JCECE

Medical Entrance Exam

Solved Paper 2013

Physics
1. A boat can go across a lake and return in time

5. If a current carrying circular loop is placed in a

T0 at a speed v. On a rough day there is a

uniform current at speed v1 to help the onward
journey and impede the return journey. If the
time taken to go across and return on the same
day be T, then T / T0 will be

x-y plane as shown in adjoining figure and a

magnetic field is applied along z-axis, then the
loop will

(a)

1
(1 v12 / v 2 )

(c) (1

v12 / v 2 )

(b)

(1 + v12 / v 2 )

v2
(d) 1 + 12
v

2. If a balloon of mass M is descending down with

an acceleration a ( < g ), then what is the value
of mass m (of its contents) that must be
removed so that it starts moving up with an
acceleration a?
Ma
( g + a)
M
(c)
( g + a)
(a)

(b)

2Ma
( g + a)

(d) Not possible

3. If for a spherical mirror object distance,

u = (50.1 0.5) cm and image distance
v = (20.1 0.2) cm, then focal length of the
spherical mirror will be
(a) (14.3 0.1) cm
(b) (14.3 0.5) cm
(c) (30.1 0.1) cm
(d) (25.3 0.5) cm

4. The susceptibility and permeability of a

perfectly diamagnetic substance is
(a) 1 and 0
(c) 1 and 0

(b) 0 and 1
(d) 1 and 1

x
x

(a) contract
(b) expand
(c) move towards x-axis
(d) move towards + x-axis

6. If the three vectors A, B and C satisfy the

relation A B = 0 and A C = 0, then vector A is
parallel to
(a) A
(c) A B

(b) B
(d) B C

7. A car weighing 2 103 kg and moving at

20 m/s along a main road collides with a lorry
of mass 8 103 kg which emerges at 5 m/s
from a cross road at right angle to the main
road. If the two vehicles lock, what will be their
velocity after the collision?
(a) 4/
(b) 4/
(c) 4/
(d) 4/

2 m/s, 45 with cross road

2 m/s, 45 with main road
2 m/s, 60 with cross road
2 m/s, 60 with main road

| JCECE (Medical) l Solved Paper 2013

8. If a water particle of mass 10 mg and having a

charge of 1.5 106 C stays suspended in a

room, then the magnitude and direction of
electric field in the room is
(a) 15 N/C, vertically upwards
(b) 15 N/C, vertically dowards
(c) 65.3 N/C, vertically upwards
(d) 65.3 N/C, vertically downwards

(a) 1 : 4
(c) 2 : 1

(b) 1 : 2
(d) 1 : 1

13. Equal volume of two immiscible liquids of

9. In the adjoining figure, E = 5 V, r = 1 ,

R2 = 4 , R1 = R3 = 1 and C = 3F. The
numerical value of the charge on each plate of
the capacitor is
R1
C

densities and 2 are filled in a vessel as

shown in figure. Two small holes are made at
h
3h
depth
and
from the surface of lighter
2
2
liquid. If v1 and v2 are the velocities of efflux at
these two holes, then v1 / v2 will be

R2

R3
C

v1
2

v2

E, r

(a) 3 C

(b) 6 C

(c) 12 C

(d) 24 C

10. Find out the value of current through 2

resistance for the given circuit

1
2
1
(c)
2
(a)

1
2 2
1
(d)
4
(b)

14. Three conducting rods of

10 V

10

20 V

(a) zero

(b) 2 A

(c) 4 A

(d) 5 A

11. A pure resistive circuit element X when

connected to an AC supply of peak voltage
200 V gives a peak current of 5 A. A second
current element Y when connected to same AC
supply gives the same value of peak current
but the current lags behind by 90. If series
combination of X and Y is connected to the
same supply, what is the impedance of the
circuit?
(a) 40

(b) 80

(c) 40 2

(d) 2 40

12. Two circular coils C and D have equal number

of turns and carry equal currents in the same
direction in the same sense and subtend same
solid angle at point O as shown in figure. The
smaller coil C is midway between O and D. If
we represent magnetic field induction due to
bigger coil and smaller coil C as BD and BC
respectively, then BD / BC is

same
material
and
cross-section
are
connected as shown in
figure. Temperatures of
and
are
A, D
C
maintained at 20 C,
D
90C and 0C. If there is
no flow of heat in AB, then ratio of the lengths
of BC and BD is
(a) 2/9
(c) 2/7

(b) 9/2
(d) 7/2

15. If two air columns of lengths 100 cm and

101 cm sounding in their fundamental note
gave 17 beats in 20 seconds, then the velocity
of sound will be
(a) 277.8 m/s
(c) 250 m/s

(b) 300 m/s

(d) 343.4 m/s

16. If two springs of spring constants k1 and k2

while executing SHM have equal highest

velocities, then the ratio of their amplitudes
will be (their masses are in ratio 1 : 2)
(a) 2 k2 / k1
(c) 2 k1 / k2

