000 hours
(b) 1500 hours
(c) 2000 hours
(d) 2500 hours
40. Two stroke engine have very limited use on

(a) dairy farm
(b) cattle farm

65
(c) general farms
(d) specific farms
41. Multiple cylinder, high speed, vertical engines are mostly used as automotive engines
on
(a) farm truck
(b) feed grinding machines
( c ) farm tractors
(d) farm combines
42. Some of the small size garden tractors are equipped with
(b) four stroke engines
(c) two stroke engines (d) multiple cylinder engines
43. The thermostat opens widely at about

(a) 75C
(c) 80C
(b) 78C
(d) 82C
44. The cooling system of an internal combustion petrol engine maintains the
engine temperature in the range of
(a) 61 to 70C
(b) 71 to 80C
(c) 74 to 78C
(d) 78 to 82C
45. For heavier fuels the cooling system of an internal combustion maintains
the engine temperature at
(a) 78 to 88C
(b) 8O to 90C
(c) 88 to 90C
(d) 90 to 92C
46. After release of press button diesel engine must start within
(a) 10 sees
(b)12 secs.
(c) 15 secs
(d) 17 secs
47. I f the engine does not start on the first attempt, subsequent attempt should
be made at an interval of about
(a) one minute
(b) two minutes
(c) three minutes
(d) four minutes
48. Magneto points need to be regapped alter operation of about

(a) 100 to 200 hours
(c) 200 to 300 hours
(b) 150 to 300 hours

(d) 250 to 500 hours
66
49. Using the pump for transporting oil in the system pressure develop in the
lubricating system is about
(a) 1.2 kg/sq.cm.
(b) 1.5 kg/sq.cm.
(c) 2.5 kg/sq.cm.
(d) 3 kg/sq.cm.
(a) 75C
(b) 78C
(c) 80C
(d) 82C

(a) 1.150 or less
(b) 1.050 or less
(c) 1.175 or less
(d) 1 . 1 8 5 or less
52. Where the intensity of dust is not severe generally precleaners a placed above the
tractor hood about
(a) 35 cm
(b) 40 cm
(c) 45 cm
(d) 50 cm
53. The minimum torque is produced at

(a) 1200 rpm
(b) 1300 rpm
(c) 1400 rpm
(d) 1500 rpm
54. Most of the time of the engine is required to be operated between

(a) 40 to 70 percent of full load
(b) 50 to 70 percent of full load
(c) 55 to 75 percent of full load
(d) 60 to 90 percent of full load
55. A tractor engine is operated at full load approximately

(a) 20-25% of the operating times
(b) 25-30% of the operating time
(c) 30-35% of the operating time
(d) 35-40% of operating time
(a) 100C
(b) 105C
(c) 110C
(d) 115C
57. Due to constant use both inlet and exhaust valves and their seats subjected to
(a) stress wear
(b) strain wear
(c) mechanical wear
(d) tensile wear

67
58. For heavier fuels the cooling system of an internal combustion engine, the
temperature is maintained at
(a) 78 to 80C
(b) 80 to 8 4 C
(c) 85 to 88C
(d) 88 to 90C
59. In cranking the engine normally motor takes current about

(a) 300 amperes
(b) 400 amperes
( b ) 5 0 0 amperes
(d) 600 amperes

(a) 1.150 or less
(b) 1.050 or less
(c) 1.175 or less
(d) 1.185 or less
61. When the engine is operated under average working conditions oil crank case us
changed after the operation of about
(a) 100 hours
(c) 115 hours
(b) 110 hours

(d) 120 hours
62. The maximum V belt sag when applying finger pressure is

(a) 10 mm
(b) 12 mm
(c) 15 mm
(d) 17 mm
63. The solution of radiator should be drained out when the engine has run for
(a) 10 to 15 minutes
(b) 15 to 20 minutes
(c) 20 to 25 minutes
(d) 25 to 30 minutes
64. To make a solution for filling radiator one bag of washing soda and 0.5 kg of
kerosene oil should be added in water amounting
(a) 6 kg
(b) 8 k8
( c ) 1 0 kg
(d)12 kg
65. The radiator should he filled with the solution and allowed to remain there for
(a) 4 to 6 hours
( c ) 8 t o 10 hours
(b) 6 to 6 hours
(a) 10 to 12 hours
66. The starting motor used on a powerine tractor may be of

(a) 6 or 12 volt type
(b) 12 or 24 volt type

68
(c) 16 or 24 volt type
(d) 6 or 24 volt type
67. Diesel tractors are equipped with a more rugged starting motor of
(a) 6 or 12 volts
(c) 12 or 24 volts
(c) 6 or 24 volts
(d) 12 or 36 volts
68. Voltage can be stepped up from 6 to approximately

(a) 10,000 volts
(b) 15. 00 0 volts
(c) 20,000 volts
(d) 25,000 volts
69. Generally the gap between the contact breaker points is kept between
(a) 0 .1 to 0.3 mm
(c) 0.3 and 0.5 mm
(b) 0.2 and 0.4 mm

(d) 0 .4 and 0.6 mm
70. Variation between no load and full load conditions is found to approx. at
(a) 80 rpm
(b) 91 rpm.
(c) 100 rpm
(d) 110 rpm
71. The economical diesel fuels have got octane rating varying from
(a) 30 to 50
(b) 30 to 60
(c) 20 to 30
(d) 25 to 30
72. The temperature produced on the power stroke of an engine can be as high as
(a) 1200C
(b) 1400C
(c) 1600C
(d) 1800C
73. Average yearly load on the tractor should not exceed its rated load up to
(a) 70%
(b) 72%
(c)75%
(d) 78%
74. The depreciation method which reduces the value of a machine by equal amount
each year during the useful life is known as
(a) Estimated method
(b) constant percentage method
(c) compound interest method
(d) straight line method
75. The useful life of a machine is also affected by the rate of which machine
becomes
69
(a) defunct
(b) non operational
(c) re placeable
(d) obsolete
76. The glow plugs must be inspected and decarbonized during

(a) daily maintenance
(b) weekly maintenance
(c) periodic maintenance
(d) seasonal maintenance
77. Tractor in small field gives

(a) high efficiency
( b ) low efficiency
( c ) normal efficiency
(d) optimum efficiency
78. A battery must be turned over to a charging station in winter if discharged by

(a) 50%
(b) 40%
(c) 30%
(d) 25%
79. Transmission of oil should be changed after every working hours about
(a) 550 hours
(b) 650 hours
(c) 70 hours
(d) 850 hours
80. Engine oil should be changed and replaceable type filters should be changed
after even working hours about
(a) 420 hours
(b) 320 hours
(c) 220 hours
(d) 12 0 hours
81. Front and rear wheel axle bearings may be washed and replaced once in
(a) four years
(b) three years
(c) two years
(d) one year
8 2 . I f the spark plugs have become found it should be cleaned after working hours
of
(a) 25 hours
(c) 40 hours
(b) 30 hours
(d ) 50 hours
70
83. Under dusty conditions, air cleaner oil is changed after every working hours of
(a) 6 hours
( b ) 8 hours
(c) 10 hours
(d) 12 hours.
84. Hydraulic system is mainly used for operating

(a) one point hitch
(c) three point hitch
(b) two point hitch

(d) four pond hitch.
85. Hydraulic pump delivers a pressure of about

(a) 125kg/cm2
(b) 130kg/cm2
(c) 140kg/cm2
(d)150kg/cm2
86. The tie rod connects the front wheel spindle arms and is actuated by the steering
shaft through
(a) chain link
(b) gear link
(c) tension link
(d) drag link
87. Under normal operating conditions, the bearings are filled with the proper type
of lubricant after every hours of working about
(a) 6 hours
(c) 10 hours
(b) 8 hours
( d ) 1 2 hours
88. Depending upon the size of the tractor the width o f the tracks varies for
(a) 10-50 cm
(c) 2 0 - 2 5 cm
(b) 15.50 cm
( d ) 25-50 cm
89. Inflation pressure in the rear wheels of the tractor varies between
(a) 0.5 to 1.2 kg/cm2 (b) 8 to 1.2 kg/cm2
(c) 2 to 1.5 kg/cm2
( d ) 1.5 to 20 kg/cm2
90. As a result of spinning sometimes one of the drive wheels of a tractor happens to
meet a
(a) hard ground
(b) soft ground
(c) muddy gourd (d ) wet ground.

71
91. For hard facing base alloys used are

(a) high carbon steel
(b) high carbon iron
(c) carbon steel
(d) stainless steel
92. Hardening is a process of heating a metal to

(a) 400C
(b) 500C
(c) 600C
(d) 700C
93. To obtain softness and ductility, metals art

(a) tempered
(b) hardened
(c) enamelled
(d) hard faced
94. With high frequency electric current hardening is achieved and is called as
(a) case hardening
(b) induction hardening
(c) surface hardening
(d) metal hardening
95. Nails are available in various lengths ranging from

( a ) 1.00 to 15 cm
(c) 1.5 to 15 cm
(b) 1.25 to 15 cm
(d) 2.5 to 15 cm
96. A bearing designed to resist axial load is known as

(a) Ball bearing
(c) thrust bearing
(b) bush bearing

(d) journal bearing
97. The bearings which resist radial loads is known as

(a) Ball bearing
(b) bush bearing
(c) thrust bearing
(d) journal bearing
98. Aluminum is a very light metal which resists

(a) scratch
(b) moisture
(c) temperature
(d) corrosion
99. Soft center steel is used on

(a) plow share
(c) cultivated shovel
(b) plow bottom

(d) sweap
100. Flats belts are available in various widths ranging from

72
(a) 1.0 to 50 cm
(b) 1.5 to 50 cm
(c) 2 to 50 cm
(d) 2.5 to 50 cm
101.
The type of furrow opener recommended for use in hard or trashy ground and
also in wet, sticky soils is
A) single disc type
B) stub runner type
C) full or curved runner type
D) hoe type
102.
In axial flow power threshers, a spike tooth cylinder is preferred over a rasp
bar cylinder
because
it has more positive feeding action
it requires less power
it does not plug as easily
all of the above
.103
A pull of 6.5 kN is exerted on an implement at an angle of 150 with the ground

surface. If the weight of the implement is 350 kg, the vertical soil reaction will
be
A) 1.75 kN upward
B) 3.43 kN downward
C) 3.43 kN upward
D) 5.12 kN downward
.104. Cutting speed of cutter bar of a mower is

A) 35 50 m/s
B) 10 -20 m/s
C) 2 4 m/s
D) 0.2 0.4 m/s
105.. If the travel speed of a tillage tool is increased, the draft will
A) increase linearly
B) decrease linearly
73
C) increase quadratically
D) decrease quadratically
106.
Working element of a paddy thresher is

A) rasp bar
B) wire loop
C) spike tooth
D) angle iron bar
107.
A tractor drawn seed drill operated at 4 kilometer per hour gives 80
kilogram per hectare seed rate. If the tractor speed is increased to 5 kilometer per
hour, the new seed rate will be
A) 64 kilogram per hectare
B) 70 kilogram per hectare
C) 80 kilogram per hectare
D) 100 kilogram per hectare
108.
Lowering of a tractor mounted implement is accomplished by

A) hydraulic force
B) tractor weight
C) implement weight
D) linkage
109.
Power tillers are not generally employed for draft applications because of
A) low horse power
B) low speed
C) low coefficient of traction
D) non-availability of matching implements
110.
The most harmful vibration frequency for a human being is

A) less than 1 Hz
B) 1 to 20 Hz
C) 50 20000 Hz
D) greater than 50000 Hz
Answers
74
1. c 2.c 3.d 4.c 5.b 6.c 7.c 8.c 9.b 10.b 11.d 12.c 13.d 14.d 15.b 16.b
17.d 18.d 19.a 20.a 21.a 22.b 23.a 24.c 25.c 26.b 27.b 28.b 29.d 30.c
31.d 32.d 33.c 34.d 35.b 36.b 37.b 38.d 39.c 40.c 41.c 42.c 43.c 44.b
45.c 46.c 47.b 48.c 49.d 50.c 51.a 52.c 53.d 54.d 55.b 56.c 57.c 58.d
59.b 60.a 61.d 62.c 63.b 64.c 65.c 66.a 67.c 68.c 69.c 70.c 71.b 72.c
73.c 74.d 75.d 76.d 77.b 78.d 79.c 80.d 81.d 82.d 83.c 84.c 85.d 86.d
87.c 88.c 89.b 90.b 91.b 92.c 93.c 94.b 95.b 96.c 97.d 98.d 99.b 100.d
A. C o mp l e t e t h e S t a t e m e n t s
1. Both stationary and portable types of agricultural machines make us, of various
types of power transmitting devices for doing useful work
2. In some machines, the belt drive is used to transmit power between two parallel
shafts placed at a short distance apart.
3. Some of the devices are means to convert rotary motion into linear motion or
oscillating motion.
6.
Speed
cones
are
pulleys
h a v i ng
several
steps
of
varying
diameters on which a common belt may be used.

7. In the case of the tilting plate type, constant tension is attained by fixing the power
unit on a pivoted support.
8. A worm gear is used for two shafts w i th , axes which are usually at right angles
but cannot intersect.
19.
Worm and worm gears are mostly used where a very high velocity ratio is
required but space is limited.
20.
On modern equipment gears are enclosed in a gear case and run lubricating
oil.
21. Dog clutch usually has square jaws which are employed to drive a shaft in either
direction.
22.
A clutch is used to transmit motion or power between two shafts where the
drive has to be disconnected frequently.

75
23.
Splines are used for joining two shafts which are in line, but enable the joint
to be separated when the machine is not in operation.

24. Application of ratchet and pawl drive is commonly found on trailed mover
or ground driven machines.
25. There are two types of load which bearings have to resist, namely, radial load
and axial load.
26. A bearing designed to resist axial loads is called thrust
bearing.
27. The simplest type of journal bearing consists of a tube or a hallow shaft in
which another shaft rotates.
28. The bearing which resists radial loads is known as journal bearing.
8.
The function o f idler pulley is to increase theon the angle of contact on the
pulley and also to maintain tension on the belt stretched.

9.
Velocity ratio of two pulleys of a belt drive may be defined as the revolutions
per minute of follower divided by the revolutions per minute of the driver.
10. With V belts, motion is obtained by friction between the sides of the belt and the
sides of the sheave grooves.
1 1 . Chains have the advantages of providing a positive drive which is not possible
with friction drives.
13. A pintle chain is made of malleable links held together by pins, and is largely
used for heavy duty slow speed work where the chain is exposed.
13. With all types of chains the tension should be sufficient to prevent jumping of
the chain over the sprocket.
14. Straight spur gears have the teeth cut parallel to the axis of the shaft and are used
to transmit motion shafts which are parallel.
15. Helical gears are special form of spur gears with the teeth inclined to the axis of
wheel.
16. Rack and pinions are special gears which are commonly used in the fuel
injection on the pump.
17. Bevel gears are commonly employed for two shaft with axes which are at right
angles and can intersect.
76
18. Ball and roller bearings are based on the principle that the rolling friction
is less than sliding friction.
19. Due to reduced friction ball and roller type of bearings are preferred to plain
bearings.
20. The heavy hexagonal bolts have a longer head, use a longer nut and are
commonly used on farm machinery.
21. The carriage bolt has a round head and square or neck which draws into the
wood to keep the belt from turning.
22. A flat washer is usually used under the nut next to the wood to keep the nut
from damaging the wood.
23. Castellated or slotted nuts used on machinery where there is a lot of vibration
or where it would he dangerous to allow the nut to loosen.
24. Wood screws and sheet metal screws are tapered and are used for fastening
wood or sheet metal.
25. Cap screws are like machine screws except that they usually have chamfered
points and or threaded only part of the way.
26. The term plastics refers to a variety of complex chemical compounds which can
be easily shaped according to requirements.
27. The largest single application of rubber in agricultural is in the form of
pneumatic wheels.
39. Agricultural machines are covered with a thin coating paint to form a hard
protective layer on the surface
40. Paint consists of mineral pigments suspended in a drying oil, the pigment giving a
thin water proof coat.
41. In the case hardening process, carbon is alloyed with iron to increase the hardness.
42. The nitriding process consists of heating the steel in NH3 gas so that hard particles
of iron inside are formed on the surface.
43. The chromium plastering process is used w engine cylinder liners to increase the
wear resistance of the material.
44. Heat treatment is an operation or combination of operations that involves the
heating and cooling of metals in a solid state to obtain desirable physical properties in
77
the materials.
45. Hardening process increases the strength and wearing resistance of the metal.
46. Tempering is done to reduce the brittleness but to increase the ductibility and
toughness.
47. Hard facing is the addition of a layer or coating of a special abrasion resistance
alloy on a portion of the surface of a steel plant.
48. Belt is a flexible material, placed around two pulleys having a certain amount of
tension to transmit the power from one pulley to another.
60. Worm gear is used when high velocity ratio is required in a limited space, such
as
cream separator, hand chaff cutter etc.
61. The strength durability of implements and machines depend upon material
used in their fabrication.
62. When a force is applied on a body there will be relative displacement of
particles and due to the property of the elasticity the particles tend to regain their
original position.
63. Any elastic material is found to recover its original shape and dimensions when
the load is removed, provided the material is not stressed beyond that elastic limit.
64. The maximum stress up to which a body exhibits the property of elastic is called
elastic limit.
65.
The elastic limit is expressed in terms of stress which is obtained by dividing
the load by the original cross sectional area of the bar.

66.
The maximum force, which body can resist is called ultimate strength of the
material.
69. Hook's Law states that within elastic limit stress is proportional to strain.
70. When a body is subjected to simple tension or small compression it is called
coefficient of direct elasticity or Young's modulus.
71. The effect of shear stress in the beam may be neglected and plane section of the
beam which is perpendicular to the axis, remains plane.
72. The whole beam is not usually bent to circular arc but the centre line of the
neutral surface has a different radius of curvature of every point.
78
73. For agricultural implements, the hardness testing is usually done by Brinel
hardness testing machine.
74. The durability of farm implements depends upon the quality of the material
used for construction.
73. The success and failure of an implement is directly connected with the proper
choice of the material.
74. When cast iron with low silicon content is cooled rapidly, all the carbon
remains in combined form and cast iron is formed.
75. Ductile cast iron is formed when magnesium and ferrosilicon are added to the
molten cast iron such that it changes graphite flakes to a spheroid form.
76. Ductile cast iron has high ductility and can take up greater impact resistance
than grey cast iron.
79. Heat treatment is the combination of operations of heating and cooling of a
metal in a solid state for obtaining certain desirable properties of the metal.
77. Hardening increases the strength and wear resistance of the metal but reduces
its ductility.
81. Annealing refines the coarseness of the grins removes strains caused due to
uneven
cooling and increases the tensile strength.
82. Case hardening is a process of introducing additional carbon into the outer shell
of the steel pipes.
83. Cyaniding is a process where the steel is dipped into a molten bath of potassium
cyanide for a short time.
84. Flame hardening is a process in which an oxyacetylene flame is used to heat the
metal surface quickly to a temperature above the critical temperature after which it is
quenched in water which is cold enough to make it hardened.
84. Tapered roller bearing carries radial and side thrust as well as angular thrust.
85. Needle roller bearing consists of an outer shell containing a number of hardened
rollers with pointed ends.
79
B. Select the Right Choice

1. For hard facing base alloys used are
(b) high carbon iron
(c) carbon steel
(d) stainless steel
2. Hardening is a process of heating a metal to

(a) 400C
(b) 500C
(c) 600C
(d) 700C
3. To obtain softness and ductility, metals art

(a) tempered
(b) hardened
(c) enamelled
(d) hard faced
4. With high frequency electric current hardening is achieved and is called as

(a) case hardening
(b) induction hardening
(c) surface hardening
(d) metal hardening
5. Nails are available in various lengths ranging from

( a ) 1.00 to 15 cm
(b) 1.25 to 15 cm
(c) 1.5 to 15 cm
(d) 2.5 to 15 cm
6. A bearing designed to resist axial load is known as

(a) Ball bearing
(b) bush bearing
(c) thrust bearing
(d) journal bearing
17. The bearings which resist radial loads is known as

(a) Ball bearing
(c) thrust bearing
(b) bush bearing

(d) journal bearing
18. The horse power transmitted by the belt passing over a pulley of meter in diameter
and running at 500 rpm having tensions in the two sides of the belt as 50 kg and
25 kg respectively is given by
(a) 6.72 hp
(c) 8.72 hp
(b) 7 72 hp
(d) 9 72 hp
19. The horse power transmitted by a flat belt running at 1200 rpm having its width
equal to 20 cm has been found as
80
(a) 15 hp
(b) 20hp
(c) 25 hp
(d) 30 hp
20. For flat belts preferably, flat faced cylindrical pulleys the wear of the belt is
(a) maximum
(b) minimum
(c) excessive
(d) major
21. A sprocket and chain drive is preferred when the two parallel shafts to be operated
are placed apart less than
(a) 1.0 m
(b) 1.5 m
(c) 2.0 m
(d) 2.5m.
22. Flat belts are available in various widths ranging from

(a) 1.5 to 50 cm
(c) 5.5 to 50 c m
(b) 2.5 to 50 c m
(d) 4.5 to 50 cm
23. For agricultural machines adequate belt sizes are
5.
(b) 6 to 20 cm
(a) 4 to 20 cm
(d) 10 to 20 cm
(c) 8 to 20 cm
In the cyaniding process by immersing the metal for a short time in a bath of
molten sodium cyanide or potassium cyanide and then quenching it in oil or
water, a very hard surface is formed about
(a) 0.025 to 0.25 mm
(b) 0 035 to 0.25 mm
(c) 0.045 to 0.25 mm
(d) 0.05 to 0.25 mm
6.
In the case hardening process the mild steel is heated to about
(a) 600C
(b) 700C
(c) 800C
(d) 900C
7.
Brass is an alloy of copper and zinc where the quantity of copper and zinc
varies between
(a) 30 to 40% and 60 to 70% (b) 40 to 60% and 50 to 60%
(c) 50 to 70% and 40 to 60% (d) 60 to 70% and 30 to 40%
8.
Aluminum is a very light metal which resists

(a) scratch
(b) moisture
(c) temperature
(d) corrosion
81
9.
Soft center steel is used on

(a) plow share
(b) plow bottom
(c) cultivated shovel
(d) sweap
10. Percentage of carbon is high carbon steel varies from

(a) 0.25 to 1.5%
(b) 0.35 to 1.5%
(c) 0.5 to 1.5%
(d) 0.75 to 1.5%
1 I. Carbon percentage in medium carbon steel, an alloy varies from

(a) 0.15 to 0.50%
(b) 0.25 to 0.50%
( c ) 0 . 3 5 to 0.50%
(d) 0.4 to 0.5%
12. Carbon content in mild steel an alloy is up to about
(a) 0 12%
(b) 0.15%
(c) 0.2%
(d) 0.25%
13. Grey cast iron in combination form as carbides of iron contains carbon about
(a) 0.2 to 0.75 %
(b) 0.25 to 0.75%
(c) 0.30 to 0.75%

