GS 2007-2011 Ies

IES2007 GA test.
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IES2008 GA test.pdf
IES2009 GA test-A.pdf
IES2010 GA test-B.pdf
IES2010 GA test-Solutions-B.pdf
IES2011 GA test-B.pdf
IES2011 GA test-C.pdf
IES2011 GA test-D.pdf
IES2011 GA test-Solutions.pdf
IES 2007 General Ability Test
S. K. Mondal
ENGINEERING SERVICE EXAMINATION - 2007

GENERAL ABILITY TEST
Time Allowed: Two Hours
Maximum Marks: 200
INSTRUCTIONS
1. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION,
YOU SHOULD CHECK THAT THIS TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY
UNPRINTED OR TORN OR MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS, ETC. IF SO, GET IT
REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST BOOKLET.
2. ENCODE CLEARLY THE TEST BOOKLET SERIES A, B, C OR D AS THE CASE
MAY BE IN THE APPROPRIATE PLACE IN THE ANSWER SHEET.
3. You have to enter your Roll Number on the Test Booklet in the Box provided
alongside. DO NOT write anything else on the Test Booklet.
4. This Test Booklet contains 120 items (questions), 60 in PART-A and 60 in PART-B.
Each item comprises four responses (answers). You will select the response which you
want to mark on the Answer Sheet. In case you feel that there is more than one correct
response, mark the response which you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY
ONE response for each item.
5. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided.
See directions in the Answer Sheet.
6. All items carry equal marks.
7. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet the response to various items in the
Test Booklet, you have to fill in some particulars in the Answer Sheet as per instructions.
sent to you with your Admission Certificate.
8. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet and the
examination has concluded, you should hand over to the Invigilator only the Answer
Sheet. You are permitted to take away with you the Test Booklet.
9. Sheets for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end.
10. Penalty for wrong answers:
THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE IN
THE OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTION PAPERS.
(i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for
which a wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one-third (0.33) of the marks
assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty.
(ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even
if one of the given answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as
above to that question.
(iii) If a question is left blank, i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no
penalty for that question.
S. K. Mondal
PART-A
ORDERING OF SENTENCES
Directions (For the 8 items which follow):
In the following items, each passage consists of six sentences. The first sentence (S1)
and the final sentence (S6) are given in the beginning. The middle four sentences in
each have been removed and jumbled up. These are labelled P, Q, R and S. You are
required to find out the proper sequence of the four sentences and mark accordingly on
the Answer Sheet.
Example 'X' has been solved for you.
(EXAMPLE)
S1: There was a boy named Jack.
S2: At last she turned him out of the house.
P: So the mother asked him to find work.
Q: They were very poor.
R: He lived with his mother.
S: But Jack refused to work.
Which one of the following is the correct sequence?
(a) R - Q - P S
(b) P - Q - R S
(c) Q - P - R S
(d) R - P - S Q
X.
Explanation:
The correct sequence in this example is R - Q - P - S, which is marked by (a). Therefore,
(a) is the correct answer.
1. S1: The canvas of human rights is as large as life itself.

S6: In all such endeavours, the world is a small village, with a great deal to be learned
from each other in upholding human rights.
P: Upholding human rights in all the spheres is a challenge which every civilized society
has to accept.
Q: This will call for perpetual vigilance.
R: There are many connotations of human rights.
S: It will be necessary to ensure that there is a continuous movement forward, however
small it may be.
(a) R - P - S Q
(b) S - Q - R P
(c) R - Q - S P
(d) S - P - R Q
S. K. Mondal
2. S1: The Lok Sabha completed fifty years of its existence in May, 2002.
S6: While one may not agree with the view that the decision to televise the proceedings
of Parliament and State Legislatures was wrong, it will have to be admitted that it proved
our worst fears and brought these institutions to public ridicule.
P: The pros and cons of televising Parliamentary proceedings have been debated
extensively in India and abroad.
Q: In India, this task remains undone.
R: A common person can see the unseemly sight of democracy in action when the
proceedings of State Legislatures are telecast.
S: The hallmark of democratic governance is Parliament's supervision and control over
the executive.
(a) S - R - Q P
(b) P - Q - R S
(c) S - Q - R P
(d) P - R - Q S
3. S1: For ethical codes to be effective, provisions must be made for their enforcement.
S6: In fact, they can create a false sense of security.
P: Unethical managers should be held responsible for their actions.
Q: On the other hand, one should not expect codes to solve all problems.
R: Although the enforcement of ethical codes may not be easy, the mere existence of
such codes can increase ethical behaviour by clarifying expectations.
S: This means that privileges and benefits should be withdrawn and sanctions should be
applied.
(a) Q - S - R P
(b) P - R - S Q
(c) Q - R - S P
(d) P - S - R Q
4. S1: Managing, like all other practices whether medicine, music composition,
engineering, accountancy, or even baseball is an art.
S6: Thus, managing as practice is an art; the organized knowledge underlying the
practice may be referred to as a science
S. K. Mondal
P: It is this knowledge that constitutes a science.

Q: It is doing things in the light of the realities of a situation.
R: Yet managers can work better by using the organized knowledge about management.
S: It is know-how
(a) R - P - S Q
(b) S - Q - R P
(c) R - Q - S P
(d) S - P - R Q
5. S1: So why is there so much fuss in France over creeping Americanization?

S6: No one travelling in any part of France, city or village, could possibly mistake it for
any other country.
P: Though a wealthy and sophisticated society, France has found it hard to come to
terms with its decline in the pecking order of world powers.
Q: But the relative decline is not absolute decline.
R: One theory is that it has its roots in a failure of confidence.
S: The all-pervading American culture is an unwelcome reminder of days long gone
when French culture held sway.
(a) S - P - R Q
(b) R - Q - S P
(c) S - Q - R P
(d) R - P - S Q
6. S1: The Bundela Rajputs were Suryavanshis.

S6: There are accounts that the Bundelas branched off from the Kannauj Pratihara
dynasty.
P: It is also said that the Vindhyela was the name given to the lineage, which over time
was altered to Bundela.
Q: A satisfied Devi accorded the blessing that the drop of blood falling on the sacrificial
altar would yield great rulers.
R: The chief cut off his own head as an offering.
S. K. Mondal
S: Legend has it that a local Gahrwar Rajput chief did tireless penance to appease the
goddess Vindhyavasini Devi at her abode on the Vindhyan range.
(a) S - P - Q - R
(b) Q - R - S - P
(c) S - R - Q - P
(d) Q - P - S R
7. S1: Even those areas which are well above the sea level will feel the impact of climate
change.
S6: More importantly, we must take a totally different approach to management of water
resources.
P: Take an area like the Sunderbans, which is really low lying, you need some kind of
protection over there to ensure that life and property stay protected.
Q: If you get the kind of cloudburst that Mumbai had in 2005 and the sea level was much
higher, the drainage would be much less effective.
R: We need to take a second look at all these vulnerable areas and then take a series of
adaptation measures.
S: We are really caught between two factors, one is the increase in the sea level and the
other is the higher probability of extreme precipitation effects.
(a) Q-S-P-R
(b) R-P-S-Q
(c) Q-P-S-R
(d) R-S-P-Q
8. S1 : There were not many people in the United States from my part of the country.
S6: That was quite unusual because most of my friends who went to the United States
stayed back to make their careers.
P: But my grandfather's sudden demise became the cause of my return to India.
Q: I would have stayed there for a year more to do economics.
R: originally intended to do business administration.
S: It was an emotional decision on my part because he always wanted me to come back
and get into business.
(a) P S R - Q
(b) R - Q - P - S
S. K. Mondal
(c) P - Q - R - S
(d) R - S - P Q
ORDERING OF WORDS IN A SENTENCE

Direction (For the 8 items which follow):
In the following items, some parts of the sentence have been jumbled up. You are
required to rearrange these parts which are labelled (P), (Q), (R) and (S) to produce the
correct sentence.
Choose the proper sequence and mark in your Answer Sheet accordingly.
Example 'z' has been solved for you.
EXAMPLE
Z. It is well- known that the effect is very bad on children of cinema
(P)
(Q)
(R)
(S)
(a) P - S - R - Q
(b) S - P - Q - R
(c) S - R - P - Q
(d) Q - S - R P
Explanation:
The proper way of writing the sentence is "It is well-known that the effect of cinema on
children is very bad." This is indicated by the sequence P - S - R - Q and so (a) is the
correct answer.
9. Even the underbelly of the city's crumbling health infrastructure too
(P)
attacks that also reveal
as the city's urban infrastructure crumbles
(Q)
(R)
it is these increasing cases of canine
(S)
(a) Q P R S
(b) R S Q P
(c) Q S R P
(d) R P Q S
10. Perhaps that globalization has endorsed is that identities of

(P)
the most pernicious myth
infinitely assimilable, flexible or fractured
(Q)
(R)
people, societies and nations are
(S)
S. K. Mondal
(a) Q P S R
(b) R P S Q
(c) R S P Q
(d) Q S P R
11. While in the years to come the salary gaps will be adequately filled if not surpassed
(P)
tourism and hospitality sector pales slightly in comparison
(Q)
to other service industries like the IT and BPO sectors
(R)
when it comes to pay packages, veterans of the field believe that
(S)
(a) Q - P - S - R
(b) S - R Q - P
(c) S P Q - R
(d) Q - R - S P
12. A dysfunctional
family is one in which physical, emotional or sexual abuse is experienced
(P)
and when there is inconsistent and unpredictable parenting or neglectful parent-child
interactions
(Q)
where one or both parents are unable to fulfil their responsibilities
(R)
due to mental illness or substance abuse
(S)
(a) P S R Q
(b) Q R S P
(c) P R S Q
(d) Q S R P
13. Hard
where producers and consumers sell and buy in whatever market takes their fancy
(P)
though it is to get economists to agree on anything
(Q)
and thus an interlocking system of world trade
(R)
there does seem to be a consensus to accelerate globalization
(S)
(a) Q P R S
(b) R S Q P
(c) Q S R P
S. K. Mondal
(d) R P Q S
14. Over the past five decades
but the post cold-war era brings new challenges to the UN
(P)
particularly its peacekeeping operations for which demand has increased sharply
(Q)
in every area of the United Nations Charter
(R)
international cooperation has brought advances
(S)
(a) P Q S R
(b) S R P Q
(c) P R S Q
(d) S Q P R
15. Since offer them a means of satisfying their own personal goals
(P)
People tend to follow those who in their view
(Q)
this understanding in carrying out their managerial actions, the more effective they are
likely to be as leaders
(R)
the more managers understand what motivates their subordinates, and the more they
reflect
(S)
(a) Q P S R
(b) R S P Q
(c) Q S P R
(d) R P S Q
16. The Roman Empire
in spite of the absence of modern industrial technologies

(P)
could be crossed and enormous territories controlled
(Q)
in the pre-modern period and its testimony to the way in which huge distances
(R)
was one of the greatest achievements of state-building
(S)
(a) Q - R - S - P
(b) S - P - Q - R
(c) Q - P - S - R
(d) S - R - Q P
S. K. Mondal
SYNONYMS
Each of the following eight items consists of a worn in capital letters, followed by four
words or groups of words. Select the word or group of words that is most similar in
meaning to the word in capital letters.
17. GARISH
(a) Selfish
(b) Affluent
(c) Unpleasantly over coloured
(d) Person with great intellect
18. WRAITH
(a) Dead body
(b) Ghost
(c) Extreme anger
(d) Circle of flowers
19. TIMOROUS
(a) Time-consuming
(b) Timely
(c) Threatening
(d) Timid
20. EXPLICATE
(a) To apologize
(b) To make something complicated
(c) To strengthen
(d) To explain
21. EXACTION
(a) Demand
(b) Aggravation
(c) Accuracy
(d) Collaboration
22. DANK
(a) Taut
(b) Rite
(c) Dry
(d) Damp
23. PORTENTOUS
(a) Imaginary
(b) Ominous
(c) Demonstrate
(d) Convincing
24. SURREPTITIOUS
S. K. Mondal
(a) Deceitful
(b) Savoury
(c) Insipid
(d) Painful
For each of the following eight items, select the word/ group of words that is closest in
meaning to the underlined portion of the given sentence.
25. A conscientious worker is always admired by his superior officers.
(a) Smart
(b) Sincere
(c) Extrovert
(d) Reticent
26. Amit was cut to the quick when he learnt that his brother had cheated him.
(a) Flummoxed
(b) Become unconscious
(c) Felt guilty
(d) Was deeply hurt
27. Romila is not easily pleased by anything
(a) Fastidious
(b) Thrifty
(c) Profligate
(d) Swanky
28. The host of the party did not like the gratuitous remarks made by one of the guests.
(a) Personal
(b) Critical
(c) Uncalled for
(d) Flattering
29. His brother is leading a sequestered life.
(a) Secluded
(b) Unhealthy
(c) Disreputable
(d) Marked by affluence
30. The Chief Executive Officer is known for his martinet approach.
(a) A style marked by indifference
(b) A style marked by empathy
(c) A style marked by strict discipline
(d) A style marked by innovative management practices
31. Shobit's parsimonious nature is known to all his friends.
(a) Selfish
(b) Miserly
(c) Vindictive
(d) Indecisive
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S. K. Mondal
32. After the event, the manager looked knackered.

