EXAMINATION QUESTIONS

Q 1. According to the code of ethics, which of the following activities by a professional member
would be considered unethical?
A. Not charging a fee for presenting a speech
B. Signing plans prepared by an unknown person
C. Reviewing the work of another member with that members consent
D. Providing professional services as a consultant.
Q 2. Which of the following is an example of a fraudulent, contractual misrepresentation?
A. A party coerced into signing a contract by means of intimidation
B. A party knowingly makes false statements to induce another party into contract
C. A party induces his son-in-law to sign an unfair contract
D. A party knowingly provides false information about a portion of a contract.
Q 3. Contractual disputes of a technical nature may be most expeditiously and effectively solved
through:
A. A lawsuit
B. Court appeals
C. Contract renegotiations
D. Arbitration.
Q 4. Which type of original work below is automatically protected by copyright upon creation?
A. Paintings
B. Inventions
C. Clothing design
D. Signature.
Q 5. In order to compensation to be awarded to a plaintiff in a tort liability case, the defendant
must have:
A. Caused injury to the plaintiff
B. Been willful negligent
C. Signed a contract of performance
D. Performed under supervision
Q 6. Which of the following is the most common job activity of top level manager?
A. Writing and reading corporate financial report
B. Developing and testing new products
C. Designing and implementing production system
D. Directing and interacting with people

Q 7. The professionals standard of care and skill establishes the point at which a professional:
A. May or may not charge a fee for services
B. Has the duty to apply reasonable care
C. May be judged negligent in the performance of service
D. Has met the minimum requirement for registration
Q 8. To effectively reduce liability exposure the professional engineer, geologist or geophysical
should:
A. Pursue continuing educational opportunities
B. Work under the supervision of a senior engineer, geologist or geophysicist
C. Maintain professional standards in practice
D. Provide clients with frequent progress reports
Q 9. Which of the following is a minimum requirement for registration as a professional
engineer?
A. Canadian citizenship
B. Experience in engineering work
C. Course work in engineering
D. Residence in the province
Q 10. A person may assume that the title professional engineer before being registered with the
Association if working under the direct supervision of a registered professional engineer.
True False

Reference

Q 11. If an employer knowingly engages a person for work that requires the services of a
professional engineer, and that person is not registered or licensed with the association, both the
employer and the employee are in violation of the professional engineering Act.
True False

Reference

Q 12. A person convicted of a criminal offence under an Act other than the professional
engineering Act may be suspended from membership in the Association.
True False Reference
Q 13. Members of the armed Forces stationed in your province are subject to the provisions of
the professional engineering Act.
True False Reference
Q 14. A professional engineer must be aware of all the related facts before publicly expressing an
opinion on an engineering subject.
True False Reference
Q 15. A professional engineer must ensure that clients understand the full extent of his or her
responsibility.
True False Reference

Q 16. It is voluntary, and not mandatory for a professional engineer to strive to keep informed
about new techniques in his or her field of endeavour.
True False Reference
Q 17. A professional may be criticize the work of a fellow engineer publicly if he or she first
advises the fellow engineer of the intend to do so.
True False Reference
Q 18. If a person is working under the direct supervision of a professional engineer who assumes
all responsibility, the subordinate is still required to be registered.
True False Reference
Q 19. Unless a person is registered or licensed by the Association of professional engineers of
any province, that person may not imply that he or she is entitle to engage in professional
engineering..
True False Reference
Q 20. As far as work is concerned, a professional engineers first responsibility is to the
employer.
True False Reference
Q 21. A professional engineer may seal plans that have been prepared neither by himself /
herself nor under his / her personal direction.
True False Reference
Q 22. A professional engineer may be compensated by more than one interested party for the
same service without the consent of all interested parties.
True False Reference
Q 23. All specifications and reports must be sealed by the professional engineer who has done
the work involved.
True False Reference
Q 24. Council may ask witness to attend an inquiry on a discipline matter and has the power to
ensure attendance.
True False Reference
Q 25. If a member is found guilty of unprofessional conduct, the most severe penalty Council
may mete out is a reprimand.
True False Reference
Q 26. Council may initiate an inquiry where professional misconduct is suspected, even though
no written complain has been received.
True False Reference

Q 27. A professional engineer having first advised his or her fellow engineer of the intent to do
so may accept a commission to review the work of the fellow engineer.
True False Reference
Q 28. It is not mandatory for a professional engineer to report a colleague he or she feels is
engaged in unethical practice.
True False Reference
Q 29. A professional engineer has no responsibility for the professional development engineers in
his or her employ.
True False Reference
Q 30. If a professional engineer in charge of an assignment is overruled by his or her superior or
client, the engineer should present clearly the consequences to be expected from the proposed
deviations and then complete the assignments, provided that the ruling of the superior or client
does not jeopardize public property, life or the environment..
True False Reference
Q 31. The objects of the Association are primarily to:
a.
ensure that the rights and interested of all engineers in the province are protected.
True False Reference
b.
ensure that the public interest is served and protected through the competent and ethical
practice of engineering within the province.
True False Reference
Q 32. Registration as a full member of the Association may be granted if the following education
and experience requirements:
a.
The applicant has an accredited engineering degree and has experience satisfactory to
Council.
True False Reference
b.
The applicant has passed the examinations required by Council and has a minimum of six
years of satisfactory engineering experience.
True False Reference
Q 33. The practice of engineering, as defined by the Act, covers a broad range of activities.
However, the following persons are considered exempt from the provisions of the Act.
a.
Those were doing engineering work before the Act became law.
True False Reference
b.
Technicians working under the direct and personal supervision of professional engineer.
True False Reference

c.
Land surveyors, architects, electricians and enginemen provided they do not engage in
the practice of engineering.
True False Reference
d.
Those who have ten or more years of good engineering experience and feel they are
competent and have a basic right to work as an engineer.
True False Reference
Q 34. Mr. X a registered member of another provincial Association is transferred to Manitoba by
his company and has taken up permanent residence in Winnipeg. His new title is chief design
engineer for western Canada. For the past two months he has been the designer of a commercial
building in Manitoba. He uses his title and P.Eng. after his name on his business card. He has
not become a member of the Association. Assess the following statements:
a.
Membership in the other provincial Association allows him to practice engineering in
Manitoba: therefore, he does not have to become a member of the APEM.
True False Reference
b.
Mr. X should have applied for registration with APEM on arrival in Manitoba.
True False Reference
c.
Mr. X should immediately apply for a temporary licence to practice in Manitoba.
True False Reference
d.
Mr. X is in contravention of the Act since he is practicing engineering and he is liable for
the penalty under the Act.
True False Reference
e.
Mr. X is in contravention of the Act for using P.Eng. after his name.
True False Reference
Q 35. What is ISLMP?
ISLMP: Integrated Safety and Loss Management Program is a program designed to reduce the
risk of people, environment, assets and production in an integrated manner in all industrial
settings.
Q 36. What is Near miss?
Near miss: An incident that could have resulted in a loss, but did not.
Q 37. According to Health & Safety Act, what are the obligation of employer s & employees?
Obligations of Employer: must take reasonable and practical steps to ensure the health and
safety of employees and any other persons present on the work site. Also ensure that employees
are aware of their responsibilities and duties under this Act and the regulations.
Obligations of Worker: to take reasonable care to protect their own health and safety and that
of other workers present and must help the employer to ensure their health and safety and that of
other workers on the site (including workers employed by a different employer).