14.
(d) 0.35 to 0.75%
The percent of carbon in the cast iron varies from
(a) 1.5 to 4.5%
(b) 2.0 to 8.5%
(c) 2.5 to 4.5%
(d) 3 to 4.5 %
15. Melting point of cast iron is b e t w e e n

(a) 9 5 0 to 1150C
(b) 1050 to 1200C
(c) 1150 to 1200C
(d) 1200 to 1250C
16. In compression, before fracturing cast iron may withstand pressure of

(a) 20 to 30 tons/ sq. inch.
(b) 30 to 40 tons/sq.inch.
(c) 40 to 50 tons/sq. inch.
(d) 50 to 60 tons /sq.inch.
17. Cast iron has strength in shear about

(a) 5 to 15 tons/in2
(c) 10 to 15 tons/in2
(b) 7 to 15 tons/in2
(d) 10 to 20 tons/in2
18. The ultimate tensile strength of cast iron varies b e t w e e n

(a) 4 to 20 tons/in2
(b) 6 to 20 tons/in2
(c) 8 to 20 tons/in2
(d) 10 to 20 tons/in2
82
19. In Brinel's hardness test on a hardened steel ball a static load is applied gradually
and maintained time usually as
(a) 10 secs
(b) 12 secs
(c) 15 secs
(d) 20 secs
20. Flats belts are available in various widths ranging from

(a) 1.0 to 50 cm
(b) 1.5 to 50 cm
(c) 2 to 50 cm
(d) 2.5 to 50 cm
21. The V belt section has usual angle of repose

(a) 20
(c) 30
(b) 25
(d) 40
22. The groove angle is small and large pulleys are respectively between
(a) 229 and 35
(c) 31 and 39
( b ) 30 and 38
(d) 32 and 40
23. The type of gear used for transmitting power from one shaft to another shaft
when the shafts are parallel to each other is
(a) worn gear
( b ) bevel gear
(c) spur gear
(d) spiral gear.
24. If the tension on the right side of the belt is 60 kg and the tension the slack side is
25 kg. The dimensions and the speed of driving pulley is taken 0 . 9 5 meter and 250
revolutions/minute respectively. H.P. transmitted by a belt and pulley arrangement of
above is
(a) 3.8
(c) 5.8
(b) 4.8
(d) 6.8
25. The additional creep and wear is caused by

(a) weight
(b) pulley
(c) belt
(d) crown
45. Slip is quite important in belt drives and is caused by

(a) high tension
(c) broken pulley
(b) low tension

(d) jointed heft
46. Normally tension is created on the pulleys by

83
(a) loose fitting of the belt
(b) tight fitting of the belt
(c) idler pulleys
(d) larger pulleys
47. Slip is usually expressed as the percentage of speed

(a) addition
(b) reduction
(c) normal
(d) unusual
48. The pulleys having several steps of varying diameters on which a common belt is
used called as
(a) V-belt pulley
(b) speed cones
(c) velocity cones
(d) acceleration cones
48. Wear of the belt is minimum in case of cylindrical pulleys which are
(a) round faced
(b) flat faced
(c) circular laced
(d) angular faced.
49. In keeping a rubber belt shaft clean and preventing slipping essential to apply a
few drops of
(a) petrol
(b) diesel
(c) kerosene oil
(d) castor oil
50. The angle of contact on the pulleys is increased by

(a) flat belt
(b) V-belt
(c) grooved pulley
(d) idler pulley
51. A V-belt can be used with adjustable pulleys for changing

(a) power (b) velocity
(c) torque
(d) speed
52. An alloy of carbon and iron is

(a) cast iron
(b) steel
(c) wrought iron
(d) high carbon steel
53. The maximum force a body can resist is called

(a) normal strength
(b) material strength
(c) ultimate strength
(d) valuable strength.
54. The ratio of lateral strain and longitudinal strain is

(a) elastic limit
(b) plastic limit
(c) Norton's ratio (d) Poison's ratio

84
55. Strength and wear of a resistance of metal is increased by

(a) tempering
(b) annealing
(c) quenching
(d) hardening
56. An organic material capable of being molded by heat and pressure

(a) wire
(h) cardboard
(c) plastic (d) polythene

57. For hard facing base alloys are used named as
(b) alumimurn foil
(c) low carbon iron
(d) high carbon iron
58. Needle roller has got the capacity to carry

(a) high axial load
(b) high radial load
(c) low axial load
(d) low radial load
59. Plain roller bearing is very common bearing used in

(a) industrial machines
(c) lathe machines
(b) agricultural machines

(d) grinding machines.
60. Wood is composed of cellulose about

(a) 40%
(b) 50%
(c) 60%
(d) 70%
61. Lignin content is found in wood about

(a) 25%
(b) 28%
(c) 30%
(d) 35%
62. Gun metal has an average composition of copper about

(a) 68%
(b) 78%
(c) 88%
(d) 98%
63. Tin content is found in gun metal composition about

(a)
1%
(b) 8%
(c)
9%
(d) 10 %
64. Brass is an alloy of copper and zinc contains copper between

(a)
40 to 50 %
(b) 45 to 60 %
(c)
50 to 65 %
(d) 60 to 75 %
85
65. Zinc is available in brass between

(a)
10 to 30 %
(b) 20 to 30 %
(c)
30 to 40 %
(d) 40 to 50 %
SOIL & WATER CONSERVATION

1)
The datum adopted for India is

a) MSL at Mumbai b) MSL at Madras
c) MSL at Karachi
2)
The B.M. established by the survey of India is known as

a) Permanent B.M b) G.T.S.B.M.
3)
The surface of still water is considered to be

a) Level
4)
c) Arbitrary BM
b) Horizontal
c) Smooth
The surface tangential to level surfaces said to be a

a) Vertical surface b) Horizontal surface
5)
The line of collimation and axis of telescopic should

a) Coincide b) be parallel
7)
c) Gourd surface
c) be perpendicular
Which there is relative movement between cross hairs and staff reading, is it
known as
a) Parallax b) Co lunation error c) Refraction
8)
The staff reading taken an a point of known elevation is termed as

a) FS reading
b) BS reading
86
c) IS reading
9)
Internal focusing telescope is focused moving the

a) Convex lens
10)
b) Double concave leas
c) Plano covers lens
By arithmetical check we can ensure the accuracy of

a) Field work
b) Calculation
c)
Both
field
work
and
calculation
11)
The operation of leveling to determine the elevation between two points is
known as
a) Simple leveling b) Fly leveling
12)
c) Differential leveling
B. M. fixed at the end of days work is called as

a) Permanent B.M. b) Temporary B.M. c) Arbitrary B.M.
13)
days
The operation of leveling from finishing point to the starting point at the end of
work is known as
a) Check leveling b) Reciprocal leveling
14)
The operation of leveling across any river is termed as

a) Profile leveling
15)
b) Reciprocal leveling
known as
a) Longitudinal leveling g b) Fly leveling
c) Continues leveling
To eliminate collimation error the leveling instrument must be placed.

a) Near to BS
b) Near FS
FS
17)
c) Compound leveling
The operation of leveling from any B.M. to the starting point of at of any
project is
16)
c) Cross sectional of leveling
The real image of the object is formed

87
c) Exactly midway between BS and
a) In the plane of cross hairs

b) At the centre of eye piece
c) At the centre of telescope
18)
The diaphragm is filled

a) At the centre of telescope
b) In front of eye piece
c) In front of
object grass
19)
The tangent to longitudinal surface of the bubble tube is known as the

a) Axis of bubble
20)
b) centre line of bubble
c) Profile of bubble
The sensitiveness of the bubble is directly related to

a) Length of bubble tube
b) The radius of curvature
c) The cross section of bubble tube
Ans.1) c
2) b
3) a
4) b
5) a
6) b
7) a 8) b
9) b
10) b 11) c
12) c 13) a 14) b 15) b 16) c 17) a 18) b 19) a 20) b

21)
The most important requirement for leveling is that the

a) Horizontal cross hair should lie in a plane perpendicular to vertical axis.
b) Axis of the bubble tube should be perpendicular to the vertical axis.
c) Line of sight should be parallel to the axis of the bubble tube.
22)
Leveling of dumpy level is done to make

a) The vertical axis truly vertical
88
b) The line sight truly horizontal

c) The optical axis truly horizontal
d) None of the above.
23)
The height of instrument (H.I) in leveling is

a) Height of telescopic axis above ground
b) Elevation of line of sight with respect to a datum.
c) Elevation of line of sight with respect MSL
d) None of the above
24)
The surface perpendiculars to the direction of the gravity is

a) Horizontal surface
c) Horizon
25)
b) Level surface
A bubble tube with division 2 mm and a radius of 10 m has the sensitivity of
about
a) 40
26)
b) 80
c) 20
d) 2
The sensitivity of a bubble tube can be increased by

a) Increasing the diameter tube
b) Increasing the radius of curvature of tube
c) Increasing the length of tube
d) Increasing length of divisions
27)
With a rise in temperature, the sensitivity of the bubble tube

a) Decreases
b) Increases c) Remains unaffected

89
28)
On a turning point
a) Only back sight is taken
b) Only fore sight is taken
c) Both back sight and fore sight are taken
d) An intermediate sight is taken
29)
The rise and fall method provides an arithmetic check on

a) Back sights and fore sights
b) Intermediate sights
c) Both (a) & (b)
d) Neither (a) and (b)
30)
The following type of leveling can not be done with dumpy level
a) Differential leveling
b) Reciprocal leveling
c) Trigonometric leveling d) Profile leveling

31)
32)
The internal focusing lens is a

a) Convex lens
b) Concave lens
c) Plano convex
d) Plano concave
The Philadelphia rod is type of

a) Solid staff
b) Folding staff
c) Telescopic staff d) None of the above

33)
While leveling in an undulating terrain it is preferable to set up the instrument
on
90
a) The top of submit

34)
b) The bottom of valley c) One side of slope
Which leveling of steep slope it is preferable to setup the instrument
successively along a
a) Straight line
35)
b) Zig Zag line
c) curved line
Select the correct statement

a) The first reading after the setting up the instrument is a foresight
b) If the foresight is grater than back sight it represents a rise
c) The height
instrument method provides a check on intermediate
sights.
d) The staff reading is increased when it is fitted.
Ans.21) c 22
22) a 23) b 24) b 25) a 26) b 27) a 28) c
29) c 30) c 31) b 32) c 33) c 34) b 35) d
Set B
1)
Which of the following statements is incorrect?

a) The contours lines are closed curves
b) In steep slopes spacing of contour is small
c) Two contours lines of different elevation cannot normally cross each other
d) Contour interval on map can vary
e) The direction of steepest slope is at right angles to contour
2)
An imaginary line lying throughout the ground surface and having constant
inclination to horizontal is a
91
3)
a) Contour line
b) Ridge line
c) Contour gradient
The direct method of contouring is

a) A quick method
b) An accurate method
c) Used for very large area

4)
The contour interval is

a) Directly proportional to scale of map
b) Inversely proportional to scale of map
c) Large for flat grounds
d) Small for hill areas
5)
Select the correct statement
a) Closed contours with higher inwards represent a depression

b) The contour lines crossing a valley have higher values on the convex
sides
c) Profile leveling is done for determining contours
d) The horizontal and vertical scales in longitudinal section are generally equal
6)
In reciprocal leveling the error which is not fully eliminated due to

a) Earths curvature b) Inclined line of sight
c) Refraction
7)
8)
d) Both a ) and c)
Constant vertical distance between two adjacent contours is called as

a) Contour gradient
b) Contour interval
c) Horizontal equivalent
If the level tube is out of adjustment by an angle e, when the telescope is
rotated through
180 it becomes.
9)
a) 4e
b) 3e
c) 2e
d) e
The line joining points of equal elevation is known as.

a) Horizontal line
10)
b) Contour line
c) Level line
The vertical distance between two adjacent contour lines is called as a.

92
a) Contour gradient b) Vertical equivalent c) Vertical interval

11)
The line formed along intersection of the ground surface and a level surface is
known as a
a) Contour line
12)
b) Watershed line
A contour line intersects a ridge line or valley line.

a) Obliquely
13)
b) Perpendicularly
b) Vertical cliff
b) Level ground
b) Pond
The contour interval is inversely proportional to
b) Flattish slope
b) The valley line
c) Across the contour line
When contours different elevation cross each other it indicates an

a) Vertical cliff
21)
c) Almost level ground
The alignments of Highways are generally taken along the.

a) Ridge line
20)
c) Scale of map
When contour interval is fixed 0.25 to 0.50 m it indicate

a) A steep slope
19)
c) Depression
c) Slopping ground
a) Steepness b) Extent of the area

18)
c) Horizontal surface
When higher values are inside loops it indicates

a) Hill
17)
c) Made irregular
When lower values are inside a loop it indicates a

a) High ground
16)
b) Made variable
When contour line touches at particular zone it indicate a

a) Level surface
15)
c) Vertically
Contour interval for particular map is

a) Kept constant
14)
c) Level line
b) Saddle
c) Overhanging cliff
The horizontal distance between two consecutive contours is termed as

a) Horizontal interval
b) Horizontal equivalent
c) Horizontal contours
22)
When consecutive contour lines runs close

a)
Ans.- 1) e
Steep slope
2) c
3)b
together it indicates a
b) Flatter slope
c) Vertical surface
4)b
7) b
11)a 12)b 13)a 14)b 15)c
5)b
6)c
8)c
9)b
16)a 17)a 18)b 19)a 20)c

93
10)c
21)b 22)a
Set C
1.) Choose the correct alternative.
i) Object of surveying is to prepare a
a ) Drawing b) Cross Section
c) map
ii) The curvature of earth is ignored in

a) Geodetic surveying
b) Plane surveying
c) Hydrographic surveying
iii) Curvature of earth is taken into account when the extent of area is more than.
a) 50 km2
b) 100 km2
c) 250 km2
iv) The main principal of surveying is to work from

a) The centre to boundary b) The whole to the part
c) Part to the whole
v) Surveys which depict the natural features of a country are known as
a) Cadastral surveys
b) Topographical surveys
c) Engineering surveys
vi) The diagonal scale is used to read
a) One unit
b) Two units
c) Three consecutive unit
vii) A 20 m chain is divided in to

a) 150 links
b) 100 links
c) 200 links
viii) A 30 m chain is divided in to

a) 100 links
b) 150 links
c) 300 links
viiii) The length of guntur chain is

a) 100 ft
b) 50 ft
c) 66 ft
x) For ranging a line, no of ranging rods required is

a) At least two
b) At least there
c) At least four
xi) The difference between the arc length and chord length for a distance of 18.2 km is
only
94
a) 5 cm
b) 10 cm
c) 15 cm
xii) Compensating error is proportional to

a) L
b) L c) L2
xiii) If the angle of slope and L the sloping distance, slope correction is given by
a) L (L - sin )
b) L (L cos )
c) L (L sec )
xiv) If L be the sloping distance and h be the difference of level between two end
points slope
a) h
2L
correction is given by
b) h2
c) 2L
h2
xv) If be the angle of slope and length of chain be 30 m, then correction to be

applied per
chain length is
a) 30 (Cos -1 ) m
b) 30 (Sec -1 ) m
xvi) One link means the distance from

Centre to centre of middle rings
Centre to centre of inner rings
Centre to centre of outer rings
xvii) The end link is considered
Including the length of handle
Excluding the length of handle
From centre of the handle
xviii) The walking step of a man is considered equal to
95
c) 30 (Tan -1)m
a) 80 cm
b) 90 cm
c) 100 cm
Answers
i) c
ii) b
iii) c iv) b v) b
xi) b xii) b xiii) b xiv) c
vi) c vii) b viii) b ix) c x) b
xv) b
xvi) a
xvii) a
xviii) a
Set D
QUESTION BANK
1)
Raindrop with bigger size has

a) Greater kinetic energy b) Lesser kinetic energy
c) Lesser terminal velocity d) None of the above
2)
Soil detachment is maximum

a) For high intensity of rain fall with shorter duration
b) Low intensity rain fall with shorter duration
c) All of the above
3)
4)
Erodibility changes more during rainfall of the

a) Dry soil
b) Hard soil
c) Wet soil
d) All of the above
Soil erosion is more when

a) Only impact of rain fall b) Rain drop impact along overland flow.
c) Only overland flow
5)
d) All of the above
The term denudation is used to express the erosion in terms of

a) Sediment yield per unit area
b) Net erosion per unit area
c) Gross erosion per unit area
6)
Erosivity rafers to potential ability of

a) Raindrop and blowing wind to erode soil particles
b) Wind to erode particles
96
c) Soil to get erode

7)
Accelerated
erosion is caused by
a) Water
b) Wind
c) Both a & b
8)
Geological erosion is called as

a) Normal erosion
b) Natural erosion
c) Chemical erosion d) Both a & b

9)
Kinetic energy of rain drop depends upon

a) Rain drop size
b) Terminal velocity
c) Soil particle size

10)
11)
12)
d) Both a & b
The erosion caused by concentration of flow in small channels is called as

a) Gully erosion
b) Rill erosion
c) Sheet erosion
The erosion in which complete layer of soil is removed

a) Gully erosion
b) Rill erosion
c) Sheet erosion
Wind erosion is common in

a) Arid zones
b) Arid and Semiarid zones
c) Semiarid zones d) All of the above

13)
14)
15)
16)
Thresh hold flow velocity is greater for

a) Coarse particles
b) Fine particles
c) Silt particles
U Shape of gullies are found in

a) Hilly area
b) Flat area
c) Ravine area
d) All of the above
Cohesive force is minimum in

a) Sand soils
b) Clayey soils
c) Clay loam soils
d) All of the above
Among all soil particles organic matter is

a) Less erodible fraction
b) More erodible fraction

97
c) Not erodible fraction

17)
18)
19)
20)
21)
Shelterbelt protects the distance at d/s side equal to

a) Trees height
b) Less than trees height
c) More than trees height
Stubble mulching is associated with

a) Water erosion
b) Wind erosion
c) Glacial erosion
Greater fertility loss is observed in case of

a) Water erosion
b) Wind erosion
c) Chemical erosion
d) Glacial erosion
Erosion caused by biological activities is called as

a) Accelerated erosion
b) Normal erosion
c) Chemical erosion
b) Glacial erosion
Contour farming and contour bunding are the

a) Agronomical measures b) Mechanical measures
c) Biological measures
22)
23)
d) All of the above
Gully erosion usually occurs in

a) Cultivated land
b) Uncultivated lands
c) Ravine lands
b) None of the above
Vegetative cover reduces the splashing effect by

a) Decrease erosive power of rain drop
b) Decreasing surface resistance
d) Increasing surface resistance
d) a & c.
24)
As per land utilization capability classification (LUCC) the suitable land for
cultivation is
31)
a) Class I to IV
b) Class I to V
c) Class V to VII
Most economical cross section of grassed waterway is

a) Trapezoidal b) Triangular
32)
c) Parabolic d) All of the above
Grassed waterways are designed to carry the peak runoff rate for
98
a) 10 years recurrence interval

b) 15 years recurrence interval
c) 20 years recurrence interval
33)
Grassed waterways are designed by average velocity of flow as

a) 1.0 m/s
34)
b) 1.5 to 2.0 m/sec c) 2.5m / sec d) None of the above
Velocity of flow of grassed waterway is calculated by equation

a) 1/n R S
35)
36)
b) 1/n R S 2/3
Diversion ditches are constructed

a) Across the slope
b) Along the slope
c) At the field boundary
d) All of the above
Function of diversion ditch is to

a) Intercept the runoff
c) Both a & b
37)
c) 1/n R 2/3 S d ) None of the above
b) Divert runoff
Broad based terrace are constructed in the form of

a) Steps or benches
b) Channels c) Ridges and channels
above
38)
Techniques of Broad base terrace is developed by

a) U.K.
39)
b) India c) U.S.A d) U.S.S.R.
Alignment of broad base is carried out more or less

a) Along the contour
b) Across the contour
c) Across the slope length d) All of the above
40)
41)
42)
Broad base terrace is also known as

a) Bench terrace
b) Channel terrace
c) Drainage type terrace
Drainage type terrace are not suitable for

a) Humid zones
b) Semi arid zones
c) Tropical zones
d) All of the above
Absorption type terraces are most suitable to the

a) Humid regions
b) Semi arid zones

99
d) None of the
c) Tropical zones
44)
d) All of the above
Bench terracing is also called

a) Hill farming
b) Staircase farming
c) Erosion control farming d ) None of the above

45)
The width of bench terrace with level top is equal to the inverse of
a) Degree of slope land
b) Depth of cut
c) Runoff rate
46)
For same land slope the width of level bench terrace is always
a) Greater than bench width with forward lateral slope
b) Less than bench width with forward lateral slope
c) Equal to the bench width with forward lateral slope
47)
The VI (Vertical Interval) of bench terrace with level top should be equal to
a) 1/2 of the depth of cut
b) 1/4 of the depth of cut
c) 2 times depth of cut

49)
50)
Catch area of V shape gully is

a) More
b) Less
c) Zero
Drop structures are used to control

a) V shape gullies
b) U shaped gullies
c) Both a & b
51)
Drop structures are designed to handle peak ( runoff ) discharge rate for return
period of
52)
a) 25 to 50 years
b) 10 to 15 years
c) 50 years
d) 100 years
Chute spillways are used at

a) Mild slope
b)Steep slope
c) Both a & b
d) None of the
above
53)
Drop inlet spillways are constructed for

100
a) Water retention along with gully bed

b) Controlling water velocity
c) Creating silt deposition
d) Both a & b
54)
55)
56)
Rational method is suitable to compute peak runoff rate from

a) Large watersheds
b) Small watersheds
c) Medium watersheds
Rational formula states that Q =

a) I in mm/h
b) A in ha
c) L in cm/h
d) a & b
/360 CIA, where
Runoff coefficient is ratio of

a) Annual rainfall to annual runoff
b) Runoff to rainfall
c) Runoff to rainfall intensity
d) All of the above
57)
58)
59)
USLE is
a) An empirical equation
b) A theoretical solution
c) Both a & b
High silt contents make a soil to

a) Less erodible
b) More erodible
c) More cohesive
Rain fall intensity is ratio of

a) Time to rainfall amount
b) Rainfall amount to time
c) Rainfall amount to falling velocity
d) Both b & c
61)
As flow velocity increases from 1m/s to 2 m/s the transportation of soil
particles increases as
a) 32 times
b) 16 times
c) 10 times
d) 4 times
101
62)
64)
65)
66)
Bench terraces are constructed at slope gradient of

a) 5 to 10 %
b) 10 to 20 %
c) Less than 5 %
d) All of the above
Surface sealing problem is less on

a) Steep slope
b) flat land
c) Vegetated surface
d) Both a & c
Clay soil particles more difficult to detach by runoff but easier to

a) Transport
b) Deposit
c) Disintegrate
d) Both b & c
For land slope 0 to 9 % the horizontal spacing between terrace should be

a) Not more than 210 m
b) More than 210 m
c) 210 m
68)
Planimeter measures
a) Area
b) Density
c) Land roughness d) All of the above