(a) Satisfied
(b) Delighted
(c) Tired
(d) Wiser
ANTONYMS
Each of the following eight items consists of a word in capital letters, followed by four
words or groups of words. Select the word or group of words that is furthest in meaning
to the word in capital letters.
33. CHARLATAN
(a) Charitable person
(b) Person with miserly habits
(c) Person having sound special skills
(d) Person who loves outdoor games
34. QUIXOTIC
(a) Fickle
(b) Effective
(c) Overdressed
(d) Practical
35. IMPECUNIOUSNESS
(a) Affluence
(b) Commitment
(c) Pliability
(d) Puerility
36. FECKLESS
(a) Shy
(b) Efficient
(c) Infertile
(d) Escapable
37. PROLIX
(a) Promise
(b) Generous
(c) Terse
(d) Careless
38. CRAVEN
(a) Intrepid
(b) Irresponsible
(c) Greedy
(d) Grateful
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S. K. Mondal
39. INCHOATE
(a) Articulate
(b) Corruptible
(c) Fully developed
(d) Sincere
40. SUPERCILIOUS
(a) Excited
(b) Modest
(c) Fatigue
(d) An improved version
SPOTTING ERRORS
(i) In this section a number of sentences are given. The sentences are underlined in
three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to
find out whether there is an error in any underlined part. No sentence has more than one
error. When you find an error in anyone of the underlined parts (a), (b) or (e), indicate
your response on the separate Answer Sheet at the appropriate space. You may feel
that there is no error in a sentence. In that case letter (d) will signify a 'No error'
response.
(ii) You are to indicate only one response for each item in your Answer Sheet. (If you
indicate more than one response, your answer will be considered wrong.) Errors may be
in grammar, word usage or idioms. There may be a word missing or there may be a
word which should be removed.
(iii) You are not required to correct the error. You are required only to indicate your
response on the Answer Sheet.
Examples P and Q have been solved for you.
(EXAMPLES)
P. The young child
(a)
Q. We worked
(a)
singed
(b)
very hard
(b)
a very sweet song.

(c)
No error
(d)
throughout the season.

(c)
No error
(d)
Explanation:
In item P, the word 'singed' is wrong. The letter under this part is (b); so (b) is the correct
answer. Similarly, for item Q, (d) is the correct answer, as the sentence does not contain
any error.
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S. K. Mondal
41. Many a student are

(a)
frustrated because
(b)
of unemployment.
(c)
No error
(d)
42. The article should not

(a)
exceed more than

(b)
five hundred words.

(c)
No error
(d)
43. He ought not have done such

(a)
(b)
a filthy thing. No error

(c)
(d)
44. The Chief Minister couldn't but help

shedding tears at the plight of the
(a)
(b)
villagers rendered homeless by a devastating cyclone.
No error
(c)
(d)
45. The trust has succeeded
(a)
money for its future programmes.
(c)
admirably in raising
(b)
No error
(d)
46. Emphasis on equality of life ensures

(a)
of every individual.
No error
(c)
(d)
47. It does not matter how you do it;
(a)
you should finish the work within a week.
(c)
48. Please understand that
(a)
and concerns nobody else.
(c)
for the health and happiness

(b)
what I want is that

(b)
No error
(d)
the dispute on this issue is between my brother and myself

(b)
No error
(d)
COMPREHENSION
In this section you have TWO short passages. After each passage, you will find several
questions based on the passage. First, read a passage, and then answer the questions
based on it. You are required to select your answers based on the contents of the
passage and opinion of the author only.
Examples 'I' and 'J' are solved for you.
PASSAGE (EXAMPLE)
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S. K. Mondal
In our approach to life, be it pragmatic or otherwise, a basic fact that confronts us

squarely and unmistakably is the desire for peace, security and happiness. Different
forms of life at different levels of existence make up the teeming denizens of this earth of
ours. And, no matter whether they belong to the higher groups such as human beings or
to the lower groups such as animals, all beings primarily seek peace, comfort and
security. Life is as dear to a mute creature as it is to a man. Even the lowliest insect
strives for protection against dangers that threaten its life. Just as each one of us wants
to live and not to die, so do all other creatures.
I. The authors main point is that
(a) different forms of life are found on earth
(b) different levels of existence are possible in nature
(c) peace and security are the chief goals of all living beings
(d) even the weakest creature struggles to preserve its life
J. Which one of the following assumptions or steps is essential in developing the
author's position?
(a) All forms of life have a single over-riding goal
(b) The will to survive of a creature is identified with a desire for peace
(c) All beings are divided into higher and lower groups
(d) A parallel is drawn between happiness and life, and pain and death
I. The idea which represents the author's main point is "peace and security are the chief
goals of all living beings", which is response (c). So (c) is the correct answer.
J. The best assumption underlying the passage is "The will to survive of a creature is
identified with a desire for peace", which is response (b). So (b) is the correct answer.
PASSAGE - I
Fungi form an isolated group within the plant kingdom and indeed are regarded by many
as forming a separate kingdom of their own. They differ from all other plants by their lack
of the green pigment chlorophyll, in the construction of thread-like units known as
hyphae and their method of reproduction.
Reproduction occurs by spores either of sexual or asexual origin. The spore germinates,
sending out a germ-tube that elongates to produce a thread-like, usually septet, filament
that then branches out repeatedly. By continued ramifications, these threads or hyphae
form a cobweb or felt-like sheet known as a mycelium. In most instances, fusion
between two hyphae, usually from different mycelia, must occur before a fruit-body can
be produced. Even then this process will only take place given the correct climatic
factors and a sufficient food supply. Fungi differ from the higher plant forms by the
absence of the green pigment chlorophyll, which enables plants to photosynthesize. By
this process green plants are able to obtain their carbohydrates; the chlorophyll in their
leaves fixes atmospheric carbon dioxide in the presence of sunlight and water to
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S. K. Mondal
manufacture sugar for their nutrition. As fungi are unable to do this they have to obtain
their carbohydrates from decomposed animal or plant tissues. Hence they are found in
habitats rich in rotting vegetation such as woodland, grassland, compost heaps, sawdust
piles and on dung or manure heaps.
49. Consider the following statements:
Fungi grow on rotting vegetation or animal because
1. they cannot produce their own food
2. this provides them with the food they need
Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
50. What are fungi?
(a) Cells
(b) Plants
(c) Animals
(d) Dead matter
1. Fungi are the green pigment called chlorophyll.
2. All plants other than fungi have chlorophyll.
Which of the statements given above is / are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
52. How do fungi reproduce?
(a) They reproduce from seeds
(b) Spores are the means for their reproduction
(c) They reproduce through saprophytes
(d) They reproduce through decomposed animal or plant tissues
1. A mycelium is another name for chlorophyll.
2. Fungi obtain carbohydrates from hyphae.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
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S. K. Mondal

Sugar cannot be produced by plants unless
1. chlorophyll is present
2. sunlight, water and carbon dioxide are present
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
PASSAGE - I
Today, the import duty on a complete machine is 35% for all practical purposes,
whereas the import duty on the raw materials and components ranges from 40%-85%.
The story does not end here. After paying such high duties on components, once a
machine is made; it is subject to excise duty from 5%-10%. At the time of sale, the
machine tools are subject to further taxation, i.e., Central sales tax or State sales taxes
which range from 4%-,16%. This much for the tax angle. Another factor which pushes
the cost of manufacture of machine tools is the very high rate of interest payable to
banks ranging up to 22%, as against 4%-7% prevailing in other advanced countries.
The machine tool industry in India has an enviable record of very quick technology
absorption, assimilation and development. There are a number of success stories about
how machine tool builders were of help at the most critical times. It will be a pity, in fact a
tragedy, if we allow this industry to die and disappear from the scene.
It may be noted that India is at least 6000 km away from any dependable source of
supply of machine tools. The Government of India has always given a great deal of
importance to the development of small scale and medium scale industries. This industry
has also performed pretty well. Today, they are in need of help from India's machine tool
industry to enable them to produce quality components at reduced costs. Is it anybody's
case that the needs of this fragile sector will be met from a distance of 6000 km?
Then, what is it that the industry expects from the Government? It wants a level playing
field. In fact, all of us must have a deep introspection and recognize the fact that the
machine tool industry has a very special place in the country from the point of strategic
and vital interests of the nation.
1. The machine tool industry has a very meagre role to play in India.
2. The performance of the small scale industry can be further improved with the help
from the Indian machine tool industry.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
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S. K. Mondal
(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2
56. Which of the following best explains the sentence "It wants a level playing field"?
The machine tool industry in India
(a) needs liberalized policy to import the desired components at a low cost
(b) needs land at subsidized rate
(c) needs electricity at subsidized rate
(d) wants to adopt novel marketing strategies for sales promotion
57. Which one of the following is the correct statement?
(a) The Government of India has taken due notice of the problems of the
machine tool industry
(b) The Government of India has not taken sufficient measures to help the
machine tool industry
(c) India should not waste its precious resources on the production of machine
tools
(d) Banks in other countries are running in loss owing to a low interest rate
58. According to the passage, all the following factors are responsible for high cost of
machine tools in India, except
(a) sales tax
(b) excise duty
(c) higher duty on components
(d) high profit of margin of the manufacturers
59. Why do small and medium scale industries look for help from India's machine tool
industry?
1. To compete with the IT sector
2. To produce components at lower cost without sacrificing quality
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
Code:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
60. If the banks' rate of interest in India is made at par with that in the other advanced
countries, how will the cost of manufacture of machine tools in India vary?
(a) It will go up by 22%
(b) It will go up by 4% to 7%
(c) It will remain the same
(d) It will decrease considerably
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S. K. Mondal
PART-B
61. Due to whose efforts were the legal obstacles to the remarriage of widows removed
through law in the year 1856?
(a) Raja Rammohan Roy
(b) Keshab Chandra Sen
(c) Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar
(d) Devendranath Tagore
1. In the Lok Sabha proceedings, when the voting is done, the Speaker of Lok
Sabha can never cast his vote.
2. In the warrant of precedence, the Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha is equal to
the Speaker of Lok Sabha in rank.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
63. In terms of value in US dollars, the share in world exports is lowest for which one
among the following?
(a) Hong Kong
(b) India
(c) Malaysia
(d) Singapore
1. The States Reorganization Commission appointed by Pandit Nehru in its report
opposed the splitting of the then Bombay and Punjab States.
2. The States Reorganization Act passed in the year 1956 provided for 18 States and 7
Union Territories.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
65. Consider the following famous places:
1. Dharmasthala
2. Khajuraho
3. Ranakpur
18
S. K. Mondal
Which of the above places is/ are well-known for Jain architecture?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
66. Lala Lajpat Rai was assaulted by police in a demonstration which caused his death.
That demonstration was against
(a) Rowlatt Act
(b) Jallianwala Bagh Massacre
(c) Arrival of Simon Commission
(d) Public Safety Ordinance
67. With reference to Indian freedom struggle, consider the following:
1. Passing of Indian Press Act
2. Surat Split of congress
3. Launch of Non-Cooperation Movement
4. Passing of Rowlatt Act
Which one of the following is the correct chronological order of the above events?
(a) 1-2-3-4
(b) 2-1-3-4
(c) 2-1-4-3
(d) 1-2-4-3
68. Excess fluoride in drinking water can cause the following, except
(a) Deformity of teeth
(b) Hardening of bones
(c) stiff and painful joints
(d) Diarrhoea
69. The 74th Amendment of the Constitution of India relates to which of the following?
(a) Public sector Undertakings
(b) Compulsory Universal
(c) Urban Local Bodies
(d) Rural Local Bodies
70. Consider the following pairs:
1. Vernacular Press Act
2. Formation of Indian National Congress
3. Partition of Bengal: Lord Curzon
Which of the pairs given above is / are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
19
S. K. Mondal
71. Among the following States, which one does not have any significant coal
resources?
(a) Andhra Pradesh
(b) Bihar
(c) Chhattisgarh
(d) Maharashtra
72. Retreating monsoon causes sporadic rainfall in which of the following areas?
(a) Coast of North Maharashtra
(b) Northern Chhattisgarh
(c) Malwa plateau and Vidarbha region
(d) Coast of Tamil Nadu.
73. During the Indian freedom struggle, who of the following was the first Indian woman
to become the President of the Indian National Congress?
(a) Aruna Asaf Ali
(b) Sucheta Kriplani
(c) Sarojini Naidu
(d) Vijayalakshmi Pandit
74. During the Indian freedom struggle, who of the following formed the party called
'Forward Bloc'?
(a) C. R. Das
(b) M. N. Roy
(c) Rash Behari Bose
(d) Subhash Chandra Bose
75. The Indian freedom fighters Ashfaqulla Khan and Ramprasad Bismil were hanged
due to their involvement in which one of the following?
(a) Chittagong armoury raid
(b) Kanpur conspiracy case
(c) Meerut conspiracy case
(d) Kakori conspiracy case
76. In the context of the Indian freedom struggle, the famous 3rd June plan is also known
as which one of the following?
(a) Cabinet Mission Plan
(b) Rajagopalachari Formula
(c) Mountbatten Plan
(d) Wavell Plan
77. Under whose viceroyalty was the interim government with Pandit Nehru as head
formed?
(a) Lord Irwin
(b) Lord Linlithgow
(c) Lord Wavell
(d) Lord Mountbatten
78. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the
Lists:
List-I
List-II
20
(Industrial Unit)
A. Damanjodi Aluminium refinery
B. Debari zinc smelter
C. Ramgiri gold-field
D. Taloja copper project
Code: A
B
C
(a)
2
4
1
(b)
2
1
4
(c)
3
1
4
(d)
3
4
1
(State)
1. Andhra Pradesh
2. Maharashtra
3. Orissa
4. Rajasthan
D
3
3
2
2
S. K. Mondal
Lists:
List-I (Eminent Citizens)
List-II (Well-known as)
A. Hema Bharali
1. Conservationist
B. Vani Ganapathy
2. Gandhian
C. M. S. Narasimhan
3. Dancer
D. Suprabha Seshan
4. Mathematician
Code:
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
A
1
1
2
2
B
3
4
3
4
C
4
3
4
3
D
2
2
1
1
Lists:
List-I (Power Station)
List-II (State)
A. Kolaghat
1. West Bengal
B. Chandrapur
2. Rajasthan
C. Suratgarh
3. Maharashtra
D. Unchahar
4. Uttar Pradesh
Code:
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
A
4
4
1
1
B
3
2
3
2
C
2
3
2
3
D
1
1
4
4
81. Among the following Presidents of India, who was the Speaker of Lok Sabha before
becoming President?
(a) K. R. Narayanan
(b) R. Venkataraman
(c) N. Sanjiva Reddy
(d) V. V. Giri
1. The Administrator of Andaman and Nicobar Islands is designated as
Lieutenant Governor.
21
S. K. Mondal
2. Delhi and Puducherry (Pondicherry) have their own Legislative Assemblies

