69. Which of the following is the optimum operating condition for an exothermic
reversible reaction-taking place in a plug-flow reactor
(a)Temperature should be high in the beginning and decreased
towards the end of the reaction
(b) Very low temperature should be used throughout the reaction
(c) Very high temperature should be used throughout the reaction
(d) None of these
70. With increase in the space-time of an irreversible isothermal reaction being carried
out in a P.F. reactor, the conversion will
(a) Increase
(b) Decrease
(c) Remain same
(d) Data sufficient; cant be predicted
71. The optimum performance for reactors operating in parallel is obtained when the feed
stream is distributed in such a way that the
(a) Space time for each parallel line is same
(b) Space time for parallel lines is different
(c) Larger reactors have more space time compared to smaller ones
(d) None of these
72. Back mixing is most predominant in
g
(a) A well stirred reactor
h
(b) Plug-flow reactor
i
(c) A single CSTR
j
(d) CSTR connected in series
73. The ratio of moles of a reactant converted into the desired product to that converted
into unwanted product is called
c
(a) Operational yield
d
(b) Relative yield
e
(c) Selectivity
f
(d) None of these
74. The performance of a cascade of CSTRs can be improved by adding
(a) a P.F. reactor in series
(b) a P.F. reactor in parallel
(c) More CSTRs in series
(d) More CSTRs in parallel
75. An auto thermal reactor is
(a) Most suitable for a second order reaction
(b) Most suitable for a reversible reaction
(c) Completely self supporting in its thermal energy requirements
(d) Isothermal in nature
76. For series reaction,the
(a) Relative yield is always greater for plug-flow reactor tha) for the single
CSTR of the same volume
(b) Statement in a is wrong
(c) Relative yield decreases with increasing conversion
(d) Both (a) and (c) hold good
77. When a high liquid hold up is required in a reactor for a gas-liquid reaction,
use
(a) Packed column
(b) Spray column
(c) Tray column
(d) Bubble column
78. For reactions in parallel viz. AP (desired product) and AQ (unwanted product),
if the order of the desired reaction is higher than that of the undesired reaction, a
(a) Batch rector is preferred over a single CSTR for high yield
(b) Tubular rector is preferred over a single CSTR for high yield
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) A single CSTR is the most suitable
79. In question 78, high yield would be favored ( for gas phase reactions)
(a) At high pressure
(b) At low pressure
(c) By the presence of the inner gases in the reactant stream
(d) Both (b) and (c)
80. When all the limiting reactant is consumed in the reaction, the operation yield
(a) Is greater than relative yield
(b) Is smaller than relative yield
(c) Equals the relative yield
(d) Can be greater or smaller than relative yield, depends on the type of
reaction
81. Design of heterogeneous catalytic reactor involves consideration of
(a) Only chemical steps
(b) Only physical steps
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Neither (a) and (b)
82. Pick out the wrong statement
(a) A catalyst does not alter the final position of equilibrium in a reversible
reaction.
(b) A catalyst initiate a reaction
(c) A catalyst is specific in action
(d) A catalyst remain unchanged in chemical composition at the end of the
reaction
83. Catalyst is a substance which
(a) Increases the speed of chemical reaction
(b) Decreases the speed of chemical reaction
(c) Can either increase or decrease the speed of chemical reaction
(d) Alters the value of equilibrium constant in a reversible reaction
84. Catalyst carriers
(a) Have very high selectivity
(b) Increase the activity of a catalyst
(c) Provide large surface area with small amount of active material
(d) Inhibit catalyst poisoning
93. For high conversion in highly exothermic solid catalyzed reaction, use a
(a) Fixed bed reactor
(b) Fluidized bed reactor followed by a fixed bed reactor
(c) Fixed bed reactor followed by a fluidized bed reactor
(d) Fluidized bed reactor
94. In case of staged packed bed reactors carrying out exothermic reaction, use
(a) High recycle for pure glass
(b) Plug flow for dilute liquid require no large preheating of feed
(c) Cold shot operations for a dilute solution requiring large preheating to
bring the steam up to the reaction temperature
(d) All (a) (b) and (c)
95. Which of the following will give the maximum gas conversion ?
(a) Fixed bed reactor
(b) fluidized reactor
(c) Semi-fluidized reactor
(d) Plug flow catalytic reactor
96. Which of the following factors control the deactivation of a porous catalyst pellet?
(a) Decay reactions
(b) Pore diffusion
(c) Form of surface attack of poison
(d) All (a) (b) and (c)
97. BET apparatus is used to determine the
(a) Specific surface of porous catalyst
(b) Pore size distribution
(c) Pore diameter
(d) Porosity of the catalyst bed
98. If pore diffusion is the controlling step in a solid catalyzed reaction the catalyst
(a) Porosity is very important
(b) Porosity is less importance
(c) Internal surface is utilized efficiently
(d) None of these
99. BET apparatus
(a) Measure the catalyst surface area directly
(b) Operates at very high pressure
(c) Is made entirely by stainless steel
(d) None of these
100. Helium-mercury method can be used to determine the
(a) Pore volume
(b) Solid density
(c) Porosity of catalyst particle
(d) All (a) (b) and (c)
7. Enthalpy H is defined as
a. H = U PV
c. H U = PV
b. H = U TS
d. none of these
8. Efficiency of heat engine working on Carnot cycle between two temperature levels
depends upon
a. the two temperatures only
b. the pressure of working fluid
c. the mass of the working fluid
d. both mass and pressure of the
working fluid
9. What is the degree of freedom for a system comprising liquid water equilibrium with
its vapor?
a. 0
b. 1
c. 2
d. 3
10. Efficiency of a Carnot engine working between temperatures T1 and T2 (T1 < T2 ) is
a. (T2 T1) / T2
b. (T2 T1) / T1
c (T1 T2) / T2
d. (T1 T2) / T1
11. For a constant pressure reversible process, the enthalpy ( H) change of the system is
a. C vdT
b. Cp dT
c. Cp dT
d. Cv dT
12. Internal energy of an ideal gas
a. increases with increase in pressure
b. decreases with increase in temperature
c. is independent of temperature
d. none of these
13. Equation which relates pressure, volume, and temperature of a gas is called
a. Equation of state
b. Gibbs Duhem equation
c. ideal gas equation
d. none of these
14. Isobaric process means a constant
a. temperature process
c. volume process
b. pressure process
d. entropy process
b. pressure process
d. none of these
b. entropy process
d. none of these
b. all gases
d. gases at a very low temperature
b. V 1/T
d. PV/T = constant
b. dU = Cv dT
d. dW = pdV
b. dU dW = TdS
d. TdS dW dU > 0
b. dU dW TdS = 0
d. TdS dT + dW < 0
49. Cv is given by
a. ( U/ T)v
c. ( U/P)v
b. ( U/V)T
d. (V/ T)P
b. decrease in entropy
d. none of these
b. A = U TS
d. none of these
b. G = H - TS
d. G = U+ TS
b. only A decreases
d. both G and A increases
77. Maximum work that could be secured by expanding the gas over a given pressure
range is the
a. isothermal work
b. adiabatic work
c. isentropic work
d. none of these
78. The point at which both liquid and gas phases are identical is called
a. critical point
b. triple point
c. freezing point
d. boiling point
79. Equilibrium constant of a reaction varies with
a. initial concentration of the reactant
b. pressure
c. temperature
d. none of these
80. For an ideal solution, the value of activity coefficient is
a. 0
b. 1
c. <1
d. >1
81. Fugacity coefficient of a substance is the ratio of its fugacity to
a. mole fraction
b. activity
c. pressure
d. activity coefficient
82. Van Laar equation deals with activity coefficients in
a. binary solution
b. ternary solution
c. azeotropic mixture only
d. none of these
83. In Joule-Thomson porous plug experiment
a. enthalpy does not remain constant
b. the entire apparatus is exposed to surroundings
c. temperature remains constant
d. none of these
84. Equilibrium constant
a. decreases as the temperature increases for an exothermic reaction
b. decreases as the temperature decreases for an exothermic reaction
c. will decrease with increasing temperature for a exothermic reaction
d. none of these
85. As the entropy of the universe is increasing day by day the work producing capacity
of a heat engine is
a. not changed
b. decreasing
c. increasing
d. data insufficient cant be predicted
86. Refrigeration cycle
a. violates second law of thermodynamics
b. involves transfer of heat from low temperature to high temperature
c. both a and b
d. none of these
b. solid helium
d. none of these
33. Steam is intermittently admitted in to the fuel bed during the production of producer
gas to
(a) convert CO to CO2
(b) increase in combustion rate
(c) increase the gas production rate
(d) minimize the chances of clinker formation
34.Which of the following is called blue gas?
(a) coke oven gas
(b) water gas
(c) natural gas
(d) producer gas (produced using Kopper Totzek gasifier).
35. During combustion of gaseous fuel deficiency of air
(a) lengthens the flame
(b) hydrocarbons
(c) hydrogen
(d) oxygen
39. Quantity of coke oven gas produced by high temperature carbonization of one ton of
dry coal may be around
(a) 30 Nm
(b) 300 Nm
(c) 3000 Nm
(d) 30,000 Nm
40. Coke oven gas is a better fuel than blast furnace gas because of its higher
(a) calorific value, cleanliness and relatively low distribution cost (due to its low
specific gravity)
(b) adiabatic flame temperature
(c) heat release rate (thus requiring smaller combustion chamber)
(d) all of the above
41. Which of the following constituents of fuel does not contribute to its calorific value
on combustion
(a) hydrogen
(b) sulfur
(c) carbon
43. Which of the following is the most important deterrents to an extended use of
pulverized coal in boiler firing?
(a) ash disposal problem
(b) excessive fly-ash discharge from the stack
(c) high power consumption in its transportation
(d) erosion of induced draft fan blades
44. Pulverized coal used in boiler firing need have
(a) less moisture content
45. Dry air required to burn one lb of carbon completely may be around
(a) 11.5 lb
(b) 2.67 lb
(c) 16 lb
(a) 2.4 ft
(b) 1.75 ft
(c) 0.87 ft
(d) 11.4 ft
(c) lignite
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 5
52. For every 10% increase in the excess air; the fuel consumption increases by
(a) 0.1%
(b) 2%
(c) 5%
(d) 10%
53. Ash content in the coke produced from a coking coal having 20% ash may be around
(a) 5%
(b) 2%
(c)17%
(d) 25%
54. Out of the following fuels, the difference between the net and gross calorific value is
maximum in case of
(a) pitch
60. Which of the following accentuates clinkering trouble on furnace grate burning coal
(a) low density of carbonized residue containing high proportions of iron and sulfur
(b) low forced draught and fuel bed temperature
(c) thick fire and preheated primary air
(d) all (a), (b) and (c)
61. A coal having high ratio of volatile matter to fixed carbon as compared to a coal
having low ratio of volatile matter to fixed carbon
(a) is less liable to spontaneous combustion on storage
(b) is more difficult to ignite and produces a shorter flame
(c) requires smaller combustion space and less secondary air
(d) none of these
62. Which of the following can be made into briquettes without the use of a binder
(a) lignite
(b) bitumen
(c) molasses
(b) methane
(c) unsaturates
75. Which of the following constituents of coal is most important in the production of
coke
(a) moisture
(b) ash
(c) volatiles
(d) carbon
76. Which of the following is most reactive (as regards the formation of CO + H2 from C
+ H2O)?
(a) blast furnace coke
(b) carbonized
(c) caking
(d) non-caking
(b) ash
(c) iron
(d) moisture
(a) 900
(b) 4500
(c) 7500
(d) 2000
(a) 900
(b) 1800
(c) 4500
(d) 6500
81. Blast furnace gas is a very poisonous gas because of its predominantly high
(a) H2S content
(c) CO content
(b) 5
(c) 20
(d) 55
(b) 5
(c) 20
(d) 50
(b) 10
(c) 25
(d) 55
86. Which of the following gases will require maximum amount of air for combustion of
1 Nm gas?
3
87. Which of the following will generate maximum volume of product of complete
combustion (Nm /Nm of fuel)?
3
(c) Alumina
93. The sequence of absorption in flue gas analysis by Orsats apparatus is respectively
(a) CO2, O2, CO
(c) anthracite
(d) peat
(b) ammonia
(c) tar
(b) 600 C
(c) 1100 C
(d) 1600 C
(b) 1100 C
(c) 500-650 C
(d) 150 C
3. Contact process
(a) yields acid of higher concentration than chamber process
(b) yields acids of lower concentration than chamber process
(c) is obsolete
(d) eliminates absorber
4. 20% Oleum means that in 100 lb., there are 20 lb. of
(a) SO3 and 80 lb of H2SO4
(b) H2SO4 and 80 lb SO3
(c) SO3 for each 100 lb of H2SO4
(d) H2SO4 and 80 lb SO3
5. Producer gas consists mainly of
(a) CO, CO2, N2, H2
(b) CO, H2
(c) H2, CH4
(d) C2H2, CO2, H2
6. Oxygen is produced by fraction of air using
(a) Linde's process
(b) Claude's process
(c) both Linde's and Claude's process
(d) Bayer's process
7. Raw materials for 'Solvay Process' for manufacture of the soda ash are
(a) salt, limestone ,ammonia and coke oven gas
(b) ammonia, salt and limestone
(c) ammonia, limestone and coke
(d) ammonia and coke oven gas
8. Economics of 'Solvay Process" depends upon the efficiency of
(a) carbonating tower
(b) ammonia recovery
(c) ammonia recovery and size of plant
(d) ammoniation of salt solution
9. Mercury cells for caustic soda manufacture compared to diaphragm cells
(a) require lower initial investment
(b) require more power
(c) produce lower concentration of NaOH
(d) none of these
10. Cement mainly contains
(a)CaO, SiO2, Al2O3
b (b) MgO, SiO2, K2O
(c) Al2O3, MgO, Fe2O3
(d) CaO, MgO, K2O
11. Gypsum is
(a) calcium chloride
(b) potassium sulfate
(c) sodium sulfate
(d) calcium sulfate
39. Enamels
(a) give good glossy finish
(b) are same as varnish
(c) are prepared from non-drying oil
(d) do not contain pigment
40. SO2 is bubbled through hot sugar-cane juice to
(a) act as an acidifying agent
(b) increase its concentration
(c) increase the amount of molasses
(d) increase the crystal size
41. Molasses is the starting material for
(a) alcohol
(b) essential oil
(c) fatty acids
(d) ether
42. The ideal pulp for the manufacture of paper should have high
(a) cellulose content
(b) lignin content
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) neither (a) nor (b)
43. In Kraft process of paper manufacture, white cooking liquor consists of caustic soda
(a) sodium sulfide, sodium carbonate
(b) sodium sulfite, sodium carbonate
(c) sodium sulfite, sodium sulfide
(d) and sodium carbonate
44. Comparing sulfate process with sulfite process, we find that
(a) both temperature and pressure in former is less than that in the latter
(b) both temperature and pressure in former is more than that in the latter
(c) temperature is more in former whereas pressure is more in the latter
(d) pressure is more in the former whereas temperature is less in the latter
45. Cooking liquor in case of sulfite process is
(a) sodium sulfite and sodium bisulfite
(b) magnesium sulfite and free SO2 in acid medium
(c) magnesium sulfate and magnesium bicarbonate
(d) sodium bisulfite
46. Which is a high-grade pulp?
(a) rag pulp
(b) mechanical pulp
(c) sulfate pulp
(d) sulfite pulp
47. Which of the following paper does not require a filler during manufacture?
(a) bond paper
(b) writing paper
(c) blotting paper
(d) colored paper
exothermic
endothermic
autocatalytic
catalytic
CO2 is
102. Zeolite used in water softening process (cation exchange) is regenerated by washing
with
(a) brine
(b) chloramines
(c) sodium bisulfite
(d) liquid chlorines
103. Presence of H2S in raw water (to be chlorinated) results in
(a) reduced softening capacity of zeolite
(b) increase dosage of chlorine to provide a disinfecting residual in the water
(c) easy removal of its hardness
(d) residual turbidity
104. Lime and soda ash are added to water to remove
(a) bicarbonates and sulfates of calcium and magnesium
(b) undesirable taste and odor
(c) bacteria
(d) its corrosiveness
105. Chloramines are used in water treatment for
(a) disinfection and control of taste and odor
(b) corrosion control
(c) removing turbidity
(d) control of bacteria
106. Deaeration of water in its treatment is necessary as it
(a) minimizes its turbidity
(b) helps in controlling its taste and odor
(c) minimizes its corrosiveness
(d) controls bacteria
107. Sodium Bisulfate is used for
(a) deaeration of water
(b) dechlorination of water
(c) both a and b
(d) neither a nor b
108. Dechlorination of treated water is necessary to
(a) remove residual turbidity
(b) reduce the bacterial load on filter
(c) control taste and odor
(d) remove chlorinous taste
109. The main used of the activated carbon in water treatment is to control
(a) bacterial growth
(b) taste and odor
(c) turbidity
(d) corrosion
110. Alum [Al2(SO4)3] is used as a coagulant in water treatment to remove
(a) color
(b) turbidity
(c) bacteria
(d) all a, b and c
119. Oils are partially hydrogenated (not fully) to manufacture vanaspati, because fully
saturated solidified oils
(a) cause cholesterol build up and blood clotting
(b) are prone to rancid oxidation
(c) always contain some amount of nickel (as their complete removal is very
difficult)
(d) have affinity to retain harmful sulfur compounds
120. Hydrogenation of oil takes place in
(a) an autothermal reactor
(b) a trickle bed reactor
(c) a plug flow reactor
(d) backmix reactor
121. Temperature during hydrogenation of oil should not be more than 200C, otherwise
it will result in
(a) pyrolysis of oil
(b) sintering of porous catalyst
(c) hydrogen embrittlement
(d) all a, b and c
122. Shaving soaps are
(a) soft potassium soaps (potassium salt of fatty acid) with free stearic acid to
give lather a lasting property
(b) metallic soaps compounded with frothing agents
(c) high free alkali soaps having excess of cane sugar and alcohol
(d) usually soap soaps
123. Transparent soaps (e.g. Pears) are
(a) usually soft soaps (made from coconut oil) in which cane sugar and alcohol
are added and finally washed with methylate spirit to achieve transparency
(b) metallic soaps with frothing agent and free stearic acid to achieve transparency
(c) metallic soaps with frothing agent from which glycerin has not been recovered
(d) high free alkali soaps having excess of cane sugar and alcohol
124. Glycerin is recovered from lye by
(a) evaporation followed by vacuum distillation
(b) liquid extraction technique
(c) extractive distillation technique
(d) steam distllation
125. Glycerin is not used in the
(a) manufacture of explosive
(b) conditioning and humidification of tobacco
(c) manufacture of pharmaceuticals
(d) manufacture of caustic soda
FLOW OF FLUIDS
(b) MLT-1
(d) MLT
11. The pressure intensity is the same in all direction at a point in a fluid
(a) only when the fluid is frictionless
(b) only when the fluid is at rest having zero velocity
(c) when there is no motion of one fluid layer relative to an adjacent layer
(d) regardless of the motion of one fluid layer relative to an adjacent layer
12. Choose the set of pressure intensities that are equivalent
(a) 4.33 psi, 10 ft. of water, 8.83 inches of Hg.
