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Strategic Management & Business Policy, 13e (Wheelen/Hunger)

Chapter 5 Internal Scanning and Organizational Analysis


40) Those critical strengths and weaknesses that are likely to determine if a firm will be able to take advantage
of opportunities while avoiding threats are called
A) SWOT.
B) competitive forces.
C) internal strategic factors.
D) quality accounting.
E) factor analysis.
41) Which of the following is NOT one of the four question areas Barney proposes in his VRIO framework
used to evaluate a firm's key resources?
A) durability
B) organization
C) rareness
D) value
E) imitability
42) When a firm determines a competency's competitive advantage, Barney refers to this issue as
A) value.
B) rareness.
C) imitability.
D) organization.
E) durability.
43) According to Barney's VRIO framework, the exploitation of a resource pertains to the ________ of the
resource.
A) value
B) rareness
C) imitability
D) organization
E) durability
44) A corporation's ability to exploit its resources is referred to as its
A) resources.
B) capabilities.
C) core competencies.
D) critical success factors.
E) key performance factors.
45) Things that a corporation can do exceedingly well across the corporation are called
A) resources.
B) distinctive competencies.
C) core competencies.
D) critical success factors.
E) key performance factors.

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46) When a company's core competencies are superior to those of competitors, these are called
A) resources.
B) distinctive competencies.
C) core competencies.
D) critical success factors.
E) key performance factors.
47) Which of the following statements is true concerning clusters?
A) The desire to build or upgrade a core competency is one reason why entrepreneurial and other fast-growing
firms often tend to locate close to their competitors.
B) Clusters are geographic concentrations of interconnected companies and industries.
C) An example of a cluster in the U.S. is California's Silicon Valley.
D) According to Porter, clusters provide access to employees, suppliers, specialized information, and
complementary products.
E) all of the above
48) The rate at which a firm's underlying resources and capabilities depreciate or become obsolete is called
A) replicability.
B) transparency.
C) imitability.
D) durability.
E) transferability.
49) The rate at which a firm's underlying resources, capabilities, or core competencies can be duplicated by
others is called
A) replicability.
B) transparency.
C) imitability.
D) durability.
E) transferability.
50) When a firm takes apart a competitor's product in order to find out how it works, this process is known as
A) durability.
B) replicability.
C) reverse engineering.
D) transparency.
E) transferability.
51) The speed with which other firms can understand the relationship of resources and capabilities supporting a
successful firm's strategy is called
A) imitability.
B) reverse engineering.
C) transferability.
D) transparency.
E) durability.

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52) The ability of competitors to use duplicated resources and capabilities to imitate the other firm's success is
called
A) imitability.
B) durability.
C) transferability.
D) transparency.
E) replicability.
53) Knowledge that can be easily articulated and communicated is known as
A) tacit knowledge.
B) explicit knowledge.
C) imitable knowledge.
D) transferable knowledge.
E) durable knowledge.
54) ________ is more valuable because it can provide companies with a sustainable competitive advantage that
is harder for competitors to imitate.
A) Tacit knowledge
B) Explicit knowledge
C) Imitable knowledge
D) Transferable knowledge
E) Durable knowledge
55) Knowledge that is not easily communicated because it is deeply rooted in employee experience or in a
corporation's culture is called
A) tacit knowledge.
B) explicit knowledge.
C) imitable knowledge.
D) transferable knowledge.
E) durable knowledge.
56) On the continuum of resource sustainability, where would Sony's Walkman be placed?
A) slow-cycle resources
B) sustainable resources
C) standard-cycle resources
D) fast-cycle resources
E) down-cycle resources
57) The business model used by IBM to make money not selling IBM products, but by selling its expertise to
improve their customers operations is the
A) profit pyramid model.
B) advertising model.
C) customer solutions model.
D) efficiency model.
E) entrepreneurial model.