and High Courts.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
83. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?

State or Union Territory
Seat of High Court
(a) Uttarakhand (Uttaranchal)
: Nainital
(b) Daman and Diu
: Ahmedabad
(c) Arunachal Pradesh
: Guwahati
(d) Chhattisgarh
: Bilaspur

1. Petrofils Cooperative Limited is a joint venture of the Government of India and
Weavers' Cooperative Societies.
2. Petrofils Cooperative Limited is under the administrative control of Weavers'
Cooperative Societies.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Lists:
List I (Hydroelectric Power Plant)
List II (State)
A. Kadana
1. Andhra Pradesh
B. Kalinadi
2. Gujarat
C. Machkund
3. Karnataka
D. Vaiterna
4. Maharashtra
Code:
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
A
2
2
4
4
B
1
3
1
3
C
3
1
3
1
D
4
4
2
2
86. To Port Blair, which one of the following cities is geographically nearest?
(a) Kolkata
(b) Kuala Lumpur
(c) Singapore
22
S. K. Mondal
(d) Yangon
87. Which one of the following pairs of National Highways crosses Andhra Pradesh,
Karnataka and Maharashtra?
(a) NH4 and NH6
(b) NH5 and NH7
(c) NH6 and NH7
(d) NH7 and NH9
88. Which one of the following is not a member of 'the Commonwealth'?
(a) Malaysia
(b) Sri Lanka
(c) Indonesia
(d) Singapore
89. Where are the Headquarters of International Organization for Standardization (ISO)
located?
(a) Geneva
(b) Paris
(c) London
(d) Vienna
90. Where were the 33rd National Games held in February, 2007?
(a) Bhopal
(b) Chandigarh
(c) Guwahati
(d) Hyderabad
91. Rehan Poncha is well-known sportsman in which one of the following sports?
(a) Golf
(b) Swimming
(c) Billiards
(d) Lawn Tennis
92. Which one of the following was not a participant in the One-day Cricket World Cup,
2007?
(a) Scotland
(b) Canada
(c) UAE
(d) Netherlands
93. The Baglihar Hydropower Project, very frequently in the news, is located on which
one of the following rivers?
(a) Beas
(b) Chenab
(c) Ravi
(d) Sutlej
23
S. K. Mondal
94. In the case of which one of the following diseases does the Government of India
provide free "CD4 Test and Antiretroviral Therapy"?
(a) Dengue haemorrhagic fever
(b) Japanese encephalitis
(c) Meningococcal
(d) AIDS
95. In the context of Indian freedom struggle, which one of the following movements is
associated with the Gandhi-Irwin Pact?
(a) Swadeshi Movement
(b) Non-Cooperation Movement
(c) Civil Disobedience Movement
(d) Quit India Movement
96. In which one of the following organs of human body is hydrochloric acid produced?
(a) Stomach
(b) Liver
(c) Pancreas
(d) Small Intestine
97. Which part of potato plant is used as vegetable?
(a) Modified root
(b) Modified stem
(c) Modified leaf
(d) Modified flower
98. Recently, in which one of the following countries did scientists create the world's first
genetically modified chickens to lay eggs capable of producing drugs that fight cancer
and other life threatening diseases?
(a) France
(b) Germany
(c) UK
(d) USA
99. Who of the following is associated with the aluminium company HINDALCO?
(a) Arun Sarin
(b) Navin Jindal
(c) Ravi Ruia
(d) Kumar Mangalam Birla
100. Madhava Menon Committee is associated with the drafting of which one of the
following?
(a) National Population policy
(b) National Tribal policy
(c) National Policy on Criminal Justice
(d) National Health Policy
101. Which one of the following South-East Asian countries is a member of OPEC?
(a) Indonesia
24
S. K. Mondal
(b) Malaysia
(c) Myanmar
(d) Thailand
102. Who of the following laid the first rail-road in India?
(a) Lord Ripon
(b) Lord Wavell
(c) Lord Curzon
(d) Lord Dalhousie
103. Among the following foods, which one is rich in proteins?

(a) Boiled rice
(b) Bread of wheat
(c) Fried potato chips
(d) Fried gram
104. From which one of the following places was INSAT-4B satellite launched in March,
2007?
(a) Baikanour
(b) Cape Canaveral
(c) Kourou
(d) Sriharikota
105. For the year 2006, the Nobel Peace Prize was awarded to a/an
(a) writer
(b) environmentalist
(c) head of a State
(d) banker
106. When a person drinks alcohol and walks clumsily, it is due to the effect of alcohol
on which one of the following parts of his brain?
(a) Cerebrum
(b) Cerebellum
(c) Pons
(d) Medulla oblongata
107. What was the purpose of NASA's Cassini spacecraft recently in the news?
(a) To carry the materials for building the international space station
(b) To observe and study the Saturn and its rings
(c) To monitor the approach of asteroids towards planet Earth
(d) To conduct space journeys for space tourists
108. What is the name of the pigment that gives colour to the human hair?
(a) Keratin
(b) Melanin
(c) Myelin
25
S. K. Mondal
(d) Myosin
109. The 'pacemaker', which initiates and maintains the heartbeat, is located in the wall
of which one of the following chambers of heart?
(a) Left auricle
(b) Right auricle
(c) left ventricle
(d) Right ventricle
110. In human body, where is the smallest bone located?
(a) Palm
(b) Foot
(c) Nose
(d) Ear
111. The roots of which one of the following plants contain the bacteria that convert free
nitrogen to nitrates used by plants?
(a) Mustard
(b) Pea
(c) Sugarcane
(d) Wheat
1. In India, rubber is cultivated in Kerala, Karnataka and Tamil Nadu only.
2. India ranks second in production as well as consumption of natural rubber in
the world.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
113. To whom among the following is the Rajiv Gandhi National Fellowship given?
(a) Young victims of either war or famine in other countries to persue studies in India
(b) Poor Indian students to persue the study of certain specialized subjects in other
countries
(c) Destitute Indian children to persue studies up to university level
(d) ST students to enable them to get M.Phil. and Ph.D. degrees
114. Other than Russia and USA, which one of the following countries has launched
manned spacecraft?
(a) France
(b) China
(c) Germany
(d) UK
26
S. K. Mondal

1. Chile is the largest producer of copper in the world.
2. Kuwait is the largest producer of mineral oil in the world.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
116. In the world, India is one of the major producers of which one of the following
minerals?
(a) Copper
(b) Lead
(c) Chromium
(d) Zinc
117. Which one of the following regions has the largest area of wheat production?
(a) Asia
(b) Europe
(c) North America
(d) South America
118. The water of which one of the following lakes is used for producing salt?
(a) Barapani
(b) Kolleru
(c) Loktak
(d) Sambhar
119. What is the name of the winds that blow from the subtropical high pressure belts
towards the subpolar low pressure belts?
(a) Easterlies
(b) Trade winds
(c) Westerlies
(d) Western disturbances
120. Which one of the following rivers originates in Brahmagir range of Western Ghats?
(a) Penneru
(b) Kaveri
(c) Krishna
(d) Tapti
27
1 of 11
I.E.S- (OBJ) 2008

PART-A
SYNONYMS
ANTONYMS
Each of the following nine items consists of a word or a group of

words in capital letters, followed by four words or groups of
words. Select the word or group of words that is most similar in
meaning to the word or group of words in capital letters.
Each of the following seven items consists of a word in capital

letters, followed by four words or groups of words. Select the word
or group of words that is furthest in meaning to the word in capital
letters.
1.
10.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
BEAVER AWAY
a. To waste away
b. To sleep for long hours
c. To work hard
d. To steal something
BADGER
a. To ricochet
b. To err
c. To apologize
d. To pester persistently
SWISH
a. False
b. Fashionable
c. Annulment
d. Rapid
SURREPTITIOUS
a. To be impatient
b. Susceptible
c. Supportive
d. To act stealthily
SURROGATE
a. Surpassable
b. Substitute
c. Surfeit
d. Surveillant
UP-THE CREEK
a. To get lot of money
b. In dire difficulties
c. To be very successful
d. To achieve ones aim by deceit
CAVEAT
a. Award
b. Controversy
c. Warning
d. Graphic
NIP AND TUCK
a. Close competition
b. Heavy rain
c. Fierce attack
d. Mixture
COMEUPPANCE
a. Sudden arrival
b. Parity
c. Paradox
d. Retribution
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
SALACIOUS
a. Decent
b. Satisfying
c. Preciptious
d. Fortifying
SEDULOUS
a. Lack of emotions
b. Lack of steady effort
c. Affluent
d. Modest
SWINGEINE
a. Dull
b. Meagre
c. Disrepute
d. Proportionate
TEDIUM
a. Appreciation
b. Fixation
c. Neutrability
d. Liveliness
TENDENTIOUS
a. Impartial
b. Calm
c. Supplementary
d. Super-duper
TEMERITY
a. Humourous
b. Hybrid
c. Humility
d. Humiliation
CAPRICE
a. Excuse
b. Steady behaviour
c. Accusation
d. Exhortation

In each of the following five items, a related pair of words (in
capital letters) is followed by four pairs of words. Select the pair
that best expresses a relationship similar to that expressed in the
original pair (in capital letters).
17.
CALLOW : MATURITY
a. Eager : Anxiety
b. Incipient : Fruition
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18.
19.
20.
21.
c. Apathetic : Disinterest
d. Exposure : Weathering
DAMPEN : ENTHUSIASM
a. Moisten : Throat
b. Test : Commitment
c. Reverse: Direction
d. Mute : Sound
RUFFLE : COMPOSURE
a. Flourish : Prosperity
b. Adjust : Balance
c. Upset : Equilibrium
d. Chaff : Wheat
LATENT : MANIFESTATION
a. Dormant : Awakening
b. Patent : Appearance
c. Redoubtable : Impress
d. Aggrieved : Distress
CELERITY : SNAIL
a. Indolence : Sloth
b. Humility : Peacock
c. Nervous : Energy
d. Emulation : Rivalry
24.
25.
26.
SPOTTING ERRORS
Directions (For the 6 items which follow) :
(i)
In this section, a number of sentences are given. The

sentences are underlined in three separate parts and each one
is labeled (a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to find out
whether there is an error in any underlined part. No sentence
has more than one error. When you find an error in any one of
the underlined parts (a), (b) or (c), indicate your response on
the separate Answer Sheet at the approximate space. You may
feel that there is no error in a sentence. In that case letter (d)
will signify a No error response.
(ii) You are to indicate only one response for each item in your
Answer Sheet. (If you indicate more than one response, your
answer will be considered wrong) Errors may be in grammar,
word usage or idioms. There may be a word missing or there
may be a word which should be removed.
(iii) You are not required to correct the error. You are required
only to indicate your response on the Answer Sheet.
Example P and Q have been solved you for.
(EXAMPLES)
P. The young child
singed
(a)
(b)
A very sweet song.
No error
(c)
(d)
Explanation:
In item P, the word signed in wrong. The letter under this part is
(b); se (b) is the correct answer. Similarly, for item Q, (d) is the
correct answer, as the sentence does not certain any error.
22.
23.
There were gapes of horror