(b) 4.33 psi, 10 ft. of water, 20.7 inches of Hg.
(c) 10 psi, 19.7 ft. of water, 23.3 inches of Hg.
(d) 10 psi, 19.7 ft of water, 5.3 inches of Hg.
13. For a fluid rotating at constant angular velocity about vertical axis as a rigid body, the
pressure intensity varies as the
(a) square of the radial distance
(b) radial distance linearly
(c) averse of the radial distance
(d) elevation along vertical direction
14. The center of pressure is
(a) always below the centroid of the area
(b) always above the centroid of the area
(c) a point on the line of action of the resultant force
(d) at the centroid of the submerge area
15. A rectangular surface 3x4, has the lower 3 edge horizontal and 6 below a free oil
surface (sp. gr. 0.8). The surface inclination is 300 with the horizontal. The force in
one side of the surface is :(y = specific weight of water)
(a) 39.6y
(c) 49.2y
(b) 48y
(d) 58y
17. Mass velocity is the independent of temperature and pressure when the flow is
(a) unsteady through uncharged cross-section
(b) steady through changing cross-section
(c) steady and the cross-section is unchanged
(d) unsteady ant the cross-section is changed
18. In turbulent flow
(a) the fluid particles move in an orderly manner
(b) momentum transfer is on molecular scale only
(c) shear stress is caused more effectively by cohesion than momentum transfer
(d) shear stresses are generally larger than in a similar laminar flow
19. Turbulant flow generally occurs for cases involving
(a) highly viscous fluid
(c) very slow motion
(b) ft-lb/ft3
(d) ft-lb.f/sec
47. Bernoullis equation for steady frictionless, continuous flow states that
(a) total pressure at all sections is same
(b) total energy at all section is same
(c) velocity head at all section is same
(d) none of these
48. Drag is defined as the force exerted by the
(a) fluid on the solid in a direction opposite to flow
(b) the fluid on the solid in the direction of flow
(c) the solid on the fluid
(d) none of these
49. Drag co-efficient for flow past immersed body is the ratio of
(a) shear stress to the product of velocity head density
(b) shear force to the product of velocity head and density
(c) average drag per unit projected area to the product of velocity head and
density
(d) none of these
50. Stokes law is valid when the particle Reynolds number is
(a) < 1
(b) > 1
(c) < 5
(d) none of these
51. Drag co-efficient CD is given by (in Stokes law range)
(a) CD = 16
(b) CD = 24
Re.p
Re.p
(c) CD = 18.4
(d) CD = 0.079
Re.p
Re.p
71. The maximum depth from which a centrifugal pump can draw water
(a) dependent on the speed N of the pump
(b) dependent on the power of the pump
(c) 34 feet
(d) 150 feet
72. Boiler feed pump is usually a
(a) reciprocating pump
(c) multisatge centrifugal pump
73. Plunger pumps are used for
(a) higher pressure
(c) viscous mass
78. A fluid jet discharging from a 2 diameter orifice has a diameter of 1.75 at its venacontracta. The co-efficient of contraction is
(a) 1.3
(b) 0.766
(c) 0.87
(d) none of these
79. The discharge through a V-notch weir varies as
(a) H3/2
(b) H1/2
(c) H5/2
(d) none of these
80. The discharge through a rectangular weir varies as
(a) H1/2
(b) H3/2
(c) H2/5
(d) none of these
81. Propellers are
(a) axial flow mixers
(b) low speed impeller
(c) used for mixing liquids of high viscosity
(d) radial flow mixers
98. For pipes that must be broken at intervals for maintenance, the connector used should
be a
(a) union
(b) tee
(c) reduces
(d) elbow
99. If more than two branches of pipes are to be connected at the same point, then use
(a) elbow
(b) union
(c) tee
(d) none of these
100. The most economical valve for use with large diameter pipes is
(a) butterfly valve
(b) globe valve
(c) needle valve
(d) none of these
101. Which of the following factors does not contribute to the pressure drop in a
pipeline?
(a) velocity of liquid
(b) size of pipe
(c) length of pipe and number of bends (d) none of these
102. Which of the following can be used to create a flow of gas where no significant
compression is required?
(a) reciprocating compressor (b) blower
(c) axial flow compressor
(d) centrifugal compressor
103. Erosion and pits formation on the impeller of a centrifugal pump may be due to
(a) cavitation
(b) low speed of impeller
(c) its operation with delivery valve closed for considerable time after starting the
pump
(d) off centering of pump with motor
104. Which of the following valves will incur maximum pressure drop for the same
discharge of water?
(a) globe valve
(b) gate valve
(c) needle valve
(d) butterfly valve
105. While starting on axial flow pump, its delivery valve should be kept
(a) open
(b) closed
(c) either open or closed
(d) none of these
106. Identification of pipelines carrying different liquids and gases is done by
(a) diameter of the pipe
(b) color of the pipe
(c) the altitude of at which pipe is located (d) none of these
113. Disc compensators are provided in large diameter gas carrying pipelines to
(a) keep the pipe in proper orientation
(b) make the pipe joint leak-proof
(c) account for contraction/ expansion of pipe due to temperature changes of
the surroundings
(d) account for pressure variation inside the pipelines
114. Nominal Pipe Size (NPS) of a pipe less than 12 inches in diameter indicates its
(a) inner diameter
(b) outer diameter
(c) thickness
(d) neither inner or outer
115. The most important factor which determines the maximum height to which water
can be lifted by a pump at standard temperature (62F) is
(a) barometric pressure
(b) speed of the impeller
(c) diameter of the impeller
(d) both b and c
116. Bear pump
(a) is a positive displacement pump
(b) is a centrifugal pump
(c) is a non-positive displacement pump
(d) can be started with delivery valve closed
117. When the water is warm, the height to which it can be lifted by a pump
(a) decreases due to reduced velocity
(b) decreases due to reduced vapor pressure
(c) increases due to increased vapor pressure
(d) decreases due to increased frictional resistance
118. Multistage centrifugal pumps are generally used for
(a) high head
(b) low head but high discharged
(c) highly viscous liquid
(d) slurries of high solid concentration
123. Actual lift of pump always less than the theoretical lift and is limited by
(a) specific gravity and temperature of the liquid
(b) leakage and pressure decreasing at higher elevations
(c) frictional resistance through pipes, fittings and passages
(d) all a, b and c
124. Fill up the blank
Nominal size of the discharge pipe of a pump is usually the nominal size of
the inlet pipe
(a) smaller than
(b) larger than
(c) same as
(d) twice
125. Horsepower requirement for given pump capacity depends upon the
(a) specific gravity of the liquid
(b) suction lift
(c) discharge head
(d) all a, b and c
FLOW OF HEAT
1. A pipe carrying steam at about 300C traverses a room, the air being still at 30C. the
major fraction of the heat loss will be by
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
23. For a given sectional area of fin if the circumstances is increase by adopting different
geometric shape then
a. The temperature variation along the fin length will be steeper
b. The temperature variation along the fin length will be featter
c. The circumference length does not affect the temperature change
d. The circumference will only influence the heat convected
24. In a given fin configuration increase in conductivity will
a. Decrease the total heat flow
b. Will affect only the temperature gradient
c. Increase the total heat flow
d. Heat flow is influenced only by the base temperature and sectional area
25. An increase in convection coefficient over a fin will
a. Increase effectiveness
b. decrease effectiveness
c. Does not influence effectiveness
d. influences only the fin efficiency
26. In the case of fins it is desirable to have
a. Area of section maintained constant along the length
b. Area of section reduced along the length
c. Area of section increased along the length
d. Better to vary the convection coefficient than the area
27. Fin effectiveness will be increased more by
a. Having a higher value of convection coefficient
b. Higher sectional area
c. higher thermal conductivity
d. longer circumference
28. If a square section fin is split longitudinally used as two fins
a. The total heat flow will decrease
b. The total heat flow will increase
c. The total heat flow remain constant
d. Heat flow may increase or decrease depending on the material used
29. For a given volume of material for use in a pin fin
a. Longer the fin better the total heat flow
b. Shorter the fin better the heat flow
c. As the volume is constant the heat flow will not change
d. As length is increased heat flow will increase and after some length will decrease
31. a.
b.
c.
d.
32. a.
b.
33.
34.
35.
36.
37.
38.
39. The response time of a thermocouple is the time taken for the temperature change to be
a. 0.5 of original temperature difference
b. 1/1.414 of original temperature difference
c. 1/e of original temperature difference
d. 99% of the original temperature difference
40. To make thermocouple to respond quickly
a. The wire diameter should be large
b. Convection heat transfer coefficient should be high
41. Heat transfer rate
a. Will be higher in turbulent flow
b. Will be lower in turbulent flow
c. Will depend on the fluid
d. Will depend only on viscosity
42. Nusselt number is
a. Ratio of viscous to inertia forces
b. Dimensionless heat transfer coefficient
c. Ratio of conduction to convection resistance
d. Signifies of velocity gradient at the surface
43. Reynolds number is
a. Ratio of conduction to convection resistance
b. Ratio of buoyant to inertia forces
c. Ratio of viscous ratio to inertia force
d. Ratio of heat conducted to the heat capacity
44. Prandtl number is
a. Ratio of buoyant force to inertia force
b. Ratio of conduction to convection resistance
c. Signifies the temperature gradient at the surface
d. Ratio of molecular momentum diffusively to thermal diffusion
45. The Staton number is
a. The dimensionless temperature gradient at the surface in convection
b. Mass diffused to heat diffused
c. Dimensionless convection coefficient
d. Wall heat transfer/ heat transfer convection
46. The convective heat transfer coefficient in laminar f;ow over a flat plate
a. Increases if a lighter fluid is used
b. Increases if a higher viscosity fluid is used
c. Increases if higher velocities are used
d. Increases with distance
47. In the boundary layer over a flat plate in laminar flow the velocity is
a. Zero at the boundary layer thickness
b. Slowly decreases from the free stream to the solid surface
c. Slowly increases from the free stream to the wall
d. Only temperature in the boundary layer will be different from that of free stream
48. As viscosity of fluid increases the boundary layer thickness
a. Will increase
b. Will decrease
c. Will not change
d. Will increase at medium values and then will decrease
49. The temperature gradient in the fluid flowing over a flat plate
a. Will be zero at the surface
50.
51.
52.
53.
54.
55.
56.
57.
58.
59.
60.
61.
62.
63.
64.
65.
66.
b. In laminar flow, the exit Busselt number in the fully developed condition is higher that
at entry
c. In laminar flow, the Nusselt remains constant
d. In laminar flow the Nusslet at constant wall temperature is higher as compared to
Nusselr constant heat flow
In flow through pipes for the same Reynolds number
a. The thermal entry length is longer for low Prandtl number fluids
b. The thermal entry length is longer for high Prandtl number fluids
c. Prandtl number does not influence the thermal entry length
d. The thermal entry length affect is more pronounced only turbulent flow
Choose the correct statement:
a. Flow of air can be considered as hydrodynamic layer fully developed and thermal
layer developing
b. Flow of oils can be considered as HFD and thermal layer developing
c. Flow of liquid metals can be considered as hydrodynamic layer fully developed and
thermal layer developing
d. Flow of water can be considered as hydrodynamic layer fully developed and thermal
layer developing
In pipe flow, the average convection coefficient
a. Will be higher in rough pipes
b. Will be higher in smooth pipes
c. Roughness affects only pressure drop and not the convection coefficient
d. Only Reynolds and Prandtl numbers influence the convection coefficient and not the
roughness
In pipe flow
a. For constant heat flow, the initial length is more effective compared to the end length
b. For constant wall temperature the initial length are less effective compared to the end
length
c. In fully developed flow and constant wall temperature, the effective compared to the
end lengths
d. In fully developed flow and constant heat flux, the effectiveness decreases with length
Choose the correct statement:
a. In smooth pipes a laminar flow remains laminar all through the length
b. in smooth pipes a laminar flow turns turbulent after a certain length
c. The temperature profile in fully developed layer remains the same
d. The velocity profile in a pipe flow is established at the entry
Choose the correct statement:
a. Buoyant forces and inertia forces only influence free convection heat transfer
b. Viscous and Buoyant forces only influence free convection heat transfer
c. Viscous and inertia forces only influence free convection heat transfer
d. Viscous, inertia and Buoyant forces influence the heat transfer in free convection
In free convection, the slope of the curve Nu vs Gr Pr
a. Increases with increasing Gr Pr
b. Decreases with increasing Gr Pr
c. Increases and then decreases with increasing Gr Pr
d. Decreases and then increases with increasing Gr Pr
With increase in excess temperature the heat flux in boiling
a. Increase continuously
b. Decrease and then increases
c. Increases then decreases and again increases
d. Decreases then increases and again decreases
73. When one of the fluids is condensing the best flow arrangement is
a. Counter flow
b. Parallel flow
c. Cross flow
d. All are equal
74. Thermodynamically the type which leads to lower loss in availability is
a. Parallel flow
b. Counter flow
c. Cross flow
d. Shell and tube
75. Effectiveness of a heat exchanger is
a. Actual heat transfer/heat content of hot fluid
b. Actual heat transfer/ heat content of cold fluid
c. Actual heat transfer/heat content of higher heat capacity fluid
76.
77.
78.
79.
80.
81.
d. Actual heat transfer/heat transfer when minimum heat capacity fluid goes through the
maximum temperature difference in the exchanger
Cross flow exchangers are popularly used for heat transfer
a. Liquid and liquid
b. Liquid and evaporating fluid
c. Condensing fluid and liquid
d. Gas and gas or liquid and gas
The minimum heat transfer area for a given situation is for
a. Parallel flow
b. Counter flow
c. Cross flow
d. Shell and tube
The flow direction is immaterial in the case of heat exchange from
a. Wet or saturated steam to water
b. Water to gas
c. Oil to water
d. Oil to gas
The monochromatic emissive power of a black body with increasing wavelength
a. Decreases
b. Increases
c. Decreases, reaches a minimum and then increases
d. Increases, reaches a maximum and the decreases
A gray surface is one of which
a. Reflectivity equals emissivity
b. Emissivity equals transmissivity
c. Emissivity is constant
d. Absorptivity equals reflectivity
As the source temperature increases the wavelength at which the monochromatic
emissive power is maximum
a. Decreases continuously
b. Decreases then increases
c. Increases continuously
d. Increases and then decreases
d. All of these
85. Glasses are
a. Opaque for high temperature radiation
b. Opaque for low temperature radiation
c. Transparent at short wavelengths
d. Transparent at long wavelengths
e. Opaque for low temperature radiation transparent at long wavelengths
86. For solar collectors the required surface characteristics combination is
a. High emissivity and low absorptivity
b. High emissivity and high reflectivity
c. High reflectivity and high absorptivity
d. Low emissivity and high absorptivity
87. Emissivity of Gas body of a given composition depends on
a. Shape and temperature
b. Partial pressure and shape
c. Partial pressure and temperature
d. All of these
88. For a given shape, partial pressure and temperature the emissivity of
a. O is higher than that of N
b. N is higher than that of N
c. O is higher than that of CO
d. CO is higher than that of O
89. The combination which will give the highest gas emissivity is
a. Low partial pressure, higher temperature and larger thickness
b. Higher partial pressure, higher temperature and larger thickness
c. Higher partial pressure, lower temperature and larger thickness
d. Lower partial pressure, lower temperature and larger thickness
90. The value of shape factor will be highest when
a. The surface are farther apart
b. The surface are closer
c. The surface are smaller and closer
d. The surface are larger and closer
94.
95.
96.
97.
98.
c. A small opening from a large enclosure at constant temperature will provide black
body radiation
d. Black paint is an example of block body
The reciprocity theorem states
a. F=F
b. AF=AF
c. AF=AF
d. F=F
Choose the correct statement or statements
a. F.=F+F
b. AF.=AF.+AF
c. F.=F+F
d. A.F..=AF..+AF..