Q 38. What is Imminent Danger?

Imminent danger means a danger that is not normal for the occupation or a danger that would
cause a person in that profession not to perform the work tasks.
Workers must not perform any work task or operate any tool, appliance or equipment if they
have reasonable and probable grounds to believe it will create imminent danger to their own
health and safety or that of another worker at the work site.
Q 39. What are the fines for an offense against Occupational Health and Safety Act?
1st offense $150,000 + $10,000 per day for period is continued + imprisoned not more 6 months.
2nd offense$300,000 + $20,000 per day for period is continued + imprisoned not more 12 months.

Q 40. Why management of risks is needed?

Risk management involves eliminating hazards and reducing risks to people, the environment,
assets and production. Risks are analyzed, quantified and categorized and then decide how and
to what extent certain risk can be effectively reduced. This is a never-ending process.
Q 41. How the safety professionals are involved?
Safety professionals are a resource, but they are not in charge of and fully responsible for safety.
Risks are analyzed, quantified and categorized and then decide how and to what extent certain
risk can be effectively reduced.
Q 42. What is incident?
Incident: An undesired event that results in injury to people, damage to the environment or loss
of assets and / or production, which includes both an actual loss and a near miss.
Q 43. What are the causes of incident?
An incident leading to a loss is most often the result of contact with a substance or source of
energy (mechanical, electrical, thermal etc.) above the threshold limit of the body or structure
involved or the environment.
Q 44. How much is the fine for infraction for an industry?
For infractions to worker safety and environmental laws, industries can be fined as much as $
1 million and individuals can also be imprisoned.
Q 45. Why industries assess risks?
Industries assess and analyze risks in order to decide how those risks can be eliminated or
reduced.
Q 46. Is human error play any game?
It is certainly true that human error is a major cause of incidents.
Q 47. What is the ethics of business?
The first DUTY OF BUSINESS is to survive, and the guiding principle of business economics is
not the maximization of profit it is the avoidance of loss.

Q 48. What is the ethics for operation?

In any operation, it is extremely important to ensure that all employees are following correct
practices and have a well-designed safety and loss management program in place.
Q 49. What is the responsibility of a professional in operation site?
While on site, APEGGA Professionals must continuously look for deviations and resulting risks
and bring them to the attention of the appropriate personnel. If they do not get positive response
to remedy the situation, they must take appropriate whistle blowing action.
Professional engineers, geologists, and geophysicists shall have proper regard in all their work
for the safety and welfare of all persons and for the physical environment affected by their work.
Q 50. Is a prime contractor responsible?
The prime contractor has full responsibility for all the contractors and subcontractors under
their direction.
Q 51. What is Integrated Safety Program?
Integrated Safety and Loss Management Program is designed to reduce the risk of people,
environment, assets and production in an integrated manner in all industrial settings.
Q 52. What is HAZOP?
The Hazard and Operability study is a systematic and thorough technique that used to identify all
possible deviations and the consequences on other parts of a process / facilities. This study is
done in design stage of a plant or process system.
Q 53. Define Trademarks?
Trademarks: Trademark is a mark, word, symbol, picture, design or a combination of these,
used to distinguish the goods, wares or services (manufacture, sold, hired, leased or performed)
of one person or a group of persons or organization or group of people from those of others in
the marketplace.
Q 54. Define different types of Trademarks?
Ordinary marks: Ordinary marks are words and/or symbols that distinguish the goods, wares or
services of a specific firm or individual.
Certification marks: Certification marks identify goods, wares or services, which meet a
standard set by a governing organization. (Logo of APEGGA)
Distinguishing guise: Distinguishing guise identifies the unique shape of a product or its
package.
Q 55. Who can register Trademarks?
A person, a group of persons, organizations, group of people, companies, individuals,
partnerships, trade unions or lawful associations, provided they meet the requirements of the
trademarks Act.

Q 56. What are registered and what are not as Trademarks?

Marks registered: Word, symbol, design or combination of these, wares, goods, services
(manufactured, sold, leased, hired or performed).
Marks not registered: WORDS that are clearly descriptive (sweet, juice, delicious, perfectly
clean etc.); designate place of origin (Atlantic cod etc.); FULL NAME / SURNAME that of
another individuals; TERMS that are misleading (sugar sweet for candy; air express for courier
service etc); immoral & offensive; plant variety denominations & protected geographical
indications for wine & spirit; TERMS or SYMBOLS that are too similar to an existing and
expressly prohibited under the trademark Act (official government symbols, coats, badges &
crests, letters R.C.M.P., emblems
Q 57. What are the fees for Trademarks?
Trademark application fee is $150 non-refundable; certificate of registration (if successful) $200;
and renewal fee is $300.
Q 58. Can you register your name for Trademarks?
Normally any proper name cannot be registered as a trademark. But if anyone can demonstrate
that his name has become identified in the public mind with certain wares, goods or services, it
can be registered.
Q 59. How long the Trademark registration is valid?
Registration of trademark is valid for 15 years and renewable every 15 years afterwards upon
payment of a fee.
Q 60. What is trademark & trade name?
A trade name is the name under which people conduct business. It can be registered as
trademark, only if it is used to identify wares, goods or services.
Q 61. Notes on Trademark:
# Trademark registration is not mandatory but it is advisable.
# Trademark must be used in Canada before it can be registered.
# Registration of trademark in Canada protects the right in Canada only.
# A trademark is a form of property. It can be sell, bequeath or otherwise transferable the rights.
# Trademark owners indicate their registration through R in a circle (Registered); TM
(Trademark); SM (Service mark); MD (Marquee depose); MC (Marquee de commerce).
R in circle and MD can be used/written only if it is registered.
# Filing date: The date on which a completed application for trademark is officially received at
the trademark office and filed. Not the date of granting registration.
Q62. What is Patent?
Patent is a document, protecting the rights of the inventor and is a repository of useful technical
information for the public. Patents cover new inventions (process, machine, manufacture,
composition of matter or any new) & useful improvements of an existing invention.