(a)
form the spectators as
(b)
the performer fell from the tightrope
(c)
No error
(d)
She gazed at me
(a)
in misbelief when
27.
(b)
I told her the news
(c)
No error
(d)
Acting from inside information
(a)
the police were able to arrest the gang
(b)
before the robbery occurred
(c)
No error
(d)
Amit did not have a girl-friend
(a)
till he was 21, but now
(b)
he is making up at the lost time
(c)
No error
(d)
She wanted to be an actress
(a)
but her father soon
(b)
nipped that idea in the bud
(c)
No error
(d)
Captains language was uncompromising
(a)
he told junior officers their work
(b)
must improve or they would be fired
(c)
No error
(d)

In the following items, each passage consists of six sentences. The
first sentence (S1) and final sentence (S6) are given in the
beginning. The middle four sentences in each have been removed
and jumbled up. These are labeled P, Q, R and S. You are required
to find out the correct sequence of the four sentences and mark
accordingly on the Answer Sheet.
Example X has been solved for you.
(EXAMPLE)
X.
S1 :
S6 :
P:
There was a boy named Jack

At least she turned him out of the house
So the mother asked him to find work
Q:
R:
S:
They were very poor

he lived with his mother
But Jack refused to work

(a)
RQP-S
(b)
PQR-S
3 of 11
(c)
(d)
QPR-S
RPS-Q
Explanation: The correct sequence in this example is R-Q-PS, which is marked by (a). Therefore, (a) is the correct
answer.
28.
29.
30.
31.
S1 : The first aeroplanes were fragile and

clumsy.
S6 : In those days people considered flight in
an aeroplane to be a miracle
P : When they took off they would not fly
very high
Q : They also broke down frequently
R:
It was difficult for them to take off
S : They flew slowly and only in the
vicinity of the airfield
Which one of the following is the correct
sequence?
a. R P S Q
b. S Q R P
c. R Q S P
d. S P R Q
S1 : Lions usually live in a family parties
called prides.
S6 : They actack man only when they are
wounded or otherwise aroused.
P : Wild lions are not normally a menance
to man.
Q : A pride is commonly made up of a lion,
two lionesses and cubs.
R : Sometimes pigs and other animals are
also killed by them.
S : They usually prey on zebras and
antelopes.
sequence?
a. P S R Q
b. Q R S - P
c. P R S Q
d. Q S R P
S1 : Not long age television was a rarity.
S6: Only a few people understand the
technology behind it.
P: It has become a means of entertainment and
information.
Q: Yet nowadays there is one in virtually
every home.
R: But most of us do not know much about
how an image appears on the television screen
S: We have grown used to it.
sequence?
a. P R Q S
b. Q S P R
c. P S Q R
d. Q R P S
S1: I have know in my own life, in my own
experience, people who were hating one
another on account of their religious views.
32.
33.
34.
S6: We are the inheritors of a great

world heritage.
P: They try to find out whatever is of value in
them.
Q: You will find that other religions are
studies with sympathy and respect by those
who do not adhere to them
R: All that has changed today.
S: The classics of the whole world form the
classics of every human being.
sequence?
a. P S R Q
b. R Q P S
c. P Q R S
d. R S P Q
S1: Javert was a strong, upright and just man.
S6: So he took the only way out for him-he
killed himself.
P: But now his life was turned upside down.
Q: It was his safe world of rules.
R: He would help no one, and he helped no
one.
S: He did not want favours from a thief.
sequence?
a. Q P S R
b. S R Q P
c. Q R S P
d. S P Q R
S1: Nowadays we pay a great deal of attention
to pure air, open windows and garden cities.
S6: Pasteurised milk is milk which has been
treated in this way.
P: Another useful discovery of Pasteurs was
the process, now called, pasteurization.
Q: Pasteur was one of the first to show how
necessary all these are if we are to fight
against germs and disease.
R: Pasteur helped them by showing that by
heating win or milk to a temperature of 60
degree Centrigrade, the germs were made
harmless.
S: Some wine-growers were troubled by a
germ which has turned their win sour.
sequence?
a. R S P Q
b. Q P S R
c. R P S Q
d. Q S P R
S1: Scientist have found that any train running
on wheels cannot go faster than 300 kilometres
an hour.
S6: Japanese engineers are, therefore, planning
another kind of train, a magnetic train without,
wheels, which would also float above the
ground.
4 of 11
35.
36.
37.
P: One way of building such trains has already

been tried out
Q: If we want trains which can go still faster
we must build them without wheels.
R: But it would not be possible to run them on
the Tokaido line because in same tunnels there
would not be enough air to support them
S: Here, the whole train floats above the
ground on top of a cushion of air created by
powerful fans.
sequence?
a. QPSR
b. SRQP
c. QRSP
d. SPQR
S1: Newspapers are the cheapest medium of
information today.
S6: Consequently, 50 percent of our population
is denied across to information vital for the
functionaries of a democracy.
P: If you cannot buy a paper, you can go to a
public library.
Q: And yet newspapers do not reach nearly
fifty percent of our population.
R: They are also easily available to everybody
S: It is because people are illiterate.
sequence?
a. RSQP
b. QPRS
c. RPQS
d. QSRP
S1: Social isolation, overcrowding, the
competitiveness of our society and several
other factors are responsible for stress.
S6: Yet some other get totally depressed and
often much worried.
P: In England we refer to competition in
society as the rat-race.
Q: All of us react to that rat-race in different
ways.
R: But some of us get very much tried and
bored every easily.
S: The pressures on all of us are very great
because speed and competition have become
part of everyday life.
sequence?
a. RPQS
b. SQPR
c. RQPS
d. SPQR
S1: It is true that a few women have
opportunities to work outside the home.
S6: If women stop doing this work there would
be havoc in the public life.
P: Women do much work all the time within
the house.
Q: This work could be termed as

socially productive labour.
R: It consists of cooking, washing, cleaning,
fetching fuel and water etc.
S: This work is crucial to the survival of
society.
sequence?
a. PQRS
b. RSPQ
c. PSRQ
d. RQPS
ORDERING OF WORDS IN A SENTENCE
Direction (For the 10 items which follow)
In the following item, some parts of the sentence have been
jumbled up. You are required to rearrange these parts which are
labeled P, Q, R and S to produce the correct sequence. Choose the
proper sequence and marks in your Answer Sheet accordingly.
Example Z has been solved for you.
(EXAMPLE)
Z.
It is well-known that
it very bad
the effect
P
Q
of cinema
on children
R
S
(a) PSRQ
(b) S-P-Q-R
(c) S-R-P-Q
(d) Q-S-R-P
Explanation:
The proper way of writing the sentence is It is well-known that
the effect of cinema on children is very bad. This is indicated by
the sequence P-S-R-Q and so (a) is the correct answer.
38.
Life comes
Awed by all the things that their words can do
with computer and gadgets
P
who can get anything done by clinking a few
buttons
39.
a full circle when some technologically

challenged mothers
R
begin to believe that their child is a super-kid
in the digital world
S
sequence?
a. RPQS
b. PRQS
c. RPSQ
d. PRSQ
Unaware
Reading other periodicals and publication
P
ourselves with merely
Q
of the need to build
R
5 of 11
40.
41.
42.
43.
the intellect we tend to entertain

S
sequence?
a. QPRS
b. RSQP
c. QSRP
d. RPQS
Loss of employment
in a country like India where
P
is no social security net to fall back on
Q
most people are still poor and there
R
or livelihood can be really injurious
S
sequence?
a. SRPQ
b. QPRS
c. QRPS
d. SPRQ
Many people
organized their energies around a goal
P
but simply because they have never
Q
or brains or even courage
R
fail in life not for lack of ability
S
sequence?
a. PQRS
b. SRQP
c. PRQP
d. SQRP
Being
to a viewing point a higher more expansive
place
P
to move from a point of view
Q
willing to change allows you
R
from which you can seen both sides
S
sequence?
a. RQPS
b. QRPS
c. QRSP
d. RQSP
Yet one area
to players who have violated the spirit of the
game
P
44.
45.
46.
in which Indian Cricket administration

should definitely
Q
denying the benefits of Indian corporate
sponsorship
R
use its financial clout is in
S
sequence?
a. RPQS
b. QSRP
c. RSQP
d. QPRS
While improvements
have definitely helped climbers now carry
lighter oxygen bottles
P
in technology over the years
Q
made of titanium and get regular weather
updates
R
through satellite phones the route to Mt.
Everest remains treacherous as ever
S
sequence?
a. QPRS
b. SRPQ
c. QRPS
d. SPRQ
Life
the number of breaths you take
P
that take your breath away
Q
is not measured by
R
but by the moments
S
sequence?
a. QPSR
b. RSPQ
c. QSPR
d. RPSQ
The greatest
miss it but that it is too
P
danger for most of us
Q
is not that our aim is too high and we
R
low and we reach it
S
sequence?
a. QSPR
6 of 11
47.
b. PRQS
c. QRPS
d. PSQR
The fundamental
but an institutional framework that lays down
P
and cannot be trampled on by the ruling
government
Q
the rights of the people and rules of political
engagement
R
mark of a democracy is not elections
S
sequence?
a. SPQR
b. PSRQ
c. PSQR
d. SPRQ
COMPREHENSION
In this section, you have three short passages. After each passage,
you will find several questions based on the passage. First, read
and passage and then answer the questions based on it. You are
required to select your answers based on the contents of the
passage and opinion of the author only.
peace, which is response (b). So (b) is the

correct answer.
PASSAGE I
J.K Galbraith has described the current inflation as a revolt of the
rich against the poor. Richard Parker supports this view with the
claim that it is the richest people that benefit by inflation: while the
rest, especially the poorest, suffer in proportion to their relative
property. On the other hand, a 1979 study published by the
Brookings Institute indicates that the lower classes are generally
benefited by inflation, while the upper classes lose. The confusion
over who suffers from inflation is extended to other questions such
as the major causes of inflation. In addition to the proponents of the
demand theory, there are many who doubt whether inflation is
essentially an economic problem at all. Konard Kellen holds that
inflation is not an economic problem but a psychological one. Paul
Samuelson cites a social factor, the evaluation of a more humane
society, as a root cause of inflation.
48.
49.
Example T and J are solved for you

PASSAGE (EXAMPLE)
In our approach to life, be it pragmatic or otherwise, a basic fact
that confronts us squarely and unmistakable is the desire for peace,
security and happiness. Different forms of life at different levels of
existence make up the teeming denizens of this earth of ours. And,
no matter whether they belong to the higher groups such as human
beings or to the lower groups and as animals, all beings primarily
seek peace, comfort and security. Life is as dear to a mute creature
as it is to a man. Even the lowliest insect strives for protection
against dangers that threaten its life. Just as each one of us wants to
live and not to die, so do all other creature.
I.
J.
50.
51.
The authors remains point is that

(a) different forms of life are found on earth
(b) different levels of existence are possible in nature
(c) peace and security are the chief goals of all living
beings
(d) even the weakest creature struggles to preserve its life
Which one of the following assumptions or steps is
essential in developing the authors position?
(a) All forms of life have a single over-riding goal
(b) The will to survive of a creature is identified with a
desire of peace
(c) All beings are divided into higher and lower groups
(d) A parallel is drawn between happiness and life, and
pain and death.
Explanation:
I.
The idea which represents the authors main point is
peace and security are the chief goals of all living
being, which is response (c). So (c) is the correct
answer.
J.
The best assumption underlying the passage in The will
to survive of a creature is identified with a desire for
What does the author believe?