(b) 2 k1 / k2
(d) 2 k2 / k1

JCECE (Medical) l Solved Paper 2013 |

17. In the adjoining circuit of logic gate, the output
Y becomes zero if the inputs are

23. If a charge 150 nC is given to a concentric

spherical shell and a charge + 50 nC is placed
at its centre, then the charge on inner and
outer surface of the shell is

A
B
Y

(a) 50 nC, 100 nC

(c) 50 nC, 200 nC

(b) 50 nC, 100 nC

(d) 50 nC, 200 nC

24. Find out the equivalent resistance between

(a) A = 1, B = 1, C = 0
(c) A = 0, B = 1, C = 1

(b) A = 0, B = 0, C = 0
(d) A = 1, B = 0, C = 0

A and B in the network of resistances shown

in adjoining figure

polar orbits at an altitude of

(b) 918 km

18. LANDSAT series of satellites move in near

(a) 512 km

+
10 V

(c) 3000 km (d) 3600 km

12

19. The intensity of gamma radiation from a given

source is I. If on passing through 36 mm of lead
I
its intensity is reduced to , then what will be
8
the thickness of lead which reduces its
I
intensity to ?
2
(a) 6 mm

(b) 9 mm

(c) 12 mm

(d) 18 mm

20. An unpolarized beam of light is incident on a

group of four polarizing sheets, which are
arranged in such a way that the characteristic
direction of each polarizing sheet makes an
angle of 30 with that of the preceding sheet.
The fraction of incident unpolarized light
transmitted is
27
128
37
(c)
128
(a)

128
27
128
(d)
37
(b)

21. Two coherent sources of intensity ratio

interfere. Then, the value ( Imax Imin ) /
( Imax + Imin ) is
1+

1+
(c)
2
(a)

1+

2
(d)
1+
(b)

22. A luminous object is placed at a distance of

30 cm from the convex lens of focal length
20 cm. On the other side of the lens, at what
distance from the lens a convex mirror of
radius of curvature 10 cm be placed in order to
have an upright image of the object coincident
with it ?
(a) 60 cm
(c) 30 cm

(b) 50 cm
(d) 20 cm

B
3

(a) 25
(c) 5

(b) 10
(d) None of these

25. In the adjoining figure, if 10 calorie heat is

produced per second in 5 resistor due to the
flow of current through it, then the heat
produced in 6 resistor is
4
A

(a) 1 cal/s
(c) 3 cal/s

6
B

(b) 2 cal/s
(d) 4 cal/s

26. A rod of length L rotates about an axis passing

through one of its ends and perpendicular to
its plane. If the linear mass density of the rod
varies as = ( Ar 3 + B) kg/m, then the moment
of inertia of the rod about the given axis of
rotation is

L3 AL3
+ B

3 2

L AL2
(b)
+ B
3 2

(a)

L3 A
+ B

3 2
(d) None of the above
(c)

27. If a force of 4 N is applied on a body of mass

20 kg, then the work done in 3rd second will be
(a) 1.2 J
(c) 4 J

(b) 2 J
(d) 16 J

| JCECE (Medical) l Solved Paper 2013

28. A body is projected with velocity v1 from the

point A, another body at the same time is
projected vertically upwards from B with
velocity v2 as shown in adjoining figure. If the
point B lies vertically below the highest point
v
C, then for both bodies to collide the ratio 2
v1
should be
C

v1

(a) 0.5

(b) 1

(c)

3
2

(d)

2
3

29. A police van moving on a highway with a speed

of 30 km/h fires a bullet at a thiefs car
speeding away in the same direction with a
speed of 192 km/h. If the muzzle speed of the
bullet is 150 km/h, with what speed does the
bullet hit the thiefs car?
(a) 105 m/s (b) 205 m/s (c) 210 m/s (d) 250 m/s

30. A machine gun of mass 10 kg fires 30 g bullets

at the rate of 6 bullets/s with a speed of
400 m/s. The force required to keep the gun in
position will be
(a) 30 N

(b) 40 N

(c) 72 N

(d) 400 N

31. A body of mass 0.1 kg when rotated in a

circular path of diameter 1.0 m on a
frictionless horizontal plane by means of
string, makes 10 revolutions in 31.4 seconds.
The centripetal force acting on the body will be
(a) 0.2 N

(b) 0.1 N

(c) 2 N

(d) 1 N

32. A plane electromagnetic wave propagating in x

() direction as a wave function (in SI units) is
given as
( x, t ) = 103 sin (3 106 x 9 1014 t )
The speed of the wave is
(a) 3 106 m/s