Q63. Describe the criteria for Patentability.

The basic criteria are, the invention must be new - first in the world; must be useful, functional
& operative; must show inventive-ingenuity- not be obvious to someone skilled in that area
Q64. Who owns the patent and what is its validity?
The owner of the patent is the inventor for making, using or selling. The patent is valid for
maximum of 20 years after the filed date of application.
Owners of valuable patents who are benefiting from the patent system must pay maintenance
fees (to be paid yearly) or their patents right will expire before the maximum 20 years.
Q 65. What are the fees for Patent registration?
Three (3) kinds of fees are filing fee $150 for small entry, $300 for large entry; examination fee
$200 for small entry, $400 for large entry and grant of patent fee $150 for small entry, $300 for
large entry
Q 66. Why need Patent information?
A prime goal of the patent office is to make patent information available to Canadian industries,
universities & research centers to help them keep abreast of innovations. The office contains
over 1.4 million Canadian patents, 4.9 million American patents & almost all of the patents
from most industrialized countries.
Q 67. What is compulsory license in Patent?
Compulsory License: The right granted by the Commissioner of Patents to one or more parties to
produce a patented invention. This is granted under certain circumstances as a measure against
abuse of patent right.
Q 68. What is Patent infringement?
Making, using, and/or selling an invention on which a patent is in force without the inventor's
permission is patent infringement
Q 69. What is Patent pending?
Patent Pending: Sometimes a label affixed to new products informing others that the inventor has
applied for patent and the legal protection from infringement may be forthcoming.
Q 70. What is Patent drawing?
Patent Drawings: The technical drawings that illustrate the invention. This is a part of the Patent
application.
Q 71. What is Paris convention for patent?
An agreement which allows inventors interested in applying for a foreign patent to have their
filling date in one country recognized by other countries that have signed an international
agreement called the Paris Convention.

Q 72. What is Copyright?

Copyright is the exclusive right to copy a creative work or allow someone to do so. It includes
the sole right to:
# Produce, reproduce, perform or publish any translation of work.
# Convert a dramatic work into a novel or other non-dramatic work or way of performance.
# Make a sound recording of a literary, dramatic or musical work.
# Reproduce, adapt & publicly present a work by cinematography.
# Communicate the work by telecommunication.
# Present an artistic work created after July 07, 1988 at public exhibition.
# Computer program that can be reproduce in the ordinary course of its use.
Q 73. What are protected by Copyright?
Copyright provide protection for literary, artistic, dramatic or musical works, computer
programs, performances, sound recording and communication signals.
These works include paintings, drawings, sculptures, engravings, photographs, books, maps,
charts, films, encyclopedias, news papers, reviews, magazines, plays, architectural plans,
television & radio programs, computer programs, sound recordings (records, cassettes & taps)
performers performances, communication signals etc.
Literary works: books, pamphlets, poems, and computer program.
Dramatic works: films, videos, plays, screenplays and scripts.
Musical works: music composition (lyrics without music fall into literary work category).
Artistic works: paintings, drawings, sculptures, engravings, photographs, maps, charts, and
architectural plans.
Performer performances: actors, musicians, dancers and singers performances.
Communication signals: the communications' signals that are broadcast.
Sound recordings: records, cassettes, compact discs etc.
Q 74. What are not protected by Copyright?
Copyright do not protect: Titles, names, slogans, short words & combination (title of a song),
short phrases, method (such as method of teaching or sculpting etc), themes, idea of a game, plot,
plots or characters, factual information, facts in the article, news that all are considered part of
the public property.
Q 75. What is Fair dealing and plagiarism?
Fair dealing: Use of authors works for the purpose of private study, research, criticism, review or
news reporting that is not considered to constitute infringement of copyright.
Plagiarism: Using the work or part of the work of another person and claiming it as your own. It
is one specific form of copyright infringement.
Q 76. How long a Copyright is valid?
Copyright in Canada lasts for the life of the author, the remainder of the calendar year in which
the author dies and for 50 years following the end of the calendar year (31st Dec, of the 50th year).
Q 77. What is Copyright infringement?

A copyright give the author sole right to produce, reproduce his work through publication,
performances and / or to authorize such activities to someone. Anyone does such things without
author's permission (violating author's right) is copyright infringement.
Infringement
#1. Reporting of articles without copyright
owner's permission
#2. Playing records at a dance without
copyrights owner's permission
#3. Giving a public performance of a play
without copyrights owner's permission

Non-infringement
#1. Quoting a few lines of the article in a
research paper, for criticism, for reviews are
fair dealing.
#2. Playing records at home.

#3. Giving a public performance of a play by

Shakespeare (no copyright exists / public
property)
#4. Photocopying articles for a class of
#4. Obtaining permission from the author and
students without copyrights owner's permission paying a fee (if requested) in order to use an
article.
#5. Taping favorite band at a musical concert
#5. Borrowing a musical tape from friend to
without copyrights owner's permission.
copy onto a blank tape for private use (royalty
payment to the owner of the song has been paid
when the blank tape was purchased).
Q 78. Define literary, dramatic, musical work and crown copyright?
Literary work: Works consisting of text that includes novels, poem, songs, lyrics without music,
catalogues, reports, tables & translations, computer programs etc.
Dramatic work: Works includes plays, screenplays, scripts, films, videos and choreographic
works & translation of such works.
Musical work: Works, which consists of music plus lyrics or music only.
Crown copyright: Copyright in works prepared for or published by the government i.e.
government publications. Crown copyrights are usually protected by copyright Acts. Permission
is required to use or reproduce government works.
Q 79. Notes on copyright:
# Themes, ideas, most titles, names, catch phrases and other short word combinations of no real
substance are not protected by copyright.
# Copyright is automatically acquired when an original work or other subject matters are
created and hence automatically protected by law.
# Copyright of a foreign author is valid in Canada.
# Use or reproduction of work for private study, research, criticism, reviews or new reporting all
are fair dealings..
# Libraries or educational institutions cannot make multiple copies of part of books or articles for
student use. The making of multiple copies requires the consent of the copyright owner. This
consent may be obtained through a licensing agreement with a photocopying collective.
# Articles in a news paper or periodical which are not scholarly, scientific or technical can be
copied provided the copy is used for private study or research and at least 12 months old.