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58) The business model used by HP in selling printers and printer cartridges is the
A) profit pyramid model.
B) advertising model.
C) customer solutions model.
D) efficiency model.
E) multi-component system/installed base model.
59) A linked set of value-creating activities beginning with basic materials provided by suppliers and ending
with distributors getting the final product into the hands of the ultimate consumer is called a(n)
A) value chain.
B) continuum of sustainability.
C) strategic capability.
D) fully integrated activity set.
E) a strategic group.
60) The part of an industry's value chain that is most important to a company and the point where its greatest
expertise and capabilities lie is called the company's
A) functional crossroads.
B) center of gravity.
C) dynamic equilibrium.
D) R&D intensity.
E) economy of scope.
61) Which of the following is NOT a primary activity of the value chain?
A) raw materials handling
B) installation
C) repair
D) purchasing
E) warehousing
62) Which of the following is NOT a support activity of the value chain?
A) procurement
B) technology development
C) human resource management
D) marketing and sales
E) strategic planning
63) When examining the corporate value chain of a particular product or service, which one of the following is
NOT one of the PRIMARY activities that usually occur?
A) operations
B) inbound and outbound logistics
C) auditing and accounting
D) marketing and sales
E) customer service

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64) The second step when analyzing the value-added chain is to


A) identify the legal ramifications and responsibilities of their product or service.
B) examine the linkages among the product's or service's value activities.
C) confirm that all variables have been included and taken into consideration.
D) ensure that quality management is adequately addressed.
E) examine the potential synergies among the corporation's product or business units.
66) Which of the following describes a typical functional structure?
A) Employees tend to be specialists in the business functions important to that industry such as manufacturing,
marketing, finance, and human resources.
B) This is most appropriate for large corporations with many product lines in several related industries, with
employees acting as specialists attempting to gain synergy among divisional activities.
C) This is most appropriate for small, entrepreneur-dominated companies with one or two product lines that
operate in a small niche market, with employees acting as jack-of-all trades.
D) Employees have two or more superiors, a project manager and a functional manager.
E) This is most appropriate for large corporations with many product lines in several unrelated industries, with
employees acting as specialists but with no attempt at gaining synergy among the divisions.
68) Which one of the following best describes a divisional structure?
A) Work is divided into subunits on the basis of such functions as manufacturing, marketing, finance, and
human resources.
B) This is most appropriate for large corporations with many product lines in several related industries, with
employees acting as functional specialists attempting to gain synergy among divisional activities.
C) This is most appropriate for small, entrepreneur-dominated companies with one or two product lines that
operate in a small niche market, with employees acting as jack-of-all trades.
D) Employees have two or more superiors, a project manager and a functional manager.
E) This is most appropriate for large corporations with many product lines in several unrelated industries, with
employees acting as functional specialists but with no attempt at gaining synergy among the divisions.
65) When the value chains of two separate products or services share activities, such as the same marketing
channels, in order to reduce costs, this is an example of
A) economies of scope.
B) economies of scale.
C) economies of integration.
D) economies of learning.
E) outsourcing.
69) Which one of the following best describes a conglomerate structure?
A) Work is divided into subunits on the basis of such functions as manufacturing, marketing, finance, and
human resources.
B) This is most appropriate for large corporations with many product lines in several related industries, with
employees acting as functional specialists attempting to gain synergy among divisional activities.
C) This is most appropriate for small, entrepreneur-dominated companies with one or two product lines that
operate in a small niche market, with employees acting as jack-of-all trades.
D) Employees have two or more superiors, a project manager and a functional manager.
E) This is most appropriate for large corporations with many product lines in several unrelated industries;
unrelatedness prevents any attempt at gaining synergy among the divisions.