Choose the correct statement or statements
a. Radiosity is another name for emissive power
b. Radiation intensity is the flow per unit area
c. Radiation intensity is the radiant energy per unit solid angle
d. Irradiation is the total radiant energy incident on a surface
Choose the correct statement or statements
a. Convex surface have positive value for shape factor themselves
b. Concave surface have positive value for shape factor with themselves
c. Flat surfaces have positive value for shape factor with themselves
d. Irregular surfaces have positive value for shape factor with themselves
If A=4 and A=2 and F =0.2 then
a. F= 0.2
b. F=0.8
c. F=0.4
d. F=0.1
DRYING
1. The vapor pressure exerted by the moisture contained in a wet solid depends upon the
a) nature of the moisture
b) temperature
c) nature of the solid
d) all a, b, and c
2. To remove all the moisture from a wet solid requires exposure to
a) perfectly dry air
b) highly humid air
c) air at high temperature
d) none of these
b)
X+1
X
c)
1-X
1+X
d)
X
1X
X
22. A solid material shows case hardening properties while drying. Which of the
following
should be controlled to control the drying process?
a) flow rate of inlet air
b) relative humidity of outlet air
c) humidity of inlet air
d) temperature of the solid
23. Capacity of a rotary dryer depends on
a) its r.p.m
b) its inclination with ground surface
c) both a and b
d) neither a nor b
24. Air at a particular humidity is heated in a furnace. The new dew point
a) decreases
b) increases
c) depends on the extent of heating
d) remains unchanged
25. The critical moisture content in case of drying indicates
a) beginning of falling rate period
b) beginning of constant rate period
c) end of falling rate period
d) none of these
26. A slurry is to be dried to produce flaky solid. Which dryer would you recommend?
a) spray dryer
b) drum dryer
c) rotary dryer
d) dielectric dryer
27. For continuous drying of granular or crystalline material, the dryer used is
a) tunnel
b) tray
c) rotary
d) none of these
28. All moisture in a non-hygroscopic material ismoisture
a) free
b) equilibrium
c) unbound
d) bound
29. During constant rate period, the rate of drying decreases with
a) decrease in air temperature
b) increased air humidity
c) both a and b
d) neither a nor b
30. Which is the controlling factor for a drum dryer?
a) diffusion
b) heat transfer
c) both a and b
d) neither a nor b
31. Paper industry employs..dryers
a) cylinder
b) rotary
c) spray
d) fluidized bed
32. Sand is dried in foundaries in a ..dryer
a) rotary
b) fluidized bed
c) vacuum
d) spray
33. Free flowing granular materials can be best dried in a
a) rotary dryer
b) cylinder dryer
c) drum dryer
d) freeze dryer
HUMIDIFICATION
1. Humidification involves mass transfer between a pure liquid phase and a fixed gas
which is:
a) insoluble in the liquid
b) soluble in the liquid
c) non-ideal in nature
d) at a fixed temperature
2. At a fixed total pressure, humidity depends only on the
a) partial pressure of vapor in the mixture
b) heat capacity of the vapor
d) atmospheric
16. Critical humidity of a solid salt means the humidity
a) above which it will always become damp
b) below which it will always stay dry
c) both a and b
d) above which it will always become dry and below which it will always stay damp.
19. Percentage saturation is..the relative saturation.
a) always smaller than
b) always greater than
c) not related to
d) none of these
20. Wet bulb and dry bulb temperatures become identical at
a) 100% saturation curve
b) 50% saturation curve
c) 78% saturation curve
d) none of these
21. Which of the following processes is followed by unsaturated air (with dry bulb
temperature
12oC and relative humidity 47%) passing through water spray washer (temperature of
water being constant at 40oC)?
a) humidification only
b) heating only
c) both heating and humidification
d) evaporative cooling
22. Which of the following remains constant during sensible cooling process?
a) specific humidity
b) partial pressure of vapor
c) both a and b
d) neither a nor b
23. During sensible cooling process
a) relative humidity decreases
b) relative humidity increases
c) wet bulb temperature increases
d) both b and c
24. A mixture of 10% C6H6 vapor in air at 25oC and 750 mm Hg has a dew point of 20 oC.
Its dew point at 30oC and 700 mm Hg will be around
a) 21.7oC
b) 20oC
c) 27.3oC
d) 18.7oC
25. Which of the following remains constant during evaporative cooling process with
recirculated water supply?
a) relative humidity
b) partial pressure of vapor
c) wet bulb temperature
d) none of these
26. Dew point of a gas-vapor mixture
a) increases with temperature rise
b) decreases with temperature rise
c) decreases with increases in pressure
d) increases with increases in pressure
27. Which of the following decreases during evaporative cooling process with
recirculated water
supply?
a) wet bulb temperature
b) relative humidity
c) partial pressure of vapor
d) none of these
28. Which of the following increases during evaporative cooling process with
recirculated water
supply?
a) wet bulb temperature
b) relative humidity
c) partial pressure of vapor
d) both b and c
29. The relative saturation of a partially saturated mixture of vapor and gas can be
increased by
a) reducing the total pressure of the mixture
b) increasing the total pressure of the mixture
c) reducing the temperature of the mixture
d) both b and c
30. Condensation of a vapor-gas mixture just begin when
a) p = P
b) p P
c) p P
d) p>= P
where: p = partial pressure of the vapor
Diffusion
1. The unit of volumetric diffusivity is
a.) cm2/ec
b.) cm/sec
c.) cm3/sec
d.) cm3/sec3
2. The diffusivity (D) in a binary gas mixture is related to the temperature (T) as
a.) D T
b.) D T0.5
c.) D T1.5
d.) D T3
3. The diffusivity (D) in a binary gas mixture is related to the pressure (P) as
a.) D T1.5
b.) D 1
P0.5
c.) D 1
d.) D 1
P
P1.5
4. Molecular diffusion is caused by
a.) transfer of molecules from low concentration to high concentration region
b.) thermal energy of the molecules
c.) activation energy of the molecules
d.) potential energy of the molecules
5. Pick out the correct statement
a.) Diffusivity decreases with increase in temperature
b.) Diffusivity increases with increase in molecular weight
c.) Diffusivity increases with the size of the individual molecule
d.) None of these
6. Mass transfer co-efficient is defined as
a.) Flux = (Co-efficient) / (concentration difference)
b.) Co-efficient = Flux / concentration difference
c.) Flux = concentration difference / co-efficient
d.) None of these
7. Mass transfer co-efficient (K) and diffusivity (D) are related according to film theory
as
a.) K D
b.) K D
1.5
c.) K D
d.) K D2
8. Penetration theory relates average mass transfer co-efficient (K) with diffusivity (D)
as
a.) K D
b.) K D
1.5
c.) K D
d.) K D2
9. Corresponding to Prandtl number in heat transfer, the dimensionless group in mass
transfer is
a.) Schmidt number
b.) Sherwood number
b.) Pr x Sc
d.) St x Sh
GAS ABSORPTION
1. For absorbing a sparingly soluble gas in a liquid, the
a.) gas side coefficient should be increased
b.) liquid side coefficient should be increased
c.) gas side coefficient should be decreased
d.) liquid side coefficient should be decreased
2. For contacting a highly soluble gas with a liquid
a.) bubble the gas through liquid
b.) spray the liquid on gas stream
c.) either a or b will suffice
d.) none of these
3. Wetted wall tower experiment determines
a.) molal diffusivity
b.) volumetric coefficient
c.) mass transfer coefficient
d.) none of these
4. Stacked packing compared to dumped packing
a.) provides poorer contact between the fluids
b.) gives lower pressure drop
c.) both (a) and (b)
d.) gives higher drop
5. Channeling is most severe
a.) in towers packed with stacked packing
11. The operating line for an absorbed is curved when plotted in terms of
a.) mole fractions
b.) mole ratios
c.) partial pressure
d.) mass fractions
12. In case of an absorber, the operating
a.) line always lies above the equilibrium curve
b.) line always lies below the equilibrium curve
c.) line can be either above or below the equilibrium curve
d.) velocity is more than the loading velocity
13. For an absorber, both equilibrium and operating line will be straight for
a.) concentrated solution and non-isothermal operation
b.) dilute solution and non-isothermal operation
22. Out of the following properties of a solvent for absorption, which combination of
properties provides a good solvent?
I. high viscosity
II. Low viscosity
III. high vapour pressure
IV. Low vapour pressure
V. high gas solubility
VI. High freezing point
VII. low freezing point
Choose from the following combinations:
a.) II,IV,V,VII
c.) II,IV,V,VI
b.) I,IV,V,VI
d.) I,IV,V,VII
23. When both the fluids flow concurrently in an absorber, the slope of the operating line
is
a.) negative
b.) positive
c.) 1
d.) -1
24. Ammonia present in the coke oven gas is removed by washing with
a.) caustic solution
b.) dilute ammoniacal liquor
c.) dilute HCl
d.) ethanolamine
25. Which of the following is not fixed by process requirements in the design of
absorbers?
a.) flow rate of the entering gas
b.) composition of the entering liquid
c.) terminal concentration of gas stream
d.) none of these
26. In an absorber, HETP does not vary with
a.) flow rate of liquid
c.) type and size of packing
29. For the same system, if the same liquid used in an absorber is decreased, the tower
height will
a.) increase
b.) decrease
c.) remain unaffected
d.) decrease or increase depends on the type of liquid
30. HETP is numerically equal to HTU only when operating line
a.) lies below the equilibrium line
b.) lies above the equilibrium line
c.) and equilibrium lines are parallel
d.) is far from the equilibrium line
31. Desirable value of absorption factor in an absorber is
a.) 1
b.) <1
c.) >1
d.) 0.5
32. Absorption accompanied by heat evolution results in
a.) increased capacity of the absorber
b.) increase in equilibrium solubility
c.) decrease in equilibrium solubility
d.) none of these
33. Co-current absorbers are usually used when the gas to be dissolved in the liquid is
a.) sparingly soluble
b.) highly soluble
c.) a pure substance
d.) a mixture
34. Channeling in a packed tower results from
a.) high pressure drop
c.) non-uniformity of packing
35. Diameter of raschig rings used in packed tower in industry is normally around
a.) 2"
b.) 8"
c.) 12"
d.) 18
FILTRATION
1. For a classification of potable water, we use
a.) gravity sand filter
b.) plate and frame filter
c.) vacuum leaf filter
d.) rotary vacuum filter
2. Vacuum filter is most suitable for
a.) removal of lines from liquid
c.) liquids of very high viscosity
3. Filter aid is used
b.) cm / gm
d.) gm / gm.
b.) gm / cm-1
d.) gm -1
10. In continuous filtration (at a constant pressure drop) filtrate flow rate varies inversely
as the
a.) square root of the velocity
b.) square root of the viscosity
c.) filtration time only
d.) washing time only
11. For separation of sugar solution from settled out mud we use
a.) sparkler filter
b.) plate and frame
c.) centrifugal filter
d.) rotary drum vacuum filter
12. The most common filter aid is
a.) diatomaceous earth
15. The speed of a rotary drum vacuum filter (in rpm) may be
a.) 1
b.) 50
c.) 100
d.) 500
16. Gelatinous solid (which plug the septum) can be filtered by
a.) sparkler filter
b.) plate and frame filter
c.) vacuum leaf filter
d.) pre-coat filter
17. For laminar of flow of filtrate through the cake deposited on septum which of the
following with the valid?
a.) Kozency-Carman Equation
b.) Leva's equation
c.) Clack-Plummer equation
d.) none of these
18. Which of the following may prove unsuitable for filtering volatile liquids?
a.) pressure filter
b.) gravity filter
c.) centrifugal filter
d.) vacuum filter
19. In washing type plate and frame filter press the ratio of washing rate to the final
filtrate rate is
a.) 4
b.) 1/4
c.) 1
d.) 1/2
20. Moore filter is a
a.) leaf filter
c.) rotary filter
22. Flow of filtrate through cake in a plate and frame filter press is best described by
a.) Kozency-Carman equation
b.) Hagen-Poiseu equation
c.) Fanning's equation
d.) Kremser equation
23. A straight line is obtained on plotting reciprocal of filtration rate vs the volume of
filtrate
a.) compressible cakes and laminar flow of filtrate
b.) incompressible cakes and laminar flow of filtrate
c.) compressible cake and turbulent flow of filtrate
d.) incompressible cake and turbulent flow of filtrate
24. Percentage of drum submerged in slurry in case of rotary drum filter is
a.) 3%
b.) 30%
c.) 85%
d.) 25%
25. Which of the following represents the plot of filtrate cvolume versus time for constant
pressure filtration?
a.) parabola
b.) straight line
c.) hyperbola
d.) exponential curve
26. With increase in drum speed, in a rotary drum filter, the filtration rate
a.) increases
b.) increases linearly
c.) decreases
d.) is not affected
27. The inlet pressure in a constant rate filtration
a.) increases continuously
c.) remains constant
28. Which is a continuous filter?
a.) plate and frame filter
c.)shell and leaf filter
b.) decreases
d.) none of these
29. Addition of filter aid to the slurry before filtration is done to .. of the coke
a.) increase the porosity
b.) increase the compressibility coefficient
c.) decrease the porosity
d.) decrease the compressibility coefficient
30. The cake resistance increases steadily with the time of filtration in a plate and frame
filter employing constant .. filtration
a.) rate
b.) pressure
c.) both a and b
d.) neither a nor b
31. The controlling resistance in a rotary drum vacuum filter is the . Resistance
a.) piping
b.) cake
c.) filter medium
c.) none of these
ADSORPTION
1. Physical adsorption is
a. an irreversible phenomenon
b. a reversible phenomenon
c. accompanied by evolution of heat
d. both b and c
2. Chemisorption (chemical adsorption) is
a. same as Van der Waals adsorption
b. characterized by adsorption of heat
c. also called activated adsorption
d. none of these
3. Rate of adsorption increases as the
a. temperature increases
b. temperature decreases
c. pressure decreases
d. size of adsorbent increases
7. In case of physical adsorption, the difference between heat of adsorption and heat of normal
condensation is
a. equal to the heat of formation of surface compound
b. equal to the heat of wetting
c. zero
d. called integral heat of adsorption
8. Pick out the wrong statement
Generally for physical adsorption, a gas of
a. higher molecular weight is adsorbed in preference to a gas of low molecular weight
b. high critical temperature is adsorbed in preference to a gas of low critical temperature
c. low volatility is adsorbed in preference to a gas of high volatility
d. both b and c
9. The change in enthalpy per unit weight of adsorbed gas when adsorbed on gas free or
outgassed adsorbent to form a definite concentration of adsorbate is called its
a. integral heat of adsorption
b. heat of wetting
c. differential heat of adsorption
d. heat of normal condensation
10. With increase in concentration of the adsorbate the integral heat of adsorption
a. increases
b. decreases
c. remains unchanged
d. may increase or decrease; depends on type of adsorbate
11. The change in enthalpy when a unit quantity of gas is adsorbed by a relatively large quantity
of adsorbent (on which a definite concentration of the adsorbed gas already exists) is termed
as the
a. differential heat of adsorption
c. integral heat of adsorption
b. heat of wetting
d. heat of normal condensation
12. As complete saturation of an adsorbent is approached, the differential heat of adsorption
approaches
a. heat of normal condensation
c. zero
b. integral heat of adsorption
d. none of these
13. Ion exchange process is similar to
a. absorption
b. extraction
c. adsorption
d. leaching
c. Cold Ca (OH)2
d. alumina
CENTRIFUGATION
1. For separation of sugar solution from settled out mud we use
a. sparkler filter
c. centrifugal filter
b. plate & frame filter
d. rotary drum vacuum filter
2. Moisture can be removed from lubricating oil using
a. tubular centrifuge
c. sparkler filter
b. clarifier
d. vacuum leaf filter
3. Which of the following can be most effectively used for clarification of tube oil and printing
ink?
a. sparkler filter
b. precoat filter
c. disc-bowl centrifuge
d. sharpless supercentrifuge
4. If the radius of a basket centrifuge is halved and the rpm is doubled, then
a. linear speed of the basket is doubled
b. linear speed of the basket is halved
c. centrifugal force is doubled
d. capacity of centrifuge is increased
5. Where the difference in density of the two liquid phases to be separated is very small (as in
milk cream separator), the most suitable separator is
a. disc bond centrifuge
c. batch basket centrifuge
b. sharpless supercentrifuge
d. sparkler filter
FLOTATION
1. Froth Flotation is most suitable for treating
a. iron ores
c. quartz
b. sulfide ores
d. metal ores
2. In Froth Flotation, chemical agent added to cause air adherence is called
a. collector
c. modifier
b. frother
d. promoter
3. Pine oil used in forth flotation technique acts as a
a. collector
c. frother
b. modifier
d. activator
4. Which of the following is the most suitable for cleaning of fine coal dust (< 0.5 m)?
a. Through washer
c. Spiral separator
b. Baum Jig Washer
d. Froth Flotation
LEACHING
1. Which of the following operations does not involve leaching?
a. dissolving gold from ores
b. dissolving pharmaceutical products from bark or roots
c. dissolving sugar from the cells of the best
d. removing nicotine from its water solution by kerosene
2. Tea percolation employs
a. liquid-liquid extraction
b. leaching
c. absorption
d. adsorption
c. pressure
d. size of the solid
c. temperature
d. none of these
c. evaporation
d. absorption
c. results in low interfacial tension
d. none of these
3. Choose the best combination or properties for a good solvent for extraction out of the
following
(i)
high selectivity
(ii)
low selectivity
(iii)
high viscosity
(iv)
low viscosity
(v)
large distribution coefficient
(vi)
small distribution coefficient
(vii)
high interfacial tension
(viii) low interfacial tension
a. ( i ), ( iv ), ( v ), ( vii )
b. ( i ), ( iii ), ( v ), ( vi )
c. ( i ), ( iii ), ( v ), ( vii )
d. ( i ), ( ii ), ( iv ), ( vii )
11. The solvent used in liquid extraction should not have high latent heat of vaporization because
a. the pressure drops and hence the pumping cost will be very high
b. it cannot be recovered by distillation
c. its recovery cost by distillation may be prohibitively high
d. it will decompose while recovering by distillation
12. In a countercurrent liquid extractor
a. both liquids flow at fixed rate
b. both liquids can have any desired flow rate
c. only one of the liquids may be pumped at any desired rate
d. liquids flow rate depends upon the temperature and pressure
13. Sides of equilateral triangular coordinates (on which ternary liquid system is plotted)
represent
a. a pure component
c. a ternary mixture
b. a binary mixture
d. partially miscible ternary system
14. As the reflux ratio, in a continuous counter current extraction is increased, the number of
stages
a. increase
c. remain unchanged
b. decrease
d. can either increase or decrease, depends on
the system
15. Acetic acid will be most economically separated from a dilute solution of acetic acid in water
by
a. solvent extraction
c. evaporation
b. continuous distillation
d. absorption
MATERIALS HANDLING
1. Which is most suitable for transportation of sticky material?
a. apron conveyor
c. belt conveyor
b. screw conveyor
d. pneumatic conveyor
2. Which of the following cannot be recommended for transportation of abrasive materials?
a. belt conveyor
c. apron conveyor
b. flight conveyor
d. chain conveyor
3. For transporting pastry material, one will use
a. apron conveyor
c. belt conveyor
b. screw conveyor
d. bucket elevator
4. The capacity of a belt conveyor depends upon two factors. If one is the cross section of the
load, the other is the
a. speed of the belt
c. thickness of the belt
b. length of the belt
d. material to be transported
5. Dry powdery solid material are transported by a
a. belt conveyor
c. belt conveyor
b. screw conveyor
d. bucket elevator
6. Apron conveyors are used for
a. heavy loads and short runs
b. small loads, long runs
SCREENING
1. The ratio of the actual mesh dimension of Taylor series to that of the next smaller screen is
a. 2
b. 2
c. 1.5
d. none of these
2. The opening of 200 mesh screen (Taylor series) is
a. 0.0074 cm
b. 0.0074 mm
c. 0.0047 cm
d. 0.0047 mm
3. The ratio of the area of opening in one screen (Taylor series) to that of openings in the next
smaller screen is
a. 1.5
b. 1
c. 2
d. none of these
4. Cumulative Analysis for determining surface is more precise than differential analysis
because of the
a. assumption that all particles in single fraction are equal in size
b. fact that screening is more effective
c. assumption that all particles in a single fraction are equal in size is not needed
d. none of these
5. Increasing the capacity of screen
a. decreases the screen effectiveness
b. increases the screen effectiveness
6. Screen efficiency is
a. recovery rejection
c. rejection
b. recovery
d. none of these
d. tons/h-ft2
a. grizzlies
b. trommels
c. shaking screen
d. vibrating screen
c. 200 openings/cm
d. 200 openings/inch2
20. Vibrating screens have capacity (tons/ft2 hr mm mesh size) in the range of
a. 0.2 to 0.8
b. 5 to 25
c. 50 to 100
d. 100 to 250
21. The material passing one screening surface and retained on a subsequent surface is called
a. intermediate material
c. plus material
b. minus
d. none of the above
SEDIMENTATION
Questions 1 and 2 are based on the following information and illustration
Sphere
d
d
(1)
2
4
1 g r 3
3
d.
d
4 3
r 1 g 61r
3
t2
14. The terminal velocity of a small sphere settling in a viscous fluid varies as the
a. first power of its diameter
b. inverse of the fluid viscosity
c. inverse square of the diameter
d. square of the difference in specific weights of solid and fluid
15. Buoyant force
a. for non symmetrical bodies is not vertical
b. depends on the depth of the submergence of the floating body
c. depends on the weight of the floating body
d. none of these
16. Center of pressure in an immersed body is _______ the center of gravity
a. above
b. below
c. at
d. either above or below; depends on the liquid density
17. The line of action of the buoyant force passes through the center of gravity of the
a. submerged body
b. displaced volume of the fluid
c. volume of fluid vertically above the body
d. horizontal projection of the body
18. Drag is the force component exerted on an immersed object
a. passing the centroid of the body at 60 to the direction of motion
b. the component being parallel to the flow direction
c. the component being normal to the flow direction
d. none of these
19. Sphericity of raschig ring (whose length and diameter are equal) is
a. >1
c. <2
b. 1
d. 2
20. Sphericity of pulverized coal is
a. 1
b. >1
c. <1
d.
c. < 1
d. 3
a.
b.