# Non-profit libraries, archives and museums may copy published & unpublished works or
protected by copyright - in order to maintain & manage their collection. This is exception under
copyright Act.
# A non-profit organization or at the request of a person with perceptual disability (someone
who has difficulty reading or hearing) may copy a work protected by copyright for his / her
benefit.
Q 80. What is Industrial design?
An industrial design is the features of shape, configuration, pattern or ornament to a finished
article, design as a model or pattern to produce 50 or more manufactured articles made by hand,
tool or machine.
Example: the shape of a table, the ornamentation on the handle of a spoon etc.
Q 81. Does an industrial design require registration?
In order to be protected, the industrial design must be registered. If the design is used as a model
or pattern to produce 50 or more manufactured articles, it can only protected by an industrial
design registration. To be eligible for registration, the design must be substantially original.
Q 82. What is the validity and fee for registration of industrial design?
Validity: The registration for industrial design is valid for 10 years from the date of registration,
subject to a payment of maintenance fee during the first 5 years.
Fee: The processing fee for registration is $160.00 & the maintenance fee is $215.
Q 83. Who can apply for a registration of industrial design?
The following person can apply: # The creator & the proprietor of a design.
# Employer, if the designer is hired under contract to develop a design.
# Employer, if the design is a part of the employment of the company.
# Partnership, if the designer work together.
Q 84. Which designs are not protected by industrial design?
The industrial design registration does not protect the followings under the industrial Act:
# Designs that are useful but not intend to produce visual appeal and have no fixed
appearance (holograms)
# A method of construction or manufacturing processor
# A principle of construction or how an article is built or an idea, a color
# The useful function of the article
Q 85. Can an artistic design be registered in industrial design act?
If the artistic design is originally created as a work of art, it is protected automatically
under copyright Act. But, once it is used or intends to use it as a model or pattern to produce
more than 50 single useful articles, it is considered as an industrial design & protected
under Industrial Design Act.

Q 86. Notes on Industrial Design:

# Industrial design is different from trademark & copyright protection, which allow claiming
ownership even without registration.
# Industrial design registration in Canada protects in Canada only. It can be protected in other
countries only by filing in each country separately.
# There is no time limit for filing an application for registration, unless there has been
publication. The application must be filed within 12 months of the publication date.
# Non-Canadians may register their designs in Canada provided they meet the Canadian
requirements.
# The Industrial Design Office cannot stop someone else from infringing design. This
responsibility rests with the owner of the design. He may start any legal action within 3 years of
the alleged offence.
Q 87. Name the labor laws under Provincial law?
Provincial law deals with i) The Relations between Trade union & Employers, ii) The
Labour Standards, iii) The Workers Compensation, and iv) The Occupational Health &
Safety.
Q 88. What is CPP?
Under Canada Pension Plan (CPP), an employer is required to deduct from an employee a
percentage of the employees earnings from pension able employment and remit that amount to
the federal government together with an amount contributed by the employer.
Q 89. Which type of industry and labor law is under Federal law?
Federal labour legislation governs labour relations & employment matters where industries and
undertakings are of an inter-provincial, national or international nature & concerned.
Q 90. Which employment laws are covered by Canada labour Code?
The Canada Labour Code covers 3 (three) general areas of employment law: (i) Minimum
employment standards (ii) Safety of employees and (iii) Relation between trade union &
employers.
Q 91. What are the minimum employment standards?
Minimum employment standard deals with hours of work, overtime pay, minimum wages,
holidays, vacations, maternity leave, bereavement leave, notice of termination of employment &
unjust dismissal of non-unionized employees.
Q 92. Define Workers Compensation Act, Human Right Code and Occupational Health and
Safety Act.
The Workers Compensation Act: Is an employer-financed accident fund for medical aid and
loss of earnings. The fund compensates permanent or partial disability caused by personal
injury, accident or illness that results from employment.
The Human Right Code: It establishes that every person has right to equal treatment with respect
to employment, without discrimination because of race, ancestry, place of origin, colour, ethnic

origin, citizenship, creed, sex, sexual orientation, age, marital status, family status, record of
offences, or handicap.
Occupational Health & Safety Act covers the employees safety. The Act provides that a health &
safety committee is required at most workplaces where twenty (20) or more workers are
employed.
Q 93. When an employee can deny a work?
An employee could refuse to perform work where the employee has reasonable cause to believe
that the machine or device being used, or the workplace in which the employee is working, is
UNSAFE.
Q 94. What are the penalties if occupational health & safety law is breach?
a) A person who contravenes this Act or the regulations or fails to comply with an order made
under this Act is guilty of an offence and liable.
1st offense $150,000 + $10,000 per day for period is continued + imprisoned not more 6 months.
2nd offense$300,000 + $20,000 per day for period is continued + imprisoned not more 12 months.

b) For infractions to worker safety and environmental laws, industries can be fine as much as $
1 million and individuals can also be imprisoned.
c) For breach of duties under this Act, the maximum fine for corporations is $500,000 for each
offence.
d) A person who knowingly makes any false statement or gives false information is guilty of an
offence and liable to a fine not more than $500 or to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 6
months or both.
Q 95. What is meant by employment equity?
The federal government passed the Employment Equity Act in 1986 in an effort to promote
equity and non-discriminatory practices in the workplace.
Q 96. What does mean Workers compensation to a worker and to an employer?
For employee: Workers, who receive an injury or occupational disease directly from
employment covered under WCB insurance, are eligible for compensation benefits. In turn,
workers cannot sue their employer as a result of the injury or disease.
For employer: Employers with the WCB insurance fund the benefits and services to the injured
workers. In return, employers cannot be sued by any worker or employer covered by WCB
insurance, for industrial accident or disease.
Q 97. What is the definition of family under WC Act?
Member of a family means a spouse, parent, grandparent, stepparent, child, stepchild, brother,
sister, half-brother and half-sister of a worker.

Q 98. What is the definition of spouse under WC Act?