a. Only the rich suffer from inflation
b. Only the poor suffer from inflation
c. Both the rich and the poor suffer from
inflation
d. It is debatable as to who suffers from
inflation
From the passage, which one of the following
may be inferred?
a. The effect of inflation can be studied with
scientific precision
b. The effect of inflation cannot be studied
with scientific precision
c. Economists are biased towards the rich or
the poor
d. The effect of inflation varies from place to
place, and people to people
On the basis of the information given in the
passage, what are the causes of inflation?
a. Essentially economic
b. Essentially psychological
c. Essentially social
d. Highly controversial
How des the author write?
a. Objectively
b. Critically
c. Sympathetically
d. Persuasively
PASSAGE II
Work itself is a very important factor in motivating a person. A

person tends to perform a task more enthusiastically if that work
affords more satisfaction than the other work. A persons
satisfaction out of work is more is it is more need satisfying. A
man seeks something from work and if he gets more satisfaction
from a particular work he will be prone to do that work better or
harder. There are incentives for work; these can be financial or
non-financial. People like missionaries and some scientists do not
work basically for material gains as such. A person wants to do a
work which is personally meaningful.
52.
Which one of the following is correct?

a. Work is the most important factor by
which a person is motivated.
7 of 11
53.
54.
55.
56.
b. Work is the least important factor that

motivates a person
c. Among the several factors that motivate a
person, work is an important one.
d. Nothing can motivate a person who does
not have some permanent work.
A persons work satisfaction depends on
a. the money and other benefits he receives
from work
b. the need satisfying nature of the work he
does
c. the physical environment in which he
works
d. the personal relationship he establishes
with his colleagues and superiors
If, a person get more satisfaction from a
particular work, he will
a. stick on the that work for every
b. certainly achieve mastery over that work
soon
c. slowly develop a taste for that work
d. do that work in a better and harder manure
Both the scientists and the missionaries work
a. because of the incentives given to them
b. without hopping for any material gain
c. without receiving any material gain
d. because they want to be appreciated
Every person wants to have a work which
a. helps him to get involved meaningfully
b. helps him to earn substantially
c. is pleasant and easy
d. can be finished quickly
58.
59.
60.
PASSAGE III
In our country there is very little popular writing on science. Those
who write are writing for other scientists. The newspapers these
days devote a little more space then before for scientific topics but
they appear to be rather ill-digested knowledge not written in
simple readable language. So if we are to bridge this gap and
disseminate scientific knowledge and promote scientific temper, it
has become necessary for some of the scientists to turn to
popularization. Today we have almost compulsion for doing this if
we are to convey to the people the meaning and relevance of the
pursuit of science. It is time same scientists enters the field of
scientific journalism.
57.
What does the passage suggest?

a. The author is fully satisfied with the role
of newspapers in promoting popular
writing on science.
b. The author is totally dissatisfied with the
role of newspapers in promoting popular
writing on science.
c. The author appreciates the readiness of
newspapers to allow more space than
before to writings on science.
d. The author condemns the attitude

displayed by newspapers in the matter of
promoting popular writing on science.
Popular writing on science in our country
appears to be
a. not properly digested and easily
comprehensible
b. extremely restricted in outlook
c. very lucid, intelligible and self explanatory
d. based on obsolete knowledge of the topics
chosen
The propose of promoting popular scientific
writing in newspapers is
a. to attract more people to the study of
science
b. to spread scientific knowledge and
encourage scientific temper among the
common people
c. to give the people information about
modern scientific inventions
d. to help the newspapers to increase their
circulation among the students of science
The author wants some of the scientists to
turn to popularization. What does that imply?
a. The scientists should go round and country
and explain to the people the various
achievements of science
b. The scientists should make use of the
television and radio to spread the message
of science among the common people
c. The scientists should write in newspapers
about the various aspects of science in
easily understandable language.
d. The scientists should seek the help of
social organizations to spread scientific
knowledge among the common people.
PART-B
61.
62.
63.
The deficiency of which one of the following

leads to anemia?
a. Ascorbic acid
b. Citirc acid
c. Folic acid
d. Nicotinic acid
The highly fatal disease of Rabies is caused by
which one of the following?
a. Virus
b. Bacteria
c. Protozoan
d. Nematode worm
How in jasmine plant propagated?
a. Grafting
b. Layering
c. Root cutting
d. Stem cutting
8 of 11
64.
65.
66.
67.
68.
69.
70.
71.
72.
73.
Which chamber of the heart has the thickest

muscular walls?
a. Right atrium
b. Left atrium
c. Right ventricle
d. Left ventricle
Among the following fruits, which one is not a
true fruit?
a. Apple
b. Date
c. Coconut
d. Tomato
In human body, while one of the following
glands is located in the neck?
a. Adrenal
b. Hypothalamus
c. Pituitary
d. Thyroid
In human body, which one among the
following secretes digestive enzyme?
a. Large institute
b. Liver
c. Pancreas
d. Spleen
Which one among the following is a warm
blooded animal?
a. Anaconda
b. Crocodile
c. Shark
d. Whale
Which one among the following is an ape
naturally found in India?
a. Chimpanzee
b. Hoolak Gibbon
c. Gorilla
d. Orangutan
Which one among the following plants
produces seeds without producing flower?
a. Cashew nut
b. Date Palm
c. Pinus
d. Toddy
The stem of which one of the following plants
is usually underground?
a. Banana
b. Sweet potato
c. Topioca
d. Water melon
In the context of Wholesale Prize Index (WPI)
in India, under the Primary Articles group,
what is the approximate weight of Food
Article in WPI?
a. 12
b. 15
c. 18
d. 21
Which one of the following is responsible for
bringing out the report on National and Per
Capita Income in India?
74.
75.
76.
77.
78.
79.
80.
81.
a. Ministry of Planning
b. Ministry
of
Human
Resource
Development
c. Ministry of Home Affairs
d. Ministry of Statistics and Programme
Implementation
In terms of both quantity and value, which one
of the following countries is the largest cutting
and polishing centre of diamonds in the world?
a. Belgium
b. France
c. India
d. South Africa
Regarding the procurement of wheat for
central pool, which one of the following States
has the highest share of contribution?
a. Haryana
b. Madhya Pradesh
c. Punjab
d. Uttar Pradesh
So far how many times has the countrywide
Economic Census been done in India?
a. Thrice
b. Five times
c. Seven times
d. Nine times
Which among the following was the capital of
Shivaji?
a. Singhagarh
b. Raigarh
c. Panhala
d. Poona
Who among the following arrived in the court
of Jehangir as an official ambassador of King
of England?
a. William Hawkins
b. Sir Thomas Roe
c. Sir Edward Terry
d. Bernier
Which Mughal Emperor granted the Dewani
of Bengal to the British East India Company in
the year 1765?
a. Jehangir
b. Shahjahan
c. Aurangzeb
d. Shah Alam-II
Who of the following was the representative of
Indian National Congress in the Second Round
Table Conference, held in London?
a. Madan Mohan Malviya
b. C. Rajagopalachari
c. Mahatma Gandhi
d. Vallabhbhai Patel
Where did Lala Hardayal and Sohan Singh
Bhakna form the Gadar Party in 1913?
a. Paris
b. San Francisco
c. Tokyo
d. London
9 of 11
82.
83.
84.
85.
86.
87.
88.
89.
Prior to Independence, the elections to the

Constituent Assembly were held under which
one of the following?
a. Mountbatten Plan
b. Cabinet Mission
c. Cripps Proposals
d. Wavell Plan
Who among the following introduced cashew
nut, pineapple and tobacco into India?
a. Dutch
b. English
c. French
d. Portuguese
When All India Trade Union Congress was
founded in 1920, who of the following was
elected its president?
a. C.R. Das
b. Lala Pajpat Rai
c. N.M. Joshi
d. V.V. Giri
Which one of the following was the occasion
on which Jawaharlal Nehru stepped forward,
as an important national leader?
a. Agitation against Rowlatt Act
b. Launch of Non-Cooperation Movement
c. Formation of Swaraj Party
d. Agitation against the arrival of Simon
Commission
At the time of Tripuri Congress Session in
1939 in which Subhash Bose has defeated
Sitaramayya, who among the following had
withdrawn
his
candidature
from
Presidentship?
a. Abdul Kalam Azad
b. Jawaharlal Nehru
c. Jayaprakash Narayan
d. Vallabhbhai Patel
Which one of the following was not a
programme of the Non-Cooperation cell given
in 1920?
a. Boycott of titles
b. Boycott of Civil Services
c. Boycott of English education
d. Boycott of police and army
In which year was Mahatma Gandhis famous
work Hind Swaraj written?
a. 1907
b. 1909
c. 1914
d. 1934
Consider the following statements with
reference to Union Government:
1. The tenure of Chairman/Members of Staff
Selection Commission is for five years or
still they attain the age of 62 years,
whichever is earlier.
2. The tenure of Chairman/Member of Union
Public Service Commission is for six years
90.
91.
92.
93.
94.
or till they attain the age of 65

years, whichever is earlier.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
According to the provisions of the
Constitution of India, who inquires into all
doubts and decides disputes arising out of or in
connection with the election of Vice-President
of India?
a. The President of India
b. The Supreme Court of India
c. The Election Commission of India
d. The Attorney General of India
Who among the following tribes live in the
Union Territory of Andaman and Nicobar
Islands?
a. Apatani
b. Jarawa
c. Munda
d. Santhal
Match List I with List II and select the correct
answer using the code given below the lists:
List I
(Book)
A. Crime and Punishment
B. Farewell to Arms
C. The Rights of Man
D. Unto The Last
List II
(Author)
1. Ernest Hemingway
2. Feodor Dostoyevsky
3. John Ruskin
4. Thomas Paine
Code:
A
B
C
D
a.
2
3
4
1
b.
4
1
2
3
c.
4
3
2
1
d.
3
1
4
3
In India, when both, the offices of the
President and the Vice-President happen to be
vacant simultaneously, who will discharge the
duties of the President?
a. The Prime Minister
b. The Union Home Minister
c. The Speaker of Lok Sabha
d. The Chief Justice of India
For the review of which of the following was a
Commission under the chairmanship of Justice
M.N. Venkatachaliah constituted by Union
Government?
a. Industrial sickness
b. River water disputes
c. The Constitution of India
10 of 11
95.
96.
97.
98.
99.
100.
101.
d. Centre-State relations
In which one of the following countries did the
Industrial Revolution first take place?
a. USA
b. UK
c. Germany
d. France
Who of the following is the author of the
famous book Das Kapital?
a. Adam Smith
b. Karl Marx
c. Rousseau
d. Voltaire
statement?
In the Parliament of India, a money bill can be
introduced only with the recommendation of
a. the President of India
b. the Prime Minister of India
c. the Speaker of Lok Sabha
d. the Union Finance Minister
Which one of the following is a place of
famous Hindu pilgrimage as well as a site of
important hydroelectric power project?
a. Devaprayag
b. Guntur
c. Nasik-Triambakeshwar
d. Omkareshwar
State which one of the following groups of
oceanic
water
currents
meet
near
Newfoundland Island of Canada?
a. Gulf Stream and Labrador
b. Kuroshio and Kurile
c. Agulhas and Mozambique
d. Brazilian and Falkland
How many Indian States border Myanmar?
a. Three
b. Four
c. Five
d. Six
Match List I with List Ii and select the correct
answer using the code given below the lists:
List I
(Name of the River)
A. Godavari
B. Krishna
C. Tapti
D. Cauvery
List II
(Tributary Joining)
1. Parna
2. Hemavati
3. Pranhita
4. Koyana
Code:
A
B
C
D
a.
1
4
3
2
b.
3
2
1
4
c.
1
2
3
4
102.
103.
104.
105.
106.
107.
108.
109.
110.
d.
3
4
1
2
Where is the Port of East London located?
a. England
b. Ireland
c. East coast of USA
d. South Africa
Which one of the following pairs is not
correctly matched?
a. Northern Rhodesia : Namibia
b. Gold Coast : Ghana
c. Dutch Guyana : Suriname
d. Dutch East Indies : Indonesia
Khmer Rouge atrocities pertained to which
one among the following?
a. South Africa
b. Iraq
c. Libya
d. Cambodia
Recently, the President of India conferred the
India Gandhi Prize for Peace, Disarmament
and Development for 2006 on whom among
the following?
a. Kim Dae Jung
b. Mohamed El Baradei
c. Shirin Ebadi
d. Wangari Muta Maathai
In the year 2007, which one of the following
pairs of countries launched spacecrafts to carry
out research on the Moon?
a. Australia and Canada
b. China and Japan
c. France and Germany
d. Russia and South Korea
In December, 2007, which one of the
following countries launched in interceptor
missile called AAD-02 to intercept a ballistic
missile?
a. Iran
b. North Korea
c. India
d. Pakistan
Recently, who of the following writers in
English, has been awarded the Sahitya
Akademi Fellowship?
a. Amitav Ghosh
b. Anita Desai
c. Jhumpa Lahiri
d. Shashi Tharoor
In the context of Indian Defence, what is
Admiral Gorshkov, frequently in the news?
a. Stealth worship
b. Nuclear powered submarine
c. Aircraft carrier
d. Marine oil drilling platform
Hugo Chavez, who is frequently in the news,
is a President of which one of the following
countries?
a. Argentina
b. Brazil
11 of 11
111.
112.
113.
114.
115.
c. Cuba
d. Venezuela
What is the Defence outlay (approximate) in
India for the year 2008-09?
a. Rs. 65,000 crores
b. Rs. 85,000 crores
c. Rs. 95,000 crores
d. Rs. 1,05,000 crores
What is a major use of allethrin?
a. In household insecticides
b. In glass manufacture
c. In steel manufacture
d. In paints and varnishes
Which one of the following is not correctly
match (approximately)?
a. 4 Imperial gallons = 18.18 litres
b. 4 pounds = 1.81 kilograms
c. 30 pounds per sq. in. = 2.07 kg per sq. cm.
d. 5 hectares = 18.35 acres
Big Mac Index is employed in the
determination of which one of the following?
a. Infrastructure development
b. Purchasing power parity
c. Defence budget per capita
d. Crop yield
What does the term Pyrrhic Victory imply?
a. A victory in a war wherein Air Force has
played a major role
b. A victory achieved at a great cost to the
winner
c. A victory of a political party wherein
members of the opposition party have
betrayed their own members
d. A victory achieved in games as a result of
match-fixing
116.
117.
118.
119.
120.
The well-known sportsman Liu Xiang has