69)
Area below a unit by hydrograph is equal to

a) 1 cm rainfall excess
c) a & b
70)
b) 10 cm direct runoff
A DRH ( Direct Runoff Hydrograph ) is the plot of

a) Direct runoff rate and time
b) Rainfall excess and time
c) Rainfall depth and time
d) Both b & c
71)
A unit hydrograph is derived

a) A unit depth rainfall excess
b) A unit depth runoff
c) A unit depth of rainfall
d) All of the above
102
72)
Basin lag is the distance measured from the

a) Out let to opposite side of basin centroid along main stream
b) Outlet to remote point of drainage basin
c) Both a & b
73)
Curve number method predict the

a) Peak runoff rate b) Direct runoffs / rainfall excess
c) Sub surface runoff
74)
d) All of the above
Time required for translated the flow from most remotest point of drainage
basin to the outlet is called as
75)
a) Overland flow time
b) Time of concentration
c) Rainfall duration
Contour trenching is performed to

a) Control the land slide form the hill face
b) Conserve the moisture
c) Both a & b
76)
Contour trench is done mainly in

a) Low rainfall areas for moisture conservation
b) High rainfall areas for moisture conservation
c) Arid zone for wind erosion control
d) All of the above
77)
Level bench terrace are

a) Irrigate terrace
b) Hill type bench terrace
c) Orchard type bench terrace
d) All of the above
78)
Narrow width bench terrace are

a) Orchard bench terrace
b) Level bench terrace
103
c) Both a & b
79)
Vertical Interval of bench terrace is equal to

a) Twice of bench width
b) Width of bench terrace
c) Both a & b
81)
Bund constructed on contour of land is

a) Contour bund
b) Graded bund
c) Both a & b
82)
Graded bunds are useful in areas of

a) Medium rainfall b) Medium to high rainfall
c) Very less rainfall d) All of the above
83)
84)
Freeboard is provided to accommodates the embankment height against

a) Over topping
b) Sliding
c) Overturning
d) All of the above
Location of emergency spillway in embankment pond should be at

a) Maximum flood level during expected frequency
b) Minimum flood level during expected frequency
c) Both a and b
85)
Watershed is
a) Drainage basin contributing runoff to single outlet
b) Unit of area extent in which hydrologic cycle completes
c) Hydrological entity
d) All of the above
86)
Seepage line is also called us

a) Phreatic line
c) Both a & b
87)
b) Saturation line
Control of gully erosion can be achieved by use of

a) Spurs
104
b) Wooden plank dams

c) Retaining wall
88)
Vertical spacing of bund can be computed by the equation

a) VI = S + b
a
c) VI = S +a
b) VI = a +b
S
d) All of the above
b
89)
Side slope of bund is function of

a) Bunds height
c) Both a & b
b) Angle of repose of fill material

105
True or false
1. Soil amendments like Gypsum are necessary for reclaiming saline soils
False.
2. Drainage increases the depth of plant rooting zone True.
3. Herringbone system is economical than grid iron False.
4. Drainage removes only capillary water from the soil False.
5. Piezometers are used to measure the depth of water table True
6. Subsurface ground water is removed by an open ditch extending below water
table. False.
7. Subsurface drainage is always a closed drainage True.
8. Time of concentration of runoff depends only on length of drainage area
False.
9. Drainable porosity in the volume of soil water removed in a day False.
10. Outlet conditions decide the depth of field drains True.
11. Land requires drainage when annual rainfall exceeds annual evaporation in
that region False.
12. The plane method of computing the cuts and fills is accurate than profile
method True.
13. Byproducts of agricultural production are often used as envelops material
False.
14. Filter is provided to increase effective diameter of drain True.
15. Soil hydrologic groups are based on infiltration potential of soil True.
16. Peak rate of runoff can not be estimated by curve number method False.
17. Sodic soils can be reclaimed only by adding excess water False
18. Sandy soils are difficult to drain as compared to clayey soils False.
19. Economic and hydrologic conditions are not considered in drainage design
False.
20. Permeable soils often need artificial drainage. False.
21. Three days succeeding rainfall are considered for deciding antecedent
moisture condition False.
106
22. Groundwater flow remains laminar when Reynoldss number is more than
10 - True.
23. All farming operations must be done perpendicular to open ditches -False.
24. Hydraulic conductivity of soil decreases as ESP increases when electrolyte
concentration remains constant - True
25. Salt conditions are not considered in drainage design - False
26. Fluctuating water table is real field situation - True
27. AMC - III does not indicate more wetness of soil - False
28. Drainage coefficient helps in deciding drainage discharge - True
29. Reynoldss number is not considered for deciding flow condition - False
30. Groundwater flow remains laminar when Reynoldss number is more than
one - False
31. Unsaturated soil water is removed by subsurface drains - False
32. Contact angle of water for capillary glass tube is 5 - False
33. In dynamic equilibrium water table remains stationery - False
34. Flatter slopes are generally drained in shorter lengths - True
35. Drainage of land removes only the hygroscopic soil water - False
36. Highly permeable soils need artificial drainage - False
37. Excessive soil moisture is often the cause of soil compaction by animals and
machines - True
38. Subsurface ground water is removed by shallow ditches - False
39. It is pore size distribution rather then the total pore space that is important in
the water transmitting and water holding properties of the soil - True
40. The intrinsic permeability of soil is independent of density and viscosity of
soil water - True
41. Inverse auger hole method is used to measure the hydraulic conductivity insitu below water table - False
42. In herringbone layout lateral drains join main drain at an angle - True
43. For drainage area more than 80 ha rational formula is good for estimating
peak rate of runoff - False
44. Specific yield is the property of an unconfined aquifer - True
107
45. In saturated flow the sum of differences in hydrostatic head and differences
in soil. Moisture tension, is the pressure gradient - True
46. Bedding system of drainage hampers mechanized farming - True
47. Five days succeeding rainfall is considered for deciding AMC - True
48. Single auger hole method is used to measure the hydraulic conductivity insitu below water table i.e. when WT is near the ground surface - True
Agricultural Process Engineering

2.1
Convective
heat
transfer
coefficient
is
expressed
by
_____________number.
A) Prandtl
B) Grashof
C) Nusselt
D) None of the above
2.2 Difference between a pasteurizer and sterilizer is only in ______________.

A) Heating agent used
B) Temperature attained
C) Design of equipment
2.3 The dimension of thermal diffusivity is __________________.

A) MLT-2
B) M-1LT
C) MLT
2.4 Diffusion coefficient has a dimension of _____________.

A) MLT-2
B) MLT-3
C) M1L1T-1
2.5 Thermal vapor recompression is used in a/an____________.

A) Evaporator
B) Homogenizer
C) Pasteurizer
2.6 In a precision planter the height of drop of seeds _______________

A) Should be as close to the ground level as is possible.
B) Should be at least 1 m from the ground level.
108
D) Is not a factor to be considered

2.7 The cutter bar of a tractor operated mower ordinarily makes
A) 800-1200 strokes/min
B) 1600-2000 strokes/min
C) 2400-2800 strokes/min
2.8 In a C. engine the compression pressure inside the cylinder is normally in
the range of
A) 15-25 kg/cm
B) 35-45 kg/cm2
C) 55-65 kg/cm2
2.9 In a 4 wheel drive ________is/are greater, as compared to a two wheel
drive tractor.
A) The net tractive coefficient
B) The tractive efficiency
C) The net tractive coefficient as well as the tractive efficiency.
2.10 The type of restrained three point linkage system in which the depth of the
implement is automatically adjusted to maintain a pre-selected constant draft is
called
A) Automatic draft control system
B) Precision control system
C) Depth control system
2.11 The sound level of an agricultural tractor should not exceed
A) 110 dB
B) 100 dB
C) 90 dB
2.12 The floor area per head in a deep litter poultry house s :A) U. 1 m2
B) 0.4 m2
C) 0.8 m2
D) 1.2 m2
109
2.13 In a gravity dam of base width b the maximum permissible value of

concentricity e is
A) b/8
B) b/4
C) b/3
D) b/6
2.14 The dimensionless number of use in geometric similarity is
A) Mach number
B) Reynolds number
C) Froude number
D) Nusselt number
2.15 Inflow and outflow method of determination of seepage losses in a
channel reach
A) Does not correspond to actual running condition
B) Gives results which are valid for conditions similar to those under which
measurements are made
C) Is very inaccurate
D) Requires normally a roach of about 1000 m
2.16 For the most efficient hydraulic section of a rectangular channel the
bottom width is
A) Equal to the depth
B) Equal to half the depth.
C) Equal to 150% of depth
D) Equal to 200% of depth.
2.17 Water content on volumetric basic may be expressed as (w water content
on weight basis, v is volume of solids, V is total volume of soil mass and s is
particle density)
A) W Vs V/s
B) W Vs s/V
C) W s V/Vs
D) W s VVs
110
2.18 Relative tolerance of crops to salinity is

A) Barley > Alfalfa > Sugarcane > Sweet potato
B) Barley > Alfalfa > Sweet potato > Sugarcane.
C) Alfalfa > Sweet potato > Barley > Sugar cane
D) Alfalfa > Barley > Sugarcane > Sweet potato
2.19 While constructing wells generally the bottom one third portion of aquifer
is provided with well screen in
A) Tubewell constructed in gravity aquifer.
B) Dug well constructed in confined aquifer.
C) Tubewell constructed in artesian aquifer
D) Tubewell constructed in multi aquifer.
2.20 Self priming centrifugal pump has impellor of following types
A) Backward curved vane impeller.
B) Radial vane impeller.
C) Forward curved vane impeller.
D) Combination of radial and forward curved vane impeller.
4. Fill in the blanks with appropriate word (s) or numeral value (s) against each
questions
4.1 Critical thickness of thermal insulation on cylindrical conductor is given by k/h
where
k is the insulation thermal conductivity, and h is surface heat transfer
coefficient.
4.2 The fanning friction factor in the laminar range is given by 0.023/Re0.2.
4.3 For a centrifugal pump the pressure developed by the pump varies as the square
of the rotational speed.
4.4 Heat transferred by radiations is proportional to the difference of fourth power of
the temperature.
4.5 Raoults Law is applicable for vapour-liquid equilibrium.
4.6 An indigenous plough cuts a triangular furrow cross section.
4.7 A paddy transplanter uses other root washed type seedlings or tray seedlings.
4.9 A pitman transmits reciprocating motion to a knife head.
4.10 The thermal efficiency of a S.I. engine is less than that of a C.I. engine.
111
4.11 In a fully charged battery the electrolyte has a specific gravity of 1.278.
4.12 Farmstead should be location on the most productive part of the farm.
4.13 Tensionmeters are recommended for the range of 0 to 880.6 cm of water tension.
4.14 Triangular hydrograph was developed to speed up area calculation.
4.15 Topographic features such as canyons, stream and valleys are caused by geologic
erosion.
4.16 Drip irrigation is not practicable for cereal crop.
4. 17 While drilling by direct rotary method no casing is required because the drilling
fluid forms a clay lining on the wall of the well which prevents caving.
4.18 Jacobs method is used for estimation of S and T of the aquifer.
4.19 Soil materials finer than 0.074 mm are generally analyzed by the method of
sedimentation of soil particle by gravity.
4.20 Flooding of plant/roots causes reduction in oxygen absorption and other plant
nutrients.
Set B
Choose the correct answer
1.
Salt is a better food preservative than sugar because it
A) has lower molecular weight

B) lowers the vapour pressure of food water by a larger extent
C) kills microorganisms better
D) reduces pH
2.
In a multiple effect evaporator concentration of liquid food is difficult in

the last effect because
A) the vacuum level is low

B) the temperature is low
C) flow rate is reduced
112
D) viscosity of liquid is large
3.
Pressure drop in fluid flow through granular materials is best estimated by

A) Blake Kozney equation
B) Burke Plummer equation
C) Ergun equation
D) Fourier eqution
4.
Effectiveness of a countercurrent heat exchange carrying same fluid at the

same flow rate in the inner and outer tubes is given by.
A) NTU/(NTU+1)
B) NTU/(NTU-1)
C) (NTU +1)/NTU
D) NTU/(1-NTU)
5.
Intransient heat transfer problems the dimensionless number used is
A) Nusselt Number
B) Prandtl Number
C) Biot Number
D) Schmidt Number
6.
Constant rate of drying of agricultural produce is independent of
A) air velocity
B) thickness of bed
C) air humidity
D) air temperature
113
7.
If D is the cone diameter in mm them number of brakes on a cone polisher

is given by.
A) (100/D) -2
B) (D/100) -2
C) 2 + (D/100)
D) (100/D) +2
8.
The equilibrium moisture content at 100% relative humidity is known as
A) bound water
B) unbound water
C) free water
D) saturation water
9.
For a watershed where no conservation practice is followed, the value of

conservation practice factor (P) to be used in Universal Soil Loss Equation
for estimation of soil loss will be.
A) 0
B) 0.5
C) 1.0
D) 1.5
10.
The pressure drop through a media filer used in drip irrigation should not
exceed.
A) 70 kPa
B) 100 kPa
C) 130 kPa
D) 160 kPa
114
11.
A hypsometric curve is a plot of
A) time of concentration and elevation curve of catchment

B) area and elevation curve
C) spot rainfall values and isohyets on a basin map
D) depth of rainfall and elevation of a catchment
12.
Mole drains are suitable for

A) very coarse soil
B) medium coarse soil
C) sandy loam soil
D) fine texture soil
13.
Hydraulically most efficient cross section of open channel is

A) triangular
B) rectangular
C) semi-circular
D) trapezoidal
14.
A cavity well is most suitable under the following conditions

A) aquifer with fine sand and small thickness
B) aquifer with coarse sand and large thickness
C) aquifer with coarse sand and large thickness
D) aquifer with coarse sand and hard covering layer
15.
For large discharge capacity, a chute spillway inlet should be
A) rounded rectangular box type inlet

B) flat rectangular inlet
C) straight inlet
115
D) concave shaped rectangular inlet
16.
Two trapezoidal channels A and B have same depth of flow, roughness

coefficient and side slopes. The bed slope of channel A is 4 times that of
B. The ratio of discharges of A and B is
A) 4:1
B) 3:2
C) 2:1
D) 1:2
18.
Inertia forces are developed due to rotation of an engine crankshaft. The

secondary force which is cosine function of twice the crank angle occurs.
A) twice every revolution in a 4 cylinder engine
B) once every revolution in a 4 cylinder engine
C) thrice every revolution in a 3 cylinder engine
D) once every revolution in a 3- cylinder engine
19.
During field preparation using a tractor drawn 2 bottom MB plough, the

wheel outside the furrow has
A) the best traction

B) the least traction
C) zero slip
D) higher tire pressure
20.
An epicyclic gear train is one, in which the gears, in addition to the motion
about their respective exes have.
A) at least two axes fixed
B) one axis fixed about which other axes revolve
C) another axis rotating at slow speed
D) one gear train rotating at high speed
116
21.
The basic difference in a turbocharged engine and a naturally aspirated

engine is that.
A) the inlet air pressure is higher in a naturally aspirated engine

B) inlet air temperature is lower in turbocharged engine
C) inlet air pressure is higher in a turbo charged engine
D) more volume of air is inducted in the turbocharged engine
22.
The predominant noise heard at the operators car in a tractor and other
off-highway equipment falls in the frequency range of.
A) 10 to 50 Hz
B) 125 to 500 Hz
C) 1000 to 5000 Hz
D) O to 10 Hz
23.
The purpose of the use of lugs in ground wheels of a manually operated

low land seeder is to
A) increase traction
B) remove soil from the wheels
C) to allow floatation
D) to increase depth of operation
24.
In a tractor drawn disc plough the type of bearing used is
A) taper roller bearing

B) torsion bearing
C) spilt bearing
D) ball bearing
117
25.
The total permissible loss in a combine harvester could be of the order of
A) 6 to 10 per cent
B) 12 to 16 per cent
C) 8 to 9 per cent
D) 1.5 to 3 per cent
26.
Total Solid (TS) in fruit juice is to be increased from 15% to 50% in an

evaporator. The percentage of initial water to be removed is above.
A) 68
B) 72
C) 78
D) 82
27.
A cylindrical object having a length equal to the diameter has a sphericity of

A) 0.757
B) 0.823
C) 0.874
D) 0.952
28.
Milk flowing with an average velocity of 0.5 m/s in a pipe of diameter 25

mm has a Froude Number of.
A) 0.98
B) 1.02
C) 1.27
D) 1.54
29.
Thermal resistance of 1mm thick stainless steel sheet of 1 m2 area with a

thermal conductivity of 15 W/m-Kis.
118
A) 6.67 x 10-5 K/W

B) 9.10 x 10-2 K/W
C) 15 K/W
D) 15000K/W
30.
Value of psychometric ratio for water vapour-air mixture is about 1

KJ/Kg-K. If heat transfer coefficient is 10 W/m2-K then mass transfer
coefficient is.
A) 5.55 x 10-4 kg mole/m2-s
B) 1.80 x 10-2 kg mole/m2-s
31.
C) 1.8
kg mole/m2-s
D) 5.55
kg mole/m2-s
Three consecutive sieves and a pan retain 20 %, 50%, 20%, and 10 % of

ground material respectively. The fineness modulus of the ground material
is .
A) 1.2
B) 1.8
C) 2.4
D) 3.5
32.
A basket centrifuge of 0.5 m diameter rotating with an rpm of 2000

develops a centrifugal constant of .
A) 28.32
B) 50.97
C) 203.87
D) 1117.86
33.
Bacterial population in milk multiplies by a factor of 200 in 18 hours of

storage at 200C temperature. In 6 hours of storage at the same temperature
the multiplication factor is
119
A) 5.85
B) 14.14
C) 66.67
D) 100.00
34.
A discharge of 30 m3 /h is obtained from a 0.20 m diameter well installed

in an unconfined aquifer with a radius of influence of 500 m. If the
diameter is increased to 0.30 m and other parameters are kept constant, the
percentage increase in discharge will be.
A) 5
B) 10
C) 50
D) 100
45.
A centrifugal pump is used to deliver a constant discharge through a 0.20m

diameter pipe with a static head of 13m, minor head loss of 1 m and
frictional head loss of 2m.If the same discharge is allowed to flow through
a 0.10m diameter pipe with an increases of 2 m in the minor loss and
constant friction factor, the power requirement (P) of the pump will be.
A) 1.5 P
B) 2.0 P
C) 5.0 P
46.
The pressures of two nozzles of a sprinkler lateral are 290 and 262 kPa. If
the discharge from the first nozzle is 8 x 10-4 m3/s, the discharge from the
other nozzle will be
A) 5.6 x 10-4 m3/s
B) 6.6 x 10-4 m3/s
C) 7.6 x 10-4 m3/s
D) 8.6 x 10-4 m3/s
120
47. Citrus is planted at a spacing of 5m x 5m in 1 ha area. The maximum

evaporation during summer is 10 mm/day with pan coefficient, crop
coefficient and
wetting percent of 0.7, 0.8 and 40 respectively. If each plant is irrigated by
three emitters of 4 x 10-3 m3/h discharge each, the daily time of operation of the
system will be.
A) 16.66 h
B) 12.66 h
C) 8.66 h
D) 4.66 h
48.
The size of maximum non-erosive stream in liters per second for a furrow
of 0.3% slope will be.
A) 0.5
B) 1.0
C) 1.5
D) 2.0
49.
The minimum wind velocity at 15 m height requires moving the erodible soil
fraction is 20 km/h and the actual wind velocity is 60 km/h. A shelterbelt of
12 m height is provided for control of wind erosion and the wind direction
makes and angle of 600 with the perpendicular to the barrier. The spacing of
the shelterbelts for full protection will be.
A) 30 m
B) 34 m
C) 40 m
D) 44 m
50.
In an irrigated field the seepage from the canal is 15% of the water supplied
and the deep percolation from irrigation is 25 %. For an irrigation depth of 80
mm in every 8 days the drainage coefficient is.
121
A) 4 mm/day
B) 6 mm/day
C) 8 mm/day
D) 10 mm/day
51.
The mean monthly temperature and average percentage of daytime hours of

the year of that month for a location are 260 C and 14 respectively. If the crop
coefficient is 0.8, the monthly consumptive use by Blaney-Criddle method
will be.
A) 200 mm
B) 225 mm
C) 250 mm
D) 275 mm
52.
A herd of 100 dairy cows is fed 1300 kg of silage daily. The thickness of
silage fed each day is 100 mm. if one m3 of silage weighs 650 kg, the
diameter of pit silo will be
A) 4.54 m
B) 5.04 m
C) 5.64 m
D) 6.04 m
53.
In an offset disc harrow, the amount of offset obtainable without the side
draft is a function only of the distance (d) between the gangs and the relative
magnitudes of the longitudinal (Lf , Lt) and lateral (S) soil reactions. If Lf =
4.2 kN and Lt = 3.75 kN, S = 4.9 kN an d = 2.15 m then the amount of offset
is.
A) 1.54 m
B) 2.46 m
C) 0.8 m
122
D) 2.80 m
54.
The power required accelerating forage at a feed rate of 24 kg/s, at the cutter
head of a combine at a peripheral velocity of 29.9 m/s is equal to.
A) 13.73 kW
B) 12.48 kW
C) 10 .73 kW
D) 11.55 kW
55.
A six cylinder engine has 130 mm stroke and 109.4 mm bore. The
displacement of the engine at a compression ration of 17:1 is equal to .
A) 8.27 liters
B) 7.32 liters
C) 6.96 liters
D) 5.40 liters
56.
The amount of heat carried away from an engine and transferred from the
water to the cooling air is 184520 J/s. If the frontal area of the radiator used is
56 m2 and the heat transfer coefficient of the radiator is 100 units then the
differential
temperature between the air water is.
A) 32.950 C
B) 36.950 C
C) 40.950 C
D) 44.950 C
57.
A tractor engine on test and loaded by a hydraulic dynamometer consumed 50

cc of diesel at an applied load of 20 kg. If the engine speed is 1400 rpm then
the fuel consumption per unit power is .
A) 3.57 cc
B) 4.60 cc
C) 5.35 cc
123
D) 4.66 cc
58.
The are 10 nozzles spaced 240 mm apart on a sprayer boom. The total
discharge in one hour at an application rate of 300 liter/ha and at a forward speed of
10 km/h is
A) 900 liters
B) 860 liters
C) 800 liters
D) 720 liters
59.
If the inner and outer steering angles in a tractor are 90 and 9.80 respectively
then for correct steering condition the value of the ratio of pivot axis spacing
to
track length is equal to

A) 0.256
B) 0.525
C) 0. 756
D) 0.990
60.
The average speed of an engine connected to a pneumatic governor is 1500
rpm.If the fluctuation in speed is + 100 rpm, then per cent governor regulation is
equal to
A) 7.65
B) 10.25
C) 12.50
D) 6.67
61.
62.
The firing order of a 4-stoke 4- cylinder engine is given as