6V
DS
V
6 DS
DS
V
V
d.
DS
c.
where: V and S are volume and surface area respectively of one particle
D = equivalent diameter of particles
SIZE REDUCTION
1. Shape factor for a cylinder whose length equals its diameter is
a. 1.5
b. 0.5
c. 1
d. 0
2. Equivalent diameter of a particle is the diameter of the sphere having the same
a. ratio of surface to volume as the actual volume
b. ratio of volume to surface as the particle
c. volume as the particle
d. none of these
3. For coarse reduction of hard solids, use
a. impact
b. attrition
c. compression
d. cutting
d. none of these
c. Ball mill
d. none of these
15. As the product becomes finer, the energy required for grinding
a. decreases
c. is same as for coarser grinding
b. increases
d. is 1.5 times than for coarser grinding
c. fine grinding
d. attrition
26. The main differentiation factor between tube mill and ball mill is the
a. length to diameter ratio
c. final product size
b. size of the grinding media
d. operating speed
27. Kicks law relates to
a. energy consumption
b. final particle size
c. feed size
d. none of these
c. cutting machine
d. ultrafine grinder
29. Which of the following gives the crushing energy required to create new surface?
a. Taggarts rule
c. Rittingers law
b. Ficks Law
d. none of these
30. Size reduction mechanism used in Jaw crushers is
a. attrition
c. cutting
b. compression
d. impact
c. 10 20
d. as high as 100
40. According to Bond crushing law, the work required to form particle of size D from very
large feed is
a. S / V p
c. S / V p
b.
S /V p
2
when S / V p and
respectively
d.
S /V f
S /V f
a. its rpm
b. its slope and length
c. the arrangement of flights
d. all (a), (b) and (c)
16. Filtration rate is affected by
a. pressure drop across the cake and filter medium
b. cake and filter medium resistance
c. area of filtering surface and viscosity of filtrate
d. all (a), (b) and (c)
17. Rate of filtrate delivery is inversely proportional to the
a. filtering the area and the pressure difference driving force
b. viscosity of filtrate
c. cake and filter medium resistance
d. both (b) and (c)
18. In the case of a shell and the tube heat exchanger, the logarithmic mean temperature
difference
a. is always less than arithmetic average value
b. is always more than arithmetic mean value but more than geometric mean value
c. is always less than arithmetic mean value but more than geometric mean value
d. may be either more or less than geometric mean and arithmetic mean value
depending upon whether the flow of stream is co-current or counter-current
19. In a double pipe (concentric) heat exchanger, the hydraulic radius for heat transfer
(for a fluid flowing through the annulus) would be
a. same as that for fluid flow
b. less than that for fluid flow
c. more than that for fluid flow
d. D2 - D1 (D1 and D2 are I.D. of inner and outer pipes respectively)
20. Fouling factor must be included in the calculation of over all design heat transfer coefficient when the liquid
a. containing suspended solids flows at low velocity
b. containing suspended solids flows at high velocity
c. is highly viscous
d. is of high specific gravity
21. The value of fouling factor depends upon the
a. characteristics of process fluid
b. velocity process fluid containing suspended solids
c. suspended solids in the fluid
d. all (a), (b) and (c)
22. Floating head heat exchangers are used for
a. heat transfer between corrosive fluids
b. cases where temperature difference between the shell and the tubes is more
(>50 C)
c. co-current heat transfer systems
d. counter-current heat transfer systems
23. In a shell and tube heat exchanger, shortest center to center distance between adjacent
tubes is
a. called tube pitch
b. called tube clearance
31. In a shell and tube heat exchanger for given heat transfer surface area, smaller
diameter tubes are favored as compared to larger diameter ones because smaller
diameter tubes.
a. are easier to clean
b. are less prone to fouling
c. can be fitted into a smaller shell diameter hence the cost of the heat exchanger
would be less
d. none of these
32. High pressure fluid in a shell and tube heat exchanger should preferably be routed
through the
where Le = equivalent length of straight pipeline which will incur the same frictional
loss as the fitting and D = diameter of the fitting. The value of Le /D (dimensionless)
for 45 elbow and 180 close return bends would be respectively around
a. 5 and 10
b. 45 and 75
c. 180 and 300
d. 300 and 500
41. Le/D for 90 elbow (medium radius) and 90 square elbow would be respectively
around
a. 25 and 60
b. 3 and 5
c. 100 and 250
d. 250 and 600
42. Le/D for a Tee (used as elbow, entering run) would be around
a.5
b. 60
c. 200
d. 350
43. Le/D for a Tee (used as elbow, entering branch) would be
a. less than that for Tee (used as elbow, entering run)
b. more than that for Tee (used as elbow, entering run)
c. around 90
d. both (b) and (c)
44. Le/D for couplings and unions would be
a. 60
b. 200
c. 350
d. negligible
45. Le/D for fully open gate valves would be
a. much more than that for fully open globe valve
b. much less (say 2% than that for fully open globe valve)
c. around 7
d. both (b) and (c)
46. Le/D for fully open globe valve may be around
a. 10
b. 25
c. 75
d. 300
47. For turbulent flow (NRe>2100) of low viscosity fluid (<20 cp) in steel pipes, the
optimum inside pipe diameter is given by
0.13
c. Diopt 4.7 q f
d. Diopt 3 q f
a.
Diopt 3.9 q f
0.45
a.
Diopt 3.9 q f
0.45
where q f =
=
c =
Diopt
0.95
0.49
0.36
0.14
0.18
48. For laminar flow (NRe < 2100) in steel pipe, the optimum inside pipe diameter is
given by
a.
Diopt 3.6 q f
a.
Diopt 3 q f
0.45
0.18
0.36
0.28
c.
Diopt q f
d. Diopt q f
0.487
0.364
0.025
0.182
49. The necessary wall thickness for a metallic storage vessel is a function of the
a. ultimate tensile strength (or yield point) of the material and operating temperature
b. operating pressure and welding / joint efficiency
c. diameter of the vessel
a. facilitate draining out liquid from a tray when the unit is not in operation
b. are normally located near the overflow weir so that any delivery of liquid during
operation follow approximately the same path as the overflow fluid
c. must be large enough (usually 1/4 inch to 5/8 inch diameter) to prevent plugging
but should not deliver excessive amount of fluid during operation
d. all (a), (b) and (c).
59 59. Excessive liquid gradient on a tray may result in
a. maldistribution of gas
b. back trapping
c. gas blowing beneath cap skirt
d. all (a), (b) and (c)
60. The maximum liquid gradient over a tray must not exceed
a. 0.5" - 1.25"
b. 2"-3.5"
c. 5"
d. half the tray spacing
61. Liquid gradient over the tray results due to
a. the resistance offered to flow of liquids by caps and risers and the flow of gas.
b. low gas velocity
c. large plate spacing
d. large reflux ratio
62. Liquid gradient over a tray can be minimized by
a. providing a higher skirt clearance or a higher weir
b. decreasing the number of rows of caps through which the liquid flows or by
decreasing the
velocity of liquid flow past the caps or by reducing the distance along the tray
through which the
liquid must flow.
c. using split flow, radial flow or cascade flow for column diameter larger than 4 ft.
d. all (a), (b) and (c).
63. Which of the following factors determine the amount of entrainment in a distillation
column?
a.plate spacing
b.depth of liquid above the bubble cap slots
c.vapor velocity in the volume between the plates
d. all (a), (b) and (c)
64. Larger depth of liquid on the trays of a distillation column
a.lead to high tray efficiency
b.results in higher pressure drop per tray
c.both (a) and (b)
d.neither (a) nor (b)
65. The minimum tray spacing in distillation column of diameter than 3 ft is normally
a. 6"
b. 18"
c. 24"
d. 34"
66. The minimum plate spacing in most of the petroleum refinery distillation columns (of
diameter 73 ft)
is normally
a. 6"
b. 12"
c. 18"
d. 34"
(a) 1
(b) > 1
(c) < 1
(d) none of these
6. Phase lag of the sinusoidal response of a first order system is
(a) 120
(b) 30
(c) 180
(d) 90
7. Conversion formula for converting amplitude ratio (AR) into decibels is
(a) Decibel=20 log10 (AR)
(b) Decibel=20 log e(AR)
(c) Decibel=20 log10 (AR)0.5
(d) Decibel = log10 (AR)
8. A control system is unstable if the open loop frequency response exhibits an
amplitude ratio exceeding unity at the cross-over frequency. This is
(a) Bode stability criterion
(b) Nyquist criterion
(c) Routh stability criterion
(d) both b and c
9. Typical specifications for design stipulates the gain margin and phase margin to be
respectively
(a) > 1.7 and > 30
(b) < 1.7 and > 30
(c) < 1.7 and < 30
(d) >1.7 and < 30
10. The frequency at which maximum amplitude ratio is attained is called
(a) corner frequency
(b) resonant frequency
(c) cross-over frequency
(d) natural frequency
11. A negative gain margin expressed in decibels means
(a) a stable system
(b) unstable system
(c) critically damped system
(d) both a and c
12. Bode diagram is a plot of
(a) log (AR) vs. log (f) and vs. log (f)
(b) log (AR) vs. f and log vs. f
(c) AR vs.log (f) and vs. log (f)
(d) log (AR) vs. log f
13. For measuring the temperature of a furnace, which is the most suitable instrument?
(a) Platinum resistance thermometer (b) Thermocouple
(c) Optical pyrometer
(d) Bimetallic thermometer
14. Degree to which an instrument indicates the changes in measured variable without
dynamic error is called
(a) speed of response
(b) reproducibility of instrument
(c) fidelity
(d) its static characteristics
15. Which of the following is a desirable characteristic of an instrument?
(a) high drift
(b) high fidelity
(c) high temperature lag
(d) poor reproducibility
16. Which of the following shows maximum dip affect (indicating reverse direction of
temperature change)?
(a) mercury thermometer
(b) radiation pyrometer
(c) bimetallic thermometer
(d) thermocouple
17. Pick out the most suitable instrument for measuring temperature in the range of -40
to 800F.
18.
19.
20.
21.
22.
23.
24.
25.
26.
27.
(d)
43.
44.
45.
46.
47.
48.
49.
50.
51.
52.
Where: P =pressure
V= volume of the vessel
n= number of moles of the gas R= gas constant
52. In an exothermic chemical reactor, the manipulated variable is the flow rate of
(a) coolant
(b) reactant
(c) product
(d) hot fluid
53. Use of I-control along with P-control facilitates
(c)
e dt
MATERIALS OF CONSTRUCTION
1. Bog iron is used for adsorption of H2S from coke oven gas is
a. an intimate mixture of saw dust and iron dust (i.e. moist ferric hydroxide)
b. iron impregnated with resin (usually bakelite)
c. carbon free iron
d. none of these
2. Iron alloyed with carbon up to 2% is called
a. pig iron
b. wrought iron
c. high carbon steel
d. none of these
3. The softest material in Mhos scale (for measuring hardness) is
a. talc
b. gypsum
c. rubber
d. none of these
4. Karbate is
a. a mixture of iron dust and saw dust
b. carbon impregnated with resin (usually bakelite)
c. acid resistant material
d. both (b) and (c).
5. Duralumin is an alloy of
a. aluminum, copper and manganese
b .aluminum, nickel and silicon
c. aluminum and nickel
d. none of these
6. Corrosion resistance of steel is increased by the addition of
a. phosphorus and tungsten
b. nickel and chromium
c. lead and vanadium
d. molybdenum and tungsten
7. White metal is an alloy of
a. lead, tin and cadmium
b. copper, tin and zinc
c. copper and lead
d. none of these
8. Presence of cobalt in steel improve its
a. cutting ability
b. corrosion resistance
c. tensile strength
d. none of these
9. The impure iron (Pig iron) that is taped out from blast furnace contains about
a. 0.2% carbon
b. 2% carbon
c. 4% carbon
d. 8% carbon
10. Carbon content in steel is
a. 0.1 2%
b. 4 6%
c. 5- 10%
d. 0
11. An ideal material of construction for the storage of 50% caustic soda solution
would be
a. Karbate
b. high silica cast iron
c. monel
d. none of these
12. For storing water and acid free benzol, use
a. steel vessel
b. karbate vessel
c. stainless steel vessel
d. none of these
13. Brine (15% concentration) can be stored in a vessel made of
a. monel
b. karbate
c. cast iron
d. none of these
14. Most suitable material of construction for the storage of concentrated nitric acid is
a. cast iron
b. monel
c. karbate
d. aluminum or chromium alloys (Cr > 18% for cold acid).
15. Babbit metal (used for making bearings) comprises
a. mainly tin (85%) and lead
b. saw dust and iron dust mixture
c. zinc and aluminum
d. copper and aluminum
16. The material of construction of pressure mills used for squeezing out the juice
from sugar cane is
a. stainless steel
b. cast iron
c. mild steel
d. monel.
17. Chlorination of benzene is done to produce benzene hexachloride (a pesticide) in
a photochemical reactor lined with
a. karbate
b. lead or glass
c. fire clay bricks
d. PVC
18. Polymerization reactor used for the production of styrenebutadiene rubber (SBR)
is made of
a. vessel
b. stainless steel or glass lined vessel
c. karbate
d. wrought iron
19. Which of the following is the most suitable material of construction for
evaporator and its tubes for concentrating NaOH solution to 70%?
a. cast iron
b. steel
c. nickel
d. karbate
20. Most common stainless steel type 316, which it highly resistant to corrosion
contains
a. 16 13% chromium, 10 14% nickel and 2 3% molybdenum
b. 20 22% chromium, and 8 10% nickel
c. 2 4% chromium, 22% nickel and 2 4% molybdenum
d. none of these
21. Caustic soda can be stored in
a. steel drums
b. cast iron drums
c. brass drums
d. gun metal drums
22. Brass is an alloy of
a. nickel and tin
b. copper and zinc
c. tin and lead
d. copper, nickel and zinc
23. The carbonating tower used in Solvay Process of soda ash manufacture is made of
a. cast iron
b. stainless steel
c. karbate
d. lead lined steel
24. Gun metal is an alloy of
a. nickel, tin and copper
b. copper, tin and zinc
c. copper, phosphorus and nickel
d. manganese, phosphorus and nickel
25. Marcy ball mills are usually made of
a. steel
b. cast iron
c. stainless steel
d. bronze
26. Bronze is an alloy of
a. lead and copper
b. copper and tin
c. nickel and copper
d. copper and zinc
27. Rotary kilns in cement industry are lined with
a. fire clay
b. silica
c. lead
d. high alumina and high magnesia bricks
28. In the Kraft (sulfate) process for the paper manufacture the digester is made of
a. cast iron
b. stainless steel
c. karbate carbon
d. wrought iron
29. Dry chlorine can be handled in a vessel made of
a. iron or steel
b. PVC
c. nickel
d. brass
30. Tank furnace used for melting of glass is made of
a. mild steel
b. cast iron
c. refractory blocks
d. stainless steel
31. Stainless steel contains
a. chromium and nickel
b. copper
c. aluminum
d. vanadium
32. Caustic soda is reduced in a mercury cell having anode and cathode made
respectively of
a. moving mercury and graphite
b. graphite and moving mercury
c. moving mercury and carbon
d. moving mercury and crimped steel wire
33. Monel metal is an alloy of
a. molybdenum and nickel
b. nickel and copper
c. molybdenum and aluminum
d. molybdenum and zinc
34. German silver is an alloy of
a. copper, nickel and zinc
b. copper, aluminum and silver
c. silver, zinc and aluminum
d. silver, nickel and zinc
35. Chromel (Nichrome) is an alloy of
59. Which of the following constituents of cast iron is mainly responsible for
imparting it an anti-corrosive property?