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70) According to the text, which one of the following is NOT descriptive of a corporation's culture?
A) A corporation's culture is a collection of beliefs, expectations, and values learned and shared by corporation's
members and transmitted from one generation of employees to another.
B) Corporate cultures are only temporary and can be easily changed.
C) Corporate culture norms are created which define acceptable behavior from top management to operative
employee.
D) Myths and rituals often emerge over time to explain why a certain aspect of the culture is important.
E) Cultures have a powerful influence on the behavior of managers and can strongly affect a corporation's
ability to shift its strategic direction.
71) What are the two distinct attributes of corporate culture?
A) differentiation and integration
B) durability and imitability
C) concern for people and concern for task
D) intensity and integration
E) amount of complexity and tolerance of change
72) What is the attribute of corporate culture that is the degree to which members of a unit accept the norms,
values, or other culture content associated with the unit?
A) integration
B) strength
C) intensity
D) coordination
E) unity
73) Which of the following is a function of corporate culture?
A) It encourages a laissez faire set of attitudes.
B) It encourages flexibility and thus constant change.
C) It conveys a sense of identity for employees.
D) It generates creative approaches to new situations.
E) It focuses employee commitment on their own careers.
74) Which of the following is NOT a function of corporate culture?
A) conveys a sense of identity for employees
B) adds to the stability of the organization as a social system
C) helps generate employee commitment to something greater than themselves
D) keeps people guessing about what to do next
E) serves as a frame of reference for employees to use as a guide for appropriate behavior
75) The breadth of an organization's culture is also known as
A) cultural integration.
B) cultural diversification.
C) cultural intensity.
D) cultural strategy.
E) cultural prerogative.

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76) Through market research, corporations can target their various products or services so that management can
discover what niches to seek or develop, and how to minimize competitive pressure. This is descriptive of
A) marketing position.
B) product life cycle.
C) market segmentation.
D) marketing mix.
E) marketing leverage.
77) The particular combination of product, place, promotion, and price is called
A) marketing position.
B) product life cycle.
C) market segmentation.
D) marketing mix.
E) marketing leverage.
78) An example of the promotion variable of the marketing mix is
A) advertising.
B) discounts
C) location.
D) services.
E) quality.
79) A graph showing time plotted against the dollar sales of a product as it moves from introduction through
growth and maturity to decline is called the
A) marketing position.
B) product life cycle.
C) market segmentation.
D) marketing mix.
E) marketing leverage.
80) Which of the following statements is true concerning a corporate reputation?
A) It is a widely held perception of a company by the general public.
B) A good corporate reputation can be a strategic resource.
C) There is a positive relationship between corporate reputation and financial performance.
D) Reputation tends to be long-lasting and hard for others to duplicate.
E) all of the above
81) As compared to a firm with low financial leverage, a firm with a high amount of financial leverage in an
expanding market should have
A) lower profits.
B) higher profits
C) higher earnings per share.
D) lower earnings per share.
E) higher sales revenue.

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82) The ratio of total debt to total assets is known as