A) 1- 2- 3- 4
B) 1- 3- 2- 4
C) 1- 3- 4 -2
D) 1- 4- 3- 2
The forces resulting form piston assembly movement are given by the formula
(symbols have their usual meaning).
A) F = Mr2 (cos2 + cos 2 + -------------)
B) F = r2 (M cos2 + r cos2 2 + r cos2 3 + -----------)
L
L
124
C) F = M2 r cos + r cos 2 + ----------)

L
D) F = Mr2 cos +r cos2 2
L
6 3.
In hydraulic sprayers, the degree of atomization is primarily function of

A) liquid pressure and the nozzle characteristics
B) air velocity
C) size of the nozzle
D) size and shape of the atomizer
64.
The virtual hitch point for a directional implement is usually located

A) near the front axle
B) 40 mm towards the rear axle
C) at the power take off shaft
6 5.
D) between the two lower links
The speed regulation (SR) of a governor is related to the average speed ( N ) and
the change in speed at load (
A) SR =
N
N
N) by.
B) SR = N_
N
C) SR = 100N_
D) none of the above
6 6. An animal drawn seed drill has K number of furrow openers 180 mm apart. If
the speed of operation is 2.0 kmph, the area covered (ha), in 8-h day is given by.
A) 185
B) 28.8 x10-2 K
1000KI
C) K
D) 1.762 K
6.56
67.
The landside of a monldboard plough is made of

A) malleable iron
B) forged steel
C) C 45 steel
D) soft centre steel

125
68.
In an epicyclic gear speed reduction unit, the ratio of the number of teeth of the
annular gear to the sun gear is.
A) 3 : 1
69.
B) 4 :1
C) 2.5 : 1
D) 4.5 :1
The towed force (TF) of a pneumatic tyre is given by (symbol have their usual
meanings)
A) TF = 1.21 + 0.046
B) TF = 1.2 + 0.04
Cn
Cn
C) TF = 1.2 + 0.04
W
70.
kinetic
D) TF = 1.25W + 0.04 Cn
Cn
For a wheeled tractor with mass M and velocity v the expression for total
energy resulting from the linear motion of the tractor is given by.
A) KE = 1 Mv2
B) KE = Mv2
2
C) KE = 11 Mv2
20
71.
The main difference between flywheel and governor is that

A) flywheel is heavier than governor
B) flywheel is fixed to the crankshaft while governor is not
C) Flywheel stress energy and governor controls engine speed
72.
The most used and least efficient power outlet of a tractor is

A) power take-off shaft in the front
B) power take-off shaft in the rear
C) drawbar in the rear
73.
74.
The toe-in provided in a tractor is approximately

A) 14 to 15 mm
B) 7 to 10 mm
C) 18 to 25 mm
D) 2 mm
The size of a tractor type may be represented as

A) section height X rim width
B) section height X rim diameter
126
C) section thickness X rim diameter

D) section radius X rim width
75.
Quick sand condition is created due to

A) frictionless nature of soil
B) low value of cohesion of soil
C) upward seepage force greater than submerged weight of soil
D) downward seepage pressure
76.
The minimum wind velocity required to initiate movement of soil particle is

known as
A) critical velocity
B) threshold velocity
C) dynamic threshold
17.
18.
D) intrinsic velocity
The time of concentration of a watershed is proportional to

A) L1.77
B) S-0.385
C) L1.77 S0.385
D) S0.385
If W is the width of a bench terrace, S is the land slope, then for riser slope of
1:1, the vertical interval is given by.
A) 100-S
B) 2 WS
WS
200-S
C) 0.3 WS + 2
2
19.
In an irrigation channel the critical depth can be produced by

A) lowering the bottom and reducing the width
B) raising the bottom and reducing the width
C) raising the bottom and increasing the width
D) lowering the bottom and increasing the width
20.
The ration of volume of water added or removed directly from the saturated
aquifer to the resulting change in volume of aquifer below the water table is
called.
21.
A) apparent specific yield
B) specific yield
C) storage coefficient
D) specific storage
Sub-irrigation is useful in a situation where

127
A) saline water is used for irrigation

B) soil is heavy clay to permit high capillary rise
C) capillary movement in the root zone is rapid
D) no hard pan is present below the root zone
22.
In designing regime canal by using Laceys theory the velocity depends on

several except
23.
A) depth of water
B) hydraulic mean depth
C) slope of channel
D) Laceys silt factor
Interceptor drain helps to control water logging by

A) lowering the water table
B) preventing subsoil water from reaching the area
C) draining out excess water to natural drains
D) allowing vertical drainage
24.
25.
In a dairy farm the manger is meant for

A) breading the cattle
B) feeding the cattle
C) rearing of the calf
D) storing the feed for long period
The difference between a shallow tubewell and a deep tubewell is on the basis
of
26.
factors
A) depth of the tubewell
B) position of water table and pump
C) type of aquifer
D) depth of aquifer
For a constant discharge if the diameter of a pipe is reduced to half, other

remaining unchanged, the frictional head loss will increase by
A) 4 times
27.
B) 8 times
C) 16 times
D) 32 times
Darchs Law is valid under the condition of

A) laminar flow with Reynolds number >10
B) Reynolds number <1.0
C) Newtonian flow
D) steady uniform flow
28.
At field capacity soil moisture tension of sandy soil is approximately equal to

A) 0.1 bar
29.
B0 1.0 bar
C) 10 bar
Unit for measurement of vacuum is

128
D) 15 bar
A) kgf / cm2
30.
31.
32.
33.
B) torr
C) mm of Hg
Erguns equation is applicable to

A) turbulent flow
B) slit flow
C) porous media flow
D) laminar flow
Conduction heat transfer is quantified by

A) Fouriers law
B) Laplace law
C) Burke plummer equation
D) Blake- Kozney equation
Specific heat, coefficient of viscosity and thermal conductivity are related in

A) thermal diffiusivity
B) Prandtl number
C) Schmidt number
D) Froude number
Heat transfer coefficient in natural convection increases with increasing

A) Boit Number
B) Nusselt number
C) Grashof number
34.
Constant rate of drying is directly proportional to

A) convective heat transfer coefficient
B) latent heat of vaporization
C) wet bulb temperature
35.
Freeze drying time is directly proportional to the ------------ of the material
being
dried.
A) thickness
B) square of the thickness
C) cube of thickness
36.
37.
Decimal reduction time in microbial destruction is inversely proportional to

A) Z value
B) universal gas constant
C) initial concentration
D) reaction rate
Butter must contain ----------- % fat.

A) 60
38.
D) fourth power of thickness
B0 70
C) 80
D) 90
For a constant volume flow rate in a cream separator the square of the
separated
particle diameter is directly proportional to
A) the speed of the separator

B) the density difference between skim milk and cream
129
C) number of discs
D) coefficient of viscosity of skim milk
39.
The temperature range for ultra high temperature (UHT) sterilization of milk
is
40.
A) 90 to 1000 C
B) 100 to 1150 C
C) 135 to 1500 C
Losses of nutrients during heating of food products are guided by ----------order reaction.
A) Zero
B) First
C) second
Fill in the Blanks

1]
Single grain is having highest thermal conductivity.
2]
The term pvd/ is called as Reynold's number.
Radiator of a tractor is an example of cooling system.
5]
The SI unit of thermal conductance of the wall Kcal/m-h-oc.
6]
As the thickness of insulation increases, the rate of heat flow decreases.
8]
With usual notations, (x/KA) is called as thermal resistance of wall.
11]
The wall of several heterogeneous layers is called as composite wall
12]
Thermal diffusivity is calculated by dividing the thermal conductivity with the

product of specific heat and mass density.
13]
When Reynolds number between 2100 to 2300 then flow is termed as transit
flow region.
14)
The term C pis called as Prandtl number.

K
15]
Black body does not transmit any radiation.
16]
the mass transfer occurs due to gradient in concentration.
18]
As the thickness of insulation increases the rate of heat transfer decreases.
21]
Heat transfer by conduction follow ficks law.
22]
The heat transfer is constant when temperature remain constant with time.
23]
The thermal conductivity is expressed as W/moK

130
24]
The grashof number is expressed as 2p3 Q/2
25]
The mean radius of heat transfer for hollow sphere having r1
26]
Conduction heat transfer is quantified by ficks law.
27]
The value of emissivity for black body is a= , 7 = 0, p = 0
28]
Heat exchanger is a dvice for transferring heat from a hot stream of fluid to a
cold stream.
29)
Conduction heat transfer occurs only in solid.
30]
Stefan Boltzman law governs radiation heat transfer.
31]
In case of flow through pipe for laminer flow, Re<2100.
32]
Grashoff's number = 2p3 Q/2
33]
Prandtl number = Cp/k.
34]
in boiling, phase changes from liquid 'to vapour
35]
Mass transfer occurs cue to gradient in concentration.
36]
Radiation heat transfer takes place by means of electromagnetic waves.
38]
Natural of free convection caused by difference in density.
39]
For laminar flow re < 2100
40]
Composite wall is the wall of several heterogeneous layers.
41]
Heat transfer by conduction follows fouriers law.

a) Stefan's law
c) Fourier's law
42]
43]
44]
b) First law of thermodynamics

d) Newton's law
The term hl/k is called as nusselt number.

a) Reynold's number
b) Prandti number
c) Nusselt number
d) Fornde number
for black body = 1, = 0, p = 0

a) = 0, = 0, p = 1
b) = 1, = 0, p = 0
c) = 1, = 1, p = 0
d) all (a), (b) and (c)
The quantity of heat radiation is dependant temperature of the body only.

a) the shape of body only
b) temperature of the body only
c) area shape of body only
d) all (a), (b) and (c)
131
45]
Thermal conductivity of water __________.

a) first increase with temperature then decreases with temperature
b) increases steadily with temperature

c) decreases with temperature
d) does not depend on temperature
46]
For turbulent flow Re>2350.
47]
The heat transfer by rediation takes place by means of electromagnetic

ratiation.
48]
Momentum transfer is caused by concentration difference.
51]
hl/K is called as Nussdt number.
52]
Q/A is called as heat fhix denrity.
53]
Blank body absorbs all the radiations.
54]
Conduction heat transfer occurs in solid.
55]
The heat transfer by radiation takes place by means of electromanitic waves.
56]
Stefan boltzman law governs radiation heat transfer.
57]
For laminar flow Re<2100.
58]
Q/A is known as heat pux demity or thermal loading on heating surface.
59]
Mass transfer occurs due to gradient in wncentration.
60]
In boiling, phase changes from liquid to vapour.
61]
Heat exchanger is device for transferring heat from a hot stream of fluid to a
cold stream.
62]
The value of emmissivity for black body is one.
63]
conduction heat transfr occurs only in solids.
64]
Bg.p23 is called as Grashof's number.

2
65]
1 mm H2O is equal to 0.0001 kgf/cm2
67]
Cochran boiler is fire tube boiler.
70]
Universal gas constant of a perfect gas is always constant.
73]
When n=0 the process is called isobaric process.
74]
When temperature remains constant throughout the process it is referred as

isothermal.
132
75]
Change in entropy for isothermal process carried on a gas whose specific

valume changes from v1and v2 and pressure changes from p1 and p2 is given by
s = -R/oge (p2/p1)
76]
The properties which are dependant of mass are said to be extensive
77]
One pascal pressure is equal to 10-5 bar.
78]
Second law of thermodynamics states that is impossible to construct an

engine which while operating in a cycle produces no other effect to extract heat
from a single reservoir and do equivalent amount of work.
79]
The Sp. heat at constant volume is less than Sp. heat at constant pressure.
80]
The reversible adiabatic process is known as isentropic.
81]
the heating of a gas at constant pressure is governed by charl's law.
82]
In an isothermal process internal energy remains constant.
83]
Theoretically the entropy is zero at absolute zero temperature.
84]
The sum of (U + UV) is known as enthalpy.
85]
The change in entropy when heat is absorbed by the gas is positive.
86]
The energy required to move the substance against it's pressure is known as
flow work.
87]
Throttling is a irreversible process.
88]
In heat engine, the heat reservoir at a lower temperature is called sink.
89]
Universal gas constant of a perfect gas is 8314 J/Lg mole ok.
90]
Total volume of a system is its extensive property.
91]
The dryness faction of dry saturated system is one.
92]
When n=0, the process is called as isobaric process.
93]
When temperature remains constant throughout the process, it is referred as

isothermal.
94]
Change in entropy for isothermal process carried on a gas whose specific

volume changes from v1 to v2 and pressure changes from p1 to p2 is given by
s = - RLge (p2/p1).
95]
The properties which are dependant of mass are said be extensive.
96]
One pascal pressure is equal to 10-5 bar.
97]
II law states that it is impossible to construct an engine which while operating

133
in a cycle produces no other effect to extract heat from a single reservoir and
do equivalent amount of work.
98]
One bar = 7.5 x 102 mm of Hg.
99]
Universal gas constant of a perfect gas is 8314 J/Lg mole ok.
100] Lancashire boiler is water tube boiler.

101] The unit of entropy is kJ/Kg.
102] Total volume of system is its extensive property.
103] One Pascal pressure is equal to 10-5 bar.
106] Change in internal energy during isothermal process is constant.
107] Internal energy of a gas is function of pressure & volume.
108] Conveyer belt is supported at intermediate points by rollers at closer spacing on
load carrying side.
109] LSU dryer is a continuous flow type.
110] Efectie gasket seating width, b is equal to basic gasket seating width, b0 for b0
< 6.3 mm.
113] Crop slow and progressive deformation of a material with time under constant
stress.
114] in screw conveyor the initial cost of the conveyor is lower than any other
conveyor with the same length and capacity.
115] Evaporators are designed for an external pressure 0.1 N/mm2.
117] A spirator is used for separating fire particles from solids.
118] Ductility is a measure of deformability of the material, determined by the
percentage of elongation or reduction of area.
119] A screw conveyor can be used upto a maximum of 200 inclination from
horizontal.
120] The product is not thrown well clear of the buckets into the discharges chute, it
will fall in the down leg is called as back logging.
121] Belt conveying system is comparatively cheaper.
122] A device used for transferring or exchanging energy in the form of heat
between two fluids is known as Heat exchanger.
123] LSU dryer is continuous type of grain dryer.
134
124] In a single effect evaporator, the economy is <l.

127] Evaporators are designed for a external pressure of O/ N/mm2.
129] Fatigue represents the failure of the material when subjected to application of
cyclic load.
130] A crew conveyer can be used up to a maximum of 210 inclination from
horizontal.
131] Strength represents the capacity of material to withstand external forces.
132] Stiffness or rigidity is a measure of the ability of the material to resist
deformation.
135] Magnetic separator are used to handle finely divided powders, damp sticky
and granular materials.
136] Aspiration, scalping and cleaning are the steps in processing.
137] Sorghum should be dried at a temperature not more than 120c for seed purpose.
138] Belt conveyor is the least efficient material handling equipment to lift the
grains vertically.
139]
Porosity is determined by
PD
1 - BD
x 100
141] Fineness indicates the uniformity of grind in resultant product.

142] Study of deformation and flow is called theology Rheology.
143] In cold season, spoilage of grains occur at the surface of the bin.
144] Sphericity = Geometric mean diameter/ major diameter.
145] Fineness modulus indicated the uniyorming of grind in resultant product.
146) The critical M.C. occurs between the constant rate and falling rate periods.
148] Inclined belt separator separates the grains on there basis of shope.
content on dry basis.
151] The E.M.C. is zero at 0-1 RH.
159] Drying involves both heat and mass transfer operations simultaneously.
161] The differences between the dry bulb temperature and wet bulb temperature is
called Average x.
163] Indent cylinder separator separates the grains on the basis of Shape.
135
167] The end point of constant rate period shows 12% moisture content.
168] Roundness is a measure of sharpness of the corner of the solid.
174] LSU dryer was developed at Louisiana USA 1949.
175] The modern facilities for storing grains in bulk is called as grading.
176] Attrition mill reduces the size of materials by Shear & Crushing.
178] Grading of seeds on the basis of differences in length takes place in Disc
separator.
179] Fineness modulus indicates the uniformity.
180] Specific gravity separator separates the grain on the basis of density/ specific
gravity
181] Screw conveyors are used to handle finely divided powders, damp, sticky, and
granular.
188] Grading of seeds on the basis of differences in length takes place in Disc
separator.
189] Finencess modulus indicates the uniformity of grind in the resultant product.
191] Flour meal is a trade term used relative to the reduction of grain into meal or
flour.
192] Screw conveyors are used to handle finely divided powders, damp, sticky and
granular.
196] Roundness is the measure of the sharpness of the corners of fruits.
201] Weight basis moisture is important physical property for the design of storage
structure.
202] Pectin is important for fruit Jelly formation.
206] Rheology is a science devoted to the study of deformation and flow.
207] The ratio CO2 to O2 is termed as respiration quotient.
208] Respiration rate per unit weight is incren for the immature fruit or vegetable.
209] Weight basis moisture content is more commonly used in drying calculations.
212] Steam is vapourised water.
213] Frezing point of milk is always lower than water and veries with composition
of the milk.
214] Reynolds number for streamine flow <2100.
136
215] Milk is pasteurize at 62.80C for 30 min or at 720C for 15 sec.

218] Volume of milk increases with increase in temp.
219] Milk is pasteurized at 62.80C for 30 minutes.
220] When n=1, the fluids are called newtonian fluids.
221] Milk powder is prepared by drying the milk in spray dryer.
226] Triple point for water occurs at 0.00980C temperature and 0.64 Kp pressure.
229] Brines are used in canning of vegetables.
230] The freezing point of normal milk is -0.550C and boiling point is 100.50C at
STP.
231] Sugar concentration is measured brix units.
232] Plot heat exchanger is very popular in dairy industry.
233] Freezing point of milk is always lower than water and varies with composition
of the milk.
234] Chilling of foods is a process by which their temperature is reduced to 2 to 20C.
235] Man and energy balance are the basic for evaporator.
236] Boiling occurs when the vapon pubur of the water is equal to the total
pursure on the water surface.
237] The acidity of milk is due to lautic acid.
239] Milk powder is prepared by spray dryer.
241] Fat globule size distribution is determined by forrd index.
242] The stickey property of milk is due to Loctosel suqar.
244] The dimensions of acceleration are [M0LT-2].
247] Pectin is important for fruit Jelly formation.
250] Triple point of water is at 0.00980C and 0.64 K Pa pressure.
252] Boiling occurs when the vapour pressure of the wate is equal to the total
pressure on the water surface.
254] Sugar concentration is measured in brix units.
255] Mass and energy balances are the basic for evaporator calculation.
256] Fat globules in normal milk are of 1 to 15 microns in size.
258] Milk is 501 type emulsion.
137
261] The rise in concentration of CO2 is an redmtion of oxygen consumption.

264] Prandtl No. = Cpm/k.
266] The emmisivity of a surface = Emissive power of surface /total pale 010.
268] The thermal conductivity of solid metals increases with rise in temperature.
272] Critical temperature and critical pressure of refrigeration should be higher.
273] Wet bulb depression is the difference between dry bulb temp and wet bulb
temperature.
274] Relative humidity of air will decrease with decrease of temperature.
275] Relative humidity (decreases/increases/remains constant) during sensible
cooling.
276] Expansion valve is located at the (inlet/outlet/far away) of evaporator.
277] Capillary tube is used in (small/medium/high capacity) refrigiration plant.
278] By-pass factor (increases/decreases/remains constant) with increase in air
velocity.
279] Heat that enters through crecks of doors windows, walls etc. is called
(sunload/wall gain load/ infiltration load)
280] The equilibrium moistrue content is zero at 0.1 relative humidity.
281] In deed layer drying thickness of grin is upto 20 cm.
283] 12% moisture content is used mainly by research workers.
284] Rotary dryer is continuous type of grain dryer.
138
Set B
1.
Operating a tractor with restrained links rather than free links

A) reduces the vertical load on the rear wheels
B) provides lower tractive ability
C) results in smaller depth fluctuations caused by ground-surface irregularities
2.
The method which depreciates the tractor of machine to zero at the end of its
expected life is known as
A) estimated value
B) sum-of the digits
C) declining balance
D) straight line
3.
A power tiller is most suited for rotary cultivation because

A) it generates negative draft
B) its traction requirement is low
C) it provides high degree of soil pulverization
D) all of the above
4.
in
The volumetric efficiency of a turbo-charged diesel tractor engine is typically

the range of
A) 90 to 100 per cent
B) 100 to 150 per cent
C) 150 to 200 per cent
D) 200 to 250 per cent
5.
The type of furrow opener recommended for use in hard or trashy ground and
also in wet, sticky soils is
A) single disc type
B) stub runner type
C) full or curved runner type
D) hoe type
6.
In axial flow power threshers, a spike tooth cylinder is preferred over a rasp bar
139
cylinder
because
A) it has more positive feeding action
B) it requires less power
C) it does not plug as easily
D) all of the above
7.
When differential lock is engaged in a two-wheel drive tractor

A) the two axle torques must be equal
B) the two axle torques are not necessarily equal
C) the power transmitted to both axles must be same
D) neither axle can transmit more torque than is permitted by the wheel with
the
8.
poorest traction
The type of starting aid generally used in diesel power tiller is
A) glow plug
B) thermo start
C) decompression lever
D) intake manifold surrounded by exhaust manifold
9.
When the amount of torque to be transmitted is very high an frequency of

occurrence of overload is low, the type of safety device that can be employed in
a farm machine is
A) safety jump clutch
B) safety shear pin
C) safety friction cultch
D) V belt
10.
The most common fertilizer metering device used in a seed cum fertilizer drill
is
A) revolving bottom plate
B) vertical rotor with grooves
C) adjustable opening with agitator disc
D) star wheel
140
11.
For tractor conditions the desired temperature drop in the water as it passes
form
the top of the radiator to the bottom should lie in the range of
A) 2.5 to 5.5 0C
B) 5.5 to 8.50C
C) 8.5 to 11.50C
D) 11.5 to 14.50C
12.
The lateral stability of a four wheel tractor in a turning situation can be

increased by
A) increasing the radius of the turn
B) increasing the height of the centre of gravity
C) attaching a front end loader
D) increasing the total weight of the tractor
13.
The undamped natural frequency of wheel of tractors generally lies in the range
of
A) 5 to 10 Hz
B) 10 to 15 Hz
C) 15 to 20 Hz
D) 20 to 25 Hz
14.
The theoretical length of cut in a field chopper can be increased by

A) increasing the number of knives
B) decreasing the peripheral speed of the feed rolls
C) increasing the rotational speed of the cutter head
D)none of the above
15.
A line makes an angle 450 to horizontal. The slope of the line is

A) 1 percent
B) 50 percent
C) 90 percent
D) 100 percent
16.
The brake horse power of a centrifugal pump varies directly

A) as the speed of the impeller
B) as the square of the speed of the impeller
141
C) as the cube of the speed of the impeller

D) as the fourth power of the speed of the impeller
17.
The conjunctive use of water in a basin means