(b) 3 107 m/s

(c) 3 108 m/s

(d) 9 1014 m/s

33. A thin lens of focal length f and aperture

diameter d forms an image of intensity I. If the
central part of the aperture upto diameter d / 2
is blocked by an opaque paper, then the new
focal length and intensity of image will be
f I
(a) ,
2 2

f 3
(b) , I
2 4

surface and electrons are ejected with kinetic

energy E. If the kinetic energy is to be
increased to 2E, then the wavelength must be
changed to , where
(a) >

(b) =

(c) = 2

(d)

< <
2

35. In a photo electric effect experiment, the

v2

34. Light of wavelength strikes a photo sensitive

(c) f,

I
2

(d) f,

3
I
4

maximum kinetic energy of the emitted

electrons is 1 eV for incoming radiation of
frequency 0 and 3 eV for incoming radiation of
frequency 3 0 / 2. What is the maximum
kinetic energy of the electrons emitted for
incoming radiations of frequency 9 0 / 4?
(a) 3 eV
(c) 6 eV

(b) 4.5 eV
(d) 9 eV

36. If the energy of hydrogen atom in the ground

state is 13.6 eV, then energy of He + ion in
first excited state will be
(a) 6.8 eV
(c) 27.2 eV

(b) 13.6 eV
(d) 54.4 eV

37. In a nuclear fission, 0.1% mass is converted

into energy. The energy released by the fission
of 1 kg mass will be
(a) 9 1013 J
17

(c) 9 10 J

(b) 9 1016 J
(d) 9 1019 J

38. For a transistor in common base, the current

gain is 0.95. If the load resistance is 400 k
and input resistance is 200 , then the voltage
gain and power gain will be
(a) 1900 and 1800
(b) 1900 and 1805
(c) 5525 and 3591
(d) 1805 and 1900

39. In the middle of the depletion layer of a reverse

biased p-n junction, the
(a) potential is zero
(b) potential is maximum
(c) electric field is maximum
(d) electric field is zero

40. In amplitude modulation, the total modulation

index should not exceed one because
(a) the signal will be distorted
(b) the amplifier will be damaged
(c) the signal will die out quickly
(d) the system will fail

JCECE (Medical) l Solved Paper 2013 |

41. Let a beam of wavelength falls on parallel

46. If a magnet is dropped along the axial line of a

reflecting planes with separation d, then the

angle that the beam should make with the
planes so that reflected beams from successive
planes may interfere constructively should be
(where, n = 1, 2, )

horizontally held copper ring, then the

acceleration of the magnet while it passing
through the ring will

47. A clock which keeps correct time at 20C, is

subjected to 40C. If coefficient of linear
expansion of the pendulum is 12 106 /C,
then how much will it gain or loss in time?

n
(a) cos 1

2d
n
(c) sin1

n
(b) sin1

2d
n
(d) tan1

42. The dimensions of angular momentum/

magnetic moment are
(a) [MA 1T1 ] (b) [M1AT1 ] (c) [MAT1 ] (d) [MA 1T]

43. A weight mg is suspended from the middle of a

rope whose ends are at same level. If the rope
is no longer horizontal, the minimum tension
required to completely straighten the rope will
be
(a) mg

(b) mg

(c) Infinite

(d) zero

44. Two triodes having amplification factors 30

and 21 and plate resistances 5 k and 4 k
respectively are connected in parallel. The
composite amplification factor of the system is
(a) 25
(c) 75

(a) less than that due to gravity

(b) equal to that due to gravity
(c) more than that due to gravity
(d) depend on the size of the ring and magnet

(b) 50
(d) 100

45. A deflection magnetometer works on

(a) Coulombs law
(b) Tangent law
(c) Curie law
(d) The law of vibration of a magnet

(a) 5 s/day
(c) 20.6 s/day

(b) 10.3 s/day

(d) 20 min/day

48. The resistance of a resistance thermometer

have values 2.71 and 3.70 ohms at 10C and
100C respectively. The temperature at which
the resistance is 3.26 ohm is
(a) 40C
(c) 60C

(b) 50C
(d) 70C

49. If the earth were to rotate faster than its

present speed, the weight of an object will
(a) increase at the equator but remain unchanged at
the poles
(b) decrease at the equator but remain unchanged
at the poles
(c) decrease at the poles but remain unchanged at
the equator
(d) increase at the pole but remain unchanged at the
equator

50. A coil is wound on a transformer of rectangular

cross-section. If all the linear dimensions of
the transformer are increased by a factor 2 and
the number of turns per unit length of the coil
remains the same, the self inductance
increases by a factor of
(a) 4

(b) 8

(c) 12

(d) 16

Chemistry
1. A drop of water is about 0.05 mL. The density
of water at room temperature is about
1.0 mL1. The number of water molecules
present in a drop of water are
(a) 1.67 1021 H2O molecules
(b) 1.67 1026 H2O molecules
(c) 1.806 1023 H2O molecules
(d) 1.806 1021 H2O molecules

