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FIITJEE

PHYSICS, CHEMISTRY & MATHEMATICS


CPT1 - 2

CODE:

Time Allotted: 3 Hours

PAPER - 2
Maximum Marks: 198

Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for
this purpose.
You are not allowed to leave the Examination Hall before the end of the test.

BATCHES 1416

INSTRUCTIONS
Caution: Question Paper CODE as given above MUST be correctly marked in the answer
OMR sheet before attempting the paper. Wrong CODE or no CODE will give wrong results.

A. General Instructions
1.
2.
3.
4.

Attempt ALL the questions. Answers have to be marked on the OMR sheets.
This question paper contains Three Parts.
Section-1 is Physics, Section-2 is Chemistry and Section-3 is Mathematics.
Rough spaces are provided for rough work inside the question paper. No additional sheets will be
provided for rough work.
5. Blank Papers, clip boards, log tables, slide rule, calculator, cellular phones, pagers and electronic
devices, in any form, are not allowed.

B. Filling of OMR Sheet


1. Ensure matching of OMR sheet with the Question paper before you start marking your answers on
OMR sheet.
2. On the OMR sheet, darken the appropriate bubble with HB pencil for each character of your Enrolment
No. and write in ink your Name, Test Centre and other details at the designated places.
3. OMR sheet contains alphabets, numerals & special characters for marking answers.

C. Marking Scheme For All Three Parts.


(i)

Part-A (01 08) contains 8 multiple choice questions which have only one correct answer. Each
question carries +3 marks for correct answer and 1 marks for wrong answer.
Part-A (09 14) contains 3 paragraphs. Based upon paragraph, 2 multiple choice
questions have to be answered. Each question has only one correct answer and carries +3 marks for
correct answer and 1 mark for wrong answer.
Part-A (15 20) contains 6 multiple choice questions which have one or more than one correct
answer. Each question carries +4 marks for correct answer. There is no negative marking.

Name of the Candidate :____________________________________________


Batch :____________________ Date of Examination :___________________
Enrolment Number :_______________________________________________

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Two Year CRP(1416) -PT-1_Paper-2-PCM-IITJEE/16

S
SE
EC
CT
TIIO
ON
N 1
1:: P
PH
HY
YS
SIIC
CS
S
PART A
(Single Correct Choice Type)
This section contains 8 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B),
(C) and (D) out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

1.

In the figure shown acceleration of block B & C is 2 m/s2 & 4 m/s2


as shown in figure. Then acceleration of block A will be
(A) 3 m/s2 upwards
(B) 3 m/s2 downwards
(C) 6 m/s2 upwards
(D) 6 m/s2 downwards

a=

4 m/s2

2 m/s2

2.

In an African wildlife reserve your jeep is traveling at a constant speed of 105 km/hr in a
circle alongside a cheetah running at constant speed in another circle concentric with
circle of jeep. The cheetah, frightened by the jeeps noise, keeps at a constant distance
of 60 m from the vehicle. Not having paid much attention to the surrounding landscape,
you suddenly realize that your jeep is passing the very same spot where it was 60
seconds before. The speed of the cheetah is approximately
(A) 105 km/hr
(B) 94 km/hr
(C) 99 km/hr
(D) 82 km/hr

3.

A stone is projected with a velocity 202 m/s at an angle of 45 to the horizontal. The
magnitude of average velocity of stone during its motion from starting point to its
maximum height is (take g = 10 m/s2)
(A) 20 m/s
(B) 205 m/s
(C) 55 m/s
(D) 105 m/s

4.

A block of mass 10 kg accelerates uniformly from rest to a speed of 2 m/s in 20 sec.


The average power developed in time interval of 0 to 20 sec is
(A) 10 W
(B) 1 W
(C) 20 W
(D) 2 W
v

5.

The velocity displacement graph of a particle moving along a


straight line is shown. The most suitable acceleration
displacement graph will be

v0

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x0

Two Year CRP(1416) -PT-1_Paper-2-PCM-IITJEE/16

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

6.