A) budgeting leverage.
B) capital finance.
C) capital budgeting.
D) financial leverage.
E) financial budgeting.
83) Which of the following is NOT a responsibility of a research and development manager?
A) Choosing among alternative new technologies to use within the corporation.
B) Developing methods of embodying the new technology in new products and processes.
C) Deploying resources so that the new technology can be successfully implemented.
D) Taking the design and operationalizing the plan into mass production.
E) Suggesting and implementing a corporation's technological strategy in light of its corporate objectives and
policies.
84) The process of taking a new technology from the laboratory to the marketplace is called
A) economies of scope versus operating leverage.
B) the R&D mix.
C) technological competence.
D) technological discontinuity.
E) technology transfer.
85) When scientists concentrate on quality control and the development of design specifications, this is called
A) basic R&D.
B) product R&D.
C) engineering R&D.
D) life cycle R&D.
E) R&D mix.
86) The displacement of one technology by another, as shown by two S-shaped curves on a graph, is called
A) economies of scope versus operating leverage.
B) technology transfer.
C) the R&D mix.
D) technological discontinuity.
E) a disjunctive learning or experience curve.
87) The proposition that silicon chips double in complexity every 18 months is referred to as
A) Ohm's Law.
B) Porter's Five Forces Model.
C) Moore's Law.
D) Mintzberg's Rule.
E) Keynesian's Theory.
88) In Christensen's book, The Innovator's Dilemma, he explains that managers remain with certain
technologies based on
A) return of investment.
B) net present value.
C) cost reduction.
D) total operating expenses.
E) time spent during technology implementation.
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89) According to the text, the primary task of the operations manager is to
A) make sure all the products or services are producing maximum revenue.
B) develop and operate a system that will produce the required number of products or services with a certain
quality, at a given cost, within an allotted time.
C) make sure the process has a high quality control.
D) ensure that the process is manufactured or delivered as efficiently as possible.
E) interface with the other functional departments to coordinate their operations in avoiding duplication of
effort.
90) Which of the following terms best describes a system in which items are normally processed sequentially,
but the work and sequence of the process vary?
A) continuous system
B) debt capacity
C) chronological processing
D) operating leverage
E) intermittent system
91) An automobile assembly line is an example of which approach to manufacturing?
A) continuous system
B) debt capacity
C) sequential processing
D) job shop
E) intermittent system
92) The impact of a specific change in sales volume on net operating income is referred to as the
A) continuous system.
B) chronological processing.
C) operating leverage.
D) debt capacity.
E) intermittent system.
93) The concept that suggests that unit production costs decline by some fixed percent each time the total
accumulated volume of production in units doubles is referred to as
A) the R & D mix.
B) the experience curve.
C) technological competence.
D) break-even analysis.
E) technology transfer.
94) Which one of the following is NOT descriptive of the experience curve?
A) It is useful because it is consistent within the industry for all involved firms over time.
B) It is used to estimate the production cost of a product produced by newly introduced techniques or processes.
C) It is used to estimate the production costs of a product never before made with the present techniques and
process.
D) The concept was first applied in the airframe industry.
E) It shows that production costs decline by some fixed percentage as production in units doubles.

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95) Flexible manufacturing emphasizes


A) high-volume output of mass produced products.
B) the cost advantages of an intermittent system with the customer-oriented advantages of a continuous system.
C) the learning curve is longer since technology is automated.
D) economies of scope over economies of scale.
E) economies of scale over economies of scope.
96) Strategic managers must be concerned with human resource management because
A) dealing with people is their primary job.
B) quality of work life is more important than strategic management.
C) they must be know the ability and willingness of the workforce to implement new strategies.
D) workers are more likely to go on strike if management attempts to cross them.
E) they must be aware of the possibility and potential of unionism.
97) In order to move more quickly through a product's development stage, companies like Motorola and
Chrysler are using
A) concurrent engineering.
B) cross-functional work teams.
C) advisory committees.
D) task forces.
E) continuous engineering.
98) The term that describes putting once isolated specialists together to work and compare notes in a collective
product design effort is called
A) simultaneous strategy.
B) participatory planning.
C) jointly-designed objectives.
D) concurrent engineering.
E) cooperative design.
99) Human resource units have found that to reduce employee dissatisfaction and unionization, they must
A) significantly increase their wage rates.
B) shorten the work week to allow for more leisure time.
C) offer a wider variety of benefits and attractive enticements.
D) guarantee their workers life time jobs.
E) consider the quality of work life in the design of jobs.
100) Which one of the following is NOT one of the four ways to improve the corporation's quality of work life?
A) Improve the work environment
B) Introduce participative problem-solving
C) More responsive management
D) Introduce innovative reward systems
E) Restructuring work
102) The PRIMARY task of the manager of information systems is to
A) prevent unlawful usage of the information from the system.
B) make sure the information contained in the system is up-to-date and accurate.
C) monitor the input of information into the information system.
D) design and manage the flow of information in a corporation to improve productivity and decision making.
E) ensure that only those who have authorized permission have access to the information system.
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