2. Which of the following forms acidic halides?

(a) HF
(b) HCl
(c) HBr
(d) HI

3. The maximum covalency of nitrogen is

(a) 3
(c) 5

(b) 4
(d) 6

| JCECE (Medical) l Solved Paper 2013

4. A black compound of manganese reacts with a

halogen acid to give greenish yellow gas. When
excess of this gas reacts with NH3 an unstable
trihalide is formed. In this process, the
oxidation state of nitrogen changes from
(a) 0 to 3
(c) 3 to + 5

(b) 3 to 0
(d) 3 to + 3
(b) ClO 2 , BrF2
(d) ICl 2 , ClO 3

6. Bond

dissociation enthalpy of EH
(E = element) bonds is given below. Which of
the compounds will act as strongest reducing
agent?
Compound

NH 3

PH 3 AsH 3 SbH 3

diss ( E H )H (kJmol 1 ) =

389

322

(a) NH3

(b) PH3

297

255

(d) SbH3

element X in + 3 oxidation state is [Ar] 3 d 5.

What is its atomic number?
(b) 25

(d) K mol kg 1 or K (molality)

On dissolving substance A in small amount in

this solution, precipitation of substance A
takes place. The solution is
(a) concentrated
(c) unsaturated

(b) saturated
(d) super saturated

16. 4L of 0.02 M aqueous solution of NaCl was

diluted by adding 1 L of water. The molality of
the resultant solution is
(a) 0.004
(c) 0.012

(b) 0.008
(d) 0.016

17. At high concentration of soap in water, soap

(c) AsH3

7. The electronic configuration of a transition

(a) 24

(a) K or K (molality) 1
(b) mol kg K 1 or K 1 (molality)
(c) kg mol 1 K 1 or K 1 (molality) 1

15. A beaker contains a solution of substance A.

5. Which of the following is isoelectronic pair?

(a) CN , O 3
(c) BrO 2 , BrF2+

14. The unit of ebullioscopic constant is

(c) 26

(d) 27

8. Spin only magnetic moment value of Cr 3+ ion

behave as
(a) molecular solid
(b) associated colloid
(c) macromolecular colloid
(d) lyophilic colloid

18. Physical adsorption of a gaseous species may

is

change to chemical adsorption with

(a) 2.87 BM (b) 3.87 BM (c) 3.47 BM (d) 3.67 BM

(a) decrease in temperature

(b) increase in temperature
(c) increase in surface area of adsorbent
(d) decrease in surface area of adsorbent

(a) U

(b) Np

(c) Tm

(d) Fm

10. When 0.1 mol CoCl3 (NH3 )5 is treated with

excess of AgNO3, 0.2 mole of AgCl are

obtained. The conductivity of solution will
correspond to
(a) 1 : 3 electrolyte
(c) 1 : 1 electrolyte

19. Consider

the reaction A B ; the

concentration of both the reactants and the
products varies exponentially with time.
Which of the following figures correctly
describes the change in concentration of
reactants and products with time?

(b) 1 : 2 electrolyte
(d) 3 : 1 electrolyte

11. The correct IUPAC name of [Pt (NH3 )2Cl2 ] is

(a)

(a) diammine dichlorido platinum (II)

(b) diammine dichlorido platinum (IV)
(c) diammine dichlorido platinum (0)
(d) dichlorido, diammine platinum (IV)

Time

13. Which kind of defects are introduced by doping?

(a) Dislocation defects
(c) Electronic defects

(b) Schottky defects

(d) Frenkel defects

(c)

[A]
Time
[A]

[B]
Conc.

(b) I2
(d) H2O (ice)

(b)
[A]

12. Which of the following is a network solid?

(a) SO 2 (solid)
(c) Diamond

[B]

[B]
Conc.

Which of the following elements does not

belong to this series?

(d)
[A]
Time

Conc.

9. There are 14 elements in actinoid series.

Conc.

[B]
Time

JCECE (Medical) l Solved Paper 2013 |

20. Activation energy of a chemical reaction can be
determined by
(a) determining the rate constants at standard
temperature
(b) determining the rate constants at two
temperatures
(c) determining probability of collision
(d) using catalyst

21. In the extraction of copper from its sulphide

ore, the metal is formed by the reduction of
Cu 2O with
(a) FeS

(b) CO

(c) Cu2S

(d) SO 2

22. Which of the following is not a target molecule

for drug function in body?
(a) Vitamins
(c) Lipids

(b) Proteins
(d) Carbohydrates

(a) Zn Hg + HCl
(c) Fehlings reagent

about low density polythene?