Spouse includes a common law partner, who cohabited with the worker for a) at least 5 years
immediately preceding the workers death or b) at least 2 years immediately preceding the
workers death, if there is a child of the common law relationship
Q 99. Who is eligible for compensation?
Compensation is payable:
a) to a worker, who suffers personal injury by an accident or who is seriously disabled as a
result of an accident unless the injury is serious & willful misconduct of the worker
b) If a worker suffers disablement or potential disablement caused by an occupational disease
c) If a worker is found dead at a place where the worker had right, during the course of his
employment
e) If a worker is required as a condition of his employment to attend any classes or take any
course of instruction
b) to a dependant of a worker, who dies as a result of an accident
Q 100. What is the compensation of a worker for a injury for a day?
If an accident disables a worker for all or part of the day, the employer shall pay compensation
for that day, by the end of the next regularly scheduled pay period and the amount will be equal
to minimum normal wage the worker would have received for that day.
The WCB is not responsible for providing compensation to the worker, other than medical
aid, for that day.
If an employer contravenes the payment of compensation, the Board (a) may pay to the
worker the amount due and (b) may impose a fee of not more than $100 on the employer, each
time the board makes a payment.
Q 101. What is the compensation of a worker if disable for longer than a day?
If an accident disables a worker for longer than the day, the employer shall pay compensation
for that day, by the end of the next regularly scheduled pay period and the amount will be equal
to minimum normal wage the worker would have received for that day.
The WCB shall pay compensation to the worker in respect of everyday after the day of the
accident.
Q 102. When an employer can refuse for compensation for injury of a worker?
An employer may refuse to make a payment, until the worker provides to him a report from
physician of the workers choice stating that the injury resulting from the accident was the cause
of the consequent absence of the worker from work.
Q 103. What is the time limit for compensation claim?
The WCB shall not pay compensation (a) to a worker unless the worker makes a claim to the
Board within 12 months after the date of the accident. (b) to a dependant unless the dependant
makes a claim to the Board within 12 months after the date of death of the worker.

Q 104. What is the time for an employer to report an accident?

i. If an accident disables or is likely to disable a worker for more than the day, the employer is
required to fill out an accident report within three days (72 hours).
ii. After an accident, if the worker has returned to work or able to return to work, , the employer give
notice of the fact to the Board within 24 hours after he acquire knowledge.

iii. An employer, who contravenes to report the accident of a worker as regulation, is liable to
pay to the Board up to $100 for each day the contravention continues, up to a max. $500.
iv. If an employer fails to report to the Board in regard to injured worker within 30 days, the
Board may investigate the injury & the facts and may charge the cost of the investigation to the
employer.
v. A physician, who attends an injured worker, shall forward a report to the Board within 2 days
(48 hours) after the date of his first attendance.
Q 105. What are the conditions of permanent disability?
Permanent total disability shall be presumed in all cases in which the injuries consists of:
i.) Total & permanent loss of the sight of both eyes or loss of both feet at or above the ankle and
loss of both hands at or above the wrist
ii) The loss of 1 (one) hand at or above the wrist and 1 (one) foot at or above the ankle
iii) Injury to the spine resulting in permanent & complete paralysis of both legs, both arms or 1
leg & 1 arm
iv) An injury to the central nervous system resulting in mental incompetence that renders the
worker incapable of being gainfully employed
Q 106. How many pensions can get a worker?
Only 1 pension payable: If a person who is receiving or is entitled to receive a pension because
of the death of a worker subsequently becomes entitled to a pension because of the death of
another worker, that person shall not receive both pensions but shall be paid the greater of the 2
pensions.
Q 107. What is the compensation for disability?
Period: (a) monthly basis in the case of a permanent disability, (b) bi-weekly basis in the case of
a temporary disability.
Amount: (a) for permanent total and temporary total disability, 90% of the workers net
earnings (b) in the case of a permanent partial and temporary partial disability, a proportionate
part of 90% of the workers net earnings on the Boards estimate.
Limit: Compensation for permanent total and partial disability is payable not less than $900 per
month
Q 108. What is the compensation for death?
1. If a worker dies as a result of an accident and leaves a dependant spouse, a pension is payable
to the dependant spouse in an amount equal to the pension the worker would have received had
he lived and been a permanently totally disabled.

Q 109. What is 5-year term pension?

If the dependant spouse is gainfully employed when the youngest dependant child reaches 18
years of age, then the pension is a 5-year term pension in an amount equal to
a). for the 1st 12-month period, the full pension
b) for the 2nd 12-month period, 80% of the full pension
c) for the 3rd 12-month period, 60% of the full pension
d) for the 4th 12-month period, 40% of the full pension
e) for the 5th 12-month period, 20% of the full pension
that the worker would have received had he lived and been a permanently totally disabled.
Q 110. What is workers compensation?
Workers compensation is a type of no fault insurance. It is based on collective liability, means
in each industry; employers share the cost of compensating injured workers.
WCB insurance applies to most employers and workers in Alberta.
Directors of a corporation, who do not have personal coverage, are not personally protected from
legal action resulting from workers injuries.

Q 111. What is funding principle in WCB?

The WCBs funding principle is to charge annual premiums that, with investment earnings, will
met the current & future claim costs of accident that occur in the year and all the WCB
administering expenses. Any accumulated surplus or deficit is amortized (pay back).
Q 112. What are the rate rules of compensation?
i) The maximum compensation a worker receives for total disablement is based on 90% of his
net earnings as calculated by WCB.
ii) A pension award for permanent disability is based on the degree of disability and the rate of
compensation in effect at the time of the accident.
iii) A worker cannot make an agreement with his employer to waive any compensation benefits
he is entitled to.
Q 113. What about the medical costs?
The Alberta Health Care Insurance Plan pays medical aid costs for compensable accidents,
subject to reimbursement by the WCB. The WCB directly pays those medical costs not accepted
by A.H.C.I.P.
Q 114. What about the Rehabilitation program?
Rehabilitation is provided at the WCB Millard Rehabilitation Centre in Edmonton or the
Columbia Work Rehabilitation Centre in Calgary, if referred by the Claimant Services
Department.
Q 115. What is the fatality benefit to dependants?
If a worker dies from a compensable accident that occurred on or after January 1, 1982, the
dependant family receives the pension in an amount equal that the deceased worker would have
received had he lived and been a permanently totally disabled. This pension is payable until
the youngest child is 18 years of age.

Q 116. Who is covered under WCB?