excelled in which event?
a. Table Tennis
b. Weightlifting
c. Hurdles race
d. Swimming
Which one of the following subjects is mainly
dealt with by Montreal Protocol?
a. Undersea cable network
b. International cooperation against terrorism
c. Depletion of Ozone layer
d. Exploration of outer space
From which year does the 11th Five Year Plan
start?
a. 2005
b. 2006
c. 2007
d. 2008
In the context of Indias defence, what is C130 J Hercules?
a. A supersonic fighter jet
b. A troop transport aircraft
c. An unmanned patrol aircraft
d. A multi-purpose amphibious vehicle
Who among the following is a blanker?
a. Samir Jain
b. Raghav Bahl
c. K.V. Kamath
d. G.M. Rao
[DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO)
T.B.C. : Q-GUG-K-HBU
Serial No. [
Test Booklet Series
138510 1
TEST BOOKLET
(Time Allowed: Two Hours]
1.
2.
3.
(Maximum Marks: 200)
INSTRUCTIONS
IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMEN:r OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU
SHOULD CHECK THAT THIS TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED
OR TORN OR MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS, ETC. IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A
COMPLETE TEST BOOKLET.
ENCODE CLEARLY THE TEST BOOKLET SERIES A,B, C OR D AS THE CASE
MAY BE IN THE APPROPRIATE PLACE IN THE ANSWER SHEET.
You have to enter your Roll Number on the Test [

Booklet in the Box provided alongside. DO NOT
write anything else on the Test Booklet.
....
,
,
.J.
4. This Test Booklet contains 120 items (questions), 60 in PART-A and 60 in PART-B.
Each item comprises four responses (answers). You will select the response which you want
to mark on the Answer Sheet. In case you feel that there is more than one correct response,
mark the response which you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response
for each item. ,
5. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. See
directions in the Answer Sheet.
.
6. All items carry equal marks.
7. Befose you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet the response to various items in the Test
Booklet, you have to fill in some particulars in the Answer Sheet as per .instructions sent
to you with your Admission Certificate.
.
8. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet and the
examination has concluded, you should hand over to the Invigilator only the Answer Sheet.
You are permitted to take away with you the Test Booklet.
9. Sheets for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end.
10. Penalty for wrong answers:
THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE
IN THE OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTION PAPERS.
(i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for
which a wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one-third (0'33) of the marks
assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty.
(ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even
if one of the given answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as
above to that question.
'
(iii) If a question is left blank, i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be
no penalty for that question.
1/ .
( DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO)
PART-A
In the following items, each passage consists of six sentences. The first seritence (SI) and the
final sentence (S6) are given in the beginning. The middle four sentences in each have been
removed and jumbled up. These are labelled P, Q, R and S. You are required to find out the
proper sequence of the four sentences and mark accordingly on the Answer Sheet.
Example 'X' has been solved for you:

X.
SI: There was a boy named Jack.

S6 : At last she turned him out of the house.
p : So the mother asked him to find work.
Q : They were very poor.
R : He lived with his mother.
S : But Jack refused to work.
-,
The proper sequence should be :

(a) R Q P S
(b) P Q R S
(c) Q P R'S
(d) R P S Q
Explanation "
The correct sequence in this example is R Q P S which is marked by (a). Therefore, (a) is the
correct answer.
1.
2:-
SI: The headmaster

more closely.
looked at the boy
S6 : For the facts seem to contradict

themselves.
S6 : Besides, one of
hurt.
-
his feet had been
P : These are questions which it is

difficult to answer.
Q : The exercises and the massage, the
health motors and the skin foodsto what have they led ?
R : Do they get something
for the
enormous expenditure of energy, time,
and the money demanded of them
by the beauty-cult ?
S : Are women more beautiful than they
were?
P : Although he must have been about

eighteen years old, he wore a child's
suit.
SI: What are the practical results ortlUs

modem cult of beauty?
Q':/ : He noticed the strange mixture of

clothes that he wore.
R : His shoes were too broken and old
even for a beggar.
S
It was amazingly short in the arms
and legs and. yet wide enough for
his thin body.
(a)
S Q P R
(a) Q S R P
(b)
R Q S P
(b)
R Q S P
(c)
QP S R
(c)
S Q P R
(d)
P R Q S
(d)
R S
2
(Contd.)
3.
5.
S) : There was a dacoit who used to rob

rich people.
S6 : He robbed rich people again.
P : Once the police managed to 'capture
him.
Q : He was sent to prison for 10 years,
but he managed to escapeR : He helped the poor and the needy
from the money so obtained.
S : The court which tried him found him
to be guilty.

(a) --Q P S R

(a) .R P S Q-
(b) PQRS
(c) S P Q R
(d) RPQS
(b) RSQP
(c) RPQS
..
(d) PQSR
6.
4.
S) : In those days I was an even better

walker than I am today.
S6 : Even a small additional weight of
food bothered me and I looked for a
place to eat and rest.
P : But as the day progressed, and with
the warmth 'of the day, the rate of
walking fell. .
Q : I walked like the young with quick
steps covering eight miles in two
hours in the morning.
R : On a particular August morning I set
out quite early. It was quite pleasant
and cool to begin with.
S I carried with me enough food to meet
my simple needs and was therefore
able to keep away from the towns. '
S) : So the father gave his younger son a

third part of all that he had.
S6 : He became poor and returned to the
village.
P : Then he left his village and went to
rhe- town.
Q : The son sold his share of the land
and the animals.
R : Soon all his money was gone.
S : He wasted his money on feasting and
drinking.
/"
S) : It was an impulsive decision.

S6 : The train was already on the platform
and all the passengers were in a hurry
to board the train.
P Buying tickets, therefore, was no
problem.
Q : Four of us, all room-mates in the
(\J
hostel, decided to travel by train from
Gwalior to Delhi and witness the
Republic Day Parade.
R : Ashok pretended sickness and
prevailed upon the man nearest to
the window to QUY four more
tickets-one for him and three for
his sisters' .
:
S There was a large crowd in the station
and a long queue in front of the ticket
window.
(a) PSQR
(b)
SRP
(c) PQRS
(a) PQSR
(b) SQRP
~) R'S Q P
(d) SQRP
(d) PSQR
3
(Contd.)
7.
SI: Abraham
went to the great slave
9.
SI:
market in New Orleans.
I stopped
and looked
up at the
building.
S6 : He did not rest until he achieved his

goal.
S6: Help!
From that day onwards he hated the

entire slave-trade.
P : I thought I must have imagined the
Q : The slaves were auctioned like cattle

there.
Q : There were no lights on at all in it.
Save me !'
scream.
R : Then I heard the voice again.
R : The sight of these miserable human

beings made him very sad.
S : Everyone seemed to be asleep'.
S : He resolved to do everything he could

to abolish it.

(a)
Q S R P
(b)
P Q R S'
8.
(a)
Q R P S'
(b)
P Q R S
(c(
Q S P R
(c)
S R Q P
(d)
R S P Q
(d)
Q P R S
S,:
He was no child prodigy.
10. SI:
The flight was delayed by a few hours.
S6 : The threat turned out to be a hoax
S6 : He saw the parade as a movement

of people compelled to be machines.
and the plane took off a few hours

behind the schedule.
P : When soldiers marched through

Munich accompanied by drums and
pipes, children enthusiastically join~
in.
P : The caller had given information

about the planting of a time bomb in
the plane.
Q : Indeed, it was a very long time before

Albert learned to speak.
Q : The empty plane was subjected to a
R : But when little Albert passed such a

parade, he began to cry and told his
parents, "When I grow up, I don't
want to be one of those people".
R : The passengers were asked to vacate
thorough search.
I
the plane.
S : The
delay
S R
(a)
R Q- P S
(b) R Q S P
(b)
S P R,Q
(c)
(c)
QR P S
(d)
P Q S R
by
an

Q
caused
anonymous phone call.
S : He was always taciturn.
(a)
was
S Q P R
~QSPR
."/
(Contd.)
SYNONYMS

Each of the following ten items consists of a word in capital letters, followed by four words or
group of words. Select the word or group of words that is most similar in meaning to the word
in capital letters.
11. BEMOAN
16. DERELICT
(a)
Lament
(a)
Derogatory
(b)
Pacify
(b)
Depressing
(c)
Request.
(c)
Ramshackle
(d)
Imagine
(d)
Sluggish
17. INJUNCTION
12. PROSAIC
(a)
Dull and ordinary
(a)
Bruise
(b)
Slow and steady
(b)
Injustice
(c)
Grand
(c)
Ruling
(d)
Precious
(d)
Reproach
1-8. IMPLORE
13. OMINOUS
(a)
Helpless
(a)
Entreat
(b)
Humble
(b)
Put into Practice
(c)
Restless
(c)
Interfere
(d)
Sinister
(d)
Transmit
19. GROTESQUE
14. ELOQUENT
(a)
Ambiguous
(a)
Boring
(b)
Graceful
(b)
Gripping
(c)
Fluent
(c)
Monstrous
(d)
Productive
(d)
Obnoxious
20. PERTINENT
15. FRAIL
(a)
(a)
Astute
Dependable
(b) Delicate
(b) Relevant
(c)
Foolish
(c)
Remarkable
(d)
Immature
(d)
Sensible
(Contd.)
ANTONYMS
Each of the following ten items consists of a word in capital letters, followed by four words or
group of words. Select the word or group of words that is furthest in meaning to the word in
capital letters.
21. PAROCHIAL
26. REPRIMAND
(a)
Broad-minded
(a)
Bequeath
(b)
Contradictory
(b)
Petition
(c)
Paranoid
(c)
Praise
(d)
Scold
(d) Overriding
27. LUSH
22. FICKLE
(a)
Belligerent
(a)
Cramped
(b)
Constant
(b)
Ridiculous
(c)
Disinterested
(c)
Rampant
(d)
Proud
(d)
Sparse
28. TENTATIVE
23. DISGRUNTLED
(a)
Contended
(a)
Definite
(b)
Detached
(b)
Outdated
(c)
Obedient
(c)
Preliminary
(d) Vigorous
(d)
Universal
29. MARVELLOUS
24. VIBRANT
(a)
Awful
(b) Occasional
(b)
Contentious
(c)
Pale
(c)
Fictitious
(d)
Shabby
(d)
Malicious
(a)
Feel aggrieved at
30. PASSIONATE
25. FORBIDDING
(a)
Declaring
(b) Forcing
(c)
Exposing
(d) Inviting
6
(a)
Abnormal
(b)
Apathetic
(c)
Oppressive
(d)
Superficial
(Contd.)

In this section, you have five short passages. After each passage, you will find several questions
based on the passage. First, read the passage and then answer the questions based on it. You are
required to select your answers based on the contents of the passage and opinion of the author
only.
PASSAGE-I
On the day of the Christmas concert the entire orchestra entered the gymnasium where a
large throng of pupils and parents were gathered. The school choir had gathered on the balcony
with candles and the orchestra began "Silent Night". Slowly the lights dimmed, leaving us in
darkness except for the hundred glimmering candles held by the choir as they softly sang the
carol. Slowly, and just as dramatically, the orchestra began to falter-in
dimming of the lights, when the lights faded out completely,
direct proportion to the
so did the orchestra, because no
one could read his music. Except for me, for my music was in my head. From a corner of the
stage, the sound of my violin filled the gymnasium. The choir and I went through verse after
verse. When it was all over, the ovation was positively thunderous.
31. The narrator is
(a)
34. The statements
positively thunderous'
a priest
(a)
(b) the leader of pupils

(c)
(b)
(c)
The orchestra was not led properly.

dominated
the other
(d)
instruments.
in the
The audience made circles and danced
The audience made a noise resembling
continue with his music ?
33. How could the choir sing when the lights
(a)
dimmed?
He was at the corner of the stage

where he could get light.
the songs.
(b)
(b) They could sing in candle light.