40% H 2 SO 4

CH3COCH3
Structure of A and the type of isomerism in the
above reaction are respectively.
(a) prop-1-en-2-ol, metamerism
(b) prop-1-en-1-ol, tautomerism
(c) prop-2-en-2-ol, cis and trans isomerism
(d) prop-2-en-1-ol, tautomerism

30. One mole of a symmetrical alkene on

ozonolysis gives two moles of an aldehyde
having a molecular mass of 44 u. The alkene is
(b) propene
(d) but-2-ene

31. Which of the following species can act as the

(a) OH

(b) OR

(c) O

(d) O

24. Biotin is an organic compound present in

yeast. Its deficiency in diet causes dermatitis
and paralysis. It is also known as
(b) vitamin B12
(d) vitamin H

25. Methyl -D-glucoside

and

methyl

-D-

glucoside are
(a) epimers
(c) conformational diastereomers

(b) anomers
(d) enantiomers

26. The number of disulphide linkages present in

insulin are
(a) 1

(b) 2

(c) 3

Isomerisation

1% HgSO 4

strongest base?

(a) Tough
(b) Highly branched structure
(c) Poor conductor of electricity
(d) Hard

(a) vitamin B1
(c) vitamin D

(b) I2 + NaOH
(d) Sn + NaOH solution

29. CH3 C CH A

(a) ethene
(c) but-1-ene

23. Which of the following statements is not true

(d) 4

27. The source of nitrogen in Gabriel synthesis of

amines is
(a) sodium azide NaN3
(b) potassium phthalimide C 6H4 (CO)2 N K+
(c) sodium cyanide
(d) potassium nitrate

28. Which is the most suitable reagent for the

following conversion?

CH3 CH ==CH CH2 C CH3

O

CH3 CH ==CH CH2 C OH

NO2

32. IUPAC name of m-cresol is

(a) benzene-1,3-diol
(c) 3-methyl phenol

(b) 3-chlorophenol
(d) 3-methoxyphenol

33. The order of reactivity of following alcohols

with halogen acids is
I. CH3CH2CH2OH
II. CH3CH2 CH CH3

OH
CH3

III. CH3CH2 C OH

CH3
(a) II > I > III
(c) III > II > I

(b) I > III > II

(d) I > II > III

34. The position of Br in the compound in

CH3CH == CHC (Br) (CH3 )2 can be classified as
(a) vinyl

(b) secondary (c) allyl

(d) aryl

35. Benzene does not undergo addition reactions

easily because
(a) it has a cyclic structure
(b) it has 6H-atoms
(c) double bonds in it are very strong
(d) resonance stabilized system is to be preserved

| JCECE (Medical) l Solved Paper 2013

36. Alkynes occur in nature in

(a) free state
(c) not in free state

44. The de-Broglie wavelength of helium atom at

(b) partially free state

(d) None of these

37. Which of the following reagents converts both

room temperature is
(a) 6.6 10 34 m
(b) 4.39 1010 m

acetaldehyde and acetone to alkanes?

(c) 7.34 1011 m

(a) Ni / H2
(c) I2 / NaOH

(d) 2.335 10 20 m

(b) LiAlH4
(d) Zn-Hg / HCl

45. In

which of the following pairs of

molecules/ions, the central atoms have
sp2 hydridisation?

Anhy. AlCl 3

38. C6H6 + Cl2 (excess) P

dark, cold

Product, P is
(a) C 6H5Cl
(c) C 6H6Cl 6

(a) BF3 and NH2

(c) BF3 and NO 2

(b) C 6H4Cl 2
(d) C 6Cl 6

46. If a gas expands at constant temperature, it

39. An alkene A contains three C C, eight C H

-bonds and one C C -bond. A on ozonolysis
gives two moles of an aldehyde of molar mass
44 u. IUPAC name of A is
(a) but-1-ene
(c) 2-methylpropane

(b) but-2-ene
(d) None of these

40. Among the following which one can have a

meso-form?

(a) 8.73
(c) 6.73

47. For the reaction,

C3H8 ( g ) + 5O2( g ) 3CO2( g ) + 4H2O( l)
(b) RT
(d) 3 RT

48. In which of the following equilibrium K c and

K p are not equal?

s HCO + H O ; pK
+ H O s CO + H O ; pK
2
3

(a) kinetic energy of molecules decreases

(b) pressure of the gas increases
(c) kinetic energy of molecules remains same
(d) number of the molecules of gas increases

(a) + 3 RT
(c) + RT

41. Calculate pH of 1 M NaHCO3. Given

HCO3

indicates that

at constant temperature, H E is

(a) CH3CH (OH) CH (Cl) C 2H5

(b) CH3CH (OH) CH (OH) CH3
(c) C 2H5CH (OH) CH (OH) CH3
(d) HOCH2 CH(Cl) CH3

H2CO3 + H2O

(b) NO 2 and NH3

(d) NH2 and H2O

3
+

= 6.38

= 10.26

(b) 8.32
(d) 6.32

42. Elements Se, Cl and S have been arranged in

the order of increasing ionisation energies.
Identify the correct order.
(a) S < Se < Cl
(b) Se < S < Cl
(c) Cl < S < Se
(d) Se = S < Cl