A) combined use of water for irrigation and hydro power generation
B) use of water by co-operative farmers
C) use of water for irrigation both rabi and kharif crops
D) combined use of surface and ground water resources
18.
The safe entrance velocity through a well screen is

A) 0.3 mm/s
B) 3 mm/.s
C) 30 mm/s
D) 300 mm/s
19.
Cavity wells with blind pipe

A) do not have strainers and water enters from bottom only
B) do not have strainers and water enters from sides only
C) have strainers and water enters from bottom only
D) have strainers and water enters from both bottom and sides
20.
In a simply supported beam the bending moment at zero shear force will be
A) zero
B) maximum
C) minimum
D) any value between maximum and minimum
21.
At optimum soil moisture content, the dry density of soil will be

A) maximum
B) average
C) minimum
D) zero
22.
Hydrometry is the
A) practice of using hydrometer
B) science of hydrograph analysis
C) science of measurement of flow
142
D) subject of hydrology dealing with rivers

23.
A unit hydrograph has

A) one unit of peak discharge
B) one unit of time base of direct runoff
C) one unit of rainfall duration
D) one unit of direct runoff
24.
Table top bench terraces are suitable for areas receiving

A) medium uniformly distributed rainfall with medium permeable deep
soils
B) heavy rainfall with permeable deep soils
C) low rainfall with permeable deep soils
D) very high rainfall with permeable shallow soils
25.
soil detachability increases as the

A) size of particle reduces
B) size of particle increases
C) impact angle of raindrop reduces
D) length of slope reduces
26.
In a stall barn, the floor space required for each cow is between
A) 3.5 to 5.5 m2
B) 5.6 to 7.5 m2
C) 7.6 to 9.5 m2
D) 9.6 to 11.6 m2
27.
Paddy is normally stored at

A) 12 per cent moisture content on dry basis
B) 12 per cent moisture content on wet basis
C) 15 per cent moisture content on wet basis
D) 15 per cent moisture content on dry basis
28.
Dry ice is known as

A) Solidified water kept in moisture free environment
B) solidified Freon-12
C) solidified carbon dioxide
143
D) solidified nitrogen
29.
Most spoilage and pathogenic bacteria those contaminate food materials have
water activity in the range of
A) 0.91 to 0.99
B) 0.86 to 0.90
C) 0.81 to 0.85
D) 0.75 to 0.80
30.
Under the most ideal conditions a bacterium may reproduce itself as often as
A) every 20 to 30 seconds
B) every 20 to 30 minutes
C) every 20 to 30 hours
D) every 2 to 3 days
31.
The orange color of tomato is due to

A) Chlorophyll A
B) Anthocyanins
C) Xanthans
D) Lycopene
32.
Presumptive test is found positive for

A) E. Coli
B) B. Coli
C) Lactobacillus bulgaricus
D) Clostridium botulinum
33.
The differential speed of rolls of wheat mill is

A) 2.0:1
B) 2.5:1
C) 3.0:1
D) 3.5:1
34.
of
One tonne of refrigeration is equivalent to the heat required to melt one tonne
ice in
A) 6 h
B) 12 h
144
C) 18 h
D) 24 h
35.
Calorific value of rice husk is approximately

A) 1.25 x 104 KJ/kg
B) 2.33 x 104 KJ/kg
C) 4.65 x 104 KJ/kg
D) 4.94 x 104 KJ/kg
36.
If a fat globule of 4 mm in diameter moves upwards at a velocity of 1.06 mm/h

the velocity of fat globule which is twice this size will be
A) 2.12 mm/h
B) 3.18 mm/h
C) 4.24 mm/h
D) 5.30 mm/h
37.
Chhana balls are expanded due to

A) protein denaturation
B) differential vapour pressure
C) shortage of lactose
D) osmotic pressure
38.
Energy required to break a drop of liquid into small droplets will depend
mainly
on
A) the surface tension of the liquid

B) the viscosity of the liquid
C) the density of the liquid
D) the heat capacity of the liquid
145
COMPUTER
What is the binary equivalent of the decimal number 20.
A) 1010 B) 1111
C) 1110
D) 1000
What is the decimal equivalent of the hex number 2 F

A) 46
B) 47
C) 56
D) 89
Which of the following is not an internet browser ?

A) Lynx B) Joe
C) NetScape Navigator
D) Internet Explorer
Name of two high level languages

A) C++ MsWord
B) Interl Param
C) C++ and FORTRAN
D) Internet Explorer, Basic.
An Operating System which is Both multiuser and multitasking.

A) Unix
B) MsDOS
B) Windows 95
D) StarOffice
Pentium III, Pentium II, Celeron etc are the names of

A) CPU
B) ALU
C) Memory
D) IO Units.
WWW stands for

A) World Wide Wearlth
B) Wide World Web
B) World Wide Web
Transition effects, Animation effects are words used in the context of

A) Statistical Analysis
B) Document Preparation
C) Presentation
D) Spread Sheet.
For elementary statistical calculations one can conveniently use.

A) Spread Sheet
B) C++ Programming
B) Internet
D) Word Processor
If one has to simply see the contents page by page of a file xyz, What command
should be used.
A) More XYZ B) dir XYZ C) Show XYZ
D) type XYZ
To List out the names of files in current directory, with file size date of creation etc,
what would be the command?
146
A) Is
B) Is-Is
C) Is ( filename)
D) Filename) Is
To list of the files whose name begins with mau in the current directory the command
would be:
A) Is mau?
C) Is Is mau
B) Is mau*
D) dir mau
If / home and / home/ XYZ are two directories then

A) / homer is the parent directory
B) /
B)
D.
/home/XYZ is the parent directory
is the parent dir.

/ XYZ is the parent dir.
Command to compile a C- program Using funcrion sqrt () in file mkv. c is

A) Gcc- O mkv mkv.c
B) Gcc- Im Omkv mkv.c
C) Gcc- O mkv .c mkv
D) gcc-o mkv
mkv.c Im
The command Joe pract 2 .c is wrong. What is the corrent usage?

A) Pract2.
C) Joe
B) joe Pract2
C joe
pract2.c
D) None of the abve
What command should I use to get help on the function srandom on my VDU?
A) man srandom
B) srandom C) help srandom
Cat /home/a00p24/pract7.c >
/dev/lpo will print file pract 7 situated in the
directory_______________.
A)
/home
C) /dev/1p0
B)
/home/a00p24
D) It will print nothing.
Examples of storage devices which uses magnetization as the principle.

A) Floppy disk
B) Hard Disk ,CD
C) Magnetic tape, floppy disk
D) Management type, CD
Dot Matrix, Ink Jet, Laser refer t different types of

A) Date storage units
B) Optical Scanners
C) Printers
D) Vedeo cameras
To connect your PC to INTERNET through a telephone you require

A) Fax Machine
B) UPS
B) MODEM
D) HUB
2KB is equal to
147
A) 2000 Bytes
B) 2048 Bytes
B) 2048 bits
D) 200 Bytes
Most popular Floppies used now a days are of size.

A) 3.5
B) 5.25
C) 10
D) 8
The loop for ( i=0; i<5; i+=2) {

A) 5
B) 6
The loop
will execute__times
C) 3
D) 4
for (i=0; i=9; i+=5) {
} will execute for.
A) I=0 , 1, 2, 3, 4
B) i=0, 9
B) i=0, 5, 10
D) i=0, 5
x (3) = {3.1, 2.3
4.8); what is the value of x (2) + x [3] ?
A) Not defined
B) 7.1
B) 5.4
D) 4.8
One of the following is not a legal email address;

A) has@kv2.g8.net
B)hsamau@rediffmail.com
B) Hsamau.rediffmail@com
D)has@hotmail.com
Lines of the type
# included <math.h> are called (in C)
A) Preprocessor instruction
B) Batch Preprocessing instruction
C) Branching instruction
D) Compiler instruction
Ms Word is a part of
A) MAUSTAT
B) UNIX applications
B) MS Window applications
D) Star Office
MS Excel is a part of
A) Disk Operating System
B) Linux Applications
B) MS Windows applications
D) Email Software
Inventory control could be an application of

A) DBMS, RDBMS
B) World Processing
B) Web Page design
System which can process TEXT, SOUND and Color Graphic is called
148
A) Video Player
B) Multimedia
C) Graphic Software
D) Scanner
Mouse is device which can

A) INPUT
B) OUTPUT
c) I-O
D) Neither Input onr Out Put
Networking of computers spreed over a large areais called

A) World Wide WEB
B) LAN
B) WAN
D) HUB
Mail sent with, the help of network of computers is called ?

A) E- mail
B) SMS
B) Fax
What is the sequence of keys you use to log out of your terminal?
A) Alt + d
B) ctrl+d
B) Ctrl + alt+del
D) shift+d
What is the type of terminal you are using for text only processing?
A) Vt100
B)vt220
C) AT386
D) None of the Above
Gist is a technology of C-DAC, India which converts your terminal into

A) Multilingul terminal B) Graphic terminal
C) Multimedia
Random number generation requires two C- functions.

A) Scan f( ) and srandom( )
B) random ( )
and print f(
B) Random ( ) and srandom( ) D) None of these

The code printf (%7.2f, 34.568945); will print the number as
A) 3.456
B) 3.4568945 e- 01 C) 34.56
D)34.5689450
If a is an integer variable the association a = - 2.08 will give value to a :

A) -2
B) 2
C)2.0
D)2.08
Many financial and statistical functions are available in

A) Word Processor
B) Spread Sheet
149
B) Image Processor
D) Operating System
The number -45 is a constant of date type int. What is the date type of the number
-7. 890?
A) Double
B) float
C) char
D) int.
If i = 5, what is the value of (i++)/2 ?

A) 2.5
B)2
C)3
D) None of these
One of the following is not a software Identify

A) MS Office
B) MODEM
B) The C- Compiler
D) DOS
One of the following is not a Hardware. Identify?

A) LAN Card
B) Hard Disk
B) Joe- Editor
D) Scanner
Problem of determining a relationship of the from Y=a + bx is called

A) ANOVA
B) linear regression
B) Multiple regression
D) Digitization
The Cell D5 on a spread sheet is in the

A) 4th row and 4th column
B) 4th row and 5th column
C) 5th row and 5th column
D) 5th row and 4th column
The range C10:D15 on a spread sheet refers to

A) Whole of the work sheet
B) Whole of colums C and D
B) Exactly 12 cells
D) Exactly 10 cells
Contents of D5, D6, E5, E6 are ,3 5, 7, 9. The cell E7 contains the formula =- SUM
(D5:E6)
A) 12
B) 10
C) 24
D)21
The contents of Cell D17 are 0.05 Then function = TINV (D17, 24) gives the
A) Value of t for df = 24
B) Value of t for df = 17 and p = 0.05
B) Value of t for p= 0.05
D) Value of t for p= 0.05 and df= =24
Which of the following storage devices can be carried around?

A) Registers
B) core Memory
150
B) Floppy disks
D) Hard disks
SQL, DBASE and FOX Base can be implemented as

A) System Softwere
B) Application Software
B) Communication Software
D) All the above
The man considered to be Father of computing is

A) Charles Babbage
B) Herman Hollerith
B) Bill Gates
D) Narayana Murthy
John von Neumann is credited with

A) Developing first compuer
B) concept of stored programs
B) Designing analytics engine
D) concept of world wide web
ELECTRICITY & OTHER ENERGY SOURCES

.1 Vacuum tubes are classified according to the
A. Number of electrodes B. Type of electrodes C. Level of vacuum
2. Electron tube device in which the flow of electron is through Vacuum is called as
A. Vacuum tube
B. Transistor
C. valve
3 In a triode valve, grid voltage controls the

A. Plate resistance
B. Plate current
c. Mutual conductance
4 The ratio of change in plate current to change in grid voltage is called as

A.Mutual conductance
B. Amplification factor
C. Plate resistance
Q.5 The amplification factor for triode, in comparison to pentode, is

A. High
B. Low
C. Comparable.
Q.6 For constant plate voltage, the negative grid voltage at which the plate current
becomes zero is called as
A. Zero bias voltage
B. Grid cutoff
C. Plate cutoff B .
Q.7 In if a triode u=20 & rp= 8000 ohms mutual conductance is

A. 2.5 mmho
B. 25 mmho
C 2.5 mmho
Q.8 When a suitable impurity is added to a semiconductor, its conduction properties

A. Do not change
B. Change appreciably
151
C. Cannot say.
Q.9 A semiconductor in its purest form is called as

A. Extrinsic semiconductor B. Intrinsic semiconductor C. None
Q .10 The no. of electrons in the outermost orbit of germanium and silicon are A.8
B.4
C.1
Q .11 Valency of the impurity added to a semiconductor to form n-type material is

A.3
B. 5
C. 9
Q .12 The valency of impurty added to a 3emiconductor to form p-type material is

A.3
B. 5
C. 7
Q.13 Extrinsic semiconductors are electrically

A. Negative
B. Positive
C. Neutral
Q.14 When a pn junction is forward biased the potential barrier

A. Increases
B. Decreases
C. No effect
Q.15 When a pn projunction is reverse biased the potential barrier

A. Increases
B. Decreases
C. No. effect
Q.16 Approximately, the forward resistance of a pn junction is

A. >2 kilo-ohms
B. About 500 ohms
C. < 100 ohms
Q .17 A rectifier converts

A. dc voltage to ac B. ac voltage to dc
C. None
Q .18 An inverter converts

A. dc voltage to ac B. ac voltage to dc
C. None
Q.19 Diode is a
A. Bidirectional device B. Unidirectional device C. Both
Q.20 The maximum efficiency of a HWR is
A. 40.6%
B. 81.2 %
C. More than 81 %
Q.21 The maximum efficiency of a Full Wave Rectifier is

A. 40.6 %
B. 81.2 %
C. More than 81 %
Q.22 In HWR, ripple factor is

A. 0.48,
B. 1.21
C. More than 2
Q.23 In FWR, ripple factor is

A. 0.48
B. 1.21
C. More than 2
Q. 24 In the o/p of a HWR as compared to dc component, a.c. component is A. More

152
B. Less
C. Cannot say
Q.25 In the o/p of FWR, as compared to d.c. component, a.c. component is .

A. More
B. Less
C. Cannot say
Q.26 In HWR, frequency of ripple voltage is

A. Same as frequency of i/p
B. Twice the frequency of i/p
c. Half of the frequency of i/p
Q.27 If is the frequency of i/p in FWR, the ripple frequency in the output is
A. f
B. 2f
C. 0.5 f
Q.28 A zener diode is used as a

A. Rectifier
B. Regulator
C. Filter
Q.29 The number of pn junctions in a transistor are

A. 3
B. 2
C. 1
Q.30 Majority charge carriers is pnp transistor are

A. Electrons
B. Holes
C. Both
Q.31 Majority change carriers in npn transistor are

A. Electrons
B. Holes
c. Both
Q.32 In a transistor, B-E junction is always

A. Forward based B. Reverse based
C. Not based
Q.33 In a transistor, C-B junction is always

A. Forward biased
B. Reverse biased
C. Not biased
Q.34 In a transistor emitter is,

A. Lightly doped
B. Heavily doped
C. Moderately doped Q.35 In a
transistor, collector is
A. Lightly doped
B. Heavily doped
C. Moderately doped Q.36 In
B. Heavily doped
C. Moderately doped Q.37 In a
a transistor, base is
A. Lightly doped
transistor, order of width of Base, Emitter & Collector is

A. Collector > Emitter > Base
B. E > C> B
C. E > B > C
Q.38. In a transistor, if IE, IB & IC are emitter current base current and collector
153
current respectively, then

A. IB + lE = Ic
B. iB + Ic = lE
c. lE + Ic = IB
Q.39 Transistor is a
A. Current controlled device
B. Voltage controlled device
C. None of these
Q.40 The emitter current amplification factor (alpha) is always
A. More than 1
B. Less than 1
C. None of these
Q.41 The base current amplification factor Beta is equal to

A. Alpha x (l-Alpha)
B. Alpha /(l-Alpha)
C.
Alpha
(l
Alpha)
Q.42 The i/p resistance of a transisor circuit in common collector type connection is
A. Very high
B. Very low
C. Cannot say
Q.43 In common emitter amplifier, phase difference between input & output is A. 90
B. 180
C. 0
Q.44 The zero signal values of Vce and Ic are known as

A. Zero Bias point
B. Operating point
C. None
Q.45 In a transistor circuit if Vcc = 10 v, Rc = 4 k ohm whereas quiscent Current is 1

mA, operating points is
A. 10 V, 1 mA
B. 6 V, 1 mA
C. 5 V, 1 mA
Q. 46 Performance of a transistor amplifier is determined by

A) i/p resistance
B. o/p resistance
G. Gain
D. All
Q.47 A change of 200 mv in B-E voltage of a transistor causes a change of 100 micro
amp in IB. The i/p resistance of the transistor is,
A. 200 ohms
B. 2000 ohms
C. 20 ohms
Q.48 In a transistor, for faithful amplification,

A. B-E junction should be forward biased
B. C-E reverse biased C. Both
Q.49 Purpose of input capacitor in a CE amplifier is to avoid
A. Change in dc bias condition
B. Very high input voltage
C. feedback
154
Q.50 In a CE self biased transistor amplifier, the purpose of bypass Capacitor Ce is

A. Bypass the ac current
B. Avoid feedback
C. Both
Q. 51 In a CE self biased transistor amplifier, the purpose of emitter resistance RE is
to provide
A. Stabilization
B. Emitter bias
C. Feedback
Q.52 In a CE transistor amplifier input current & output current are

A. In phase
B. out of phase
C. None
Q.53 In a CE transistor amplifier input voltage and output current are

A. Out of phase
B. In phase
C. None
Q.54 In a transistor amplifier, when collector current flows for entire cycle of the
input voltage, it is classified as
A. Class A amplifier
B. Class B amplifier
C. Class C amplifier
Q.55 In a transistor amplifier, when collector current flows for half cycle of the input,
it is classified as
A. Class A amplifier
B. Class B amplifier
C. Class C amplifier Q.56 In a
transistor amplifier ratio of output voltage to input voltage is called as

A. Voltage gain
B. Sensitivity
C. Resolution
Q. 57 In a two stage amplifier, if individual gain of the two stages is 10 and 20

respectively, the overall gain would be
A. 10
B. 200
C. 20
Q.58 Range of frequency over which the gain of the amplifier is more than 70.7 % of
the maximum gain, is called
A. High gain range
B. Bandwidth
C. Frequency response Q.59 If
power gain of an amplifier is 100, in decibel units it is expressed as A. 10 db

B. l00 db
C. 20 db
Q.60 Gain of 40 db of an amplifier, when expressed as a number, is

A. 40
B. 10,000
C. 100
Q.61 Two single stage amplifiers having gain 60 each with Rc=500 ohms and input
resistance= 1 kilo ohm, are cascaded through Rc coupling. The overall gain would be
A. 3600
B. 2397
C. 60
155
Q.62 When Rc coupled and transformer coupled amplifiers are compared, the
frequency response of transformer coupled amplifier is
A. Similar
B. Poor
C. better
Q.63 When Rc coupled and transformer coupled amplifiers are compared, impedance
matching in Rc coupled amplifier is
A. Poor B. Excellent C. Similar
Q.64 With negative feedback, noise in amplifier
A. Do not change
B. Reduced
C. Increased
Q.65 The process of injecting a fraction of output to the input of an amplifier is known
as
A. Feedback
B. +ve feedback
C. -ve feedback
Q. 66 With negative feedback, the gain of an amplifier

A. Increases
B. Decreases
C. Do not change
Q. 67 When negative feedback is employed, the gain of an amplifier falls from 140 to
17.5. The fraction feedback is
A. 8
B. 1/8
C. 1/20
Q.68 d.c. power can be converted in to sinusoidal a.c. of desired frequency using
A. Oscillator
B. Inverter
C. Both
Q.69 When a capacitor and an inductor are connected in parallel, it is known as a

A. Electronic circuit
B. Tank circuit
C. Oscillator circuit
Q.70 A tank circuit having inductance L and capacitance C produces oscillations of
frequency, (pi=: 3.142)
A. 2pi Sqrt (LC)
B. 1/2pi Sqrt (LC)
C. 2pi/Sqrt (LC) Q.71
For an oscillator to work, the product of gain and feedback fraction should be
A. More than 1
B. 1
c. Less than 1
Q. 72 An oscillator circuit employs

A. +ve feedback
B. -ve feedback
C. No feedback A.
Q. 73 Energy of a wave is proportional to its

A. Phase
B. Frequency
C. None of these
Q. 74 When an audio signal is superimposed on a high frequency wave the process is

156
called as
A. Demodulation
B. Modulation
C. HP transmission
Q.75 The process of changing some characteristic of a carrier wave, in accordance

with signal to be transmitted, is known as
A. Demodulation
B. Modulation
C. None of these
Q.76 The ratio of change in amplitude of carrier wave to its original amplitude is
called
A. Modulation ratio
B. Modulation factor C. Amplitude modulation
Q. 77 When a carrier wave is not modulated, the modulation factor is

A. 1
B. 0
C. Infinity
Q.78 If modulation factor=l, the power carried by sidebands is

A. 0%
B. 11.1%
C. 33.3%
Q. 79 Efficiency of transmission in frequency modulation, as compared to Amplitude

modulation, is
A. High
B. Low
C. Cannot say
Q.80 Open circuit gain of an op amp is

A. Very high
B. Very low
C. Moderate
Q.81 Free running multivitrator is also called as

A. Astable
B. Bistable
C. Monostable
Q.82 The width of data bus in intel 8085 microprocessor is

A. 4 bits
B. 8 bits
C. 8 bytes
Q.83 Width of address bus in intel 8085 is

A. 8 bits
B. 16 bits
C. 8 bytes
Q.84 The common communication path in a microprocessor is called as

A. interface
B. Bus
C. Array
Q. 85 In a Microprocessor based system, A to D converter is an

A. Output device
B. Input device
C. Can not be interfaced
Q.86 All peripherals in a microprocessor based system

A. Share same bus B. Have different bus
C. Do not need bus
Q.87 All the operations of 8085 microprocessor are in the form of

A. 16 bit words
B. 8 bit words
157
C. 4 bit words
Q.88 In a transistor, if alpha =0.99. Beta is

A. 99
B. 0.01
C. 1/0.99
Q.89 A decimal number 13 is repressed in binary system as

A. 1011
B.1101
C.1110
Q.90 In half wave rectifier, ripple factor is

A. Less than 1
B. More than 1
C. Equal to 1
Q.91 Rectification is a function of

A. Transistor
B. Triode
C. Diode
Q.92 NAND gate can be converted to NOT gate

A. False
B. True
Q.93 A zener diode is always connected with

A. Forward bias
B. Reverse bias
C. None of these
Q.94 1 Ampere equals

A. 1,000,000 nano Amp
B. 1,000,000,000 nano Amp
C. 1,000 nano Amp

Q.95 Amplifiers are coupled to
A. Reduce noise
B. Increase gain
c. Increase input resistance

Q.96 Temp. coefficient of resistance of semiconductor is
A. Positive
B. Negative
C: Cannot say
Q.97 In a practical CE amplifier, number of batteries used for biasing the circuit are
A. One
B. Two
C. Three
Q.98 An assembly language program,

A. Can directly be executed B. Should be converted to machine language
Q.99 The binary number 1011 represents the decimal number
A. 13
B. 11
C.22
Degree of exactness in measurement is

A. accuracy
B. Precision
Ratio of change in output to change in input is called

A. Resolution
B. Precision
C. Sensitivity
158
c. Error
Difference between true value & measured value is

A. Accuracy
B. Error
C. None of these
When error is expressed as relative error, size of error decreases with

A. True value
B. Measured value
C. Both of these
Static error in an instrument includes
A. Mistakes
B. Instrumental errors
C. Random errors
D. All these
Speed of response & lag in an instrument are

A. Static characteristics
B. Dynamic Characteristics
c. None of these
In a thermometer with range 0 to 100 c & accuracy of + l. 0.5% of full scale value, the
error in reading of 55 c is
A. +/- 0.275 c
B. +/- 0.5 c C. +/- 5 c
A pressure gauge of range 20 bar has error of +/- 0.25 bar, then % error on full scale
basis is
A. +/- 5% C
B. +/- 0.125%
C. +/- 1.25%
The accuracy limits of three components in a system are +/- 0.2 %.