a. silicon
b. phosphorus
c. sulfur
d. none of these
60. Mild steel is
a. a low carbon steel (0.05 0.3% carbon)
b. highly resistance to corrosion (as much as stainless steel)
c. a high carbon steel (0.5 1.5% carbon)
d. very poor in strength and ductility
61. Presence of manganese in alloy steel improves its
a. corrosion resistance
b. cutting ability
c. abrasion resistance and toughness
d. elasticity and creep resistance
62. H2SO4 (<50% concentration) is corrosive to
a. aluminum, mild steel, stainless steel, concrete and tin
b. copper, cast iron and high silicon iron (14% Si)
c. rubber (butyl and hard) silicon rubber and teflon
d. glass, graphite, porcelain and stoneware
63. Aluminum storage vessel can be used to store
a. aqua regia
b. ferrous sulfate
c. hydrochloric acid (10%)
d. none of these
64. Brass container is suitable for storing
a. aqueous ammonia
b. beer
c. H2SO4 (95% concentration)
d. phosphoric acid (95%)
65. Cast iron vessels are not suitable for the storage of
a. Freon
b. H2SO4 (95%) at room temperature
c. H2SO4 (fuming)
d. Wet SO2
66. Out of the following, copper vessels are most suitable for the storage of
a. bromine
b. dry chlorine and dry fluorine
c. nitric acid (95% and fuming)
d. phosphoric acid (95%) and sulfuric acid (95% and fuming)
67. Gun metal and bronze are not corroded by the action of
a. wet chlorine
b. synthetic detergent solution
c. hydrochloric acid (10%)
d. nitric acid (<25%)
68. Containers made of high silicon cast iron (14% Si) are not suitable for the storage
of
a. acetic acid
b. benzoic and boric acids
c. phosphoric acid (95%) and sulfuric acid (95%)
81. The most commonly used resin for making reinforced plastic is
a. unsaturated polyester
b. polyproplylene
c. polyurethane
d. nylon 6
82. Carbon tetrachloride can be stored in a storage vessel made of
a. high silicon iron (14%)
b. tin
c. stainless steel
d. all (a), (b) and (c)
83. Concrete tank can be used to store
a. alum
b. sulfuric acid
c. sulfuric acid
d. saturated brine
84. Glass is corroded by
a. fluorine (dry or wet)
b. sulfuric water
c. phosphoric acid
d. none these
85. Graphite is corroded by
a. sulfuric acid (10%)
b. sea Water
b. hydrochloric acid
d. none of these
86. Wood is corroded by
a. hydrochloric acid
b. SO2 (dry or wet)
c. chlorine (dry or wet)
d. all (a), (b) and (c)
87. The 'bomb' in the bomb calorimeter is made of
a. molybdenum stainless steel
b. mild steel
c. high silicon iron (14% Si)
d. copper
88. Most suitable material for high pressure vessel operating at 500 atm and 500C is
a. molybdenum stainless steel
b. 18-8 stainless steel
c. mild steel
d. high silicon iron (14% Si)
89. Centrifugal pump made of pyrex or glass can't be used to pump
a. mild and fruit juices
b. alkaline solutions
c. dilute H2SO4 at room temperature d. brine
90. Rubber lined pumps can be used to pump
a. caustic soda
b. chlorinated brine
c. hypochlorous acid
d. all (a), (b) and (c)
91. Copper is dissolved from its ore by H2SO4 in percolation tanks made of
a. wood
b. stainless steel
c. reinforced concrete lined with lead d. high silicon iron (14% Si)
92. Rotary dryers are generally made of
a. cast iron
b. mild steel
c. high silicon iron (14% Si)
d. tin lined with refractory bricks
93. Kel-F is
a. nothing but polycholorotrifluroethylene
b. having excellent chemical and high temperature resistance (up to 200C)
c. an elastomer
d. all (a), (b) and (c)
94. Zircaloy used as a fuel cladding material in a nuclear reactor (thermal) is an alloy
of zirconium
a. tin, nickel, iron and chromium b. and graphite
c. and copper
d. none of these
95. Which of the following would not be a suitable material of construction for handling
aqueous hydrofluoric acid (HF) at 100C?
a. none
b. stainless steel
c. graphite
d. Kel-F and Teflon
96. Specify the materials of construction suitable for handling concentrated HNO3 at
100C.
a. high silicon iron, Kel-F and Teflon
b. silicon rubber
c. tin and wood
d. stainless steel
97. Concentrated HCl at 30C can be stored in a vessel made of
a
a. PTFE and porcelain
b. cast iron and aluminum
c. stainless steel and high silicon cast iron
d. copper, nickel and monel
98. Which of the following material of construction may be recommended by a
chemical engineer for handling a gaseous chlorine (dry or wet) stream in a fluid flow
system?
a. High silicon iron, silicone rubber, Kel-F and teflon
b. Mild steel and stainless steel
c. Cast iron, tin and aluminum
d. Copper, nickel and monel
99. Which of the following materials may prove unsuitable for handling acetic (glacial
and anhydrous) at 40C?
a. silicone rubber, teflon, porcelain and wood
b. nickel, monel, stainless steel and graphite
c. aluminum, copper, high silicon iron
d. brass, cast iron, mild steel and tin
100. 100% H2SO4 at 30C can't be used and stored in a vessel made/ lined with
a. cast iron and high silicon iron
b. mild steel and stainless steel
c. aluminum, tin and rubber
d. teflon, glass and porcelain
ENGINEERING ECONOMY
1. The following cost item which in common both the fixed and operating cost of an
enterprise is:
a. interest
b. depreciation
c. taxes
d. supplies
2. The length of time, usually in years for the cumulative net annual profit to equal the
investment is called:
a. receivable turnover
b. return of investment
c. price earning ratio
d. payback period
3. The reduction in value and marketability due to competition from newest products /
model
a. depreciated cost
b. fixed cost
c. indirect cost
d. obsolescence
4. Form of summary of assets, liabilities and net worth
a. production
b. break even point
c. balance method
d. balance sheet
5. The worth of property which is equal to the original cost less depreciation.
a. earning value
b. scrap value
c. book value
d. face value
6. The type of interest that is periodically added to the amount of loan so that
subsequent interest is based on the cumulative amount.
a. compound interest
b. simple interest
c. interest rate
d. sinking fund
7. Output or sales at which income is insufficient to equal operating cost
a. break even point
b. investment
c. depreciation
d. cash flow
8. The price at which a given product will be supplied and purchased is the price that
will result in the supply and the demand being equal.
a. law of demand and supply b. law of diminishing returns
c. present worth method
d. obsolescence
9. An estimate of an assets' net market value at the end of its estimated life.
a. break even point
b. cash flow
c. interest
d. book value
10. An estimate of an assets' net market value at the end if its estimated life.
a. book value
c. salvage value
c. depreciation
d. cash flow
11. A lessening of the value of an asset due to a decrease in the quantity available as a
coal, oil and timber in forests.
a. depletion
b. depreciation
c. amortization
d. investment
12. A certificate of indebtedness of a corporation usually for a period of net loss that ten
years and guaranteed by a mortgage on certain assets of the corporation or its
subsidiaries.
a. appraisal
b. bond
c. written contract
d. equity capital
13. Funds supplied and used by owners of an enterprise in the expectation that profit will
be earned.
a. equity capital
b. investment
c. working capital
d. present
14. Funds supplied by others on which a fixed rate of interest must be paid and the debt
be repaid at a specific place and time
a. discount
b. cash flow
c. working capital
d. borrowed capital
15. The quantity of a certain commodity that is offered for sale at a certain price at a
given place and time
a. supply
b. demand
c. discount
d. investment
16. The quantity of a certain commodity that is bought at a certain price at a given place
and time.
a. supply
b. demand
c. discount
d. investment
17. A condition where only few individuals produce a certain product that action of one
will lead to almost the same action by the other.
a. monopoly
b. oligopoly
c. semi monopoly
d. perfect competition
18. Is the simplest form of business organization
a. sole proprietorship
b. enterprise
c. partnership
d. corporation
19. An association of two or more persons for a purpose of engaging in a profitable
business
a. sole proprietorship
b. enterprise
c. partnership
d. corporation
20. A distinct legal entity which can practically transact any business transaction which a
real person could do.
a. sole proprietorship
b. enterprise
c. partnership
d. corporation
21. An increase in the value of capital asset is called
a. profit
b. capital gain
c. capital expenditure
d. capital stock
22. The reduction in the money value of a capital asset is called
a. capital expenditure
b. capital loss
c. loss
d. deficit
23. The difference between sales revenue and the cost of goods sold
a. net income
b. gross profit
c. rate of return
d. gross national product
24. A currency traded in a foreign exchange market for which the demand is consistently
high in relation to its supply
a. money market
b. hard currency
c. treasury bill
d. certificate of deposit
25. Defined as the certificate of indebtedness of a corporation usually for a period not less
than 10 years and guaranteed by a mortgage on certain assets of a corporation
a. bonds
b. T-bills
c. stock
d. all of these
26. It is a negotiable claim issued by a bank in lieu of a term deposit
a. time deposit
b. bond
c. capital gain
d. certificate of deposit
27. The amount of a company's profit that the board of directors of the corporation
decides to distribute to ordinary shareholders
a. dividend
b. return
c. share stock
d. par value
28. a document that shows proof of legal ownership of a financial security
a. bond
b. bank note
c. coupon
d. check
29. The process determining the value of certain properties for definite reasons
a. valuation
b. appraisal
c. estimate
d. both a and b
30. Represent ownership and enjoys certain preferences than ordinary stock
a. authorized capital stock
b. preferred stock
c. common stock
d. incorporators stock
31. It is the difference between present worth and the worth of the paper at some time in
the future
a. discount
b. amortization
c. depletion
d. investment
32. The value which is usually determined by the disinterested third party in order to
establish a price that is fair to both seller and buyer.
a. fair value
b. market value
c. salvage value
d. book value
33. The price that can be obtained from the sale of property or second hand
a. book value
b. salvage value
c. fair value
d. market value
34. The process of determining the value of certain property for specific reasons
a. amortization
b. appraisal
c. investment
d. depreciation
35. A bond whereby the security behind it are the equipments of the issuing corporation
a. debenture bond
b. lien bond
c. collateral bond
d. mortgage bond
36. An annuity where the payment period extends forever or in which the periodic
payment continue indefinitely.
a. ordinary annuity
b. deferred annuity
c. annuity due
d. perpetuity
37. It is the span of life of an equipment during which it produces the product it is
designed to produce at a profit
a. write off period
b. physical life
c. economic life
d. perpetual life
38. It is a depreciation method whereby the decrease in value of the unit is constant each
year
a. Matheson formula
b. Straight line method
c. SYD method
d. Sinking fund method
39. It is a distinct legal entity separate from the individual who own it and which can
engage in practically any business transaction which a real person can do.
a. sole proprietorship
b. partnership
c. corporation
d. all of the above
40. These are costs which remain relatively constant regardless of any change in
operation or policy which is made.
a. fixed cost
b. increment cost
c. variable cost
d. differential cost
41. The length of time at which the original cost of capital used to purchase a unit have
already been recovered.
a. economic life
b. write off period
c. physical life
d. salvage life
42. The actual interest earned by a given principal is known as:
a. compound interest
b. nominal interest
c. simple interest
d. effective interest
43. The exclusive right of a company to provide a specific product / services in a given
region of the country.
a. franchise
b. branch
c. extension
d. outlet
44. It occurs when a commodity or service is supplied by a number of vendors and there
is nothing to prevent additional vendors entering the market
a. free market
b. perfect competition
c. open market
d. law of supply and demand
45. In making economy studies, a minimum required profit on the invested capital is
included as a cost.
a. rate of return
b. annual cost pattern
c. present worth pattern
d. capital cost
46. Depreciation method where the value of an asset decreases at a decreasing rate.
a. SYD method
b. sinking fund
c. straight line method
d. declining balance
47. Cost of things that are neither labor nor materials
a. construction cost
b. expenses
c. labor cost
d. investment
48. Kind of obligation which has no condition attached
a. analytic
b. gratuitous
c. private
d. pure
49. Gross, profit, sales less cost of goods sold as a percentage of sale is called
a. profit margin
b. gross margin
c. ROI (rate of return)
d. price earnings
50. The series of equal payments at equal intervals of time
a. interest
b. depreciation
c. annuity
d. amortization
51. A legally binding agreement on promise to exchange goods or services
a. contract
b. barter
c. memorandum
d. pro-forma
52. An index of short term paying ability is called
a. current ratio
b. receivable turnover
c. acid test ratio
d. profit margin ratio
53. Used to produce consumer goods
a. producer goods
b. supply
c. consumer goods
d. cash flow
54. It is a series of equal payments occurring at equal interval of time where the first
payment is made several periods after the beginning of the payment
a. deferred annuity
b. delayed annuity
c. progressive annuity
d. simple annuity
55. A market whereby there is only one buyer of an item for which there are no goods
substitute
a. monopoly
b. monopsony
c. oligopoly
d. oligopsony
56. The amount of a property in which a willing buyer will pay to a willing seller for the
property when neither one is under the compulsion to buy or sell
a. fair value
b. goodwill value
c. book value
d. market value
57. A type of annuity where the payments are made at the start of each period, beginning
from the first period
a. ordinary annuity
b. annuity due
c. deferred annuity
d. perpetuity
58. A method of computing depreciation in which the annual charge is a fixed percentage
of the depreciated book value at the beginning of the year to which the depreciation
applies
a. straight line
b. sinking fund method
c. SYD method
d. declining balance method
59. The cumulative effect of elapsed time on the money value of an event based on the
earning power of equivalent invested funds capital should or will earn
a. present worth factor
b. interest rate
c. time value of money
d. yield
60. Double taxation is a disadvantage of which business organization?
a. sole proprietorship
b. partnership
c. corporation
d. enterprise
61. The function of interest rate and time that determines the cumulative amount of a
sinking fund resulting from specific periodic deposits
a. sinking fund factor
b. present worth factor
c. capacity factor
d. demand factor
62. The intangible item of value from the exclusive right of the company to provide a
specific product or service in a stated region of the country
a. market value
b. book value
c. goodwill value
d. franchise value
63. The length of time during which it is capable of performing the function for which it
was designed and manufactured.
a. economic life
b. business life
c. insular life
d. physical life
64. Products that are directly used by people to satisfy their wants.
a. supply
b. consumer goods
c. producer goods
d. cash flows
65. A change in cost for a small change in volume of production.
a. fixed cost
b. sunk cost
c. first cost
d. differential cost
66. An amount which has been spent and for some reasons cannot be recovered.
a. sunk cost
b. first cost
c. increment
d. fixed cost
67. The difference between the book value and the actual lower resale value is
a. salvage value
b. resale value
c. sunk cost
d. fixed cost
68. It occurs when a unique product or service is available only from a single supplier
and entry of all other possible suppliers presented.
a. competition
b. monopoly
c. inventory
d. profitability
69. A place where buyer and seller come together
a. market
b. shop
c. department store
d. parlor
70. Ratio of annual net profit and the capital invested
a. proportion
b. rate of return
c. load factor
d. use factor
71. The price of which a willing buyer will pay to a willing seller for a commodity
a. resale value
b. market value
c. book value
d. scrap value
72. The price of property when sold for a junk
a. scrap value
b. book value
c. resale value
d. market value
73. An interest earning fund in which equal deposits are made at equal intervals of time
a. annuity
b. sinking fund
c. interest
d. investment
74. A term describing wealth which is placed in a business and could include cash
equipment, raw materials and finished products
a. capital
b. investment
c. collateral
d. assets
75. The first cost of any property includes
a. the original purchase price and freight and transportation charges
b. installation expenses
c. initial taxes and permits' fee
d. all of the above
ANALYTICAL CHEMISTRY
1. The hydrogen or deuterium discharge tube can be used as a source of continuous
ultraviolet radiation for spectrophotometers because of
a. the characteristics of chopper-modulated radiation
b. pressure broadening of hydrogen or deuterium emission lines
c. the great sensitivity of photomultiplier tube
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
B
A
ml of EDTA solution
a.
b.
c.
d.
d. they can be operated at temperatures closer to the boiling point of the stationary
liquid phase than can packed columns and thus handle less volatile examples
12. Raising the column temperature in GLC decreases solute retention times primarily
because
a. solute diffusion coefficients in the liquid phase decrease with increasing
temperature
b. van der Waals interactions between solutes and stationary phase are stronger at
higher temperatures
c. gases are generally less soluble in liquids at higher temperatures
d. detector sensitivity is a function of temperature, especially with a thermal
conductivity cell
13. Which of the following would have practically no effect upon the retention volume of
a solute in GLC?
a. changing the carrier-gas flow-rate
b. increasing the stationary liquid loading of the column packing from 5 to 10% by
weight
c. increasing the column temperature
d. changing the chemical nature of the stationary liquid
14. The separation factor, S, in chromatography depends upon
a. the length of the column
b. the square root of the length of the column
c. the nature of the stationary liquid phase
d. the number of theoretical plates in the column
15. In GLC, interaction of solutes with the solid support will often cause
a. unusually narrow elution bands
b. asymmetric elution band
c. excessive eddy diffusion
d. decreased detector sensitivity
16. Increasing the quantity of stationary liquid phase applied to the column packing will,
with everything else the same,
a. increase tR for a solute
b. decrease tR for a solute
c. not influence tR for a solute
d. decrease the nonequilibrium term in the van Deemer equation
17. A neutral molecule such as ethanol or sugar which has found its way into the pores of
a typical anion-exchange resin can be eliminated
a. only by replacement with a cation
b. only by replacement with an anion
c. only if replaced by another organic molecule on a one-for-one exchange basis
d. by flushing out the water
18. In chromatography, a substance for which the distribution coefficient, K, is zero may
be used to estimate
a. the volume within the column available to the moving phase
b. the volume within the column occupied by the packing
c. the volume within the pores of the packing material
d. power to the motor drive of the scanning monochromator on the emission side of
the instrument
26. In flame spectroscopy, the highest temperature fuel oxidant combination available as
yet is
a. hydrogen-oxygen
b. hydrogen-nitrous oxide
c. acetylene-oxygen
d. acetylene-nitrous oxide
27. If the change in a molecule caused by absorption of light energy involves change in
the average separation of the nuclei of two or more atoms, then the change is
a. electronic
b. vibrational
c. translational
d. rotational
28. The nephelometric method of analysis is based upon
a. Beer's law
b. Fajar's law
c. Bouger law's
d. Beer Lambert's Law
29. IR spectro-photometers have practically the same basic components as visible and
UV spectro-photometers. In which of the following basic components could the
devices be used interchangeable in both:
a. sources of radiant energy
b. optical system
c. sample holders
d. detectors
30. Which of the following may not be used in the determination of sugars?
a. TLC chromatography
b. Polarimetry
c. Copper reduction methods
d. Lane and Eynon methods
31. Which is not the recommended device for a filter photometry?
a. hydrogen arc lamp
b. glass filter
c. barrier layer photocell
d. none of these
32. This law states that the amount of light absorbed or transmitted by a solution is an
experimental function of the concentration of absorbing substance present and the
sample path length
a. Bouger's Law
b. Beer's Law
c. Lambert's Law
d. Bouger-Beer Law
33. Deviation's from Beer's Law may be due to
a. instrumental
b. intermolecular reactions
c. formation of complexions with varying number of ligonds
d. all of these
34. IR spectrophotometers have the same basic components as UV spectrophotometers,
except:
a. source of radiant energy and the kind of detectors
b. materials used in the optical system
c. materials used in the sample cells
d. all of these
35. Which of the following involves emission of radiation by excited atoms:
a. Ultra-violet spectrophotometry
b. Infra-red spectrophotometry
c. Atomic absorption spectrometry
d. Nephelopmetry
36. The absorption of a solution of a particular substance does not depend on the :
a. wavelength of the incident light
b. intensity of the incident light
c. concentration of the substance
d. thickness of the sample cell
37. If we compare flame spectrophotometry and emission spectroscopy, which of the
following statements will be true?
a. Flame photometry is more senstive than emission spectroscopy
b. Flame photometry can analyze more metals than emission spectroscopy
c. Flame photometry is less sensitive to the matrix than emission spectroscopy
d. Flame photometry is simpler to use than emission spectroscopy
38. Atomic absorption spectrophotometry (AAS) differs from visible absorption
spectrophotometry because AAS
a. has no light source
b. does not need a monochromator
c. does not follow Beer's Law
d. destroys the sample when a reading is made
39. Gas chromatography does not use this detector
a. thermal conductivity detector
b. refractive index detector
c. flame ionization detector
d. electron capture detector
40. In gas chromatography, the retention time is not dependent on
a. carrier gas velocity
b. column temperature
c. volume of compound analyzed
d. volatility of compound analyzed
PHYSICAL CHEMISTRY
6.
