1149
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(Signature of invigtlator)
INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
(Use only blutllblack bali-point pen in the space above and on both sides of the Answer Sheet)
1.
Within'O minutes of the issue of the Question Booklet. check the Question Booklet to ensure that It contains
all the pages in correct sequence and that no page/queslion IS missing In case of faulty Question Booklet bring
it to the notice of the Supenntendentllnvigilators immediately to obtain a fresh OJestion Booklet
2.
Do not bring any loose paper, writien or blank, InSide the Examination Hall except the Admit Card without/Is
envelope.
3.
A separate Answer Sheet IS given. It should not be folded or mutilated. A SlJCond Answer Sheet shall not
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4.
Wrile your Roll Nvmber and Serial Number of the Answer Sheet by pen in the space provided above
5.
On thtl front page of the Answer Sheet, write by pen your Roll Numbilr In the space provided at the top,
and by darkening the circles at the bottom. Also, wh",ever applicab/tI, write the Question Booklet Number
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7.
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e.
Each question In this Booklet is followed by four alternative answers. For each question, you are to record
the correct option on the Answer Sheet by darkening the appropriatB circle in the co"esponding row
of the Answer Sheet, by pen as mentioned in the guidelines given on the first pSgB of th(J Answer Sheet.
9.
for each question. darken only one circle on Ihe Answer Sheet If you darken more than one
circle or darken a circle partially, the answer will be treated as incorrect
10.
Note that thtl answer onCB filled In ink cannot be changed. If you do not wish 10 attempt a questiqn.
leave all the Circles in the corresponding row blank (such question will be awarded zero marks).
11.
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12.
13.
You are not permitted to leave the Examination Hall until the end of the Test.
14.
If a candidate attempts to use any form of unfair means, he/she shall be liable to such punishment as the Unlversily
may determine and impose on him/her.
llP/210/31
No. of Questions : 150
~;fitm..rr : 150
Time : 2 hours]
450
Note : (1) Attempt as many questions as you can. Each question carries 3
(Three) marks. One mark will be deducted for each incorrect
answer. Zero mark will be awarded for each unattempted
question.
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1.
2.
( 2) Diffraction
(4) Interference
( 2) Vitamin B,
( 4) Vitamin B 12
(Tum Over)
IIP/210/31
4.
(2
t ATP
(3 t ADP
(4 t UDPG
(2 t NAD+
(3
t FAD+
(4
NADP+
6.
( 2 t Penicillin
( 4 t Dicomarol
( I t Glucokinase
( 3 t Glucose-6-phosphatase
( 2 t Hexokinase
(4 t Pepsin
( I t Uric Acid
(3 t Ammonia
( 2 t Allantoin
(4 t Creatinine
( I t Excessive heat
( 3) Frequent urination
9.