(c)
The audience joined the singers and
35. How was it possible for the narrator to
chorus.
They had memorized
by people.
thunder.
(d) There was no coordination
(a)
of
in ecstasy.
(b) The dimming of lights caused it.

The violin
expression
sang aloud.
32. Why did the orchestra begin to falter?
(c)
was
means that
There was a joyful

appreciation
an instrumentalist
(d) a smger
(a)
that 'the ovation
His instrument did not need electric

power.
There was some natural light at the
(c)
choir side.
jar-He
He played in candle light.

did not need to read his music.
(d) The narrator helped them sing.

7
(Contd.)
PASSAGE-II
Patriotism is easy enough during war. For one thing, people become actively conscious of
their country when it is threatened. For another, since everyone or nearly everyone feels it, there
is a strong collective emotion flowing through the country. But when the war is over, the country
recedes from the consciousness, and it is rarely even at the back of the mind. The question, "Am
I doing any good to the country ?" doesn't occur to the mind; and even the question, "Is what
I am doing good or bad for the country ?" occurs only rarely. A limited patriotism is better than
none, but it is not enough.
39. When the author says that the country
"recedes from the consciousness", he means
to say that
36. The author says that one reason why

patriytism is easy during war-time is that
(~
war is the only factor responsible for

arousing patriotism.
(a)
(b) when the country is in danger, we

become conscious of it.
(c)
(b) people do not have the country clearly

in the forefront of their mind.
we become patriotic when we are in a

fighting mood.
(d) patriotism
IS
consciousness.
always
In
(c)
the
37. Another reason suggested by the author for

the emergence of patriotic feeling during
war-time is that
(a)
patriotism is specially required during

war-time.
40. By a "limited patriotism", the author refers

to
patriotism
becomes
contagious
because one finds a lot of other people
feeling patriotism.
(a)
the people's attitude of indifference to

the welfare of their country
(b)
the attitude of people who love other

countries as much as they love their
own country
(c)
those who are self-centered and mainly

concerned about their own welfare
(d) everyone feels that he/she should

strive to protect the others.
38. When the threat of war is over,
(a)
there is no need for people to be

interested in others' welfare.
(d) the attitude of people who are

indifferent to the welfare of their
(b) people do not consider it necessary to

serve the country.
)e)
people
are
not
capable
of
understanding
what is good and
desirable for them.
(d) the moral values which they have so

far upheld would disappear from their
minds.
(b) we become deeply conscious of danger

to ourselves during war-time.
(c)
people no longer feel that they belong

to the country.
country except during war-time
people tend to become totally

unmindful of national interests.
(d) people are generally anxious to serve

the country.
(Contd.)
PASSAGE-III
Most people lead the lives that circumstances have thrust upon them ..But Wilson had boldly
taken the course of his life into his own hands. At 35, he had quit his job to lead a pleasant life
on an exotic island with just enough money to last for twenty five years. Once, fifteen years after
he had been on the island, I happened to meet him and enquired about his financial situation.
He said, "It will carry me on till I am sixty." "But one cannot be sure of dying at sixty", I said.
"Well ..." he. replied, "it depends on oneself, doesn't it" ?
41. According to the author, most people
43. "
depends on oneself" suggests that
(a) do not allow circumstances to affect
Wilson, at 60, would
their lives.
(a) depend on his own resources.
(b) have fatalistic attitude towards life. /'
(b) surrender himself to destiny.
(c) do not know how to cope with their
(c) take way his own life.
situation.
(d) carry on living in the same way.
(d) do nothing to change the condition they
live in.
42. Wilson's boldest decision was that he
(a) quit his job.
(b) saved a lot of money to lead a pleasant
life.
(c) preferred to live in isolation.
(d) wanted to live without depending on
others.
PASSAGE-IV
A soap opera is a' kind of a sandwich, whose recipe is simple enough. Between thick slices
of advertising, spread twenty minutes of dialogue, and predicament, villainy, and female suffering
in equal measure, throw in a dash of nobility, sprinkle with tears, season with organ music, cover
with a rich announcer sauce, and serve five times a week. It may also contain a teaser, a giveaway, a contest offer, or a cowcatcher or hitch-hike for another of the sponsor's products. It is
the hope of every advertiser to habituate the housewife to an engrossing narrative whose optimum
length is forever and at the same time to saturate all levels of her consciousness with the miracle
of a given product, so that she will be aware of it all the days of her life and mutter its name
in her sleep.
44. The second sentence of the passage contains
the description of alan
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
46. According to the author, the advertisers aim

at
programme announcement.
recipe for sandwich.
advertisement.
melodrama.
(a)
enlightening
the
(b) brainwashing the housewives.
45. Which ofthe following accurately describes

the author's style in the passage?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
educating
and
housewives.
Scientific and objective style.

Romantic style.
Satirical style.
Sentimental and melodramatic style.
9
(c)
selling their wares very cheap.
(d)
offering
pure
entertainment.
and
wholesome
(Contd.)
PASSAGE-V
Most of you probably did not see Mohan at close quarters. He had amazing qualities. One
of these qualities was that he managed to draw out the good in another person. The other person
may have had plenty of evil in him. But he somehow spotted the good and laid emphasis on the
good. The result was that the poor man had to try to be good. He could not help it. He would
feel ashamed when he did something wrong.
47. The author assumes that most of us
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
have not seen Mohan.

have not heard of Mohan.
are not well-acquainted with Mohan's
powers.
have not observed Mohan's house
closely.
48. One of Mohan's greatest qualities was that

(a)
he could completely destroy the evil

in another man.
~
he could discover the good in another
man.
(c) he always maintained a good life.
(d) he always kept aw:ay from bad men.
49. The other man is called poor because

(a) he usually came from a poor family.
(b) he was always very evil.
(eJ" he must try to become good and give
up his evil ways.
(d) he did not know what to do and was
helpless.
50. The other man tried to be good because
(a)
Mohan forced him to do so.
(b)
he wanted to imitate Mohan.
,tc}
he was ashamed of doing a wrong

thing.
(d) he did not want to remain poor.
SPOTTING ERRORS
(i) In this Section a number of sentences are given. The sentences are underlined in three
separate parts and each oneis labelled '(a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to find out
whether there is an error in a y underlined part. No sentence has more than one error. When
you find an error in anyone of the underlined parts (a), (b) or (c), indicate your response
on the separate Answer Sheet at the appropriate space. You may feel that there is no error
in a sentence. In that case letter (d) will signify a 'No error' response.
(ii) You are to indicate only one response for each item in your Answer Sheet. (If you indicate
more than one response, your answer will be considered wrong.) Errors may be in grammar,
word usage or idioms. There may be a word missing or there may be a word which should
be removed.
(iii) You are not required to correct the error. You are required only to indicate your response
on the Answer Sheet.
Examples 'P' and 'Q' have been solved for you:
P. The young child
singed
a very sweet song.
(~
(b)
(~
Q. We worked
very hard
throughout the season.
(a)
(b)
(c)
No error
(d)
No error
(d)
Explanation "
In item P, the word 'singed' is wrong. The letter under this part is (b); so (b) is the correct
answer. Similarly, for item Q, (d) is the correct answer, as the sentence does not contain any
error.
(Contd.)
10
51. Many a student
in our college
(a(
are extremely fond of the new game.
No error
(c)
(d)
(b)
52. During India's struggle. for freedom
many brilliant students
(a)
gave up their studies
(b)
by Mahatma Gandhi's call.
(c)
No error
(d)
53. He opposed the scheme at first
but when it was fully explained
(a)
he came to our views.
(b)
(c)
No error
(d)
54. The world we live presents
an infinite variety
(a)
of experiences everyday.
(b)
(c)
55. Any meaningful discussion of national integration
(d)
must take stock about the tendencies
(a)
(b)
which threaten it.
No error
(c)
(d)
56. The lion told the fox
that he is very weak
(a)
and that he had no appetite.
(b)
57. The traveler was so hungry
58. You may have to regret later
(c)
(d)
placed over the table.
No error
(b)
,--(e)'
(d)
if you do not start living
(a)
within your mean.
(b)
when she remembered
JJi
No error
that he gulped all the food
(a)
59. She was ashamed
No error
(c)
No error
(d)
that she did not visit her mother for a year.

(c)
(b)
No error
(d)
60. Tell me
(a)
what all you know about it.
before I take a decision in the matter.
(b)
(c)
11
No error
(d)
(Contd.)
PART-B
61. Financial distribution between the Union
and the States takes place on the basis of
the recommendations of:
66. Which one of the following is a pigment?

(a)
Albumin
(b)
Elastin
(b) The Planning Commission
(c)
Keratin
(c)
(d)
Melanin
(a)
The Inter-State Council
The Finance Commission
(d) The National Development Council

6T
67. Azlan Shah cup is associated with:
Paul Krugman won the Nobel Prize for his

contribution to :
(a)
Economics
(b) Genetics
(c)
Literature
(d)
Promotion of peace
sculptor
Cricket
(c)
Football
(d)
Hockey
.
,
(a)
Santoor
(b)
Sitar
(c)
Tabla
(d)
Violin
travel writer
(d) film director

64. Which one of the following places is the
natural habitat of Lion-tailed Macaque?
(a)
(b)
as an exponent of :
(b) painter
(c)
Badminton
68. Pandit Shiv Kumar Sharma is well known
63. The famousPalme d' Or (Golden Palm) is

awarded to the best
(a)
(a)
Maikala hills
1.
Lionel Messi
2.
Namit Bahadur : Boxing
3.
Sanya Richards:
Football
(b) Neora valley

(c)
Nilgiris
(d) Pachmarhi
Which of the pairs given above is/are
65. Which one of the following places is well

known for the annual mass nesting of Olive
Ridley turtles?
(a)
Badminton
correctly matched?
Gopalpur
(a)
1 and 2 only
(b)
2 only
(c)
1 and 3
(d)
1,2 and 3
(b) Gahirmatha
(c)
Paradeep
(d) Puri
12
(Contd.)
70. With reference to Indian freedom struggle,

who ofthe following formed the Congress
Well known place
State
Khilafat Swarajya Party?
1.
Bokaro
Bihar
(a)
2.
Jamshedpur
Jharkhand
3.
Korba
Chhattisgarh
4.
Rourkela
Orissa
Vallabhbhai Patel and Maulana Abul

Kalam Azad
(b)
Jawaharlal Nehru and Hakim Ajmal

Khan
Which ofthe pairs given above are correctly

(c)
J .B. Kriplani and K.M. Munshi
(d)
Motilal Nehru and C.R. Das
matched?
71. Who is the author of the play Neel Darpan ?

(a)
Aurobindo Ghosh
(b)
Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay
(c)
Deen Bandhu Mitra
(d)
Rabindra Nath Tagore
(a)
1 and 2 only
(b)
2, 3 and 4 only
(c)
1, 3.and 4
.(df 1,2,3 and 4

75. Mike Pandey is well known as a :
72. Who of the following organized the East
(a)
Newspaper columnist
(b)
Conservationist and filmmaker
(c)
Industrialist and social activist
India Association in London to mobilize

public opinion for Indian welfare?
(d) Theatre artist
(a)
Anandamohan Bose
(b)
Bhikaji Cama
(c)
Dadabhai Naoroji
1.
Zubin Mehta
Musician
(d)
Surendranath Banerjea
2.
Orhan Pamuk
Environmentalist
3.
Robert Zoellick : Novelist
73. A new group of countries called BASIC is

frequently mentioned in the news. Which
Which of the 'pairs given above is/are
of the following is not one of them ?
correctly matched?
(a)
Argentina
(a)
1 only
(b)
Brazil
(b)
1 and 2
(c)
India
(c)
2 and 3
(d)
South Africa
(d)
1,2 and 3
13
(Contd.)
80. Which country had helped India in Green
77. Which one of the following is a purpose of
Revolution
Kepler Spacecraft launched by NASA?
Technology
for" agricultural
development and self-sufficiency in food?