7.
8.
a. Cl2
b. HCl
c. LiCl
d. H2
e. CH4
Gaseous mixtures ________________.
a. can only contain molecules
b. are all heterogeneous
c. can only contain isolated atoms
d. are all homogenous
e. must contain both isolated atoms and molecules
Which one of the following is NOT true about the unit Pascal (pa)?
a. 1 Pa = 1 N/m2
b. The Pa is the SI unit for pressure
c. 1 atm = 101.325 kPa
d. 1 Pa = 100 torr
e. The Pa is the Si unit for force
The first person to investigate the relationship between the pressure of a gas ad its
volume was ________________.
a. Amadeo Avogadro
b. Lord Kelvin
c. Jacques Charles
d. Robert Boyle
e. Joseph Louis Gay-Lussac
Of the following, ____________ is a correct statement of Boyles law.
a. PV = constant
b. P = constant
V
c. V = constant
P
d. V = constant
T
e. n = constant
P
9. Of the following, ______________ is a valid statement of Charles law.
a. P = constant
T
b. V = constant
T
c. PV = constant
d. V = constant x n
e. V = constant x P
10. Which one of the following is a valid statement of Avogadros law?
a. P = constant
T
b. V = constant
T
c. PV = constant
d. V = constant x n
e. V = constant x P
11. The volume of an ideal gas is zero at _________.
a. 0C
b. -45F
c. -273K
d. -363K
e. -273C
12. Of the following, only _________ is impossible for an ideal gas.
a. V1 = V2
T1 T2
b. V1T1 = V2T2
c. V1 = T1
V2 T2
d. V2 = T2 ( V1)
T1
e. V1 = T1 = 0
V2 T2
13. The molar volume of a gas at STP is _____L.
a. 0.08206
b. 62.36
c. 1.00
d. 22.4
e. 14.7
21. The statement, For a fixed mass of gas at constant temperature, gas volume is
inversely proportional to gas pressure. Is known as:
a. Avogadros law b. Boyles law c. Charles lawd. Grahams law
e. Kelvins
law
22. If gas volume is doubled but the temperature remains constant:
a. the pressure stays the same
b. the molecules move faster
c. the kinetic energy increases
d. the molecules move slower
e. none of these answers
23. Subtracting the vapor pressure of water from the total pressure of a gas collected over
water is an example:
a. Avogadros Hypothesis
b. Daltons law
c. Grahams law
d. van der Waals Theory
e. ideal gas law
24. The energy of molecules of a gas:
a. is dependent on concentration
b. is distributed over a wide range at constant temperature
c. is the same for all molecules at constant temperature
d. increases with a decrease in temperature
e. increases with an increase in pressure
25. Which of the following assumptions is not used to explain the ideal gas law?
a. gas particles themselves occupy a negligible percent of total gas volume
b. inter-particle forces are negligible in gases
c. collisions between gas particles are perfectly elastic
d. collisions between gas particles and container walls are perfectly elastic
e. individual gas particles are perfectly compressible to nuclear size
26. If someone were to light a cigar at one end of a closed room, persons at the other end
of the room might soon perceive an odor due to gaseous emissions from the cigar.
Such a phenomenon is an example of:
a. monometry
b. ideality
c. effusion
d. diffusion
e. barometry
27. The fact that a balloon filled with helium will leak more slowly than one filled with
hydrogen is explained by citing:
a. Avogadros hypothesis b. Daltons law
c. Grahams law
d. van der
Waals Theory
e. ideal gas law
28. Gases tend to behave ideally at
a. low temperature and low pressure
b. low temperature and high pressure
c. high temperature and low pressure
d. high temperature and high pressure
e. gases always behave ideally
29. Assuming ideal gas behavior, which of the following gases would have the lowest
density at standard temperature and pressure?
a. SF6
b. CF2Cl2
c. CO2
d. N2
e. Kr
30. Of the following gases, the one with the greatest density at STP is:
a. CH4
b. NH3
c. Ne
d. H2
e. He
31. The phenomenon in which a steel needle can, with proper care, be made to float on
the surface of some water illustrates a property of liquid known as:
a. compressibility b. polarizability
c. surface tension
d. triple point
e. viscosity
32. The property of liquid that measures its resistance to flow is called:
a. capillarity
b. polarizability
c. resistivity
d. viscosity
e. wetability
33. A liquid will wet a surface if:
a. the liquid has a lesser density than the surface
b. the forces between the liquid molecules are weak
c. the liquid has a low vapor pressure
d. the forces between the molecules and the surface are greater than the forces
between the molecules of the liquid
e. none of these answers
34. Which of the following statements concerning molecules in the liquid state is true?
a. Cohesive forces are not important
b. The molecules contract to fit the size of the container
c. The molecules have no motion
d. The molecules in a patterned (oriented) arrangement
e. The molecules are mobile and relatively close together
35. The temperature ate which the vapor pressure of a liquid equals the external pressure
is called the :
a. boiling point b. critical point
c. melting point
d.
sublimation point
e. thermal point
36. Liquid and vapor phases of a substance become indistinguishable at the:
a. triple point
b. normal point
c. permanent point
d. critical point
e. absolute point
37. When a liquid is in dynamic equilibrium with its vapor at a given temperature, the
following conditions could exist:
(I)
There is no transfer of molecules between liquid and vapor
(II)
The vapor pressure has a unique value
(III) The opposing processes, (liquid to vapor) and (vapor to liquid), proceed at
equal rates
(IV) The concentration of vapor is dependent on time
Which of the above choices are applicable?
a. I
b. II and III c. I, II, and III
d. II and IV
e. none of these combination
38. Which of the following does NOT describe the critical point of a liquid?
a. The temperature and pressure at which a liquids meniscus disappears
b. The point where the vapor pressure curve intersects the fusion temperature
c. The highest temperature at which a liquid can exist
d. The temperature and pressure at which a liquid and its vapor are identical
e. The highest temperature at which it is possible to obtain a liquid form its vapor by
increasing pressure
39. A container holds a small amount of liquid and its vapor in equilibrium If the volume
of the container is decreased, which of the following has occurred once equilibrium is
reestablished?
a. the temperature is lower
b. the temperature is higher
c. the
pressure is higher
d. the pressure is lower
e. none of these
40. When the vapor pressure of a liquid equals atmospheric pressure, the temperature of
the liquid equals:
a. 100C
b. boiling point
c. the normal boiling point
d. the vaporization point
e. none of these
41. When a liquid is in equilibrium with its vapor in a closed container:
a. The rate at which molecules from the liquid phase enter the gas phase exactly
equals the rate at which molecules from the gas phase pass into the liquid
phase
b. A change in temperature will not change the pressure in the container
c. The amount of gas in the container must exactly equal the amount of liquid
d. Molecules cannot go from the liquid phase to the gas phase because the amount of
liquid in the container is constant
e. The vapor will gradually change back to the liquid state, that is, no vapor will be
left
42. Under which of the following conditions will vaporization best occur?
a. high mass, large surface area, high kinetic energy
b. weak forces between molecules, high kinetic energy, large surface area
c. high molecular energy, small surface area
d. low kinetic energy, strong molecular forces, large surface area
e. small surface area, low kinetic energy, low molecular mass
43. Which of the following does NOT decrease rate of vaporization?
a. closing container lid
b. increasing forces between molecules
c.
increasing mass of molecule
d. decreasing temperature e. decreasing surface area
44. Which of the following factors does NOT affect the normal boiling point of a liquid?
a. atmospheric pressure b. strength of forces between molecules
c. rate
of evaporation
d. rate of condensation e. none of these answers
45. A liquid is in equilibrium with its vapor. If some of the vapor is allowed to escape,
what is the immediate result?
a. condensation rate decreases b. vaporization rate increases
c.
condensation rate increases
d. vaporization rate decreases
e. none of these
46. The phenomenon of supercooling refers to the existence of a metastable:
a. the liquid at a temperature below that of its critical point
b. liquid at a temperature below that of its sublimation point
c. liquid at a temperature below that of its freezing point
d. gas at a temperature below that of its critical point
e. two-phase liquid/solid mixture at the freezing point
a.
b.
c.
d.
The number of valence electrons is less than the number nearest neighbors
The number of valence electrons is greater than the number of nearest neighbors
The number of valence electrons is equal to the number of nearest neighbors
The number of valence electrons can be less than, greater than, or equal to the
number of nearest neighbors
55. All of the following are consequences of the theory of the structure of metals
EXCEPT
a. Metals conduct electricity
b. Metals are malleable
c. Metals are ductile
d. Metals break easily when they are bent
56. Which of the following is the reason that metals conduct electricity?
a. The metal atoms are close together
b. There are no empty spaces in metal structures
c. Electrons in the structure can move freely
d. Electrons and protons in the structure can move freely
57. Which of the following is the reason why salt stay bonded in the solid state?
a. There are strong covalent bonds between the ions
b. The structure consists of salt molecules tat bind tightly to other salt molecules
c. They are held together by electrostatic attractions and the structure includes no
electrostatic repulsions
d. There are both electrostatic attractions and repulsions within the structure
but the total of the attractions is greater
58. All of the following are possible crystal defects EXCEPT
a. An atom or ion out of its regular position and occupying a normally empty hole
b. A crystal in which he only defect is one pair of ions of the same charge which
are missing
c. An electron occupying a site that is normally occupied by a 1 anion
d. A crystal containing some ion sites empty and some ions not bearing the expected
charge
59. Which of the following is the most important explanation for the conductivity of
metals?
a. they are almost all solids
b. their coordination numbers are high
c. Their numbers of valence electrons are high d. Their densities are high
60. Which of the following pairs is isoelectronic?
a. AIS and P
b. GeAs and Se
c. GeAs and GaSe
d. Al and SiP
61. Which of the following is always the same for allotropes of the same element?
a. The atomic mass
b. the molar mass
c. the structured. the
chemical and physical properties
62. The semiconductor crystalline Si has a low electrical conductivity in the dark because
a. crystalline Si is a molecular solid
b. the band gap energy is much greater than 3RT at 23C
c. the chemical bonding in the crystal is strong in all three dimensions
d. Si has fewer valence electrons that elements that form metallic solids
78. The conditions --- a b c, alpha= beta =gamma = 90 --- describe the _________
unit cell.
a. tetragonal
b. orthorhombic
c. monoclinic
d. hexagonal
e. trigonal
79. The conditions --- a b c, alpha = gamma = 90, 90--- describe the _______
unit cell
a. tetragonal
b. orthorhombic
c. monoclinic d. hexagonal e.
trigonal
80. The number of lattice points in the unit cell for the body-centered cubic lattice is
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
e. 8
81. For a face-centered cubic unit cell, each corner contributes _____ lattice points to the
unit cell
a. 1/8
b.
c.
d. 1
e. none of these
82. In a face-centered cubic lattice, each lattice, each lattice point located in a face of the
unit cell is shared equally with ___ other unit cell
a. 1
b. 3
c. 5
d. 7
e. none of
these
83. A metal crystallizes in a body-centered cubic lattice. Which of the following correctly
relates the atomic radius r of the metal to the length of an edge a of the unit cell?
a. r = a
b. r = a2
c. r = a3
2
4
4
98. In diamond, each carbon is covalently bonded to ________ other carbon atoms
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 6
e. 8
99. The most stable form of sulfur at room temperature is
a. gaseous atoms b. long chains of sulfur atoms c. S4 tetrahedral
d. S2 molecules with double bonds
e. S8 rings
100. Which element in group V does not form a solid with each atom bonded to three
others?
a. As
b. Bi
c. N
d. P
e. Sb
101. Which of the following forms a layered structure?
a. graphite
b. white tin
c. sulfur
d. red phosphorous
e. all of these
102. Which of the following forms a solid with the diamond structure?
a. sulfur
b. white tin
c. red phosphorous
d. sodium
e. gray tin
103. The crystal defect in which an atom or ion is displaced from its regular position in
the lattice to an interstitial site is called a(n)
a. Schottky defect b. Frenkel defect
c. F-center
d. site defect
e. berthollide
104. Irradiation of NaCl with ultraviolet light can cause
a. chloride ions to lose electrons to the crystalline lattice
b. formation of an F-center
c. formation of a nonstoichiometric crystal
d. all of these
e. none of these
105. In a plastic crystal,
a. the molecules tumble before the lattice s disrupted
b. the lattice is disrupted before the molecules begin to tumble
c. the molecules are rod-like
d. all of these
e. none of these
106. The rate constant of a reaction depends upon
a. initial concentration of reactants
b. extent of reaction
c. temperature
d. time of reaction
107. Which of the following factors does not influence the rate of a reaction?
a. Concentration of reactants
b. Nature of reactants
c. Molecularity of the reaction
d. Temperature
108. The mechanism of a reaction can sometimes be reduced from
a. the temperature dependence of the rate
b. the rate law
c. the net equation
d. the activation energy
109.
a.
b.
c.
d.
110.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Answer the following questions 111-113 with the help of the hypothetical reaction
and its rate law
3A(g) + B(g) +2C(g) D(g) + 2E(g)
Rate of formation of D = k[A] [B]2
111. Doubling of the concentration of A increases the rate of reaction by a factor of
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 9
112. Doubling of the concentration of B increases the rate of the reaction by a factor of
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 9
113. If the volume of the container is suddenly reduced to one-half its original volume
the rate will increase by a factor of
a. 2
b. 4
c. 8
d. 16
114. The value of k, the specific rate constant, may be increased by
a. decreasing the concentration of D
b. increasing the concentration of A
c. increasing the concentration of C
d. increasing the temperature
115. What effect does an increase in temperature of 10C have on the rate of the
reaction?
a. Halved
b. Multiplied by 1.5
c. Doubled
d. Tripled
116. Which of the following is the best explanation for the effect of increase in
temperature on the rate of the reaction?
a. It increases the number of particles with the necessary activation of energy
b. It enables the reacting particles with the necessary activation energy
c. It lowers the activation energy for the reaction
d. It enables the activated complex to be more easily converted to the products
117. The reactions of high molecularity are rare because
a. activation energy of many body collisions is very high
b. many body collisions have low probability
c. many body collisions are not favoured energetically
d. none of the above statement is true
118. At 25C , the half life for the decomposition of N2O5 is 5.7 hours, and is
dependent of the initial pressure of N2O5 the specific rate constant is
a. ln 2
b. (1/5.7)hr-1
c. (ln2/5.7)-1hr-1
d. (ln2/5.7)hr
119. If the rate of reaction is independent of the concentration of the reactant, the
reaction is of
a. zero order
b. first order
c. second order
d. third order
120. Who among the following gave the law of photochemical equivalence?
a. Drapper
b. Einstein
c. Grotthus
d. Lambert
121. The energy of electromagnetic radiation depends on
a. its amplitude
b. its frequency
c. its wave length
d. none of the above
122. What term is used to define the phenomenon of emission of light in a chemical
reaction?
a. Chemical luminescence
b. Photosensitization
c. Both chemical luminescence and photosensitization
d. None of the above
123. Raman spectra may be obtained in
a. IR and Visible region
b. Visible region only
c. IR and micro wave region
d. UV and visible region
124. ESR spectra mainly helps in study of
a. compounds having hydrogen
b. compounds having carbons
c. free radicals
d. ionic compounds
125. Which one of the following rate laws has an overall order of 0.5 for the reactions
involving substances X, Y, Z.?