Workers: employed in industries to which WCB insurance applies, has protection from loss of
earnings due to a work-related injury or disease
Individuals who own mobile industrial equipment: Individuals, without workers, who own
and operate mobile industrial equipment, may apply for personal coverage as proprietors.
Workers engaged in a volunteer activity: A person or organization that has volunteers assisting
in its operation, may apply to have the volunteers covered by workers compensation insurance.
Q 117. Who does not covered under WCB?
The WCB does not automatically cover the following individuals: Proprietors and partners in a
partnership, Employers, Directors of a corporation, Appointed members of an association, Board,
Authority.
Q 118. What are the appeal procedures under WCB?
Appeal: Where an employer, worker, workers dependant is not satisfied with the decision of
either the Claimant Services Review Committee or the Assessment Review Committee, they
must submit a written appeal to the Appeals Commission within one year of decision.
A decision of the Appeal commission is final, and there can be no appeal to the Courts regarding
a decision.
Q 119. In which type of workplace requires a health and safety committee?
The Occupational Health & Safety Act covers employee safety. A health & safety committee is
required at most workplaces where twenty (20) or more workers are employed.
Q 120. Define the term Registered architect and restricted practitioner.
Registered architect: An architect registered with the Alberta Association of Architects under
the Architects Act. The Council authorizes a registered architect (on recommendation of the Joint
Board) to practice without having the stamp or seal of a professional engineer.
Restricted practitioner: A registered architect under the Architects Act who holds a certificate
of authorization under APEGGA Act. The Council issues certificate of authorization to a
registered architect who has competently provided a service in the practice of P Eng. in Alberta
& applied for the certificate before October 01, 1982.
The restricted scope of the practice of engineering in which the individual is permitted to
engage is specified in the certificate & in the register
Q 121. What is the fee for an RPT?
APEGGA fees for the Registered Professional Technologists must not be greater than the
corresponding fees fixed in respect of Professional Members.
Q 122. When the APEGGA act was incorporated with provincial statute?
The provincial statute incorporated it in 1920 and then it was known as the Association of
Professional Engineers of Alberta
Q 123. Define the term RET and RPT.

Registered Engineering Technologists (RET): A person, holds diploma in Engineering, has at

least 4 years of satisfactory experience, has general knowledge of the practice of engineering, is
of good character and reputation, member of ASET as certified engineering technologist (CET),
and registered as engineering technologist under the Act and applied to Joint Registration Board.
Registered Professional Technologists (RPT.): An engineering technologist (RET), is of good
character & reputation, nominated for registration by ASET, has proficiency in the English
language, has 6 years experience of which 2 years are to the practice of engineering and
registered with APEGGA for the practice of engineering within a specified scope & use a little
seal or stamp.
Q 124. What is the enrolment condition of Student and Examination candidate and MIT?
Student candidate: To enroll as a student candidate the applicant, is of good character and
reputation, applies to registrar and meets one of the following requirements:
-i. Enrolled full time program in engineering, geology or geophysics at U of AB
-ii. at least 2 years of post secondary education in science or engineering/geology/ geophysical
technology + 1 year experience
-iii. at least 2 years of post secondary education of other program + 3 years experience
Examination Candidate: An applicant applies to registrar, is of good character and reputation,
is a graduate of university program in engineering, geology or geophysics or a related academic
program but the applicant has to complete one or more confirmatory examinations for purpose of
correcting a perceived academic deficiency.
Member-in-Training: An applicant, graduate in engineering/geology/geophysics or related
academic program acceptable to the Board of Examiners, is of good character and reputation,
registered as an examination candidate and completed the confirmatory examination but does
not have the work experience, application forwarded to the Registrar.
Q 125. What are the enrolment conditions of Professional Member?
Professional Members: An applicant, a Canadian citizen or permanent residence, is of good
character and reputation, has knowledge of Act, Regulation & general knowledge related to the
professional practice, has proficiency in the English language, and the applicant meets one of
the following requirements:
-i Member-in-training + at least 4 years work experience
-ii. Examination candidate + completed examination + at least 4 years work experience
-iii. Student candidate + completed examinations prescribed by Board + 8 years work experience
-iv. Is not registered as examination, student or MIT but has combined academic qualification &
experience acceptable to Board
Q 126. Who has the right to cancel the registration of Professionals?
The Registrar shall not cancel the registration of a professional member, licensee, and permit
holder or certificate holder at his request unless the Council approves the request for
cancellation.

Q 127. Can a professional be engage in practice if the Registration is cancelled? What is the
penalty clause?
A professional, whose registration as licensee, permit holder or certificate holder is cancelled or
suspended, shall not engage in the professional practices, without the consent of the Council.
Every person & every member, officer, employee or agent of a firm, partnership, corporations
who contravenes this, is guilty of an offence & liable
For the 1st offence, to a fine not more than $2000
For the 2nd offence, to a fine not more than $4000
For the 3rd and each subsequent offence, to a fine not more than $6000 or to
imprisonment for a term not more than 6 months or both fine & imprisonment.
Q 128 How the Board of Examiners constitutes and what is its quorum?
Board of Examiners: The Board of Examiners consists of (i.) An Executive Committee, (ii)
Professionals appointed by the council of APEGGA, and (iii) Other persons appointed by the
Minister.
Quorum: The quorum for the Board of Examiners is 3 of the members & the quorum for
executive committee of the board is also 3. The Board shall meet at least twice a year & the
executive committee shall meet as is necessary to rule on application for registration.
Q 129 Which members of the Board of Examiners does the minister appoint?
The minister shall appoint 3 (Three) Member of public nominated by council for the Board of
examiners.
Also, the minister shall appoint 1 (one) Member of public nominated by council and 2 RPT
(engineering) or engineering technologists nominated by ASET for the Executive committee of
the Board of examiners.
Q 130. Who are members of the executive committee of the Board of Examiners?
The Executive Committee of the Board of Examiners consists of:
Deans of Engineering of U in AB, One senior professor from each of engineering discipline,
departments of geology and departments of geophysics of the Universities in Alberta, Other
professionals who are not directly associated with Universities & represents engineering,
geology & geophysics, The Registrar of the Association, One member of the public appointed
by the Minister and 2 RPT(engineering) or engineering technologists nominated by ASET.
Q 131. For which period the members of the Board of Examiners are appointing?
The members of the Board of Examiners appointed by the council are for 3 years. The council
shall designate a person as chair of the Board of Examiners, who will also serve the chair of the
executive committee. The term for the chair is for 3 years & may be re-appointed.
Q 132. What is confirmatory examination?
An examination required by the Board of Examiners for the purpose of assessing engineering,
geology, geophysics or related degree held by the applicant & not for a purpose related to
correction of perceived academic deficiencies.

Q 133. If a person is qualified for P. Member, can he be register as an MIT?