+/- 1.1% & +/- 0.7%. The maximum possible error is
A. 2%
B. 1.1%
C.0.2%
A pressure gauge reads 48 kg/sq.cm for a pressure of 50 kg/sq.cm. The relative error
is
A. 2%
B. 4%
C.1%
The maximum error in an instrument with range of200 to 1200 deg. c and accuracy of
+1- 0.25 % is
A. 2.5 deg. celcius B. 3 deg. celcius
C. None of these
The instruments which give value of the measurand in terms of its deflection &
constants only are ..
A. Secondary Instruments
B. Deflecting Instruments
C. Absolute instruments
The instruments precalibrated by comparison with absolute instruments are
159
A. Calibrated instruments
B. Secondary instruments
C. absolute instrument
In an indicating instrument, essential force is
A. Restoring torque
B. Deflecting torque
C. Damping torque
D. All these
In an Indicating instrument, a spring attached to the pointer provides

A. Damping torque
B. Controlling torque
C. Deflecting torque
In an indicating instrument, when controlling torque is provided by the gravity

control, the torque is proportional to
A. the angle
B. sin(angle)
C. cos(angle)
In moving iron electrical measuring instruments, the deflecting torque is proportional

to
A. Current
B. Square of the current C. Inverse of current
The temperature coefficient of resistance of a metal wire is

A. Negative
B. Positive
C. Zero
Working of a thermocouple is based on

A. Seeback effect
B. Peltier effect
C. Piezoelectric effect
The process of transmitting measured quantity to remote locations is caned

A. Telemetery
B. Propogation
c. None of these
Reading of celcius & fahreinheit becomes equal at

A. zero degree
B. -40 degree
C. 40 degree
The difference between gauge pressure & absolute pressure is

A. Zero
B. Vacuum
C. Atmospheric pressure
A pressure of 1 mm of Hg is equal to
A. 1 pascal
B. 1 torr
C. I N/sq.m
A moving coil electrical measuring instrument is used to measure

A. a.c. B. d.c. c. both of these
A milliameter with 3 ohm resistance & 150 mA max current is used to measure up to
3 Amp. The series resistance should be
A. 0.158 ohm
B. 1.58 ohm
C. 15.8 ohms
A milliameter with 3 ohm resistance & 150 mA max current is used to measure up to
160
15 volts. The series resistance connected should be

A. 9.7 ohms
B. 97 ohms C. 97 kilo-ohms
In most cases, transducer converts input variable signal to

A. Displacement
B. Electrical signal C. None of these
Electromechanical type transducer converts an i/p variable to

A. Displacement
B. Electrical signal C. None of these
Inductive type electromechanical transducers are

A. Self generating
B. Non self generating
C. Both
In electrodynamic transducer, the output is proportional to

A. Velocity B. Acceleration C. None
If electrodynamic transducer is used measurement of rotory motion, the output is
proportional to
A. Angle
B. sin(angle) C. cos(angle)
In mutual inductance type transducer, the measuring Wheatstone Bridge is excited

with
A. dc voltage
B. high freq. ac voltage
C. any of these
The o/p of a mutual inductance transducer is

A. modulated
B. Unmodulated
C. None of these
LVDT is used to measure

A. Linear displacement
B. Angular displacement C. Velocity
In LVDT, the two secondary coils are connected in

A. Series
B. Series opposition
C. Parallel
The output of LVDT is

A. Modulated
B. Unmodulated
C. None of these
A capacitor transducer can be used for measurement of

A. Linear displacement
B. Angular displacement C. Both
The photovoltaic transducer is also called as

A. Photoemisive cell
B. Solar cell
C. None of these
The ratio of change in dimension brought about by load application to the initial
dimension is defined as
A. Stress
B. Strain
C. Young's modulus
161
Resistance of a metal wire is directly proportional to its

A. Length
B. Diameter C. Both
The ratio of lateral strain to axial strain is called

B. Poissons ratio C. Young's modulus
A. Gauge factor
Fractional change in resistance of a strain gauge per unit strain is defined as

A. Axial strain
B. Gauge factor
C. Poissons ratio
For measuring change in resistance of strain gauges, the circuit U1ed is

A. Wien bridge
B. Wheatstones bridge
C. Either of these
The degree of hotness of a body is referred to as

A. Heat
B. Temperature
C. Thermal capacity
Thermisters are made up of

A. Metal wire
B. Semiconductor C. Insulator
The temp. coefficient of resistance of thermister is

A. Negative
B. Positive
C. Zero
As compared to RTD, response of thermister is

A. Slow
B. Fast
C. Cannot say
The decrease in resistance of a thermister with temp. is

A. exponential
B. Linear
C. Random
High temperatures are measured without physical contact with the body using
A. Bimetal thennometers
B. pyrometers
C.RRDs
A pressure of 1 N/sq.met is called as

A. 1 bar
B. 1 pascal
C. 1 torr
Atmospheric pressure at mean sea level is

A. 760 mm of Hg
B. 76 mm of Hg
C. 760 pascal
A Atmospheric pressure in SI units is

A. 10.1325 pascal
B. 101.325 pascal
C. 1.013 pascal
For measurement of vacuum, the unit used is

A. torr
B. bar.
C. pascal
Most pressure measuring instruments measure

A. Absolute pressure
B. Gauge pressure C. Both
As compared to U- tube manometer, sensitivity of inclined manometer is

162
A. More
B. Less
C. Cannot say
The device that serves to maintain a process variable at set point is

A. Controller
B. Relay
C.None of the two
When o/p of a controller is proportional to the error, it is called as

A. rate control
B. Proportional control
C. PID'control
With decrease in size of the junction of a thermocouple, its response time

A. decrease
B. Increase
C. No change
In resistance thermometer, the relation between change in temp & resistance is A.

exponential B. Linear
C. Quadratic
A number of thermocouples are connected in series to form a

A. Thermo junction
B. Thermopile
C. None of the two
A moving coil meter of 150 turns on a square former of side 3 cm & flux density in air
gap is 0.05 wb/sq.met. The defl. torque with current of 15 mA is
A. 1012.5 N.m
B. 101.25 N.m
C. 10.125 N.m
The average deviation of the measuring instrument is an indication of

A. good precision
B. poor precision
C. good accuracy
The principle of operation of variable head flowmeter is based on

A. Bernoulli's Theoram
B. Faradays Law
C. Peltier's Theoram
A piezoelectric transducer is used to measure

A. Static pressure
B. Dynamic pressure
C. None of the two
A lost motion or free play in mechanical instrument is caned

A. Backlash
B. Hysterisis
C. Error
Magnetic flow meter works on the principle of

A. Bernoulli's theorem
B. Faraday's Law
C. Peltier effect
If a copper wire is cooled, its resistance will

A. Increase
B. Decrease
c. Not change
The Fahrenheit equivalent of 45 deg. celcius is

A. 113 deg F
B. 49 deg
F C. 77 deg F
Photoelectric device which converts light in to change in resistance is

A. Photoemissive cell
B. Photoconductive cell
c. Photovoltaic cell
When certain natural crystal is deformed, electric charge is generated on its opposite
163
faces. The effect is known as

A. Mechano-electric effect
B. piezoelectric effect
LVDT is used for measurement of

A. motion
B. Displacement
C. pressure
The material used for construction of RTD is

A. Semiconductor
B. Metal wire
C. Insulator
IRRIGATION & DRAINAGE ENGINEERING
Fill in the Blanks

1. Vertical section through the soil is called Soil Profile
2. Viscosity of Water approaches unity (1 centipoise) at 200 temperatures.
3. Water table is the soil water surface at which the pressure is equal to the
atmospheric pressure.
4. Leaching requirement is Fraction of irrigation water added to leach the salts
from soil.
5. Water table position in drained area depends on.
-
Hydraulic conductivity.
Depth to an impermeable layer
Rainfall rate
Spacing of drains & depth of drains
6. For drainage blocky structure of soil is desirable.

7. In steady state condition of water table the combination of recharge rate and
drain spacing is considered.
8. Hydraulic conductivity of soil depends on Fluid and Porous medium
properties.
9. Unit of intrinsic permeability is Cm2.
10. As per Darcys law, ground water flow is proportional to Hydraulic
conductivity & hydraulic gradient.
164
11. Exchangeable sodium percentage and electrical conductivity of saline soils

are <15% and 4mm /Cm (4 ds/m) respectively.
12. Drainage coefficient is depth of water removed in 24 hours.
13. The combination of recharge rate and drain spacing is considered in steady
state of water table design criterion of drainage.
14. The critical water table depth is the depth of water table at which capillary
upward transport is less than 0.5 mm / day.
15. Velocity of advance of ground water flow = Discharge / Area x porosity
16. In isotropic soils, hydraulic conductivity is same in all directions.
17. The purpose at agricultural drainage in irrigated areas can be removal of
excess water and excess salts.
18. Blocky
and
granular
structures of soil offer favorable drainage
characteristics.
19. The main problem fro sloping area is erosion.
20. Flatter slops are generally drained in Shorter lengths.
21. The grade in the direction of the drains must be continuous with a minimum of
0.10%.
22. Two dimensional flow is one in which velocity is a function of two coordinates only.
23. The relationship governing the laminar flow of water through capillary tube is
known as Poiseuilli law or capillary tube hypothesis.
24. Soil hydrologic groups are 1) A 2) B
3) C
4) D.
25. Dryness of drainage area is indicated by AMC I
(Antecedent Masture
condition I.
26. Gypsum is added to reclaim alkali / Sodic soils.
27. Drain Spacing is directly proportional to square root of K & H.
28. The finer the texture, the smaller the size of pores and more/ greater the need
for artificial drainage.
29. Corrugated pipes have considerably more hydraulic resistance than smooth
pipe.
165
30. If there is distinct natural direction or ground water flow, the lateral can best
be laid perpendicular to the main flow.
31. In the soil profile, leaching efficiency usually decreases with depth.
32. After the dissolved oxygen in waterlogged soils has been consumed anaerobic
decomposition of organic matter takes place.
33. A water table within 1.5 m is usually not desirable.
34. Hydraulic gradient can be measured by installing several piezometers side by
side, but at different depths below the soil surface .
35. Clay tiles are usually made in lengths of about 30 cm.
36. Exchangeable sodium percentage (ESP) in saline alkali soil is >15%.
37. Hydraulic conductivity in all directions is different anisotropic soils.
38. Soil having Platy structure has poor drainage properties.
39. A Permeable soil seldom needs artificial drainage, except when the soil has a
high WT.
40. In arid and semi and zones part of the losses as beneficial in view of
maintaining an acceptable salt level in the soil.
41. The drainage requirements depend on both quality
and
quantity
of
irrigation water.
42. Subsurface drainage is always a closed drainage.
43. Soils having a platy structure or aggregates with horizontal axis more than
vertical have poor drainage properties.
44. The relationship governing the laminar flow of water through capillary tube is
know as Poiseuilli law or capillary tube hypothesis
45. Drainage removes only gravitational (free) water from the soil
46. Platy type of soil structure has poor drainage properties as they resist
downward movement of water.
47. h / q is the drainage criterion for steady state ground water conditions in
rainfed areas.
48. The saline soil can be reclaimed by adding excess water.
49. Filter is provided to increase effective diameter of drains.
166
50. The hydraulic conductivity has the dimensions of velocity (LT)
Unit of
hydraulic conductivity is cm/hr or m / day.

51. Hydraulic conductivity of soil depends on
fluid
and
porus medium
properties.
52. The standard erosion control terrace is a ridge type graded terrace also called
Magnum terrace.
53. The PH of the saline soils are usually less than < 8.5.
54. The cross slops ditch system is a channel type graded terrace also called
Nichols terrace.
55. The saline soils are reclaimed by leaching
Set B
1. Isotropic soils are the soil in which the hydraulic conductivity of soil is same
in all direction.
2. Anistropic soils are the soil in which the hydraulic conductivity of soil is
different in all direction.
3. Critical depth is the depth to which the water table will fall in the absence of
seepage or natural drainage and at which capillary rise is reduced to almost
zero.
4. Envelope is the material placed around the pipe drains to serve one or a
combination of the following functions.
i)
to prevent the movement of soil particle into the drains.
ii)
To lower the entrance resistance.
iii)
To provide suitable bedding for the drain.
iv)
To stabilize the soil material on which the drain is being laid.
5. Drainable porosity is volume of water which can be drained or removed per

unit volume of soil when the moisture content is dropped from saturation
capacity to field capacity or from atmospheric pressure to some negative value
(gen erally 1/3 atmosphere)
167
6. Agricultural drainage is the removal of excess water known as free water or

gravitational water from the surface or below the surface of land so as to create
favorable soil condition for plant growth.
7. Internal drainage is also called as subsurface drainage. It is the process of
removing excess water present below the surface of the land.
8. Drainage coefficient is the depth of water in centimeter or meter drained off
from a given area in 24 hours.
9. Field capacity is the moisture content after drainage of gravitational water has
become very slow and the moisture content has become relatively stable. Soil
moisture tension at F.C. is 1/10 to 1/3 atm.
10. Permanent wilting point (wilting coefficient) is the moisture content at which
plants can no longer obtain enough moisture to meet transpiration requirements
and remain wilted unless water is added to soil.
11. Permeability is the property of porous medium governing the rate or readiness
with which a porous medium transmits fluids under standard conditions.
12. The term intrinsic permeability is used as permeability factor independent of
the fluid.
13. Leaching it is the process of dissolving and transporting soluble salts by
downward movement of water through the soil.
14. Leaching requirement (LR) it is the fraction of irrigation water that must be
leached through the root zone to keep the salinity of the soil below a specific
limit or it is the ratio of the equivalent depth of drainage water to the depth of
irrigation water
14. Soil structure is the arrangement of individual soil particles with
respect to each other into a pattern.
15. Soil texture is the relative proportion of sand, silt and clay particles.
16. Available waters is soil moisture between field capacity and permanent
witting point is called s available water.
17. Saturation capacity when all the pores of the soil are filled with water the soil
is said to be under saturation capacity or maximum water holding capacity. Soil
moisture tension is zero at saturation percentage.
168
18. Hydraulic conductivity is rate of flow of water in liter per day through
horizontal cross sectional area of one square meter of the aquifer under a
hydraulic gradient of one meter per meter at the providing temperature of
water.
19. The various characteristics of flowing fluid such as velocity pressure density,
temperature etc. are in general the function of space and time i.e. these may
very with the co-ordinates of any point x,y,z and time t such a flow is called as
three dimensional flow. If these characteristic do not vary with respect to time
the flow will be steady flow.
20. When the flow characteristics are the function of two of the three co
ordinate and time the flow is called as two dimensional flow.
Set C
1) Recommended safe limits of land slope for border in medium loam soil 0.20 %
to 0. 40%.
2) The forward movement of waterfront along the irrigation run is called as
advance water front.

3) Hydraulic resistance in vegetated border strip is n = d 5/3 s / q
4) Field capacity is the upper limit of available moisture.
5) Pressure variation in lateral should not be more than 40%.
6) Field water use efficiency is the ratio of crop yield (Y) the total amount of
water used in the field (WR).

7) Level borders have gentle slope in the direction of irrigation.
8) The condition of drop size is good when Pd index for jet break up is greater
than 2.
9) Booster pump is used with an existing pumping system installed in a well and
pump capacity is insufficient to force the water through sprinkler at required

pressure.
169

10) Resistance to uniform turbulent flow in pen channel expressed by Chezys
formula as V= c Rs.
11) Venturi is device used for fertigation in sprinkler irrigation system.
12) Pressure gauge is used to measure the pressure of nozzle in sprinkler system.
13) Drip irrigation is not practical for Paddy crop
14) In areas of intense rainfall the furrow grade should not exceed 0.5 % so as to
minimize erosive hazard.

15) Furrow stream usually varies from 0.5 to 2.5 lps.
16) Recession in a check basin may be taken as the subsidence of water due to
infiltration.
17) Check basin is the most suitable method of irrigation for fodder maize crop.
18) Size of stream is the controlling factor in border irrigation which can be
varied after the irrigation system has been installed.

19) The low efficiencies obtained in check basin irrigation in India are due to
inadequate load leveling and uncontrolled water application.

20) Drip irrigation can achieve 90% or more irrigation efficiency.
21) The non erosive stream size for a burrow of 0.5 % slope is 1.2 lps.
22) Check basin irrigation method is most suitable for maize crop.
23) Recommended safe limits of land slope for border in clay soils is 0.05% to
0.20%
24) The area covered by rotating head sprinkle may be estimated as suggested by
cavazz by the expression R = 1.55dh.

25) A minimum furrow grade of 0.05% is needed to ensure surface drainage.
26) The hydraulic resistance is estimated on the basis of soil resistance and the
hydraulic characteristics of the crop.

27) The elapsed time when the advancing waterfront reaches the point after the
entrance stream is turned on is called advanced water front.

28) The downward entry of water into the soil is called as percolation.
29) The non- erosive stream size for a furrow having 0.6 % slope is 1 lps.
30) The avg. rate of application, often called precipitation efficiency
170

31) The discharge of a sprinkler nozzle may be computed by Torricelli formula
q = ca 2gh.
32) The hydraulic resistance is estimated on the basis of soil resistance &
hydraulic characteristic of crop

33) Recommended safe limit of land slopes in borders for medium loam soils are
0.2 to 0.40%.
34) In drip irrigation the design criteria is based on a lateral flow variation of 40%
for sub main.

35) The flow in border strip is not only spatially varied but also unsteady open
channel flow with decreasing discharge.

36) In sprinkler irrigation the overlap increase with the increase in wind velocity.
37) In sprinkler irrigation the discharge variation should not be more than 20% in
the first and last sprinkler on a lateral.

38) In drip irrigation application efficiency is greater than that on border irrigation
method.
39) The furrow stream usually varies from 0.5 to 2.5 lps.
Fill in the blanks

1. The furrow stream usually varies from 0.5 to 2.5 lps.
2. The recommended safe limits of land slope for border in clay soils are 0.5 to
0.20%.
3. The area covered by the rotating head sprinkle may be estimated as suggested
by Cavazza by expression R= 1.35 dh
R= Radius of wetted area covered by the sprinkler
D= Diameter of nozzle meters
H= Pressure head at the nozzle, meters
4. A minimum furrow grade of 0.05% is needed to ensure surface drainage.
5. The condition of drop size is good when Pd index for jet break up is greater
than 2.
6. The total pressure variation in sprinkler laterals when practicable should not be
more than 20% of the highest pressure.
171
7. Take off valves are generally needed to control pressure in the sprinkler lateral
lines.
8. In long path emitters the pressure is dissipated during flow through long
narrow paths.
9. For all practicable purposes the value of reduction coefficient for multiple
outlet laterals in drip irrigation system is 0.37.
10. It is customary to clean the filter when the pressure head drop across the filter
is about 2 m (6.6 ft).
11. In the presowing irrigation the hydraulic resistance offered to the flow of
water is due to roughness of the ground surface.
12. The recommended lengths of borders for sand loam soils are less than the
recommended lengths of borders for clay loam and clay soils.
13. Carbonate deposits should be removed by acid treatment using solutions of
0.5 to 1.0 percent acid injected at manifolds or lateral inlets give a contact time
of 30 minutes in the emitters.
14. The inflow-outflow method for measuring the infiltration in furrow irrigation
is also known as volume balance method.
15. A automatic volume control system turns water on and off in response to
moisture sensing devices placed in the irrigated area.
16. The condition of drop size is good when Pd index for jet break up is greater
than 2.
17. The maximum non-erosive flow rate in furrow is estimated by equation qm =
0.60/s
qm = Maximum non- erosive stream lps,
s = slope of furrow %
18. The width of border usually varies from 3 to 15 m.
18. Ventury is a device used for fertigation i.e. application of fertilizer along
with irrigation water.
19. Time of ponding is also called as infiltration opportunity time.
20. Straight or graded borders laid along (down) the general slope of the field.
172
21. The length of border in sandy soil is generally less than the length of border
in clay soil.
22. Hygroscopic water is held tightly to the surface of soil particle by adsorption
forces.
23. One millimeter depth of water over an area of 100 m is 100 liter of water.
24. The maximum non-erosive flow rate in furrows (qm) in lps can be estimated by
empirical equation qm = 0.60/s.
25. The pressure head vs emitter discharge relationship is governed by the
equation q=kd.Hx or q=dHb,
Q = discharge of emitter lph or gallon per hour (gph)
Kd= constant of proportionality.
H = working pressure head at the emitter M ( ft)
X = emitter discharge exponent characterize by flow regime.
26. For fully pressure compensating emitters the discharge exponent (x) is zero.
27. The principal of pressure differential or vacuum creation is used in ventury
of drip irrigation system.
28. Hydrocyclone (sand separator or centrifugal) filter is the most efficient for
removal of very fine sand from the irrigation water.
29. In post emergence irrigations, the hydraulic resistance offered to a flow of
water is due to roughness of ground surface and retardance offered by the plant
stems and leaves.
30. The width of a border usually from 3 to 15 m.
31. When the plants are widely spaced ring method of check basin may be
adopted.
32. The recommended safe limits of land slope for border in clay soils is 0.05 to
0.20%.
33. The inflow-outflow method of measuring the infiltration in furrow irrigation is
also known as volume balance method.
34. Maximum coverage is attained when the jet emerged from the sprinkler at an
angle of 30 to 32 above the horizontal.
173
35. Water storage efficiency indicates how completely water needed prior to
irrigation has been stored in the root zone during irrigation.
36. The pressure variation and emitter flow variation are related by expression q =
kd.Hx.
37. The condition of drop size is good when jet break up index Pd is greater than
2.
38. The total pressure variation in laterals when should not be more than 20% of
higher pressure.
39. Infiltration opportunity time is also called as time of ponding.
40. A useful thumb rule in check basin design is that the water spread in the entire
basin should be covered in of the th time required to infiltrate the net depth of
irrigation water.
35. The relation between pressure head & emitter discharge is expressed by
Q = kd.Hx with usual notations.
36. When the value of x i.e. emitter discharge exponent is lower that means the less
discharge will be affected by pressure variations.
37. For fully turbulent flow value of x i.e. emitter discharge exponent is 0.5 & laminar
flow x is 1.0.
38. Non compensating emitters on nozzles are always fully turbulent & NPC is 0.5
and fully compensating emitters x is zero.
39. The value of x i.e. exponent of long path emitters may range any where between
0.5 to 1.0.
True / False
1.
Check basin irrigation method is most suitable for maize crop. - True
174