a. Rate = k(Cx) (Cy) (Cz)
b. Rate = k (Cx)0.5 (Cy) 0.5 (Cz)0.5
c. Rate = k (Cx)1.5 (Cy) 1 (Cz)0
d. Rate = k (Cx) (Cz)0/(Cy)2
126. Chemical reaction rates in solution do not depend to any great extent upon
a. pressure
b. temperature
c. concentration
d. catalyst
127. Which of the following might be used as an electrode?
a. A stick
b. A nail
c. A glass rod
d. A soda straw
128. The e.m.f. value for oxidation from H2 at 1.0 atm to H+ at 1.0 x 10-1 M is
a. 0.00V
b. 0.059V
c. 0.059V
d. 0.030V
129. A good reducing agent
a. will always react rapidly
b. has a negative oxidation potential
c. is readily oxidized
d. shows a negative oxidation number
130. A Faraday of electricity is
a. one ampere per second
b. 96,500 coulombs per second
c. 6.02 x 1023 electrons per second
d. 6.02 x 1023 electronic charges
131. When aqueous HCl is electrolyzed
a. chlorine gas is produced at the anode
b. hydrogen gas is produced at the anode
c. oxygen gas is produced at the anode
d. oxygen gas is produced at the cathode
132. The number of electrons necessary to produce 1.00gm of Cu from Cu2+ at the
cathode of an electrolytic cell is
a. 1.89 x 1022
b. 3.04 x 103
c. 9.47 x 1021
d. 1.91 x 1025
133. A possible advantage to using the half reaction method for balancing oxidationreduction equation is
a. electrons need not be balanced
b. oxidation numbers are not assigned
c. charges are not balanced
d. atoms need not be balanced
134. In a galvanic cell the cathode
a. is always made of copper
b. is always made of zinc
c. may be made of an inert metal
d. always attracts negative ions in the solution
135. Hydrogen ions are more readily reduced than
a. Ag+
b. Cu++
c. Cl2
d. Zn++
136. Not all galvanic cells contain
a. a cathode
b. an anode
c. a porous partition
d. ions
137. When a cell of a lead storage battery is being charged, it is
a. a galvanic cell
b. an electrolytic cell
c. a Daniel cell
d. a dry cell
138. A current of 9.65 ampere is drawn from a Daniel cell for exactly 1 hour. The loss
of mass of anode is
a. 0.180g
b. 23.6g
c. 0.197g
d. 11.8g
139. The following reaction does not occur spontaneously (all ions at 1m
concentration; all gases at 1 atmosphere pressure)
a. 2Cr(s) + 3Cl2(g) 2 Cr+3 + 6 Clb. NO3- + 2 H+ + Ag(s) Ag+ + H2O + NO2(g)
c. NO3- + 4 H+ + 3 Ag(s) 3 Ag+ + NO(g) +2H2O
d. Cl2(g) + 2 Br- 2 Cl- + Br2
140. If 0.200 liter of 0.100 M NaCl are electrolyzed until the OH - concentration is
0.0500M, how many moles of Cl2 gas are produced?
a. 5.00 x 10-3mole
b. 1.00 x 10-2mole
c. 5.00 x 10-2mole
c. 1.00 x 10-1mole
141. As the lead storage battery is charged,
a. the amount of sulfuric acid decreases
b. the lead electrode becomes coated with lead sulfate
c. sulfuric acid is regenerated
d. lead dioxide dissolves
142. If an aqueous solution of KI is electrolyzed (with platinum electrodes) one would
expect to find
a. potassium deposited at the cathode
b. oxygen liberated at the anode
c. the solution around the cathode becoming alkaline
d. the solution around the anode becoming brown
143. When an aqueous solution of NaCl is electrolyzed, a product formed at the
cathode is
a. Na
b. H+
c. OH
d. Cl2
144. If aqueous Cu SO4 is electrolyzed for one minute with a current of 2.00 ampere,
the volume of ozygen produced at STP at the anode is
a. 3.10 x 10-4 liter
b. 6.96ml
c. 1.16 x 10-4 liter
d. 1.16 ml
147. Which of the following instruments makes use of the standard electrode potentials
and the variation of electrode potential with concentration?
a. Polarimeter
b. pH meter
c. Electrophorous
d. Electrophotometer
148. The series in which the electrode potentials of metals are arranged in an order is
known as:
a. electrical conductivity series
b. electrode potential series
c. electrochemical series
d. chemical affinity series
d. Cd (NO3)2
29.5g
17.5g
b.
108g
59g
52.0g
c.
108g
108g
108g
d.
108g
117.5g
166g
154.
a.
Fe++ + 2e Fe
-0.440V
Fe+++ + 3e Fe
-0.036V
0.78V
when both the half cells (a) and (b) are connected with SHE, the metallic
electrode Co is found to be ve and Hg electrode is found to be +ve. The correct sign
for the electrode potentials will be:
a. +ve for half cell (I)
b. +ve for half cell (ii)
c. ve for half cell (ii)
156. When an iron wire is immersed in an acidic solution of CuSo4, the blue color of
the solution is lost after some time. This is due to
a. reduction of Cu++
b. oxidation of CuSO4
c. formation of double complex between iron and copper sulfate
d. formation of a colorless salt of Cu++
157. Magnesium cannot displace from solution the ions of
a. sodium
b. lead
c. copper
d. gold
b. C = F-P+2
c. C = F-P+1
d. P = C+F+2
159. The homogenous physically distinct and mechanically separable parts of the
heterogeneous system in equilibrium are called
a. phases
b. components
c. degrees of freedom
b. 1
c. 2
d. 3
b. 1
c. 2
d. 3
162. How many phases will be there in the system made of water and methyl alcohol?
a. 3
b. 1
c. 1
d. 0
163. How many components are necessary to define the following equilibrium?
CaCO3
Solid
CaO + CO2
solid
gas
a. 0
b. 1
c. 2
d. 3
b. 1
c. 2
d. 3
peritectic temperature
meritectic temperature
transition temperature
all of the above
ALGEBRA
1.
2.
The sum of two numbers is 11. The sum of their reciprocals is 11/30. Find the smaller number.
a. 6
b. 5
c. 2
d. 3
The sum of the squares of two numbers is 58 and the difference of their squares is 40. Find the larger
no.
a. 7
b. -7
c. 3
d. 3
3. Find the smallest positive integer, which leaves a remainder of 2 when divided by 4, 6 and 8.
b. 50
c. 26
d. 74
a. 98
4. The sum of two numbers is 4 and their product is 2. Find the sum of their reciprocals.
a.
b.
c. 2
d. 4
5.
A number has two digits whose sum is 10. The difference between the original number and the number
resulting from an
interchange of its digit is 54. What is the original number?
a. 45
b. 54
c. 28
d. 82
6.
A number is less than 100, and its tens digit is four more than its units digit. If the number with the
digits reversed is
subtracted from the original number, the remainder is three times the sum of the digits. Find the
original number.
a. 84
b. 48
c. 26
d. 62
7. A fathers age is now five times that of his first-born son. Six years from now, the old mans age will be
only three times that
of his son. Find the sons present age.
a. 12
b. 30
c. 6
d. 36
8.
A mother is now three times as old as her daughter. In 4 years, the mother will be four times as old as
the daughter was, two
years ago. How old is the daughter?
a. 36
b. 12
c. 20
d. 60
9.
If the altitude and the base of a triangle were each increased by 2 cm, the area would increase by 19
cm2. If the altitude is
increased by 3 cm and the base is decreased by 4 cm, the area will be decreased by 5 cm2. Find the
base of the triangle.
a. 7
b. 10
c. 9
d. 8
10. A rectangular piece of cardboard has an area of 150 cm 2. By a cutting a square 2 cm wide on each side
from each of the
corners and folding up the sides, an open box is formed having a volume of 132 mL. Find the length of
the original
cardboard.
a. 8
b. 7
c. 10
d. 15
11. How soon after three oclock will the hands of a clock be together?
a. 3:16:22
b. 3:15:00
c. 16:22
d. 15:00
12. At what time between 6 and 7` oclock are the hands of a clock coincident?
a. 6:30
b. 6:32.73
c. 6:32.5
d. 6:35
13. One pipe alone can fill a tub in 12 minutes. Another pipe can fill it in only 8 minutes. How long would
it take both pipes to fill
the tub?
a. 4.7 mins
b. 20.0 mins
c. 4.8 mins
d. 4.9 mins
14. A pipe can alone fill a tank in 5 hrs, while a drain could do the contrary in 12 hrs. How long would it
take the pipe to fill the
tank if the drain was simultaneously opened during the duration of the filling job and if the tank were
entirely emptied at the
start?
a. 7.6 hrs
b. 8.6 hrs
c. 4.42 hrs
d. 4.06 hrs
15. A pipe can fill a tank in 7 hrs while a drain pipe can empty the tank in a matter of 11 hrs. If for the first
4 hrs, the drain was
left open while the pipe was filling it, how much longer would it have taken the input pipe to fill the
tank full if the tank was
emptied at the start?
a. 5.5 hrs
b. 7.6 hrs
c. 15.2 hrs
d. 6.12 hrs
16. An ocean going vessel traveling at 20 kph between two ports of call of a short distance of 45 km, takes
an hour and 12
minutes less time when going with the low tide current than against it. What was the rate of the
current?
a. 0.44 kph
b. 225 kph
c. 20.5 kph
d. 5 kph
17. A job can be done in as many days as there are men in the group. If the number of men is
reduced by 4, the work is
delayed by 5 days. How many were there in the original group?
a. 18
b. 16
c. 20
d. 24
18. A project can be done by 8 girls in 5 days. 5 boys can do the same project in 6 days. How long
will it take for 3 boys and 6
girls to do the job?
a. 4 days
b. 5 days
c. 6 days
d. 8 days
19. The sum of two numbers is 14. The sum of the squares of the numbers is 100. Find the
product of the two numbers.
a. 42
b. 48
c. 54
d. 56
20. The amount of 135 is to be divided among three brothers in the ratio 3: 5: 7. What is the
biggest amount received by a
brother?
a. 54
b. 63
c. 72
d. 75
21. A high concentrated solution having a volume of 100 liters is 25% gasoline. How much
gasoline should be added to the
solution to produce a 50-50% mixture?
a. 50 L
b. 75 L
c. 40 L
d. 60 L
22. The gasoline tank of a car contains 50 liters gasoline and alcohol, the alcohol comprising 25%.
How much of the mixture
should be drawn off and replaced by alcohol so that the tank contains a mixture of 50-50%
solution?
a. 14.5 L
b. 15 L
c. 16 L
d. 16.67 L
23. The number 142 is divided into two parts such that when the greater part is divided by the
smaller part, the quotient is 3 and
remainder is 14. What is the greater part?
a. 110
b. 112
c. 114
d. 116
24. Two jet planes traveling toward each other took off at the same time from two airports located
4800 km apart. If they passed
each other after 2 hours, determine the speed (kph) of the faster plane if one plane is flying at
160 kph faster than the other.
a. 1280
b. 1300
c. 1320
d. 1350
25. A man driving his car at a certain speed will reach his destination 6 hours. If he increased his
speed by 24kph, he would
have reached his destination in 5 hours. Find the distance of his destination.
a. 750 km
b. 720 km
c. 650 km
d. 600 km
26. Find the value of x if : (a + b) x = (a2 + 2ab + b2 ) x-3
a. 4
b. 6
c. 8
d. 10
d. 51
x + 1/x = 7
c. 49
d. 0.394
c. 7a
d. 7a
c. undefined
d. infinity
b. 24 = 4( 6 )
d. 55+ 55 + 55 + 55 + 55 = 56
32. Find k so that 4x2 + kx +1 = 0, will only have one real solution.
a. 1
b. 4
c. 3
d. 2
33. If the sum of the first 50 positive odd integers is subtracted from the sum of the first 50 positive even
integers, then the
difference is
a. 100
b. 50
c. 150
d. 250
34. Find the 347th digit in the decimal expansion of 825/999.
a. 6
b. 5
c. 8
d. 2
37. A tank full of alcohol is emptied one-sixth of its content and then filled up with water and mixed. If
this is done six times and
the tank has a capacity of 6 liters, how much alcohol remains?
a. 3 liters
b. 2 liters
c. 1 liter
d. 0 liter
38. Solve for x in the equation x
a. 6
b. 3
x ... 3
c. 3
d. 3
c. 216
d. 729
5.
22113
a.
22113
c.
66339
256a11
b.
128a 11
66339
d.
128a 11
256a 11
42. What is the sum of the coefficients of the expansion of (2x 1)20?
a. 1
b. 0
c. 215
d. 225
1
43. Find the middle term in the expansion of 2 x 2
4 y
5 x6
2 y 3
5 x6
c.
4 y3
b. 5
a.
d.
x6
y3
5 x6
8 y 3
a. 10.0
b. 7.2
c. 5.0
d. 5.7
b. I
c. 1 I
d. 0
c.
d.
a. 1 + I
46. Evaluate :
10
. imaginary
b.
70
10
70
47. A series of numbers which are perfect square numbers (i.e. 1, 4, 9, 16, 25) is called
a. Fourier series
c. Eulers number
b. Fermats number
d. Fibonacci number
48. If the roots of an equation are zero, then they are classified as
a. trivial solutions
b. extraneous solutions
c. conditional solutions
d. hypergolic solutions
a. Infinity
b. 0
c. Indeterminate
d. 1
b. 1
c. data insufficient
d.
a. 0
a. 10
b. 14
c. 5
d. 7
a. 1
b. 2
1
a. 0
-2 3
2 2
1
c. -3
d.
b. 2
c. -1
d. 5
c. 1
d. 0
c. 60100
d. 5910
c. 35.705
d. 30.705
x + y 2z = 1
xyz=4
a. - 2
b. 4
TRIGONOMETRY
1.
a. 60010 b. 595970
2.
a. 15.705
3.
a. 1.50
4.
b. 20.705
b. 1.20
c. 1.25
d. 1.33
c. 0.40
d. 0.61
a. 0.08
b. 0.92
5.
a. 28
6.
b. /4
c. 3/2
d. /2
b. 1/9
c. 8/9
d. 4/9
c. 90
d. 30
a. 45
9.
d. 35
a. 1/3
8.
c. 152
For what value of (less than 2) will the following equation be satisfied? sin2 + 4sin + 3 = 0
a.
7.
b. 118
b. 60
a. 5/8
b.
5 3 sin A
3 5 cos B
c. 1
d. 5/3
c. tan
d. 1
c. cos4A
d. sin4A
a. sin
b. cos
a. cos2A
b. sin2A
a. 1
13. Simplify:
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
c. sin
d. tan
2 tan 2
1 tan2 2
a. cos
b. sec
14. Given: sin A = 3/5; cos A < 0 and cos B = -12/13; tan B < 0, determine cos (A-B)
a. 123/845
b. 123/845
c. 33/65
d. 63/65
a. cos
b. sec
c. tan
d. sin
a. cos 35
b. sin 35
c. cos 55
d. cos -55
c. 30
d. 40
c. sin A
d. cos A
a. 10
b. 20
a. sin B
b. cos B
19. What is the value of (log 5 to the base 2) + (log 5 to the base 3)?
a. 7.39
b. 3.79
c. 3.97
d. 9.37
c. 17/9
d. 8/17
a. 8/9
b. 8/21
21. A pole cast a shadow 15-m long when the angle of elevation of the sun is 61 o. If the pole has
lean 15o from the vertical
directly toward the sun, what is the length of the pole?
a. 54.23
b. 48.64
c. 36.84
d. 64.84
22. The area of the isosceles triangle is 36-sq. m with the included angle of 30 o between the two
equal sides. Find the perimeter
of the triangle.
a. 30.21
b. 32.12
c. 28.43
d. 29.65
23. If an equilateral triangle is circumscribed about a circle of radius 10-cm, determine the side of
the triangle.
a. 34.64
b. 64.12
c. 36.44
d. 32.1
24. Find the length of the side of a regular octagon that is inscribed in a circle of radius 243
inches.
a.143
b.154
c.165
d. 186
25. Find the area of a parallelogram whose sides are 67 cm and 43 cm, the acute angle between
them being 65.
a. 1305
b. 1611
c. 1805
d. 2611
26. Express in radian the angle between the hands of a clock at 3:25 PM.
a. 0.73
b. 0.83
c. 0.93
d. 1.0
27. The three dimensions of a rectangular parallelepiped are in the ratio 2:3:5. If the volume is
810 cu cm, what is the length of
the longest side?
a. 6
b. 9
c. 15
d. 18
28. Three spheres of radii 1, 2 and 3 inches, respectively, are melted and formed into a new
sphere. Find the radius of this new
sphere.
a. 3.3
b. 4.3
c. 5
d. 6
29. The two bases of a trapezoid are 12 inches and 18 inches respectively. If the angles at the
extremities of one base are 65
and 40 respectively, find the longer leg.
a. 5.63
b. 6.23
c. 7.21
d. 7.81
30. Find the radius of circle circumscribed about the triangle for which A = 50, B = 20, and a =
35 inches.
a. 22.84
b. 25.64
c. 31.25
d. 36.55
31. At one side of a road is a pole 25 ft. high fixed on the top of a wall, 15 ft high. On the other side of the
road, at a point on the
ground directly opposite, the flagstaff and the wall subtend equal angles. Find the width of the road.
a. 25 ft
b. 40 ft
c. 60 ft
d. 30 ft
32. The angle of elevation of the top of the tower B from the top of tower A is 28 and the angle of
elevation of the top of tower A
from the base of the tower B is 46. The two towers lie in the same horizontal plane. If the height of
tower B is 120 m, find
the height of tower A.
a. 87 m
b. 91 m
c. 79 m
d. 66 m
b. 320 mils
c. 330 mils
d. 400 mils
a. 220 mils
34. A circle is divided into two parts by a chord 3 cm away from the center. Find the area of the smaller
part, in square cm, if the
circle has an area of 201 cm2.
a. 372.5
b. 363.6
c. 368.4
d. 53.7
35. Given a triangle whose sides are 24 cm, 30 cm, and 36 cm. Find the radius of a circle which is tangent
to the shortest and
longest side of a triangle, and whose center lies on the third side.
a. 9 cm
b. 12 cm
c. 11 cm
d. 18 cm
36. If a steel ball is immersed in an 8 cm diameter cylinder, it displaces water to a depth of 2.25 cm. The
radius of the ball is
a. 6 cm
b. 3 cm
c. 2 cm
d. 4 cm
a. 140
b. 144
c. 135
d. 150
38. A polygon has 350 diagonals. How many sides are there?
a. 28
b. 25
c. 32
d. 30
39. One angle is 20 less than thrice its supplement. What are the angles?
a. 20, 160
b. 45, 135
c. 55, 125
d. 50, 130
40. The hypotenuse of a right triangle is 30 cm. The perimeter is 72 cm. Find the length of its shortest side.
a. 16
b. 24
c. 18
d. 27
ANALYTIC GEOMETRY
1. Find the area of the triangle with vertices (2,-1), (-3, 4) and (0,-3).
a. 10
2.
b. 9.5
c. 10.5
d. 9
A copying machine reduces the side of a triangle by 20%. The area of the triangle is reduced by
a. 36%
b. 20%
c. 18%
d. 40%
3.