A particle moving in a straight line covers half the distance with speed 3 m/s. The other
half of the distance covered in two equal time intervals with speed of 4.5 m/s and 7.5 m/s
respectively. The average speed of the particle during this motion is
(A) 4 m/s
(B) 5 m/s
(C) 5.5 m/s
(D) 4.8 m/s

7.

For a system in equilibrium as shown in figure elongation in spring will be


2mg
mg
(A)
(B)
k
k
mg
mg
(C)
(D)
2k
3k

8.

An elevator in which a man is standing is moving with a speed of 10 m/sec. If a man


drops a coin from a height of 2.45 m, it reaches the floor of the elevator after a time
1
(A) 2 sec
(B)
sec
2
1
(C) 2 sec
(D) sec
2

(Paragraph Type)
This section contains 3 paragraphs. Based upon the paragraphs 2 multiple choice questions
have to be answered. Each of these questions has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which
ONLY ONE is correct.
Paragraph for Question no. 9 to 10

A particle is projected vertically with velocity v0 wind is blowing


and is providing a constant horizontal acceleration a0. There is a
vertical wall at some distance from point of projection. If particle
strikes the vertical wall perpendicularly then calculate,

v0

x
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9.

Distance x is given by
v 2
(A) 0
2g
(C)

10.

a0 v 0 2
2g2

(B)

v 02
g

(D)

a0 v 0 2
g

Horizontal component of velocity with which particle strikes the vertical wall is
a v
2a0 v 0
(A) 0 0
(B)
g
g
3a0 v 0
a v
(C)
(D) 0 0
g
2g
Paragraph for Question no. 11 to 12

When an observer is in an accelerating frame, then the observer has

to apply an extra force F vectors on any particle, besides the real


forces acting on the particle to draw the free body diagram of the

body with respect to him. This F is called PSEUDO FORCE. This is


exerted to apply Newtons laws on the particle, because it is not

applicable w.r.t. an accelerating frame. F ma, where m is the

mass of the body and a is the acceleration of the observer. Negative

sign shows that direction of F is opposite to the a


An observer is standing inside a trolley and observing a block inside the trolley as shown in the
figure Mass of the block is m.
Now answer the following questions based on the above paragraph
11.

12.

What is the magnitude of tension T in the string when block is in equilibrium w.r.t.
observer?
mg
cos

(A) mg cos

(B)

(C) mg

(D) mg sin

Choose the correct free body diagram of the block w.r.t. the observer
T

ma

(A)

(B)

(C)

ma

ma

(D)

T
mg

mg

mg

mg

Paragraph for Question no. 13 to 14


In a conservative force field we can define he radial component of force from the
du
potential energy function by using F = . Here, a positive force means repulsion and a
dr
negative force means attraction. For the given potential energy function U(r) we can find the
equilibrium position where force is zero. We can also find the ionization energy which is the
work done to move the particle point at a distance r from the centre of the force. The potential

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Two Year CRP(1416) -PT-1_Paper-2-PCM-IITJEE/16

B
, where r is the distance from the centre of the force and A
r
r
and B are +ve constants. Answer the following questions:

energy of the particle is U =

13.

The work required to move the particle from equilibrium distance to infinity is
B
4B
(A)
(B)
4A
A
B2
4B2
(C)
(D)
4A
A

14.

The equilibrium is
(A) stable
(C) neutral

(B) unstable
(D) cannot be predicted

(Multi Correct Choice Type)


This section contains 6 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B),
(C) and (D) out of which ONE OR MORE may be correct.
15.

A block of weight 9.8N is placed on a table. The table surface exerts an upward force of
10N on the block. Assume g = 9.8 m/s2
(A) The block exerts a force of 10N on the table
(B) The block exerts a force of 19.8 N on the table
(C) The block exerts a force of 9.8N on the table
(D) The block has an upward acceleration

16.