No person may be admitted as an MIT if at the time of application the person is qualified to
register as a professional member or licensee.
Q 134. How an applicant is informed about the decision of the Board of examiners?
If the decision made by the Board is to refuse or differ the registration of the applicant, reasons
for the decisions shall be sent in writing to the applicant. And if the decision is to approve the
registration, the registrar shall publish a notice of approval.
Q 135. Who approve the registration of Professionals, Licensee and permit holders?
The Board of Examiners approves the registration of professionals, an individual who has
applied to the board and eligible in accordance with the Act.
The Board of Examiners approves the registration of Licensee, an individual who has applied
to the board and eligible in accordance with the Act.
The Council approves the registration as a permit holder of a partnership or other association
of persons, corporations that has applied to the council and eligible in accordance with the Act.
Q 136. What is meant by practice of engineering?
Practice of engineering means reporting, advising, evaluating, designing, preparing plans &
specifications, directing the construction, technical inspection, maintenance or operation of any
structure work or process that is aimed at the discovery, development or utilization of matter,
materials energy or any other way designed for the use & convenience of man, teaching
engineering at a university.
Q 137. Who can engage in the practice of engineering?
Except a professional engineer, a license, permit or certificate holder, no individual,
corporation, partnership or other entity shall engage in the practice of engineering.
Q 138. Who can use the title P. Eng.?
Except a professional engineer, a license, permit or certificate holder, no individual,
corporation, partnership or other entity shall use the title "professional engineer" (P. Eng.); the
word "engineer" in combination with any other name, title, description, letter, symbol that
represents that he is a professional engineer, license or permit holder.
Q 139. To whom the condition for the practice of engineering does not apply?
The condition for the practice of engineering does not apply to a person if he engages in planing,
designing, advising, erection, construction, alteration, addition, preparing plans, drawings,
specifications, inspection work etc under a contract to a 3 stories or less building as below:
i.) for assembly or institutional building, gross area 1 x 300 or 2 x 150 or 3 x 100 sq. meter.
ii.) for residential building single dwelling or multiple family dwelling containing 4 or less unit.
iii.) for residential building as a hotel, motel, gross area 1 x 400 or 2 x 200 or 3 x 130 sq. meters.
iv.) for warehouse, business, industrial building, gross area 1x500 or 2x250 or 3x165 sq. meters.

Q 140. Define different Committees / Board.

Joint Board: Joint Board means the joint board of practice of engineers & architects under
section 1 of schedule 8 of Government Organization Act.
The council shall refer every application for a certificate of authorization with or without
comment to the Joint Board of Practice.
Joint Registration Board: A Joint Registration Board consisting of 5 members appointed by the
council of APEGGA & 5 members appointed by the society of ASET. The members of the board
shall select a chair among themselves for a term not more than 1 (one) year. In selecting a chair
the members of the board shall alternate between council (APEGGA) & society (ASET)
appointees. The Board shall meet at least once every 6 months.
Appeal Board: An Appeal Board consists of (a) the professional members appointed by the
council of APEGGA and (b) 1 member of the public appointed by the Minister after consultation
with the Association for 3 years
Discipline Committee: A Discipline committee consists of (a) professional members appointed
by the council & (b) 1 member of the public appointed by the Minister. The council shall
designate 1 (one) professional member as the chair of the committee & in absence of the chair
majority of the committee may appoint an acting chair.
Joint firms: A firm to which a certificate of authorization has been issued. The firms are i.) The
Architects firm, ii.) The Engineers firm, iii) The proposed engineers & architects firm.
Architects firm: a partnership or corporation that practice architectural consulting and registered
architects holds a majority interest & control.
Engineers firm: a partnership or corporation that practice engineering consulting & professional
engineers holds a majority interest & control.
Proposed engineers & architects firm: a partnership or corporation that proposes to practice
engineering & architectural consulting services or proposes to engage in a practice satisfactory to
the Joint Board and professional engineers & registered architects holds a majority interest &
control.
Registration of the Joint Firms: Both the APEGGA & Architects council must agree that the
certificate of authorization should be issued & both shall sign the certificate before it is issued.
# A joint firm shall not hold it out as "engineers & architects" or "architects & engineers" if the
professional engineer or registered architects are employees only & not partners or
shareholders
#When a joint firm causes plans, drawings, specifications prepared in its practice or prepared by
other persons & reviewed by the professional member in its practice of engineering
-to be signed by its proper officer & affix with the permit number
-to be signed by & imprinted with the stamp or seal of the professional engineer who had
supervised, control or reviewed & assumed professional responsibility.

Q 141. Define different Practice Review Board.

Practice Review Board shall consist of not less than 5 members. Council appoints not less than 4
members (1 is council member) and the minister appoints 1 member of the public nominated by
the council.
* The term of each member is for 3 years & may be re-appointed.
* The council shall designate 1 professional member as chair.
# The council shall appoint not less than 2 P.Eng. 1 P. Geol. & 1 P. Geoph. as member of the
Practice Review Board.
# The members to the Practice Review Board (i) have at least 10 years of experience in the
practice of the profession and (ii) will represent a combination of academic qualification,
knowledge & experience.
# The Registrar or his designate shall serve as Secretary to the Practice Review Board.
# Quorum: A quorum the Practice Review Board is 4 of its members.
# The Practice Review Board shall meet at least twice a year & more frequently if the chair
considers it necessary to consider:
Q 142. What are functions of the Practice Review Board.
Powers of Practice Review Board:
# Assessment of the existing & the development of new educational standards & experiments
requirements
# The evaluation of desirable standards of competence of professional members, licensees,
permits holders or certificate holders
# Practice of profession by professional members, licensees, permit holders or certificate
holders
# Any other matters that the council form time to time.
Q 143. Who administer the continuing professional development program?
The Practice Review Board administers the continuing professional development program.
# Mandatory compliance: A professional member or licensee shall comply with the
requirements of the continuing professional development program as it applies to that persons
professional practice.
*Requirements of continuing professional development program are exempted under written
declaration that the professional or the licensee is not actively engaged in the practice and the
exemption is effective for 1 year from the date the declaration the association received.
Q 144. What is Certificate of authorization?
The certificate issued to the joint firm by the Joint Board to practice of engineering or
architecture is the certificate of authorization. The following may make application for a
"certificate of authorization": A professional engineer, A registered architect, An engineers firm,
An architects firm, A proposed engineers or architects firm and A partnership or corporation that
the joint board considers a suitable applicant
# If the prime activity of the joint firm is the provision of engineering consulting, shall apply to
the council of APEGGA.
# If the prime activity of the joint firm is the provision of architectural consulting services, shall
apply to the council of Architect Association.

Q 145. What is the structure of the council body of APEGGA?