2. The condition or drop size is the best when pd index for the jet break up is zero.
- False
3. In lighter type of soil frequency of irrigation is low than heavy soils. - True
4. A minimum furrow grade or 0.05 % is needed to ensure surface drainage.
- True
5. The hydraulic resistance in a vegetated border strips can be expressed as
Mannings n. - True
6. Contour furrow method is similar to the graded method, but the furrows carry
water across a sloping field rather than down the slopes. - True
7. The flow in a border strip is a care of spatially varied and unsteady open
channel flow with decreasing discharge. - True

8.
In trickle irrigation design, the design based on an emitter flow variation of

20%. - True
9. Recession in a check basin may be taken as the subsidence of water due to
infiltration. True
10. Two nozzle sprinklers are used for low water application rates. False
11. Level borders have gentle slope in the direction of irrigation. True
12. With higher pressure the water from the nozzle breaks up into very fine drops
and falls very near the spray. True

13. Borders may be laid along the general slops of the field or may be laid across
the general slope of the field. True

14. Evaporation losses are more in DI than SI. - False
15. In DI application efficiency is more than the conventional method of irrigation.
- True
16. Recession in check basin may be taken as subsidence of water due to
infiltration. - True
17. The size or for stream usually varies for 0.5 to 2.5 lps - True
18. When land slope exceed safe limits, fields are undulating and leveling is not
feasible, borders may laid across slope. - True

19. Micro tubes can be used to reduce pressure in the lateral, if the water pressure
in the sub main is too high than designed. True

175

20. The size or check basin can be larger in clay soils than in sandy soils. True
21. In drip irrigation, water coming out of the emitters is almost at atmospheric
pressure. True
22. Single nozzle sprinkler are used for high water application. False
23. Check basin method is suitable for irrigated crops which are sensitive to wet
conditions around the stem of plants. False

24. In DI design lateral flow variation should be less than 15%.- False
25. The flow in a border strip is a case of non uniform, unsteady and spatially
varied flow. False

26. The maximum non erosive flow rate in furrows is estimated by an empirical
equation qm = 0.50 / s. False

27. Border irrigation method is most suitable for maize crop. False
28. The size of check basin can be larger in sandy soils then in clay soils. False
29. Sub irrigation is useful in a situation where soil is heavy clay to permit high
capillary rise. True

30. In the presowing irrigation the hydraulic resistance is estimated on the basis of
the hydraulic characteristics of the crop. False

31. In DI design the design criterion is generally based on an emitter flow variation
of 40%.- False
32. Water application efficiencies below 100% are due to seepage losses from the
field distribution channel and deep percolation below crop root zone. True
33. The condition of drop size is the best when Pd index for the jet back up is zero.
False
34. DI method should be adopted to save the water and also for use of saline water,
which is generally not used for irrigation. True

35. A minimum furrow grade of 0.05% is needed to ensure surface drainage.
True
36. Land leveling is prerequisite for adopting drip system or irrigation. False
37. Deep percolation loss is minimum by sprinkler irrigation as compared to the
any surface irrigation method True

38. Saline work can be used for irrigation through drip irrigation method. False
176

39. The flow in a border strip is a care of spatially varied unsteady non uniform
open channel flow over a porous bed with free surface. False
40. The flow in a border strip is a case of spatially varied unsteady non- uniform
open channel flow with decreasing discharge. - True
Set B
1. In trickle irrigation design the design criteria is generally based on an emitter
flow variation of 20% - False (less than 20%).
infiltration True.
3. Two nozzle sprinklers are used for low water application rates - False (single
nozzle sprinklers).
4. Level borders have gentle slope in the direction of irrigation - True.
5. With high pressure the water from the nozzle breaks up into very fine drops
and fall very near the sprinkle True.
6. Sprinkler method of irrigation is usually suitable in very fine textured soils
(heavy clay soils) where infiltration rates are less than about 4 mm/hr - False (
not suitable in very fine textured soils)
7. The overlap of the area of influence of the sprinklers decreases with increase
in wind velocity True.
8. In a sloping area the connection between the manifold and sub main should be
placed in the middle of the manifold - False (in a sloping area, it should be
placed so the uphill portion of the manifold is shorter than the downhill
portion).
9. In a Flat area the connection between the manifold and sub main
should be placed in the middle of the manifold or lateral live to split the
flow evenly- True.
10. The emitter discharge exponent for the fully pressure can pen sating emitters in
one - False (zero).
177
11. Clay soils having low infiltration rates permit large size basins while sandy
and sandy loam soils with high infiltration rates allow small size basins
False.
12. In case of border irrigation method a large stream is used to apply shallower
irrigation depth and a smaller stream is used to apply greater irrigation depth
True.
13. Corrugations are deep furrows- False. (small furrow)
14. To obtain a reasonable degree of uniformity in the discharge of each sprinkler
the laterals should be located in the general direction of the steepest slope with
the mains at right angle to laterals False.
Mains located in the general
Direction of slope
Laterals right angles to mains i.e. across the slope
15. Water distribution efficiency indicates how efficiently the water is applied to
the field False (distributed)
16. Trickle irrigation can be adapted to uneven terrain more readily than surface
irrigation True.
17. Sprinkler irrigation is most suitable for jute False.
18. Level boards have gentle slope in the direction of irrigation.-True.
19. Saline water can be used for irrigation through drip irrigation method- True.
infiltration - True.
21. In trickle irrigation design the design criteria is generally based on an emitter
flow variation of 20% - False (less than 20%)
22. In drip irrigation design, the design criterion is generally based on an emitter
flow variation of less than 20% - True (about 40% pressure variation for lateral
line)
23. Lateral flow variation of less than 5% (about 10% pressure variation)
for a submain. - True
24. Check basin method of irrigation is suitable to irrigate the crops which are
sensitive to wet soil conditions False.
178
25. Check basin method of irrigation is not suitable for crops which are sensitive
to wet soil condition. - True
26. Furrow irrigation is most suitable to sandy soils which has a very high
infiltration rates - False (Not suitable to sandy soils)
27. Corrugation irrigation is most suitable in loamy soils in which the lateral
movement of water takes place readily True.
28. Single nozzle sprinklers are generally used for high water application rate
False.
29. In sprinkler irrigation, the larger drop size of water loses less velocity and
travel further True.
30. Water distribution efficiency indicates how completely water needed prior to
irrigation has been stored in the root zone during irrigation False. (Storage
efficiency = Water stored / Water needed).
31. The total pressure variation in the laterals when practicable should not
be
more than 20% of higher pressure True.

32. The ratio of water delivered to irrigated plot to water diverted from the source
is called water application efficiency - False.
33. The ratio of crop yield (y) to the amount of water depleted by the crop in the
process of evapotranspiration (ET) is called as crop water use efficiency
True.
34. The emitter dissipate the pressure by means of either a small diameter orifice
or long flow path and thereby decrease the water pressure to yield high
discharge False. (The emitter dissipater the water pressure to yield low
discharge).
Multiple choice Questions

Tick mark () the most appropriate statement of the multiple choice answers:
1. An ideal fluid is defined as the fluid which
a) Is compressible
b) is incompressible
c) is compressible and non- viscous
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d) has negligible surface tension.

2. Newtons law of viscosity states that
a) Shear stress is directly proportional to the velocity
b) Shear stress is directly proportional to the velocity gradient
c) Shear stress is directly proportional to the shear strain
d) Shear stress is directly proportional to the velocity
3. A Newtonian fluid is defined as the fluid which
a) is incompressible and non viscous
b) obeys Newtons law of viscosity
c) is highly viscous
d) is compressible and non viscous
4. Kinematic viscosity is defined as equal to
a) dynamic viscosity x density
b) dynamic viscosity / density
c) dynamic viscosity x pressure
d) pressure x density
5. Dynamic viscosity (u) has the dimension as
a) MLT-3
b) ML-3 T-1
c) ML-3 T-2
d) M-1L-1 T-1
6. Poise is the unit of
a) mass density
b) kinematic viscosity
c) viscosity
d) viscosity gradient
7. The increase of temperature
a) increases the viscosity of a liquid
b) decreases the viscosity of a liquid
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c) decreases the viscosity of a gas

d) increases the viscosity of a gas
8. Stoke is the unit of
a) Surface tension
b) viscosity
c) Kinematic viscosity
d) none of the above
9. The multiplying factor for converting the poise into MKS unit of dynamic
viscosity is
a) 9.81
b) 98.1
c) 981
d) 0.981
10. Surface tension has the units of

a) force per unit area
b) force per unit length
c) force per unit volume
11. The gases are considered incompressible when Mach number

a) is equal to 1.0
b) is equal to 0.50
c) is more than 0.3
d) is less than 0.2
12. Pascals law states that pressure at a point is equal in all directions
a) In a liquid at rest
b) in a fluid at rest
b) In a laminar flow
d) in a turbulent flow.
13. The hydrostatic law states that rate of increases of pressure in a vertical
direction is equal to
a) Density of the fluid
b) specific weight of the fluid
c) weight of the fluid
14. Fluid static deals with
a) viscous and pressure forces
b) viscous and gravity forces
c) gravity and pressure forces
d) surface tension and gravity forces.
15. Gauge pressure at a point is equal to
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a) absolute pressure plus atmospheric pressure

b) absolute pressure minus atmospheric pressure
c) vacuum pressure plus absolute pressure
d) none of the above.
16. Atmospheric pressure head in terms of water column is
a) 7.5 m
b) 8.5 m
c) 9.81 m
d) 10.30 m
17. The hydrostatic pressure in a plane surface is equal to

a) wAh
b) wAh sin
c) wAh
d) wAh sin
where A =- Area of plane surface, and

h = Depth of centroid of the plane area below the liquid free surface
18. Centre of pressure of a plane surface immersed in a liquid is
a) above the centre of gravity of the plane surface
b) at the centre of gravity of the plane surface
c) below the centre of gravity of the plane surface
19. The resultant hydrostatic force acts through a point known as

a) center of gravity
b) centre of buoyancy
c) centre of pressure
20. For a submerged curved surface, the vertical component of the hydrostatic
force is
a) mass of the liquid supported by the curved surface.
b) weight of the liquid supported by the curved surface
c) the force on the projected area of the curved surface on vertical plane
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21. For a floating body, the buoyant force passes through the
a) centre of gravity of the body
b) centre of gravity of the submerged part, of the body
c) metacentre of the body
d) centroid of the liquid displaced by the body
22. The condition of stable equilibrium for a floating body is

a) the metacentre M coincides with the centre of gravity G.
b) the metacentre M is below centre of gravity G
c) the metacentre M is above centre of gravity G
d) the centre of buoyancy B is above centre of gravity G.
23. A submerged body will be in stable equilibrium if

a) the centre of buoyancy B is below the centre of gravity G
b) the centre of buoyancy B coincides with G.
c) the centre of buoyancy B is above the metacentre M
d) the centre of buoyancy B is above G.
24. The metacentric height of a floating body is

a) the distance between metacentre and centre of buoyancy
b) the distance between the centre of buoyancy and centre of gravity.
c) the distance between metacentre and centre of gravity
25. The necessary condition for the flow to be steady is that
a) the velocity does not changes from place to place
b) the velocity is constant at a point with respect to time
c) the velocity changes at a point with respect to time
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26. The necessary condition for the flow to be uniform is that

a) the velocity is at a point with respect to time
b) the velocity is constant in the flow field with respect to space
c) the velocity changes at a point with respect to time
27. The flow in a pipe is laminar if

a) Reynolds number is equal to 3500
b) Reynolds number is equal to 4000
c) Reynolds number is more than 2500
28. A stream line is a line

a) which is along the path of a particle
b) which is always parallel to the main direction of flow
c) across which there is no flow
d) on which tangent drawn at any point gives the direction of velocity.
29. Pitot tube is used for measurement of

a) pressure
b) flow
c) velocity at a point
d) discharge
30. Bernoullis theorem deals with the law of conservation of

a) mass
b) momentum
c) energy
31. Irrotational flow means

a) the fluid does not rotate while moving
b) the fluid moves in straight
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c) the net rotation of fluid particles about their mass centers is zero
32. Continuity equation deals with the law of conservation of

a) Mass
b) Momentum
c) Energy
36. The relation between tangential velocity (V) and radius r is given by
a) V x r = Constant for forced vortex
b) V / r = Constant for forced vortex
c) V x r = Constant for free vortex
d) V / r = Constant for free vortex
39. Bernoullis equation is derived making assumptions that

a) the flow is uniform, steady and incompressible
b) the flow is non- viscous, uniform and steady
c) the flow is steady non- viscous, incompressible and irrotational
41. The flow rate through a circular pipe is measured by

a) Pitot tube
b) Venturei meter
c) Orifice meter
42. The range for con-efficient of discharge (c) for a venture meter is
a) 0.6 to 0.7
b) 0.7 to 0.8
c) 0.8 to 0.9
d) 0.95 to 0.99
44. The co-efficient of discharge in terms of C and C is

a) Cd = Cv / Cc
b) Cd = Cv x Cc
c) Cd = Cc / Cv

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45. An orifice is known as large orifice when the head of liquid from the centre
of orifice is
a) more than 10 times the depth of orifice
b) less than 10 times the depth of orifice
c) less than 5 times the depth of orifice
d) none of the
46. Which mouthpiece is having maximum coefficient of discharge

a) external mouthpiece
b) convergent - divergent mouthpiece
c) internal mouthpiece
47. The coefficient of discharge (Ca)

a) for an orifice is more than that for a mouthpiece
b) for internal mouthpiece is more than that for external mouthpiece
c) for a mouthpiece is more than that for an orifice
48. A flow is said to be laminar when

a) the fluid particles move in a zig- zag way
b) the Reynolds number is high
c) the fluid particles move in layers parallel to the boundary
49. For the laminar flow through a circular pipe

a) the maximum velocity = 1.5 times the average velocity
b) the maximum velocity = 2.0 times the average velocity
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c) the maximum velocity = 2.5 times the average velocity

50. The loss of pressure head for the laminar flow through pipes varies
a) as the square of velocity
b) directly as the velocity
c) as the inverse of the velocity
51. For the laminar flow through a pipe, the shear stress over the crosssection
a) varies inversely as the distance from the centre of the pipe
b) varies inversely as the distance from the surface of the pipe
c) varies inversely as the distance from the centre of the pipe
d) remains constant over the crosssection.
52. For the laminar flow between two parallel plates

a) the maximum velocity = 2.0 times the average velocity
b) the maximum velocity = 2.5 times the average velocity
c) the maximum velocity = 1.33 times the average velocity
53. The value of the kinetic energy correction factor (a) for the viscous flow
through a circular pipe is
a) 1.33
b) 1.50
c) 2.0
d) 1.25
54. The value of the momentum correction factor (b) for the viscous flow
through a circular pipe is
a) 1.33
b) 1.50
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c) 2.0
d) 1.5
57. The velocity distribution in laminar flow through a circular pipe follows the
a) parabolic law
b) liner law
c) logarithmic law
62. Hydraulic gradient line (H.G.L.) represents the sum of

a) pressure head and kinetic head
b) kinetic head and datum head
c) Pressure head, kinetic head and datum head
d) pressure head and datum head.
63. Total energy line (T.E.L.) represents the sum of
a) pressure head and kinetic head
b) kinetic head and datum head
c) pressure head and datum head
d) pressure head, kinetic head and datum head
64. When the pipes are connected in series the total rate of flow
a) is equal to the sum of the rate of low in each pipe
b) is equal to the reciprocal of the sum of the rate of flow in each pipe.
c) is the same as flowing through each pipe
65. Power, transmitted through pipes will be maximum when

a) head lost due to friction = total head at inlet of the pipe.
b) head lost due to friction = 1/4 total head at inlet of the pipe
c) head lost due to friction = total head at the inlet of the pipe
d) head lost due to friction = 1/3 total head at inlet of the pipe
67. The velocity of pressure wave in terms of bulk modulus (k) and density
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(p) is given by
a) C= p/k
c)
C = K/p
b) C= Kp
68. Reynoldss number is defined as the

a) ration of inertia force to gravity force.
b) ratio of viscous force to gravity force.
c) ratio of viscous force to elastic force
d) ratio of inertia force to viscous force.
69. Froudes number is defined as the ratio of

a) inertia force to viscous force
b) inertia force to gravity force
c) inertia force to elastic force
d) inertia force to pressure force
70. Mach number is defined as the ratio of

a) inertia force to viscous force
b) viscous force to surface tension force
c) viscous force to elastic force.
d) inertia force to elastic force
71. Eulers number is the ratio of

a) inertia force to pressure force
b) inertia force to elastic force
c) inertia force to gravity force
72. Models are known undistorted model if

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a) The prototype and model are having different scale ratios

b) The prototype and model are having same scale ratios
c) Model and prototype are kinematically similar
73. Geometric similarity between model and prototype means

a) the similarity of discharge
b) the similarity of linear dimensions
c) the similarity of motion
d) the similarity of force
74. Kinematic similarity between model and prototype means

a) the similarity of forces
b) the similarity of shape
c) the similarity of motion
d) the similarity of discharge.
75. Dynamic similarity between model and prototype means

a) the similarity of forces
b) the similarity of motion
c) the similarity of shape
76. Boundary layer on a flat plate is called laminar boundary layer if

a) Reynolds number is less than 2000
b) Reynolds number is less than 4000
c) Reynolds number is less than 5 x 105
77. Boundary layer thickness is the distance from the surface of the
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solid body in the direction perpendicular to flow, where the velocity

of fluid is equal to
a) free- stream velocity
b) 0.9 times the free steam velocity
c) 0.9 times the free-stream velocity
78. Drag is defined as the force exerted by a flowing fluid on a solid body
a) in the direction of flow.
b) perpendicular to the direction of flow
c) is the direction which is at an angle of 450 to the direction of flow
79. Lift force is defined as the force exerted by a flowing fluid on a solid body
a) in the direction of flow.
b) perpendicular to the direction of flow
c) at an angle of 450 to the direction of flow
92. Lift force (FL) is expressed mathematically as

a) FL= pU2 x CL
b) FL= pU2 x CL x A
c) FL= pU2 x CL x A
d) FL= 2pU2 x CL x A
93. Total drag on a body is the sum of

a) pressure drag and velocity drag
b) pressure drag and friction drag
c) friction drag and velocity drag
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94. A body is called stream lined when it is placed in a flow and the surface of
the body
a) coincides with the streamlines
b) does not coincide with the streamlines
c) is perpendicular to the streamlines
95. A body is called bluff body if the surface of the body

a) coincides with the streamlines
b) does not coincide with the streamlines
c) is very smooth
97. The skin friction drag on a sphere (for Reynoldss number less than 0.2) is
equal to
a) one third of the total drag
b) half of the total drag
c) two thirds of the total drag
98. The pressure drag on a sphere (for Reynolds number less than 0.2 is equal
to
a) one third of the total drag
b) half of the total drag
c) two thirds of the total drag
d) non of the above.
192
99. Terminal velocity of a falling body is equal to

a) a maximum velocity with which body will fall
b) the maximum constant velocity with which body will fall
c) half of the maximum velocity
100. When a falling body has attained terminal velocity the weight of the body
is equal to
a) drag force minus buoyant force.
b) buoyant force minus drag force
c) drag force plus the buoyant force
104. Kinematic viscosity (v) is equal to

a) u x p
b) u/p
c) p/ u
115. Manometer is a device used for measuring

a) velocity at a point in a fluid
b) pressure at a point in a fluid
c) discharge of a fluid
116. Differential manometer are used for measuring

a) velocity at a point in a fluid
b) pressure at a point in a fluid
c) difference of pressure between two points
193
121. When the fluid is at rest, the shear stress is

a) maximum
b) zero
c) unpredictable
124. The centre of pressure for a plane vertical surface lies at a depth of
a) half the height of the immersed surface
b) one- third the height of the immersed surface
c) two- third height of the immersed surface
125. The inlet length of a venturimeter

a) is equal to the outlet length
b) is more than the outlet length
c) is less than the outlet length
127. The point through which the buoyant force is acting is called
a) centre pressure
b) centre of gravity
c) centre of buoyancy
128. The point through which the weight is acting is called

a) centre pressure
b) centre of gravity
c) centre of buoyancy
194
129. The point about which floating body starts oscillating when the body is
tilted is called
a) Centre pressure
b) Centre of gravity
c) Centre of buoyancy
d) Metacentre
131. For a floating body if the metacentre is above the centre of gravity the
equilibrium is called
a) Stable
b) Unstable
c) Neutral
132. For a floating body if the metacentre below the centre of gravity the
a) stable
b) unstable
c) neutral
133. For a floating body, if the metacentre coincides with the centre of gravity
the equilibrium is called
a) stable
b) unstable
c) neutral
134. For a floating body if centre of buoyancy is above the centre of gravity the
195
a) stable
b) unstable
c) neutral
136. For a submerged body if the centre of buoyancy is above the centre of
gravity the equilibrium is called
a) stable
b) unstable
c) neutral
137. For a submerged body, if the centre of buoyancy coincides with the center
of gravity the equilibrium is called
a) stable
b) unstable
c) neutral
138. For a submerged body, if the metacentre is below the centre of gravity the
a) stable
b) unstable
c) neutral
138. For a submerged body, if the centre of buoyancy is below the centre of
gravity the equilibrium, is called
a) stable
196
b) unstable
c) neutral
141. If the velocity, pressure, density etc., do not change at a point with respect
to time the flow is called
a) uniform
b) incompressible
c) non- uniform
d) steady
142. If the velocity, pressure, density etc change at a point with respect to time,
the flow is called
a) unsteady flow
b) uniform flow
c) incompressible flow
d) rotational flow
143. If the velocity in a fluid flow does not change with respect to length of
direction of flow, it is called.
a) unsteady flow
b) uniform flow
c) incompressible flow
d) rotational flow
145. If the density of a fluid is constant from point to point in a flow region, it
is called
a) steady flow
b) incompressible flow
c) uniform flow
197
d) rotational flow
146. If the density of a fluid changes from point to point in a flow region it is
called
a) steady flow
b) unsteady flow
c) non- uniform flow
d) compressible flow
147. If the fluid particles move in straight lines and al the lines are parallel to
the surface the flow is called
a) steady
b) uniform
c) compressible
d) laminar
148. If the fluid particles move in a zig- zag way, the flow is called
a) unsteady
b) non- uniform
c) turbulent
d) incompressible
154. Vorticity is given by