A spherical balloon is being inflated so that the surface increases by 20%, then the volume of the
sphere increases by
a. 20%
4.
c. (6,-6)
d. (-6,6)
b. 19
c. 19 or 5
d. 5 or 19
b. 8
c. 3
d. 3
Find the distance from the point (2,3) to the line 3x+4y+9=0
a. 5
8.
b. (5,-6)
The slope of the line joining ( 2,-3) and the midpoint of the line segment joining (0,4) and (5,-2) is
a. 8
7.
d. 31.45%
If the distance between the points (8,7) and (3,y) is 13, what is the value of y?
a. 5
6.
c. 31.5%
The midpoint of the line segment between P1(x1,y1) and P2(-2,4) is Pm(2, -1). Find the coordinate of P1
a. (6,-5)
5.
b. 30%
b. 5.4
c. 5.8
d. 6.2
9. If the points (-2, 3) , (x,y) and (-3, 5) lie on the straight line, then the equation of the line is
_____.
a. x + 2y 1 = 0
b. 2x + y 1 = 0
c. x + 2y + 1 = 0
d. 2x + y + 1 = 0
10. Two vertices of a triangle are (2,4) and (-2, 3) and the area is 2 square units, the locus of the
third vertex is
a. x 4y = -10
b. x 4y = -18
c. none of the above
d. both a and b
11. Find the area of the triangle which the line 2x 3y + 6 = 0 forms with the coordinate axis.
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5
12. The intercepts of a straight line on the x and y axes are 4 and 6, respectively. Find its
equation.
a. 3x + 2y = 12
b. 2x + 3y = 12
c. 3x 2y = 12
d. 2x 3y = 12
13. What is the distance between the center of the circles X 2 + Y2 + 2X + 4Y 3 = 0 and X2
+ Y2 - 8X - 6Y + 7 = 0 ?
a. 7.07
b. 7.77
c. 8.07
d. 8.77
14.
= 0.
Find the radical axis of the circle x 2 + y2 + 8x 6y = 0 and the circle x2 + y2 -12x 16y + 20
a. 2x + y = 2
15.
b. 2x y = 2
c. x + 2y = 2
d. x 2y = 2
d. 1.92
16. The moons orbit is an ellipse with the earth at one focus. The length of the major axis is
478,000 miles and the
eccentricity e = 0.055. Find the least distance from the earth to the moon in miles.
a. 239,000
b. 225,855
c. 210,755 d. 190,255
17. Find the coordinates of the midpoint of the line segment joining the points A (4, 1, 8) and B
(6, -3, 4).
a. (5, -1, 6)
b. (10, -2, 12)
c. (-2, 4, 4) d. (0, 0, 0)
18.
Find the angle between two vectors whose direction numbers are (2, 1, 1) and (1, -1, 2).
a. 300
b. 400
c. 450
d. 600
19.
Find the polar equation of a circle with center at the (3, 0) and the radius 3.
a. r = 3cos b. r = 3sin
c. r = 6cos d. r = 6sin
20.
Find the angle that the line 2y-9x-18=0 makes with the x-axis.
a. 74.8
21.
c. 3
d. 12
b. 3
c. 12
d. 3
b. x-2=0
c. 4x-7=0
d. 7x+4=0
b. 3.2
c. 3.6
d. 3.0
b. 0.256
c. 0.689
d. 0.866
a. 0.6
28.
b. 9
a. 0.725
27.
d. 11
a. 3.4
26.
c. 12
a. 4x+7=0
25.
b. 13
What is the length of the latus rectum of the curve x2= - 12y
a. 12
24.
d. 77.5
Find the area of the circle whose center is at (2,-5) and tangent to the line 4x+3y-8=0
a. 6
23.
c. 47.8
Find the length of the chord common to the circles x2+y2=64 and x2+y2-16x=0
a. 14
22.
b. 4.5
b. 0.8
c. 1.25
d. 5/3
a. 5
b. 10
c. 20
d. 15
29.
a. 2x-3y=0
30.
x2 y 2
1?
9
4
b. 3x-2y=0
c. 2x-y=0
d. 2x+y=0
An arch 18 m high has the form of parabola with a vertical axis. The length of a horizontal beam
placed across the arch 8m
from the top is 64m. Find the width at the bottom.
a. 86m
b. 96m
c. 106m
d. 76m
31. The collection of all points in the plane equidistant from two fixed points is
a. ellipse
b. parabola
c. line
d. circle
32. Find the value of k for which the equation x 2 4y2 + (k+1)x + k2 = 0 represents two
intersecting lines.
a. k =1
b. k = 0
c. k = 1, -1/3 d. k = -1,
1/3
DIFFERENTIAL CALCULUS
1.
Find
lim
x2
a. 0
2.
Find
Find
lim
x 1
a. e2
4.
b. 1
lim
x3 2x 9
x 2x3 8
a. 0
3.
3 x 1
x2
b. 2
c.
d.
infinite
c.
d.
c. 0
d.
2 x tan 2
b. e2/
Find Limx ( 7 x3 ) / (4 x3 - 2x + 10 )
a. 0
b. 1.75
c. indeterminate
5. Find Limx 0 ( 1 ex ) / x
a. -1
b. 1
c. -2
d. 2
d. infinity
c. 1
c. y-3
c. y / (x + 2y)
d. 3
d. y-3
d. y /(x + 2y)
c. ex cos x2 2x sin x2
d. 2x ex sin x
10. Find the partial derivatives with respect to x of the function xy 2 5y +6.
a. y2 5
b. y2
c. xy 5y
d. 2xy
11. The length of a rectangle of constant area 800 q cm is increasing at a rate of 4 cm per second.
What is the width of the
rectangle at the moment the width is decreasing at a rate of 0.5 cm per second?
a. 10 cm
b. 20 cm
c. 30 cm
d. 40 cm
12. A particle moves around a curve y = x2 + 2x. At what point on the curve are the x and y
coordinates of the particles changing
at the same rate?
a. (1, 3)
b. (0, 0)
c. (-1/2, -3/4)
d. (-1, -1)
13. Find the slope- intercept equation of the normal line to the graph y = x 3 x2 at the point where
x=1.
a. y = x + 1
b. y = -x + 1
c. y = x 1
d. y = -x 1
14. Find the point on the graph of y = x 2 at which the tangent line is parallel to the line y = 6x-1.
a. (0,0)
b. (1,1)
c. (2,4)
d. (3,9)
15. At a point (1,2) of the curve x2 xy + y2 = 3, find the slope of the tangent line.
a. 0
b. 1
c. 2
d. 3
16. If x + y = 6, find the maximum value of xy2
a. 32
c. 36
b. 30
sin x
, then f (x) = ?
1 cos x
1
a.
1 cos x
d. 40
17. If f(x) =
b.
c. 1 + cos x
1
1 cos x
d. 1 cos x
a. 12
b. 10
c. 9
d. 15
19. Find a point on the curve y = e2x whose tangent line is perpendicular to the line x + 4y-8 = 0
a. (0,1)
c. (ln2, 4)
d. (l, e2)
b. (ln 2 , 2)
20. Find the derivative of y = xx
a. xx
b. xx (lnx)
c. xx( l + lnx )
d. none of the
above
21. Find the largest area of a rectangle that could be inscribed in the ellipse, 4x2 + 9y2 = 36
a. 12
b. 24
c. 6
d. 48
22. A balloon leaving the ground 18m from the observer rises 3m/sec. How fast is the angle of elevation of
the line of sight
increasing after 8 sec?
a. 0.12 rad/s
b. 0.08 rad/s
c. 0.03 rad/s
d. 0.06
rad/s
23. A box is to be constructed from a piece of zinc 20 in2 by cutting equal squares from each corner and
turning up the zinc to
form the side. What is the maximum volume (cubic inch) of the box that can be constructed?
a. 600
b. 593
c. 580
d. 622
24. Water is flowing into a conical vessel 15 cm deep and having a radius of 3.75 cm across the top. If the
rate at which the
water rises in 2 cm/sec, how fast is the water flowing (m 3/sec) into the conical vessel when the water is
4 cm deep?
a. 6.28
b. 2.37
c. 4.57
d. 5.73
25. At the minimum point, the slope of the tangent line to a curve is
a. zero
b. negative
c. positive
d. unity
26. Given a function, y = f(x) whose f (x) = - f(x). Determine the function
a. logarithmic
b. exponential1
c. transcendental
d. sinusoidal
a. negative
28. The function, f ( x )
a. x = -1, 3
b. positive
c. zero
x 2
is discontinuous at
x 2x 3
b. x = 1, -3
c. x = 1, -2
d. unity
d. x = -1, 2
a. 1
b. 0
c. 1
d. 2
c. 1/x3
d. 1
c. 4 times
d. 5 times
a. 1/x
b. 1/x2
a. twice
b. thrice
a. y = x4
b. y = x3
c. y = x2
d. y = x
a. 3
b. 4
INTEGRAL CALCULUS
1. Find the (x + 1) (x 1) dx
c. 5
d. 7
a. x2 + x + C
x+C
2. Find the x x dx
a. 2/5 x5/2 + C
d. x1/2 + C
b. x2 x + C
b. 5/2 x5/2 + C
3. Find the (5 x2 + 1) dx / x
a. 2 x5/2 + 2 x1/2 + C
d. 5 x5/2 2 x1/2 + C
d. 0.33 x3
c. 2 x1/2 + C
b. 2 x5/2 2 x1/2 + C
6.
c. 0.33 x3 + x + C
c. 5 x5/2 + 2 x1/2 + C
c. 5 sin 5 x + C
b. tan x sec x +C
c. 2 (1 sin x )1/2 +
c. 2 (1 sin x )1/2
b. ln sin x + C
b. x cos x sin x + C
c. x cos x + sin x + C
9. Find the ln x dx / x
a. ln x + C
ln 2 x + C
b. 2 ln x + C
c. x ln x x + C
b. 2 ln x + C
c. ln cos x + C
c. x ln x x + C
c. 2x ln( x + 2 ) +C
d.
d.
d.
b. ln ( x+3)/(x-3) + C
c. 2 arctan x/3 + C
d. 6
b. ln ( x+3)/(x-3) + C
c. 2 arctan x/3 + C
d. 6
14. What is the integral of x (x+1)8 dx if the lower limit is zero and the upper limit is 1.
a. 22.76
b. 34.76
c. 45.52
54.52
d.
15. What is the integral of x3 dx / (x + 1) if the lower limit is zero and the upper limit is 1.
a. 0.14
b. 0.28
c. 0.34
d. 0.38
16. What is the integral of x e 3x dx if the lower limit is zero and the upper limit is 1.
a. 1.57
b. 2.57
c. 3.57
d. 4.57
17. What is the integral of dx / (x2 -9) if the lower limit is 4 and the upper limit is 5.
a. 0.093
b. 0.193
c. 0.293
0.393
d.
18. What is the area bounded by the curve y = x 3 , the x-axis , and the line x = -2 and x= 1.
a. 2.45
b. 4.25
c. 5.24
d. 5.42
19. Find the area bounded by y = ex , x = 0 and y = 0.
a. 1
b. 2
c. e
20. Find the length of arc in one branch of the curve y 2 = x3 from x = 0 to x = 1.
a. 1.2
b. 1.44
c. 1.64
d. infinity
d. 1.84
a. /2
b. /6
xdx
1+ x , by the u-substitution method, let u
a. 1+x2
b. x2
22. T o integrate
23. Evaluate
c. /3
d. /4
c. 1+x4
d. x4
4 x 2 dx
a. 4
b. 2
c.
d. 3
24.
Evaluate
3x
a. 0
4 x 5 dx
b. 2
c. 1
d. 3
25. Evaluate
xe x dx ?
a. 1
26. Evaluate
b. 45/786
c. 125/768
d. 5/768
b. 2
c. 3
d. 0.5
Determine the volume generated by rotating the region bounded by the line 2x+y-4=0 about the yaxis
a. 16/3
29.
d. e+1
a. 1
28.
c. e1
cos8 3 A dA
a. 35/768
27.
b. e
b. 4/3
d. none of these
c. 2/3
Find the volume generated by rotating the region bounded by x=y and y 2=4x, about the x-axis from
x=1 and x=4.
c. 3
a.
b. 2
d. 9
30. The area bounded by the curve y 2=12x and the line x=3 is revolved about the line x=3. What is the
volume generated?
a. 186
b. 179
c. 181
d. 184
STATISTICS
1.
a. 12
b. 10
c. 20
10
d. 2
2.
A team of 5 students is to be chosen for a math contest. If there were ten male and eight female
students to choose from,
what is the probability that three team members will be male and two will be female?
a. 5/18
3.
b. 20/51
c. 5/9
d. none of the
above
c. 1440
d. 49
a. 720
b. 5040
6. There are 10 basketball teams in NCAA. If each team plays every team twice, how many
games are played?
a. 45
b. 90
c. 180
d. 120
7. How many different three-digit numbers greater than 300 can be formed with the digits 1, 2, 3,
4 and 5 if no repetitions are
allowed?
a. 3,125
b. 1,875
c. 120
d. 36
8. In how many different ways can 5 persons be seated in an automobile having places for 2 in
the front seat and 3 in the back
seat if only 3 can drive?
a. 30
b. 60
c. 36
d. 72
9. How many ways can 4 boys and 4 girls be seated alternatively in the row of eight chairs?
a. 40320
b. 24
c. 48
1152
d.
10. In how many different ways can 4 persons be seated in consecutive seats in a row of 7 seats?
a. 72
b. 96
c. 120
d. 168
11. How many different committees of 6 can be formed from 12 boys and 20 girls if each
committee is consisting of 4 boys and
2 girls?
a. 34,560
b. 69,120
c. 94,050
d. 4,514,450
12. How many different signals each consisting of 6 flags hung in a vertical can be formed from 4
identical red flag and 2
identical yellow flag?
a. 720
b. 24
c. 15
d. 12
13. How many 4 digits number can be formed from the number 0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, and 9 if
repetition is allowed?
a. 4,536
b. 10,000
c. 5040
d. 9,000
14. Which of the following can not be a probability value?
a. (0.99)2
b. 13/12
c. 8/10
d. 0.01
15. If A and B are complimentary events and probability of occurrence of event A is zero or Pr(A) =
0, then Pr(B) is
a. less than one
b. more than one
c. one
d. zero
16. Determine the probability of throwing a total of 7 in a single throw with two dice.
a. 1/3
b.
c. 1/6
d. 1/12
17. In one of the parlor games, nineteen tickets from 1 to 19 are in the box. If two tickets are
drawn at random. Determine the
probability that both are odd.
a. 4/19
b. 5/19
c. 6/19
d. 7/19
18. A box contains 4 red, 7 white and 5 blue balls. Two balls are chosen at random with
replacement. What is the probability
they are both red?
a. 1/16
b. 1/10
c. 1/12
d. 1/8
19. What is the probability of drawing either an ace or a king in a single draw from a deck of 52
playing cards?
a. 1/13
b. 2/13
c. 7/52
d. 1/6
20. What is the probability of drawing either an ace or a heart in a single draw from a deck of 52
playing cards?
a. 17/52
b. 4/13
c.9/26
d. 15/52
21. From a bag containing 4 black balls and 5 white balls, two balls are drawn. Find the probability
that one is white and the
other is black.
a. 4/9
b. 5/9
c. 2/3
d. 1/3
22. Two cards are drawn at random on an ordinary deck of cards. What is the probability that both
cards are either a king or a
diamond?
a. 16/169
b. 20/221
c. 4/13
d. 17/52
23. Two red books and 4 blue books are placed at random on a shelf. What is the probability that
the blue books will be
together?
a. 0.1
0.341
b. 0.143
c. 0.2
d.
24. A number from 1 to 10,000 inclusive is selected at random. What is the probability that it is a
perfect square?
a. 0.01
b. 0.015
c. 0.02
d. 0.025
25. What is the probability of drawing 3 face cards in 3 draws from an ordinary deck of card?
a. 0.0123
b. 0.00995
c. 0.123
d. 0.0995
26. If 10 coins are tossed, what is the probability that it will show 5 heads and 5 tails?
a. 0.246
b. 0.256
c. 0.0246
0.0256
d.
27. What is the probability of getting a number "4" thrice in five tosses of a dice?
a. 0.232
b. 0.322
c. 0.0232
d. 0.0322
28. If the probability that Ginebra, Alaska and Shell will win the PBA open conference championship are
1/5, 1/6 and 1/10
respectively. Find the probability that one of them will win the title.
a. 7/15
b. 1/300
c. 7/100
d. 1
29. An urn contains 4 black balls and 6 white balls. What is the probability of getting one black ball and
one white ball in two
consecutive draws from the urn?
a. 0.24
b. 0.27
c. 0.53
d. 0.04
30. There is 1 defectives per 100 items of a product in a long run. What is the probability that there is one
and only one detective
in a random lot of 100.
a. 0.3697
b. 0.3967
c. 0.3796
d. 0.3679
31. The graphical representation of the cumulative frequency distribution in a set of statistical data is
called?
a. Mean
c. Frequency Polyhedron
b. Histogram
32.
d. Mass Diagram
A shoe store sells 10 different sizes of shoes; each in both high cut & low cut variety, each either
rubber or leather, and
each with white or black color. How many different kinds of shoes does he sell?
a. 64
b. 80
c. 72
d. 92
33. In a poker game consisting of 5 cards, what is the probability of holding 2 aces and 2 queens?
1264
a. 5!/52!
/45685
b. 5/52
c.
33
/54145
d.
34. In how many ways can PICHE Chapter with 15 directors choose a president. a vice president, a
secretary, a treasurer and
an auditor, if no member can hold more than one position.
a. 630630
b. 3300
c. 360360
3003
35. A two-digit number is chosen randomly. What is the probability that it is divisible by 7?
a. 7/50
b.13/90
c. 1/7
d. 5/7
36. In raw data, the term that occurs most frequently is known as:
a. mean
b. median
c. mode
d. quartile
37. In probability theory, the set of possible outcomes of an experiment is termed as:
a. sample space
b. set of random counts
d.