The Council body of APEGGA shall consist of at least 16 professional members among whom
there shall not be less than 2 professional engineers, 2 professional geologists, and 1
professional geophysicist.
The Council structure is: President (1), Vice president (2), Immediate past president (1) and
Professional members (12)
# The professional members of the council must be elected annually by the professional
members of the Association for a period of 3 (three) years.
# The President of the Association is elected annually by the professional members of the
Association and holds office until a successor is elected. The president may vote at meetings of
the council or the Association only in the event of a tied vote.
# Quorum: A quorum for the meetings of the council is (a) at least one of the President or 2 Vice
presidents or the immediate past president, (b) 6 others professional members of the council.
# The council shall meet at the call of the president or on request in writing to the Executive
Director signed by not less than 4 councilors.
# The Council shall appoint a Registrar for the purpose of the Act
# The Council establishes the Continuing Professional Development Program of the Association
as the compulsory continuing education program for the professional members and licensees.
Q 146. How is the Executive committee of APEGGA is formed?
The Executive Committee of the Council shall consist of the following members: The president,
who is the chair (1), Vice president (2), The immediate past president (1) and The Executive
director of the Association (1)
Executive Director: The Executive Director shall be a professional member of the Association &
shall post a security bond at the expense of the Association in a sum to be fixed by the council
Q 147.How the unprofessional conducts and unskilled practice is described?
Unprofessional conduct and unskilled practices are detrimental to the best interest of public,
contravenes code of ethics, harms or tends to harm the standing of the profession, displays
lack of knowledge, lack of skill or judgement in the practice of profession, disgraceful or
dishonorable conduct whichever as per Discipline Committee
Q 148.How the election of APEGGA is conducted?
Election is conducted by letter ballot. The Executive Director mails ballot forms to the P
members not later than 50 days prior to annual meeting. Each member is entitled to vote for
each vacancy to be filled. The poll is closed at noon on 20th day prior to annual meeting and
after that times no ballot is considered.
# In case of equality of votes for any officer or councilor, the president or, in the absence of the
president, the chairman of the nominating committee shall cast the deciding vote.

# Only professional members are entitled to vote at annual, district or special meetings of the
Association.
Q 149.What is the quorum for the annual meeting of APEGGA?
At the annual meeting of the association a quorum shall be consist of 60 professional members.
Q 150.How the seal and signs of professionals are used?
A professional member, licensee or restricted practitioner shall sign documents or records and
stamp or seal documents or records. In the other hand, a permit holder shall affix its permit
number on documents or records.
Q 151.What are the powers of the discipline committee?
If the Discipline Committee finds that the conduct of the investigated person is unprofessional,
unskilled practice or both, the committee may make anyone or more of the following orders:
i) Reprimand (warning) the investigated person ii) suspend the registration for a specified
period or for any field of practice iii) limit his practice iv) impose condition to engage in the
practice v) direct the investigated person to pass a particular course vi) direct the investigated
person to satisfy the Discipline Committee. vii) Cancel the registration ix) Any other orders that
are considered appropriate in the circumstances
Q 152. Define honorary life member of APEGGA?
Life member: A member, who served 25 or more years as professional member of the association
or 25 years equivalent registration and at least last 10 years with the Association and has been
retired from the practice of the profession.
Honorary life members are retain all of the obligations, duties and privileges but are exempted
from payment of annual fees. At no time, there shall more than 30 honorary members in the
Association.
Honorary members do not have the right (a) to vote on Association affairs, (b) to call
themselves professional members, (c) to engage in the practice of engineering, geology or
geophysics.
Q 153. Special notes on code of ethics and professional practice
# Professional ethics is founded upon Integrity, competence and devotion to service and to the
advancement of human welfare.
# Professionals, through their practice, are charged with extending pubic understanding of the
professions and should serve in public affairs for the benefit to the public.
# Professionals will build their reputations on the basis of merit of services performed or
offered. Professionals shall not compete unfairly with others.
#Professionals shall not compete primarily on the basis of fees without due consideration for
other factors.
# Professionals shall demonstrate understanding professionalism and technical expertise to
members-in-training under their supervision.
# A contravention of the Code of Ethics may constitute unprofessional conduct or unskilled
practice, which is subject to disciplinary action.

# Professional shall have proper regard in all their work for the safety and welfare of all persons
and for the physical environment affected by their work.
# Professionals shall undertake only work that they are competent to perform by virtue of
training and experience.
# Professionals shall express opinion on related matters only on the basis of adequate knowledge
and honest conviction.
# Professionals shall sign, stamp and seal only plans, specifications, reports or documents that
they have prepared or that have prepared under their direct supervision & control; that were
prepared by another person in circumstances where the professional has thoroughly reviewed
them and accepted professional responsibility.
# Professionals shall act for their clients or employees as faithful agent or trustees and shall
always act independently with fairness and justice to all parties.
# Professionals shall not disclose confidential information without the consent of their client or
employers unless the withholding of the information is considered to be contrary to the safety
of the public.
# Professionals shall present clearly to their clients or employers the consequences to be
expected if other authorities overruled their professional judgement to work for which they are
professionally responsible.
# Professionals shall not engage in activities or accept remuneration for services rendered that
may create a conflict of interest with their client or employers without the knowledge and
consent of their client or employers.
# Professionals shall not offer or accept covert payment for the purpose of securing professional
assignments.
# Professionals shall represent their qualifications and competence or advertise professional
services offered, only through factual representation without exaggeration.
# Professionals shall conduct themselves toward other professionals and toward employees
and others with fairness and good faith.
# Professionals shall advise their Registrar of any practice by a member of the Association that
they believe to be contrary to this Code of Ethics.
Q 154. Special notes on Scope of Practice and professional practice
# No individual, corporation, partnership or other entity except a Professional Engineer, a
licensee, a permit holder or a certificate holder shall engage in the practice of engineering.
# A Professional Engineer, a licensee, a permit holder or a joint firm may engage in the practice
of surveying other than land surveying as defined in the Land Surveyors Act.
# A person engaged in the practice of engineering as an engineer-in-training or engineering
technologists in the course of his being employed or engaged and supervised and controlled by a
professional engineer, licensee, permit holder or certificate holder are exempted from this Act.

# A person who in accordance with an act or regulation in respect of mines, minerals, pipelines,
boilers and pressure vessels, building codes or safety codes for buildings is engaged in any
undertaking or activity are exempted from this Act
# A person who, on his own property and for his sole use of his domestic establishment, carries
out any work that does not involve the safety of the public are exempted from this Act.
# A member of the Canadian forces while actually employed on duty with the forces is
exempted from this Act.
# A person engaged or employed by a university whose practice of the profession consists
exclusively of teaching engineering at the university is exempted from this Act.