(a) 2C(s ) + O 2 (g )
2CO 2 (g )
(b) 2NO (g )
N2 ( g ) + O 2 ( g )
(c) SO 2 (g ) + NO 2 (g )
SO 3 (g ) + NO(g )
(d) H2 (g ) + I2 (g )
2HI(g )

s
s
s
s

49. On

adding
0.1M
solution
each
of
[Ag + ], [Ba 2+ ], (Ca 2+ ] in Na 2SO4 solution,
species first precipitated is
[K sp BaSO4 = 1011, K sp CaSO4 = 10 6
and K sp Ag 2SO4 = 10 5]
(a) Ag 2SO 4
(c) CaSO 4

(b) BaSO 4
(d) All of these

43. Which of the following is correct for number of

50. Heat of neutralisation of HF (a weak acid) with

electrons, number of orbitals and type of

orbitals respectively in Norbit?

strong base is 16.4 kcal. Calculate heat of

ionisation of HF in water.

(a) 4, 4 and 8
(b) 4, 8 and 16
(c) 32, 16 and 4
(d) 4, 16 and 32

(a) 13.7 kcal

(b) 2.7 kcal
(c) + 30.1 kcal
(d) + 3.01 kcal

JCECE (Medical) l Solved Paper 2013 |

Biology
1. What would be the number of chromosomes in
the cells of the aleurone layer in a plant species
with 8 chromosomes in its synergids?
(a) 16

(b) 24

(c) 32

(d) 8

2. Golden rice is a promising transgenic crop.

When released for cultivation, it will help in

3. How does pruning help in making the hedge

dense?
(a) It induces the differentiation of new shoots from
the roots lock
(b) It frees axillary buds from apical dominance
(c) The apical shoot grows faster after pruning
(d) It releases wound hormones

4. Praying mentis is a good example of

(b) warning colouration
(d) camouflage

5. Examination of blood of a person suspected of

having anaemia, shows large, immature,
nucleated erythrocytes without haemoglobin.
Supplementing his diet with which of the
following, is likely to alleviate his symptoms?
(a) Thiamine
(b) Folic acid and cobalamine
(c) Riboflavin
(d) Iron compounds

(b) Pomegranate
(d) Litchi

7. Montreal protocol which calls for appropriate

action to protect the ozone layer from human
activities was passed in the year
(a) 1986

(b) 1987

(c) 1988

(d) 1985

8. Which one of the following is not used for

construction of ecological pyramids?
(a) Dry weight
(b) Number of individuals
(c) Rate of energy flow
(d) Fresh weight

(a) scarification
(c) chelation

(b) vernalisation
(d) stratification

11. Which one of the following is not included

under in situ conservation?
(a) Sanctuary
(c) Biosphere reserve

(b) Botanical garden

(d) National park

12. Phenotype of an organism is the result of

(a) mutations and linkages
(b) cytoplasmic effects and nutrition
(c) environmental changes and sexual dimorphism
(d) genotype and environment interactions

13. Moss peat is used as a packing material for

sending flowers and live plants to distant
places because
(a) it is easily available
(b) it is hygroscopic
(c) it reduces transpiration
(d) it serves as a disinfectant

14. A common structural feature of

elements and sieve tube elements is

6. In which of the following fruits is the edible

part the aril?
(a) Custard apple
(c) Orange

(a) active co-operation between two species

(b) two different parasites on the same host
(c) sharing of one or more resources between the
two species
(d) mutualism between two species

10. Treatment of seed at low temperature under

moist conditions to break its dormancy is
called

(a) alleviation of vitamin- A deficiency

(b) pest resistance
(c) herbicide tolerance
(d) producing a petrol-like fuel from rice

(a) Mullerian mimicry

(c) social insects

9. Niche overlap indicates

vessel

(a) thick secondary walls

(b) pores on lateral walls
(c) presence of P-protein
(d) enucleate condition

15. In which mode of inheritance do you expect

more maternal influence among the offspring?
(a) Autosomal
(c) Y-linked

(b) Cytoplasmic
(d) X-linked

16. Conifers differ from grasses in the

(a) production of seeds from ovules
(b) lack of xylem tracheids
(c) absence of pollen tubes
(d) formation of endosperm before fertilisation

10

| JCECE (Medical) l Solved Paper 2013

17. In maize, hybrid vigour is exploited by

(a) bombarding the protoplast with DNA
(b) crossing of two inbreed parental lines
(c) harvesting seeds from the most productive
plants
(d) inducing mutations

18. Amino acid sequence, in protein synthesis is

decided by the sequence of
(a) tRNA

(b) mRNA

(c) cDNA

(d) rRNA

19. How many ATP molecules could maximally be

generated from one molecule of glucose, if the
complete oxidation of one mole of glucose to
CO2 and H2O yields 686 kcal and the useful
chemical energy available in the high energy
phosphate bond of one mole of ATP is 12 kcal?
(a) Two
(c) Fifty seven