(a)
To finally determine the existence of

water or the signs of conditions
favourable to the formation of water
on moon
(b) To repair the Hubble Telescope already
(b)
U.K.
(c)
Germany
(d)
United States of America
society popularly known as 'Red Shirts' ,?
To look for the signs of organic
(a) Maul ana Abul Kalam Azad
molecules or conditions leading to the
(b)
Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan
formation of them on Mars
(c)
Muzaffar Ahmed
(d)
Mohammad Ali J innah
(d) To search
for Earth-size
planets
moving around other stars
82. Which one of the following districts is well

known for the cultivation of coffee?
78. The Parliament of India consists of:

(a)
U.S.S.R.
81. Who of the following was the leade: of a
positioned in the space

(c)
(a)
The Lok Sabha, the Rajya Sabha and

the office of the President ofIndia only
(b) The Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha
(a)
Balasore
(b)
Chikmagalur
(c)
Guntur
(d)
Khurda
only
(c)
83. In the Union Government,
The Lok Sabha, the Rajya Sabha and
under whose
charge is the Cabinet Secretariat?
the office ofthe Prime Minister of India
(a)
only
The Prime Minister of India
(b) The Union Minister of Parliamentary
(d) The Lok Sabha, the Rajya Sabha, the
Affairs
office of the President ofIndia and the
(c)
office of the Prime Minister of India
(d) Any Cabinet Minister to whom the

Prime Minister allocates the charge
79. The permanent headquarters
of SAARC
The Union Home Minister
84. What is the number of spokes in Ashoka' s
secretariat is located at :
Dharma Chakra in the Flag of India?

(a)
Kathmandu
(b)
Dhaka
(c)
New Delhi
(d) Islamabad
14
(a)
12
(b)
16
(c)
18
(d)
24
(Contd.)
90. "Historical materialism" is a tenet of which
85. Who served as India's first Ambassador to

the Soviet Union?
one of the following political theories?
(a)
V.P. Krishna Menon
(a)
Capitalism
(b)
Vijayalakshmi Pandit
(b)
Fabian socialism
(c)
K.M. Pannikar
(c)
Liberalism
(d)
K.R. Narayanan
(d)
Marxism
Union
86. Which one of the following
Ministries launched the Eco-Mark scheme
91. The giant oil and gas company Gazprom

belongs to :
for labelling the consumer products?

(a)
Ministry of Agro and Rural Industries
(b)
Ministry of Environment and Forests
(c)
Ministry ofF ood Processing Industries
(d)
Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food
.,.
and Public Distribution
(a)
Canada
(b)
Russia
(c)
UK
(d)
USA
92. In which of the regions of India do you

find tropical rain forests ?
87. India is not a member of:

(a)
ADB
(a)
North-west
(b)
APEC
(b)
Central India
(c)
Antarctic Treaty
(c)
North-east only
(d)
Colombo Plan
(d)
South-west and North-east
88. At the end ofthe year 2009, with which one

of the following did India sign a civil nuclear
93. In recent
times,
popularized
and South-east
"Spirulina"
as a rich source of some
agreement?
nutrients. It is alan :
(a)
Brazil
(a)
alga
(b)
China
(b)
mushroom
(c)
Russia
(c)
fern
(d)
South Africa
(d)
flowering plant
89. For his leadership, in which one of the

following movements was Vallabhbhai
Patel bestowed the title "Sardar" ?
is being
94. In which State is the famous Tawang

monastery located ?
(a)
Bardoli Satyagraha
(a)
Arunachal Pradesh
(b)
Champaran Satyagraha
(b)
Jammu and Kashmir
(c)
Khilafat Movement
(c)
Himachal Pradesh
(d)
Quit India Movement
(d)
Sikkim
15
(Contd.)
95. When
you
travel
In
car
from
Bhubaneshwar to Vishakhapatnam,
which
100. Which
one of the following
elements
IS
National Highway would you take?
contraction?
(a)
NH 4
(a)
Calcium
(b) NH 5
(b)
Iron
(c)
(c)
Sodium
NH 6
required
for
101. With which one of the following rivers
96. What is the key ingredient in vinegar that

you use in your diet ?
does Chambal river merge ?
(a)
(a)
Banas
(b)
Ganga
Benzoic acid
(c)
Narmada
Nicotinic acid
(d) Yamuna
Acetic acid
(b) Ascorbic acid
(d)
muscle
(d) Zinc
(d) NH 7
. (c)
mineral
is used to
102. Who of the following is the chairman of
induce artificial rain ?
the National Water Resources Council?
(a)
Ammonium chloride
(a)
(b)
Calcium carbonate
(b) The
(c)
Potassium nitrate
(d)
Silver iodide
The Prime Minister of India

Union
Minister
of
Water
Resources
(c)
The Union Minister of Agriculture
(d) The Union Minister of Earth Sciences

98. In the context
following
of which
one of the
is "Doha Round" mentioned
103. Which one of the following experiences
frequently in news ?
the least annual range of temperature
(a)
Global climate change
(a)
(b)
Global economic recession
(b) Tropic of Capricorn
(c)
Global trade
(c)
Tropic of Cancer
(d) Global terrorism
(d)
Equator
kinds of
Arctic circle
104. In the context of Indian Defence, what is
organisms causes malaria ?
"Nag" ?
(a)
Bacterium
(a)
Nuclear powered submarine
(b)
Fungus
(b)
Inter-continental
{c)
Protozoan
(c)
Indigenously
(d)
Anti-tank missile
(d) Virus
16
ballistic missile
built battle tank
(Contd.)
110. The
105. The famous couple Jalabala Vaidya and

Gopal Sharman are well known to be
associated with:
(a)
Environmental
(b)
Painting
(c)
(d)
Date
(b)
Bering Strait
Theatre
(c)
Denmark Strai t
Wildlife documentaries
(d)
Hudson Bay
Sixth and seventh
(b)
Seventh and eighth
111. Anup
Sridhar
(a)
Badminton
(b)
Chess
(c)
Football
of human heart is the oxygenated blood

pumped into aorta ?
(a)
Right atrium
(a)
Aravind Adiga
(b)
Right ventricle
(b)
MJ. Akbar
(c)
Left atrium
(c)
Nandan Nilekani
(d)
Left ventricle
(d)
Shashi Tharoor
113. Which one of the glands in human body
are manufactured
produces
the
(a)
Bell Aircraft Corporation
(Somatotropin)
(b)
Boeing Aircraft Company
(a)
Adrenal
(c)
Dassault Aviation
(b)
Pancreas
(c)
Pituitary
(d)
Thyroid
Martin
Aeronautics
109. From the evolutionary point of view, which

one among the following organisms is
more advanced than the other three ?
(a)
Crocodile
(b)
Dolphin
(c)
Shark
for
112. From which one of the following chambers
107. Who of the following is the author of the

book "Imaging India: Ideas for the New
Century" ?
(d) Lockheed
Company
known
(d) Table tennis
(d) Ninth and tenth
planes
well
IS
playing:
(c) Eighth and ninth
108. F-16 fighter

by :
passes
(a) . Baffin Bay
Education
(a)
Line
through:
106. According to UNIDO's

International
Yearbook ofIndustrial Statistics 2010, out
of the top 10 countries in manufacturing
production, the two developing countries
namely India and Brazil rank respectively:
International
growth
hormone
114. Indus river originates in :

(a)
Kinnaur
(b)
Ladakh
(c)
Nepal
(d) Tibet
(d) Tortoise
17
(Contd.)

1.
Gimar hills
2.
Nallamalai
3.
Shevaroy hills
member of ASEAN ?
: Gujarat
hills
: Andhra Pradesh
: Tamil Nadu
Which of the pairs given above is/are

correctly matched ?
(a)
1 only
(b)
2 and 3 only
(c)
1 and 3 only
116. The Nanda Devi peak is located in :

Himachal Pradesh
Cambodia
(b)
Laos
(c)
Singapore
(d)
South Korea
List-I
(Vitamin)
List-II
(Deficiency disease)
A.
B\
1.
Night blindness
B.
2.
Beriberi
C.
3.
Scurvy
D.
4.
Rickets
Code:
(b) Jammu and Kashmir

(c)
(a)
119. Match list-I with list-II and select the

correct answer using the code given below
the lists:
(d) . 1, 2 and 3
(a)
is not a
Sikkim
(a)
3~
3'- 1
(b) 2
(d) Uttarakhand
(c)
117. To which one of the following countries
(d) 2
does Ana Ivanovic actually belong?
120. The Gandhi

river:
(a)
Czech Republic
(b)
Poland
(c)
Russia
(c)
Rihand
(d)
Serbia
(d)
Sutlej
(a)
Chambal
(b) Narmada
18
Sagar reservoir
is of the
I>
IES (ESE)-2010 Answers
General Ability Test
PART -A : GENERAL ENGLISH

Q.No.
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
Answers
A
C
A
B
A
B
A
C
C
B
Q.No.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
Answers
A
A
D
C
B
C
C
A
C
B
Q.No.
21.
22.
23.
24.
25.
26.
27.
28.
29.
30.
Q.No.
Answers
31.
32.
33.
34.
35.
36.
37.
38.
39.
40.
A
B
A
C
D
C
D
A
A
B
Answers
C
B
D
A
D
B
C
C
B
D
Q.No.
41.
42.
43.
44.
45.
46.
47.
48.
49.
50.
Answers
D
A
C
A
C
B
C
B
C
C
Q.No.
Answers
51.
52.
53.
54.
55.
56.
57.
58.
59.
60.
C
C
C
A
B
B
C
C
C
B
PART -B : GENERAL STUDIES

61.
62.
63.
64.
65.
66.
67.
68.
69.
70.
71.
72.
73.
74.
75.
76.
77.
78.
79.
80.
81.
82.
83.
84.
85.
86.
87.
88.
89.
90.
C
A
D
C
B
D
D
A
A
D
C
C
A
B
B
A
D
A
A
D
B
B
A
D
B
B
B
C
A
D
Direct questions from made easy book
Q.No. Answers
MADE EASY General Studies, Page 438

MADE EASY Current Affairs
MADE EASY Current Affairs, Page 121, 129
MADE EASY General Studies & TTK Atlas
MADE EASY Current Affairs, Page 183

For any discrepancy in the answers, kindly discuss/repot at iesmadeeasy@yahoo.co.in
Q.No. Answers
91.
92.
93.
94.
95.
96.
97.
98.
99.
100.
101.
102.
103.
104.
105.
106.
107.
108.
109.
110.
111.
112.
113.
114.
115.
116.
117.
118.
119.
120.
B
D
A
A
B
A
D
C
C
A
D
A
D
D
C
D
C
D
B
B
A
D
C
D
D
D
D
D
D
A
Direct questions from made easy book

MADE EASY Current Affairs, Page 7, 8

MADE EASY General Studies, Page 452, 453

MADE EASY General Studies
MADE EASY General Studies, Page 464, 465
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IES2007 GA test.

IES 2007 General Ability Test

ENGINEERING SERVICE EXAMINATION - 2007

Maximum Marks: 200

IES 2007 General Ability Test

1. S1: The canvas of human rights is as large as life itself.

IES 2007 General Ability Test

IES 2007 General Ability Test

P: It is this knowledge that constitutes a science.

5. S1: So why is there so much fuss in France over creeping Americanization?

6. S1: The Bundela Rajputs were Suryavanshis.

IES 2007 General Ability Test

IES 2007 General Ability Test

ORDERING OF WORDS IN A SENTENCE

10. Perhaps that globalization has endorsed is that identities of

IES 2007 General Ability Test

IES 2007 General Ability Test

16. The Roman Empire

in spite of the absence of modern industrial technologies

IES 2007 General Ability Test

IES 2007 General Ability Test

IES 2007 General Ability Test

32. After the event, the manager looked knackered.

IES 2007 General Ability Test

a very sweet song.

throughout the season.

IES 2007 General Ability Test

41. Many a student are

42. The article should not

exceed more than

five hundred words.

43. He ought not have done such

a filthy thing. No error

44. The Chief Minister couldn't but help

46. Emphasis on equality of life ensures

for the health and happiness

what I want is that

the dispute on this issue is between my brother and myself

IES 2007 General Ability Test

In our approach to life, be it pragmatic or otherwise, a basic fact that confronts us

IES 2007 General Ability Test

IES 2007 General Ability Test

54. Consider the following statements:

IES 2007 General Ability Test

(c) Both 1 and 2

IES 2007 General Ability Test

IES 2007 General Ability Test

IES 2007 General Ability Test

IES 2007 General Ability Test

IES 2007 General Ability Test

2. Delhi and Puducherry (Pondicherry) have their own Legislative Assemblies

83. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?

84. Consider the following statements:

IES 2007 General Ability Test

IES 2007 General Ability Test

IES 2007 General Ability Test

103. Among the following foods, which one is rich in proteins?

IES 2007 General Ability Test

IES 2007 General Ability Test

115. Consider the following statements:

I.E.S- (OBJ) 2008

GENERAL ABILITY TEST

Directions (For the 9 items which follow):