Zinc is a constitutes of
( I I Aldolase
( 3 I Malate dehydrogenase
(2 t Amylase
( 4 t Carbonic anhydrase
( 2 )
(ContiiJued)
UP!2IO!31
I I ) Calcium
I 3) Iron
I 2) Magnesium
I 4) Potassium
I 2) Gravitational force
(4) Electrostatic force
(2) Energy
(4) Velocity
I I)
I 2)
I 3)
(4)
Boiling
Distillation
Passing through chlorine gas
adding sodium carbonate
I 2) Sublimation
I 4) Solvent extraction
I I) Chlorine
(3) Iodine
(2) Bromine
(4) None of the above
( 1 )
(Tum O'-er)
IIP/210/31
(2) Tetraethyllead
( 3) Common salt
( I ) Diatane
( 2) Oxygen
(3) Yeast
( 4) Carbon dioxide
(2) Ether
( 3) Acetone
( 4) Nitrogen
( I ) Calcium sulphate
( 2) Calcium phosphate
( 3) Calcium borate
( 4) Calcium chloride
( 2) Positive
( 3) Zero
21. If the pressure on the solution of gas in equilibrium with the gas itself
is increased, the solubility of gas will be
( I) Decrease
( 2) Increase
(ContilJued)
IIP/210/31
( I) Increases
( 3) Remains same
( 2) Decreases
( 4) None of the above
( 2) Rubber
( 3) Plastic
( 4) Cellulose
( I) Water
( 3) Salty water
( 3) Babies
( 4) Rocks
( 3) Silver nitrate
( 2) Silver iodide
( 4) Copper sulphate
( I) Hydroxylation
( 3) Saponification
(2) Hydrolysis
( 4) Esterification
( 3) Nickel oxide
( 2) Lanthanide oxide
(4) Ferric oxide
( 5 )
(Tum Over)
IIP/210/31
(2 ) Ethane
(4 ) Acetylene
(2 ) Iron
(4 ) Magnesium
( 2 ) Cortisones
(4 ) Mild alkali
( 2) Proton
( 3) Neutron
( 4) Positron
( 2) Magnesium
( 3) Berilium
( 4) None:1" these
34. The molecules responsible for staring the genetic code are
( I) Protein
(3) RNA
( 2) Chromosomes
(4) DNA
( I) Polio
( 3) Tuberculosis
(2) Smallpox
(4) Measles
( 6 (
(COIJlli/(Jed)
lIP/l!O/3!
( I) Deforestation
( 3) Sliding of hills
( 2) Urbanization
( 4) Heavy rains
(2) CLC
(3) IEC
(4) GFC
(I)
( 2)
(3)
( 4)
Double immunodiffusion
Simple immunodiffusion
ELISA
None of the above
(2) 260nm
( 3) 270 nm
( 4) 300 nm
40. A cosmid is a
( I)
(2)
( 3)
( 4)
Circular DNA
Plasmid with unique 'cos' site
Larger plasmid
Smaller plasmid
( I) Unicellular organisms
( 3) Nucleus
( 2) Chromosomes/DNA
( 4) Nucleolus
( 7 (
(Tum Over)
llP/210/31
( 2) RNA polymerase
( 4) DNA ligase
( I) Air pollution
(3) Water pollution
( 2) Soil pollution
(4) All of the above
(I)
I 2)
I 3)
( 4)
( 2) Food materials
(4) Non-naturally occurring
( I) Natural compounds
( 3) Protein
(2) Antibiotics
( 4) Anabolic hormone
( I) DNA formation
( 3) Protein synthesis
IlP/210/31
S~Shaped
( 2) V ~Shaped
( 4) Linear shaped
(3) IShaped
49. Transgcncs are
( I) Proteins
( 2) Transferable genes
( 4) Bacteriophage
( 3) Foreign gene
( 2) Kary Mullius
( 4) Harbert Boyer
( I ) L Shaped
(3) V Shaped
( 2) W ~Shaped
(4) Y~Shaped
i~
( I) Kerb's
( 2) Glycolysis
( 3) Entner Duodorotf
( 4) Ilexose monophosphate shunt
53.
~()st
( I) Keratin
( .1) Rubisco
( 2) Glycoprotein
( 4) None of above
f
<)
(Tum OH'r)
IIP/210/31
(2) dCMP
(3) dCTP
(4) dAMP
( I) In the structure
(2) In their function
( 3) In the type of protein synthesis
( 4) All of the above
57. Fidelity of transcription as compared to translation is
( I) Lowcr
( 2) Highcr
(3) Equal
(4) Depend on the pH of the nucleoplasm
58. The DNA inter(i;aiating antibiotics is
( I) Mitomycin C
(3) Puromycin
( 2) Actinomycin D
( 4) Polmyxin B
( 2) RNA Pol II
(4) RNA Poll & II!