(b) Thirty
(d) One

20. Which one of the following is the correctly

matched pair of an endangered animal and a
National Park?
(a) Lion Corbett National Park
(b) Rhinoceros Kaziranga National Park
(c) Wild ass Dudhwa National Park
(d) Great Indian Keoladeo National Park bustard

21. A person showing unpredictable moods, out

bursts of emotion, quarrel some behaviour and
conflicts with others is suffering from
(a) schizophrenia
(b) Borderline Personality Disorder (BPD)
(c) mood disorders
(d) addictive disorders

22. Pentamerous,
actinomorphic
flowers,
bicarpillary ovary with oblique septa and fruit a
capsule or berry are characteristic features of
(a) Asteraceae
(c) Solanaceae

(b) Brassicaceae
(d) Liliaceae

23. People living at sea level have around 5 million

RBC per cubic millimeter of their blood
whereas those living at an altitude of
5400 metres have around 8 million.This is
because at high altitude
(a) people get pollution-free air to breathe and more
oxygen is available
(b) atmospheric O 2 level is less and hence more
RBCs are needed to absorb the required amount
of O 2 to survive

(c) there is more UV radiation which enhances RBC

production
(d) people eat more nutritive food, therefore more
RBCs are formed

24. An important evidence in favour of organic

evolution is the occurrence of
(a) homologous and vestigial organs
(b) analogous and vestigial organs
(c) homologous organs only
(d) homologous and analogous organs

25. Which one of the following is not a living fossil?

(a) King crab
(b) Sphenodon
(c) Archaeopteryx
(d) Peripatus

26. Which one of the following is a matching set of

a phylum and its three examples?
(a) Cnidaria Bonellia, Physalia, Aurelia
(b) Platyhelminthes Planaria, Schistosoma,
Enterobius
(c) Mollusca Loligo, Teredo, Octopus
(d) Porifera Spongilla, Euplectella, Pennatula

27. Which of the following pairs of an animal and a

plant represents endangered organisms in
India?
(a) Bentinckia nicobarica
(b) Tamarind
(c) Cinchona
(d) Banyan

Red panda
Rhesus monkey
Leopard
Black buck

28. Jurassic period of the Mesozoic era is

characterised by
(a) gymnosperms are dominant plants and first birds
appear
(b) radiation of reptiles and origin of mammal like
reptiles
(c) dinosaurs become extinct and angiosperms
appear
(d) flowering plants and first dinosaurs appear

29. Which of the following statements regarding

cilia is not correct?
(a) The organised beating of cilia is controlled by
fluxes of Ca 2+ across the membrane
(b) Cilia are hair-like cellular appendages
(c) Microtubules of cilia are composed of tubulin
(d) Cilia contain an outer ring of nine doublet
microtubules surrounding two single microtubules

JCECE (Medical) l Solved Paper 2013 |

30. Microbes found to be very useful in genetic
engineering are
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

Escherichia coli and Agrobacterium tumefaciens

Vibrio cholerae and a tailed bacteriophage
Diplococcus sp. and Pseudomonas sp
Crown gall bacterium and Caenorhabditi selegans

31. Which of the following environmental

conditions are essential for optimum growth of
Mucoron a piece of bread?
I. Temperature of about 25C
II. Temperature of about 5C
III. Relative humidity of about 5%
IV. Relative humidity of about 95%
V. A shady place
VI. A brightly illuminated place
Choose the answer from the following options
(a) I, III and V
(c) II, IV and V

(b) I, IV and V
(d) II, III and VI

32. During
photorespiration,
the
consuming reaction(s) occur in

oxygen

33. Sertoli cells are regulated by the pituitary

hormone known as
(b) GH

(c) Prolactin (d) LH

34. The contractile protein of skeletal muscle

involving ATPase activity is
(a) tropomyosin
(c) -actin

35. One gene-one

postulated by

(b) myosin
(d) troponin

enzyme

hypothesis

37. Areolar connective tissue joins

(a) fat body with muscles
(b) integument with muscles
(c) bones with muscles
(d) bones with bones

38. Cri-du-chat syndrome in humans is caused by

the
(a) fertilisation of an XX egg by a normal Y-bearing
sperm
(b) loss of half of the short arm of chromosome 5
(c) loss of half of the long arm of chromosome 5
(d) trisomy of 21st chromosome

39. Restriction endonuclease

(a) cuts the DNA molecule randomly
(b) cuts the DNA molecule at specific sites
(c) restricts the synthesis of DNA inside the nucleus
(d) synthesises DNA

40. Which of the following is an accumulation and

release centre of neurohormones?
(a) Posterior pituitary lobe
(b) Intermediate lobe of the pituitary
(c) Hypothalamus
(d) Anterior pituitary lobe