The two vectors A and B are drawn from a common point and C A B , then angle

between A and B is
(A) 90o if C2 = A2 + B2
(B) greater than 90o if C2 < A2 + B2
o
2
2
2
(C) greater than 90 if C > A + B
(D) less than 900 if C2 < A2 + B2

17.

A particle has a rectilinear motion and the figure


gives its displacement as a function of time. Which
of the following statements are true with respect to
the motion.
(A) in motion between 0 to A, the velocity is positive
and acceleration is negative
(B) between A and B, the velocity and acceleration
are positive
(C) between B and C, the velocity is negative and
acceleration is positive
(D) between D and E, the acceleration is positive

18.

S
A

Two men of unequal masses hold on to the two sections of a light rope
passing over a smooth light pulley. Which of the following are possible
(A) The lighter man is stationary while the heavier man slides with
some acceleration
(B) The heavier man is stationary while the lighter man climbs with
some acceleration
(C) The two men slide with the same acceleration in the same direction
(D) The two men slide with acceleration of the same magnitude in
opposite direction

m1

m2

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19.

Two blocks B and C in the figure have mass m each.


The strings AB and BC are light, having tensions T1 and
T2 respectively. The system is in equilibrium with a
constant horizontal force mg acting on C.
(A) tan 1 1/ 2
(B) tan 2 1
(C) T1 5 mg
(D) T2 2 mg

20.

1
T1
B
2
T2

Let v and a denote the velocity and acceleration respectively of a body in one
dimensional motion

(A) v must decrease when a <0


(B) speed must increase when a > 0
(C) speed will increase when both v and a are less than zero
(D) speed will decrease when v < 0 & a > 0

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F= mg

Two Year CRP(1416) -PT-1_Paper-2-PCM-IITJEE/16

S
SE
EC
CT
TIIO
ON
N 2
2:: C
CH
HE
EM
MIIS
ST
TR
RY
Y
PART A
(Single Correct Choice Type)
This section contains 8 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B),
(C) and (D) out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
1.

Which of the following characteristic of the elements of group-1 or IA decreases on


moving down the group?
(A) Nuclear charge
(B) Ionic radii
(C) Number of core electrons
(D) Hydrated radii

2.

Which of the following orbital undergoes head to head overlapping by maximum extent?
(A) s-orbital
(B) p-orbital
(C) sp3-hybrid orbital
(D) sp-hybrid orbital

3.

At very high pressure the van der Waals equation for one mole of any real gas changes
to
a
(A) PV = RT
(B) PV = RT V
a
(C) PV = RT + Pb
(D) PV RT = P V

4.

The final heating product(s) of MgCl2.6H2O is/are


(A) MgCl2 + 6H2O
(B) MgCl2.2H2O + 4H2O
(C) Mg(OH)Cl + HCl + 5H2O
(D) Mg(OH)2 + HCl + 5H2O

5.

Which of the following property of H2O is higher than that of H2O2?


(A) Boiling point
(B) Acidic strength
(C) Bleaching action
(D) Thermal stability

6.

What will be the value of 2 at the nucleus of an atom?


(A) 1
(B) Zero
(C) Infinity
(D) None of these

7.

The orbital represented by which of the following wave function has maximum number of
radial node?
(A) 4, 2, 0
(B) 3, 0, 0
(C) 3, 1, 1
(D) 4, 3, 1

8.

What is the n-factor of Cu2S in the following reaction?


Cu2S
Cu2 SO2
(A) 5
(B) 6
(C) 8
(D) 7

(Paragraph Type)
This section contains 3 paragraphs. Based upon the paragraphs 2 multiple choice questions
have to be answered. Each of these questions has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which
ONLY ONE is correct.