a) Two times the rotation
b) 1.5 times the rotation
c) Three times the rotation
d) Equal to the rotation
155. Study of fluid motion with the forces causing the flow is known as
198
a) kinematics of fluid flow

b) dynamics of fluid flow
c) statics of fluid flow
156. Study of fluid motion without considering the forces, causing the flow, is
known as
a) kinematics of fluid flow
b) dynamics of fluid flow
c) statics of fluid flow
157. Study of fluid at rest is known as

a) kinematics
b) dynamics
c) statics
158. The term V2/2g known as
a) kinetic energy
b) pressure energy
c) kinetic energy per unit weight
159. The terms p/eg is known as

a) kinetic energy per unit weight
b) pressure energy
c) pressure energy per unit weight
199
160. The term Z is known as

a) Potential energy
b) Potential energy
c) Potential energy per unit weight
164. Pitot-tube is used to measure

a) Discharge
b) Average velocity
c) Velocity at a point
d) Pressure at a point
165. Venturimeter is used to measure

a) Discharge
b) average velocity
d) pressure at a point
166. Orifice meter is used measure

a) discharge
b) average velocity
d) pressure at a point
167. For a submerged curved surface the horizontal component of force due to
state liquid is equal to
a) Weight of liquid suppurated by the used surface
b) Force on a projection of the curved surface on a vertical plane
c) Area of curved surface x pressure at the centroid of the submerged area
200
168. For a submerged curved surface the vertical component of force due to
static liquid is equal to
a) Weight of the liquid supported by curved surface
b) Force on a project of the curved surface on a vertical plane
c) Area of curved surface x pressure at the centroid of the submerged area.
169. An oil of specific gravity 0.7 and pressure 0.14 kgf/cm2 will have the
height of oil as
a) 70 cm of oil
b) 2 m of oil
c) 20cm of oil
d) 80cm of oil
170. The difference in pressure head, measured by a mercury water differential
manometer for a 20cm difference of mercury level will be
a) 2.72 m
b) 2.52 m
c) 2.0 m
d) 0.2 m
171. The difference in pressure head, measured by a mercury oil differential

manometer for a 20 cm difference of mercury level will be (Sp. Gravity of oil =
0.8)
a) 3.72 m of oil
b) 2.52 m of oil
c) 3.20 m of oil
d) 2.0 m of oil
201
172. The rate of flow through a V- notch varies as

a) H
b) h
c) H3/2
d) H5/2
173. The rate of flow through a venturimeter varies as

a) H
b) h
c) H3/2
d) H5/2
174. Orifices are used to measure

a) Velocity
b) Pressure
c) viscosity
d) Rate of flow
175. Mouthpieces are used to measure

a) velocity
b) pressure
c) rate of flow
d) Viscosity
176. The ratio of actual velocity of a jet of water at vena- contracta to the
theoretical velocity is known as
a) Co- efficient of discharge
b) Co- efficient of velocity
c) Co- efficient of contractor
d) Co- efficient of viscosity
177. The ratio of actual discharge of a jet of water to its theoretical discharge is
202
known as
c) Co- efficient of contraction
178. The ratio of the area of the jet of water at vena- contracta to the area of
orifice is known as
c) Co- efficient of contraction
181. Notch is a device used for measuring

a) Rate of flow through pipes
b) Rate of flow through a small channel
c) Velocity through a pipe
d) Velocity through a small channel
182. The discharge through a rectangular notch is given by

a) Q = 2/3 Cd x L x H3/2
b) Q = 2/3 Cd x L x H3/2
c) Q = 8/15 Cd x L x H5/3
d) Q = 8/15 Cd x L x H5/2
183. Maximum efficiency of power transmission through pipe is

a) 50 %
b) 66.67 %
c) 75 %
d) 100 %
203
184. The ratio of inertia force to viscous force is known as

a) Reynolds number
b) Froude number
c) Match number
d) Euler number
185. The square root of the ratio of inertia force to gravity force is called
a) Reynolds number
b) Froude number
c) Match number
d) Euler number
186. The square root of the ration of inertia force to force due to
compressibility is
known as
a) Reynolds number
b) Froude number
c) Mach number
d) Euler number
187. The square root of the ratio of inertia force to pressure force is known is
a) Reynolds number
b) Froude number
c) Match number
d) Eulers number
188. Model analysis of pipes flow are based on

a) Reynolds number
b) Froude number
c) Match number
d) Euler number
204
189. Model analysis of free surface flows are based on

a) Reynolds number
b) Froude number
c) Match number
d) Euler number
190. Model analysis of aero planes and projective moving at supersonic speed
are based on
a) Reynolds number
b) Froude number
c) Mach number
d) Euler number
191. The boundary layer takes place

a) for ideal fluids
b) for pipe flow only
c) for real fluids
d) for flow over flat plate only
192. The boundary layer is called turbulent boundary layer if

a) Reynolds number is more than 2000
b) Reynolds number is more than 4000
c) Reynolds number is more than 5 x 105
193. Laminar sub- layer exists in

a) laminar boundary layer region
b) turbulent boundary layer region
205
c) transition zone
194. The thickness of laminar boundary layer at a distance x from the leading
edge over a flat plate varies as
a) x 4/5
b) x
c) x 1/5
d) x 3/5
195. The thickness of turbulent boundary layer at a distance x from the leading
edge over a flat plate varies as
a) X 4/5
b) x
c) x 1/5
d) x 3/5
196. The separation of boundary layer takes place in case of

a) negative pressure gradient
b) positive pressure gradient
c) zero pressure gradient
197. The drag force exerted by a fluid on a body immersed in the fluid is due to
a) pressure and viscous force
b) pressure and gravity force
c) pressure and turbulence force
d) above of the above
198. For supersonic flow, in the area of flow increases then

a) velocity decrease
b) velocity increase
c) velocity is constant
206
199. The flow in open channel is laminar if the Reynolds number is

a) 2000
b) less than 2000
c) less than 500
200. The flow in open channel turbulent if the Reynolds number is

a) 2000
b) more than 2000
c) more than 500
d) 4000
201. If the Froude number in open channel flow is less than 1.0 the flow is
called
a) critical flow
b) super- critical
c) sub- critical
202. If the Froude number in open channel flow is equal 1.0 the flow is called
a) critical flow
b) streaming flow
c) shooting flow
203. If the Froude number in open channel flow is more than 1.0 the flow is
called
207
a) critical flow
b) streaming flow
c) shooting flow
204. The discharge through a rectangular channel is maximum when

a) m = d/3
b) m = d/2
c) m = 2 d
d) m = 3d/2
Where m = Hydraulic mean depth
D = Depth of flow
205. The discharge through a trapezoidal channel is maximum when

a) Half of top width = sloping side
b) Top width = half of sloping side
c) Top width = 1.5 x sloping side
206. The maximum velocity through a circular channel takes place when depth
of flow is equal to
a) 0.95 times the diameter
b) 0.5 times the diameter
c) 0.81 times the diameter
d) 0.3 times the diameter
207. The maximum discharge a circular channel takes place when depth of
flow is equal to
a) 0.95 times the diameter
208
b) 0.3 times the diameter

c) 0.81 times the diameter
d) 0.5 times the diameter
208. The depth of flow at which specific energy is minimum is called as

a) normal depth
b) critical depth
c) alternate depth
True or False All Departments

A. Write for True or F for False in the answer book provided for each of the
following means.
1.1 An increase in wet bulb temperature indicates a lower relative humidity. False
1.2 All food materials have a particular freezing temperature. True
1.3 Pasteurization of milk destroys all microorganisms. - False
1.4 Thermal resistance in heat transfer is directly proportional to the length of
material which heat transfer takes place. True
1.5 A light reflector reduces the total energy received from the light. - False
209
1.6 A positive displacement pump is unsuitable for large pressure

development. - False
1.7 Industrial evaporation of fruit juices is less energy intensive than spray
drying of the. True
1.8 Stokes law is applicable butter churning operation. True
1.9 Constant rate of drying is like open surface evaporation of water. True
1.10
Equilibrium moisture content of any product corresponds to a particular
relative humidity only. True

1.11
Butter has a maximum of 50% milk fat. - False
1.12
TDT curve is used in milk homogenization. - False
1.13
A disc plough penetrates into the ground by suction. - False
1.14
Internal double run type metering mechanism is used in a planter. - False
1.15
Flail mowers use high speed swinging knives. - False
1.16
Ginning is the process of separation of the seed from the lint. True
1.17
A swinging draw bar minimizes the effect of the side draft. True
1.18
A three point hitch consists of two compression links and one tension
link. - False
1.19
A two stroke cycle engine actually develops twice the power as
compared to a four stroke cycle engine, size for size. - False

1.20
Two cylinder V engines use one crank for both the cylinders. True
1.21
Inflation pressure of the front wheels of a tractor is higher than those of
the rear ones. True

1.22
The clutch and brake type steering mechanism is mostly used in crawler
tractors.
210
1.23
Excessive black smoke in an engine is an indication of incomplete
combustion. True
1.24
Wear out life of disc ploughs and mould board ploughs is normally take
as 2500 hours. True

1.25
Water is present under pressure in unconfined aquifer. - False
1.26
Stream lines are not always perpendicular to equipotential lines. - False
1.27
The theoretical suction lift of a pumping system is loss at higher altitude
than at sea level for the sonic temperature of water. True

1.28
The liquid limit of sandy soil is less than that of loam soil. False
1.29
Drainable porosity of clay soil is generally less than that of loam soil.
True
1.30. The porosity of the clay soil is generally lower than that of the loam soil.
True
1.31 Barbed wire fencing is preferred on dairy farms. True
1.32 The floor of a deep bin is designed to carry the full weight of the grain
contained- False
1.33 Contour bunding is suitable for deep black soils. - False
1.34 The width of a shelter bolt is between 50 and 100 m. - False
1.35 Spillway is the most important part of a dam. True
1.36 Spurs are classified as permeable and impermeable. True
1.37 Basic hydrograph is plotted over 100 arbitrary units of flow and 10
arbitrary units of time. True
1.38 For a given watershed the duration of flow varies inversely with the peak
flow. True
1.39 Runoff rate is of primary interest in the design of flood control reservoirs.
True
1.40 Land grading land leveling and land shaping are synonymous. True
211
1.
Cutting speed of cutter bar of a mower is

A) 35 50 m/s
B) 10 -20 m/s
C) 2 4 m/s
D) 0.2 0.4 m/s
2.
If the travel speed of a tillage tool is increased, the draft will

A) increase linearly
B) decrease linearly
C) increase quadratically
D) decrease quadratically
3.
Working element of a paddy thresher is

A) rasp bar
B) wire loop
C) spike tooth
D) angle iron bar
4.
A tractor drawn seed drill operated at 4 kilometer per hour gives 80 kilogram
per hectare seed rate. If the tractor speed is increased to 5 kilometer per hour,
the
new seed rate will be

A) 64 kilogram per hectare
B) 70 kilogram per hectare
C) 80 kilogram per hectare
D) 100 kilogram per hectare
5.
Lowering of a tractor mounted implement is accomplished by

A) hydraulic force
B) tractor weight
C) implement weight
D) linkage
6.
Power tillers are not generally employed for draft applications because of
A) low horse power
B) low speed
212
C) low coefficient of traction

D) non-availability of matching implements
7.
The most harmful vibration frequency for a human being is

A) less than 1 Hz
B) 1 to 20 Hz
C) 50 20000 Hz
D) greater than 50000 Hz
8.
Theoretical maximum efficiency of a wind rotor is

A) 55 per cent
B) 67 per cent
C) 85 per cent
D) 90 per cent
9.
Keeping other factor constant, doubling the diameter of a tube well will
increase
the discharge by
A) 10 per cent
B) 25 per cent
C) 50 per cent
D) 100 per cent
10.
First four classes of land in the land-capability are suitable

A) only for cultivation and not for other uses
B) for cultivation and other uses
C) partly for cultivation and mostly for other uses
D) for uses other than cultivation
11.
The albedo depends on

A) incoming radiation
B) reflected radiation
C) incoming and reflected radiation
D) absorbed radiation
12.
Evapotranspiration in crop field surrounded by dry fallow land will be higher

than that surrounded by vegetation, due to
A) Conduction of heat
213
B) oasis effet
C) clothesline effect
D) convection of heat
13.
Computation of evapotranspiration by Blaney- Criddle method is based on the

principle of
A)aerodynamics
B) energy balance
C) empirical approach
D) combination
14.
For a watershed, the Universal Soil- Loss Equation computes.

A) annual runoff
B) average annual soil loss
C) erodability factor
D) average annual rainfall
15.
Darcys law is valid for

A) laminar and turbulent flow
B) turbulent flow
C) laminar flow
D) transient flow
16.
If the impeller speed of a centrifugal pump is doubled, the power consumption

will be
A) the same
B) doubled
C) four times
D) eight times
17.
the available net positive suction head of a pump depends on

A) suction lift
B) friction loss
C) vapour pressure
D) all of the above
18.
The unit of heat transfer resistance of a material is

214
A) Wm-1 0C-1
B) m 0C W-1
C) 0C W-1
D) Wm 0C-1
19.
The Tyler standard screen scale is based on standard opening of

A) 28 mesh (0.589mm)
B) 48 mesh (0.295mm)
C) 100 mesh (0.147 mm)
D) 200 mesh (0.074mm)
20.
Centrifugal discharge is used in

A) belt conveyor
B) chain conveyor
C) screw (auger ) conveyor
D) bucket elevator
21.
Machine used for dehusking of pulses is

A) rubber roll dehusker
B) emery roll dehusker
C) cerntrifugal dehusker
D) under-runner disc sheller
22.
Convective heat transfer coefficient h (Wm-2 0C-1 ) and mass flux M (kg m-2 s)
of a fluid flowing through a pipe under turbulent condition are related as
A) h M
B) h M0.5
C) h M-08
D) h M0.8
23.
Convective mass transfer coefficient of water vapour in air depends on

A) velocity of air
B) viscosity of water vapour
C) density of water vapour
D0 none of the above
24.
The rate dN/d of inactivation of microbial population N in a given food

215
material is normally proportional to

A)
B) N
C) N
D) N2
25.
Following component (s), if present in a food material will reduce its water
activity
A) protein
B) sucrose
C) fat
D) all of the above
Set B
1.
A two bladed flywheel type forage cutter rotates at 60 rev/min. At a feed rate of
1.26 m/min, the theoretical length of cut of the forage will be
A) 5.3 mm
B) 10.5 mm
C) 21.0 mm
D) 42.0 mm
2.
A cultivator (11 x 30 cm ) is operated at a depth of 10 cm. The furrow crosssection is a triangle having 900 tip angle. If the unit draft of the soil is 20
kN/M2 the draft will be.

A) 110 N
B) 220 N
C) 2.2 kN
D) 4.4 kN
216
3.
A pull of 6.5 kN is exerted on an implement at an angle of 150 with the ground

surface. If the weight of the implement is 350 kg, the vertical soil reaction will
be
A) 1.75 kN upward
B) 3.43 kN downward
C) 3.43 kN upward
D) 5.12 kN downward
4.
A mechanical press can copress 20 bales of cotton per minute. As the bale is
compressed through a distance of 22 cm, the compressive force is increased
linearly from 0 to 60 kN. The power consumed by the press will be
A) 132 kW
B) 6.6 kW
C) 4.4 kW
D) 2. 2 kW
5.
Cooling system of a 6.8 kW diesel engine running at full load will remove heat
at a rate of
A) 1.63 kcal /min
B) 6.80 kcal /min
C) 97.6 kcal /min
D) 408 kcal /min
6.
Bore and stroke of a single cylinder engine are 8 cm and 9.6 cm respectively. If
the air (density =1.26 kg /m3 ) intake is 0.505g /cycle, the volumetric
efficiency
of the engine will be
A) 76.5 per cent

B) 83.0 per cent
C) 89.0 per cent
D) 118.0 per cent
7.
The rear wheel diameter of a tractor is 130 cm and its wheel base is 185 cm. If
horizontal pull of 6kN is applied at a distance of 25 cm below the rear axle. the
weight transfer will be
A) 0.811 kN
217
B) 1.30 kN
C) 3.75 kN
D) 4. 70 kN
8. Vertical reaction on the rear wheels of a tractor is 11.77 kN and each wheel has
a ground contact area of 0.165 M2. If the coefficient of friction between
the soil
and the material of the wheel is 0.35 and the value of unit cohesion
is 7 Kn / m2 ,
the maximum gross thrust will be
A) 2.96 kN
B) 4.12 kN
C) 5.27 kN
D) 6.43 kN
9.
The threshold salinity of a soil is 2.0 mmho/cm and the decrease in alfalfa crop
yield is 7.3 per cent per unit increases in the salinity. If the average soil salinity
is 5.4 ammho/cm, the relative crop yield will be
A) 70 per cent
B) 75 per cent
C) 80 per cent
D) 85 per cent
10.
The seasonal gross irrigation requirement of a vegetable crop grown under

shallow water table condition is 25 cm. If the effective precipitation is30 cm,
seasonal crop evapotranspiration is 50 cm and application efficiency of border
irrigation system in 60 per cent, the contribution from the shallow ground water
table will be
A) 1 cm
B) 5 cm
C) 10 cm
D) 15 cm
11.
the
Electrical conductivity (EC) of saturation extract of a soil is 10 mmho/cm. If

EC of irrigation water is 1.2 mmho/cm, the leaching requirement will be.
A) 3 per cent
B) 6 per cent
218
C) 9 per cent
D) 12 per cent
12.
A watershed of 1000 hectare is discharging through a drain at an average rate

2 m2/s. The drainage coefficient of the watershed is
of
A) 1.73 cm
B) 1.93 cm
C) 2.13 cm
D) 3.93 cm
13.
A trickle irrigation system has one emitter per plant. If the coefficient of
variation is 0.12 and application efficacy is 88.5 par cent, the
efficiency
system
will be
A) 70 per cent
B) 75 per cent
C) 80 per cent
D) 85 per cent
14.
Water flow through a 1.2 m long cylindrical soil column having 650 cm2 cross
sectional area is 800 liter per minute. If the hydraulic head is 1.5 m, the
hydraulic conductivity of the soil will be
A) 16 cm/s
B) 24 cm/s
C) 30 cm/s
D) 26 cm/s
15.
The major water course of a 3 square kilometer watershed has a fall of 25 m in

2.5 km. The time of concentration will be
A) 47 . 48 min
B) 51.35 min
C) 55.21 min
D) 59.23 min
16.
meter)
Bending moment at the centre of a 8 m long uniformly loaded (500 N per

concrete beam is
A) 2000 Nm
219
B) 3000 Nm
C) 4000 Nm
D) 5000 Nm
17.
A centrifugal pump running at 1450 rev /min discharges 20 liter per second at
30 m total head. The specific speed of the pump will be
A) 12
B) 16
C) 20
D) 24
18.
Partial pressure of nitrogen in a mixture of 7 part nitrogen and 3 part oxygen by

mass at 200 kpa total pressure is
A) 175 kpa
B) 160 kpa
C) 150 kpa
D) 145 kpa
19.
Critical speed of a ball mill of 1200 mm diameter filled with 75 mm balls is

A) 28 rev/min
B) 38 rev/min
C) 48 rev/min
D) 58 rev/min
20.
Mass of moisture removed in drying 30 tonnes of wheat from 22 per cent to 13

per cent (wet basis ) moisture content is
A) 2000 kg
B) 2700 kg
C) 3000 kg
D) 3100 kg
21.
At a certain stage of fluidization, the height and porosity of a bed of granular

material are 5 cm and 0.4 respectively. If the height is increased to 6 cm by
increasing air velocity, the porosity of the bed will be
A) 0.30
B) 0.45
220
C) 0.50
D) 0.60
22.
Milk having 1000 kg/m3 density is homogenized against a pressure of 20 MPa.

The velocity of the milk through the homogenizing valve will be
A) 100 m/s
B) 150 m/s
C) 200 m/s
D) 1000 m/s
23.
Saturation vapour pressure of water is 31.19 kpa at 700C and 38.58 kpa at
750C The approximate boiling temperature of water maintained under a
vacuum of 50 cm of mercury will be
A) 680C
B) 720C
C) 770C
D) 800C
24.
Buoyant force experienced by a spherical grain of 100 mg weight and 1250

kg/m3 particle density in water under gravity is
A) 2 x 10-9 N
B) 4 x 10-8 N
C) 6 x 10-6 BN
D) 8 x 10-4 N
25.
Average particle size of wheat flour having 3.53. Fineness Modulus is

A) 1 mm
B) 1.1 mm
C) 1.2 mm
D) 1.3 mm
221

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Question Bank of Agricultural Engg.

GATE, ICAR, MCEAR Exams

Er. Jayant Potekar

Question Bank of Agricultural Engg.

FARM MACHINERY AND POWER

A. Complete the Statements

It is generally believed that there is surplus human power available for

farm work in rural areas.

A tractor and new industries are leading to a shortage of labor on agricultural

land plus an increase in the cost of labor.

The most important source of power on the farm all

particularly in India is animal.

through tractors and oil engines.

farms in various states of the country.

Question Bank of Agricultural Engg.

important reason is its uncertainty.

high load capacity for short time.

Acceptability of tractor and power tiller is not very common because of

high initial investment.

Tractor and power tiller is a quick means of medium distance transport

all investment per unit area to be controlled is high.

beginning and then decreases

to cure a sick animal in rural areas.

Question Bank of Agricultural Engg.

30. Mechanization in India have to be done at various levels by introducing the

tractor drawn holdings.

use of a tractor on their farms.

It will not be possible to mechanize every bit of farm operations and

will not result in lowering the cost of production.

History indicates that the development in farm mechanization is very closely

Question Bank of Agricultural Engg.

to the shortage of human labor and industrial development in the

Question Bank of Agricultural Engg.

Question Bank of Agricultural Engg.

The introduction of rubber roll shellers made

be one of the largest in the world.

more number of motor driven pump sets may be installed.

Question Bank of Agricultural Engg.

where burning takes place.

resistance to heat flow.

remained waste combustion products.

occur when the piston is moving upward.

the crank shaft.

Question Bank of Agricultural Engg.

92. expansion take place in two strokes of the piston.

cadmium and tin.

drains back to the crank case.

Question Bank of Agricultural Engg.

and the ignition system of the engine.

Question Bank of Agricultural Engg.

should be adjusted with feeler gauge according to the manufacturer

excessive carbon deposits on the stem.

Question Bank of Agricultural Engg.

mixture of and Alfa

methyl naphthalene by volume.

of solid system as well as drops.

Question Bank of Agricultural Engg.

operating temperatures are greatly increased.

by supplying more air.

engine is warmed up to the proper operating temperature.

Question Bank of Agricultural Engg.

for bleeding air out of the system