(a) stroma of chloroplasts and mitochondria

(b) stroma of chloroplasts and peroxisomes
(c) grana of chloroplasts and peroxisomes
(d) stroma of chloroplasts

(a) FSH

11

41. Which one of the following has an open

circulatory system?
(a) Pheretima
(c) Hirudinaria

42. Which hormone causes dilation of blood

vessels, increased oxygen consumption and
glycogenolysis?
(a) ACTH
(c) Adrenaline

was

(a) R Franklin
(b) Hershey and Chase
(c) A Garrod
(d) Beadle and Tatum

36. Test cross involves

(a) crossing between two genotypes with recessive
trait
(b) crossing between two F1 hybrids
(c) crossing the F1 hybrid with a double recessive
genotype
(d) crossing between two genotypes with dominant
trait

(b) Periplaneta
(d) Octopus

(b) Insulin
(d) Glucagon

43. The causative agent of mad-cow disease is a

(a) bacterium
(c) worm

(b) prion
(d) virus

44. Biradial symmetry and lack of cnidoblasts are

the characteristics of
(a) Starfish and sea anemone
(b) Ctenoplana and Beroe
(c) Aurlia and Paramecium
(d) Hydra and starfish

45. The arrangement of the nuclei in a normal

embryo sac in the dicot plants is
(a) 2 + 4 + 2
(c) 2 + 3 + 3

(b) 3 + 2 + 3
(d) 3 + 3 + 2

12

| JCECE (Medical) l Solved Paper 2013

46. Triticale, the first man-made cereal crop, has

been obtained by crossing wheat with
(a) rye
(b) pearl millet
(c) sugar cane
(d) barley

49. Two common characters found in centipede,

cockroach and crab are

47. HIV that causes AIDS, first starts destroying

(a) B-Iymphocytes
(c) thrombocytes

(c) Shrew, bat, cat, kiwi

(d) Kangaroo, hedgehog, dolphin, loris

(b) leucocytes
(d) helper T-lymphocytes

48. In which one of the following sets of animals do

all the four give birth to young ones?
(a) Lion, bat, whale, ostrich
(b) Platypus, penguin, bat, hippopotamus

(a) compound eyes and anal cerci

(b) jointed legs and chitinous exoskeleton
(c) green gland and trachea
(d) book lungs and antennae

50. Angiotensinogen is a protein produced and

secreted by
(a) macula densa cells
(b) endothelial cells (cells lining the blood vessels)
(c) liver cells
(d) juxtaglomerular (JG) cells

Answers
Physics
1. (a)

2. (b)

3. (a)

4. (c)

5. (b)

6. (d)

7. (b)

8. (c)

9. (b)

10. (a)

11. (c)

12. (b)

13. (a)

14. (c)

15. (d)

16. (a)

17. (a)

18. (b)

19. (c)

20. (a)

21. (d)

22. (b)

23. (b)

24. (c)

25. (c)

26. (a)

27. (b)

28. (a)

29. (a)

30. (c)

31. (a)

32. (c)

33. (d)

34. (d)

35. (c)

36. (b)

37. (a)

38. (b)

39. (d)

40. (a)

41. (b)

42. (a)

43. (c)

44. (a)

45. (b)

46. (a)

47. (b)

48. (c)

49. (b)

50. (b)

Chemistry
1. (a)

2. (a)

3. (b)

4. (d)

5. (c)

6. (d)

7. (c)

8. (b)

9. (c)

10. (b)

11. (a)

12. (c)

13. (c)

14. (a)

15. (d)

16. (d)

17. (b)

18. (b)

19. (b)

20. (b)

21. (c)

22. (a)

23. (b)

24. (d)

25. (b)

26. (c)

27. (b)

28. (b)

29. (b)

30. (d)

31. (b)

32. (c)

33. (c)

34. (c)

35. (d)

36. (c)

37. (d)

38. (d)

39. (b)

40. (b)

41. (b)

42. (b)

43. (c)

44. (c)

45. (c)

46. (c)

47. (d)

48. (a)

49. (b)

50. (b)

Biology
1. (b)

2. (a)

3. (b)

4. (c)

5. (d)

6. (d)

7. (b)

8. (d)

9. (b)

10. (d)

11. (b)

12. (d)

13. (b)

14. (b)

15. (b)

16. (d)

17. (b)

18. (b)

19. (b)

20. (b)

21. (a)

22. (c)

23. (b)

24. (a)

25. (c)

26. (c)

27. (a)

28. (a)

29. (c)

30. (a)

31. (b)

32. (b)

33. (a)

34. (b)

35. (d)

36. (c)

37. (b)

38. (b)

39. (b)

40. (c)

41. (b)

42. (c)

43. (b)

44. (b)

45. (b)

46. (a)

47. (d)

48. (d)

49. (b)

50. (c)