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Paragraph for Question no. 9 to 10


Absorption and emission of radiation by an atom take place when its electron jumps from one
orbit to another. A radiation with a particular frequency and wavelength contains same type of
photons. If a sample of hydrogen like atoms are heated, different electronic transitions takes
place as the atoms absorb different amount of energy. A sample of hydrogen like atoms are
supplied with 12.75 eV of energy. During de-excitation, emission of radiations with different
frequencies are observed.
Answer the following questions on the basis of above write up.
9.

What will be the wavelength of the highest energetic radiation if the wavelength of the
o

lowest energetic radiation is 8000 A and that of the radiation emitted when electron
o

jumps from the third orbit to first orbit is 2000 A ?

10.

(A) 10000 A

(B) 1600 A

(C) 6000 A

(D) 1800 A

How many different set of photons, are emitted in the process?


(A) 1
(B) 4
(C) 6
(D) 3
Paragraph for Question no. 11 to 12

Chlorine exhibits oxidation states of -1, 0, +1, +3, +5 and +7 in its stable compounds. In ground
state chlorine exhibits 0, +1 and -1 oxidation states. The oxidation states +3, +5 and +7 are
exhibited by it in the excited states respectively. The positive oxidation states are displayed by
chlorine when it forms compounds with fluorine and oxygen. Oxygen provides higher positive
oxidation state than fluorine because the number of covalent bonds formed by oxygen is higher
than that formed by fluorine.
Answer the following questions on the basis of above write up.
11.

Which of the following statement is correct for the unstable compound which is formed
by chlorine in +4 oxidation state?
(A) The compound is paramagnetic in nature
(B) Chlorine undergoes sp2 hybridization in the compound
(C) The compound does not contain any lone pair
(D) The compound should contain axial as well as equatorial covalent bonds

12.

The hybridization and the type of excited state used by chlorine in ClO3 ion are
respectively:
(A) sp2 and second excited state
(B) sp3 and second excited state
3
(C) sp and third excited state
(D) sp3 and first excited state
Paragraph for Question no. 13 to 14

The reaction between salt solution takes place by ions. The reaction is accelerated by
formation of precipitates. Consider the following reaction.
2Na3 AsO 4 3 CaCl2
Ca3 AsO 4 2 6NaCl
The reaction is initiated by adding 800 mL of 0.4 M sodium arsenate solution into a vessel which
contains one litre of 0.5 M calcium chloride solution.
Answer the following questions on the basis of above write up.

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13.

What is the molarity of AsO34 ions in the resulting solution after the reaction?
(A) 0.12 M
(B) 0.17 M
(C) 0.88 M
(D) None of these

14.

What is the molarity of Cl (Chloride) ions in the resulting solution after completion of the
reaction?
(A) 0.42 M
(B) 0.53 M
(C) 0.55 M
(D) 0.48 M

(Multi Correct Choice Type)


This section contains 6 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B),
(C) and (D) out of which ONE OR MORE may be correct.
15.

N
H3C

CH3

SiH3

SiH3

CH3

SiH3

[X]

[Y]

Which of the following property/properties of the above compounds is/are correct?


(A) Basic strength: X > Y
(B) Bond angle: CNC > SiNSi
(C) Boiling point: X < Y
(D) Dipole moment: X > Y
16.

Cr2O72 Fe2 H
Cr 3 Fe3 H2O
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct for the above equation?
(A) The coefficient of Fe3+ is 6 in the balanced equation.
(B) Fe2+ behaves as an oxidizing agent.
(C) The colour of reaction mixture after reaction becomes green.
(D) HNO3 can be used in the reaction to provide acidic medium.

17.

Which of the following substance(s) is/are thermally less stable than CaCO3?
(A) BeCO3
(B) MgCO3
(C) SrCO3
(D) BaCO3

18.

Which of the following substance(s) convert(s) I(iodide) to I2(iodine)?


(A) H2O
(B) H2O2
(C) D2O
(D) HDO

19.

Which of the following gas(es) effuse at the same rate under identical conditions?
(A) NO2
(B) CO
(C) N2
(D) C2H4

20.

An atom contains 2, 8, 14 and 2 electrons respectively in K, L, M and N orbits. Which of


the following statement(s) is/are correct for the atom?
(A) it is a d-block element
(B) it contains eight electrons with = 0
(C) Its spin magnetic moment is 2 6 B.M
(D) Its dipositive ion contains four electrons with = 2

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10

S
SE
EC
CT
TIIO
ON
N 3
3:: M
MA
AT
TH
HE
EM
MA
AT
TIIC
CS
S
PART A
(Single Correct Choice Type)
This section contains 8 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B),
(C) and (D) out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
1.

If the angle between the two lines represented by 2x 2 5xy 3y 2 6x 7y 4 0 is


tan1 m , then m is equal to
(A) 1/5
(C) 2/3

2.

If the circle

(B) 1
(D) none of these

x 2 y 2 4x 22y c 0

bisects the circumference of the circle

x y 2x 8y d 0, then c + d is equal to
(A) 60
(B) 50
(C) 40
(D) 56
2

3.

4.

5.

6.

If the lines a1x b1y c1 0 and a2 x b2 y c 2 0 cut the coordinate axes in concyclic
points, then
a
b
(A) a1b1 a1b2
(B) 1 1
a2 b2
(C) a1 a2 b1 b2
(D) a1a2 b1b2
If 4n , then the numerical value of tan tan 2 tan 3,.........tan 2n 1 is equal to
(A) 1
(B) 0
(C) 1
(D) 2

The expression 3 sin4


sin4 3 2 sin6 sin6 5 is equal
2

to
(A) 0
(B) 1
(C) 1
(D) 3

Which of the following limit is in the indeterminant form?


x
1
(A) lim
(B) lim 1x
x 7
x

1

(D) lim 1
x
x

(C) lim 5 x
x

7.

8.

If 4 9 9
(A) 2
(C) 10
log 3

log2 4

10

logx 83

, then x is equal to
(B) 3
(D) 30

The distance between the circumcentre and orthocentre of the triangle whose vertices
are (0, 0), (6, 8) and (4, 3) is
125
5
(A)
unit
(B)
unit
8
2

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(C)

11

5 5
unit
2

(D) 5 5 unit

(Paragraph Type)
This section contains 3 paragraphs. Based upon the paragraphs 2 multiple choice questions
have to be answered. Each of these questions has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which
ONLY ONE is correct.
Paragraph for Question no. 9 to 10
The locus of a moving point is the path traced out by that point under one or more given
conditions. Technically, a locus represents the set of all points which lies on it.
A relation f (x, y) = 0 between x and y which is satisfied by each point on the locus and
such that each point satisfying the equation is on the locus is called the equation of the
locus.
On the basis of above information, answer the following questions:
9.

Let A (2, 3) and B (2, 1) be vertices of a ABC. If the centroid of this triangle moves
on the line 2x 3y 1, then the locus of the vertex C is the line
(A) 2x 3y 9
(B) 2x 3y 7
(C) 3x 2y 5
(D) 3x 2y 3

10.

Locus of centroid of the triangle whose vertices are (a cos t, a sin t), (b sin t, b cos t)
and (1, 0), where t is a parameter, is
2
2
2
2
(A) 3x 1 3y a2 b2
(B) 3x 1 3y a2 b2
(C) 3x 1 3y a2 b2
2

(D) 3x 1 3y a2 b2
2

Paragraph for Question no. 11 to 12


For each natural number k, let Ck denotes the circle with radius k units and centre at the
origin. On the circle Ck, a particle moves k units in the counter clockwise direction. After
completing its motion on Ck, the particle moves to Ck , in the radial direction, where
0 . The motion of the particle continues in this manner.
11.

If k N and 1 , the particle starts at (1, 0), the particle cross x axis again at
(A) (3, 0)
(B) (1, 0)
(C) (4, 0)
(D) (2, 0)

12.

Let 1 , the particle starts at (1, 0). If the particle crossing the positive direction of the x
axis for the first time on the circle Cn , then n is equal to
(A) 3
(B) 5
(C) 7
(D) 8
Paragraph for Question no. 13 to 14
Increasing product with angles are in GP
cos cos 2 cos 22 ...............cos 2n1

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12

sin 2n
, if n
n
2 sin

1
n,
if
n
2 1
2

1
if
n
2n ,
2 1

Where,
n I (Integer)
On the basis of above information, answer the following questions:
13.

14.


5
7
The value of sin sin sin is
18
18
18
1
(A)
16
1
(C)
8

The value of cos

(B)

1
8

(D) 1

2
4
6
is
cos
cos
7
7
7

(A) 1/2
(C) 1/4

(B) 1/2
(D) 1/8

(Multi Correct Choice Type)


This section contains 6 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B),
(C) and (D) out of which ONE OR MORE may be correct.
3
5
and cos
, where & lies in the first quadrant, then
5
13
33
56
(A) cos
(B) sin
65
65

1
63

(C) sin2
(D) cos

65
2 65

15.

If cos

16.

If the coordinates of the vertices of triangle are rational numbers, then which of the
following points of the triangle will always have rational coordinates
(A) centroid
(B) incentre
(C) circumcentre
(D) orthocentre

17.

If

loga
logb
logc

, then ab c . bc a . c a b is equal to
b c c a a b

(A) 0
(C) a + b + c
18.

The equation of circle passing through (3, 6) and touching both the axes is
(A) x 2 y 2 6x 6y 9 0
(B) x 2 y 2 6x 6y 9 0
(C) x 2 y 2 30x 30y 225 0

19.

(B) 1
(D) logb a.logc b.loga c

(D) x 2 y 2 30x 30y 225 0

If the lines x 2y 6 0, 3x y 4 0 and x 4y 2 0 are concurrent, then


(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 4
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Two Year CRP(1416) -PT-1_Paper-2-PCM-IITJEE/16

20.

13

Consider the circles


C1 x 2 y 2 2x 4y 4 0 and
C2 x 2 y 2 2x 4y 4 0
and the line L x 2y 2 0, then
(A) L is the radical axis of C1 and C2
(B) L is the common tangent of C1 and C2
(C) L is the common chord of C1 and C2
(D) L is perpendicular to the line joining centres of C1 and C2

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IIT JEE 2016
PHASE I
PAPER II
ANSWERS
QP CODE:
SECTION I (PHYSICS)

SECTION II (CHEMISTRY)

SECTION III (MATHS)

PART A

PART A

PART A

Q.N.

Ans.

Con.Code

Q.N.

Ans.

Con.Code

Q.N.

Ans.

Con.Code

1.

P110409

1.

C110702

1.

M110731

2.

P110316

2.

C110306

2.

M110814

3.

P110301

3.

C111204

3.

M110801

4.

P110504

4.

C110908

4.

M111301

5.

P110325

5.

5.

M111403

6.

P110327

6.

C110113

6.

M110602

7.

P110420

7.

C110113

7.

M110202

8.

P110308

8.

C111101

8.

9.

P110310

9.

C110109

9.

M110724

10.

P110310

10.

C110104

10.

M110724

11.

P110403

11.

C110204

11.

M110802

12.

P110402

12.

C110305

12.

M110802

13.

P110420

13.

C110207

13.

M111402

14.

P110420

14.

C110207

14.

M111402

15.

AD

P110404

15.

ACD

C110306

15.

BCD

M111304

16.

AB

P110201

16.

AC

C110205

16.

ACD

M110707

17.

ACD

P110325

17.

AB

C110904

17.

BD

M110202

18.

ABD

P110416

18.

C110006

18.

AD

M110808

19.

ABCD

P110403

19.

BCD

C111208

19.

AD

M110725

20.

CD

P110306

20.

ABC

20.

ACD

M110819

C111004,
C111006

C110107,
C110108

M110705,
M110706

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