( 10 )
(Colllifllled 1
IlP/210/31
( 3 ) B & Z type
( 2 ) A &B type
(4 ) Z only
61. NADP is
( I ) An enzyme
( 3 ) A Coenzyme
(2 ) A part of S-RNA
(4 ) A part of t -RNA
( 3 ) Active
( 2 ) Stored
( 4 ) Inactive
( 3 ) Antibody
( 2 ) Antigen
(4) Proteases
( 1 ) Omnivorous
( 2) Carnivorous
(3) Herbivorous
( 4) Myrmecophagous
( 2) Oligodendroglia
( 4) All oUhe above
t i1 )
(TumOI'crj
lIP/210/JI
70. Hormones
afC
dcstroycJ mainly in
( I) Liver
(2) Heart
( j) Stomach
(4) Intestine
(4) Parthenogenesis
{
~:
\ Co.rr;-'w,j)
IlP/210/31
( I j Chile
( 3) Alkaline
t 2) Oculomotor nerves
( I) Olfactory nerves
( 3) Trochlcas nerves
( 4) Optic nerves
aTC
h1
Cit)
in [he world is
( I) Los Angeles
( 3) Paris
(2) Delhi
(4) London
IIP/210/31
(2) Rough ER
( 4) Goigi body
( I) Mitochot\ctria
( 3) Bacteria
( 2) Chloroplast
( 4) All of the above
( I ) Golgi body
( 3) Endoplasmic reticulum
( 2) Mitochondria
(4) All of the above
( 2) Glycolysis
( 3) ETS
( 2) It is optically active
( 3) It is optic-ally inactive
(4) It has aromatic side chain
83. The amino acid found in the active site of enzyme is
( I) Methionine
( 3) Arginine
(2) Lysine
( 4) Histidine
( 14 I
(C()tJtiIlIJed)
lIP/210/31
84. Which of the following arc natural antiseptic substances of our body?
( I ) Urine
( 3) Mucus and tears
(2) Blood
( 4) All of the above
85. Osteoporosis is
(I) Weakening of Bones
( 3)
Weakening of Muscles
( 2) Sizc
(4) Structure
(Tum O\crJ
IIP!2IU!31
I I) Wilkins
I 3) :I1ilstein
(2) Watson
I 4) Jacobson
(2) Te
92. Plant absorh nitrates from soil and covert them into
I 2) Ammonia
( I ) Urea
( 3) Nitrogen
( 2) Calviceps
I 3) Rhizopus
( 4) Aspergillus
Increa~ing
( 2) Blood filtration
( 4) Homeostasis
( 16 )
(Co!ltilwed)
IIP/210/31
( 2) Complementary sites
( 3) Clefts
(2) Passive
( J) Both
(4) :\one
100. Which of the following Ion I'; important for tRNA stabilization?
( I ) Vln"'
( 2) :-'Ig
(3)
cr
(4) Na'
( 2) Repressors
( J) Eukaryotes
('j'mIO.cr)
lIP/210/31
(2) mRNA
(4) All are found in equal ratios
(3) tRNA
( 2) Peptidase
( 3) Ubiquitin
(4) SRP
(2) Leucine
( 4) Arginine
106. The Hershey and Chase experiment which offered evidence in support
of DNA being the genetic material in bacteriophage made use of the
(CvJJtinued)
llP/210/31
( 2) 4 peptide bond
(4) 2 & 3 both
108. A IflLVI aqueous HCL solution is diluted 1000 times. The pH of the
solution would be approximately
( I) 8
(2) 7
(3) 6
(4) 5
109. Which one of the following vector can carry the longest piece of foreign
DNA?
( I) Plasmids
( 3) Bacteriophage
(2) Cosmids
( 4) Yeast artilicial chromosome
( I) Microsomes
( 3) Ribosomes
( 2) M esosomes
( 4) Non of the above
( 4) A given amino acid can be coded by more than one base triplet
112. Which is not the constituent of biomembrane?
( I) Sphingolipids
( 3) Glycolipid
! 2) Phospholipids
( 4) Triglyceride
( 19 )
( TlJmOverJ
IlP/210/31
in
the treatment of
( I ) Rauwolfia canesccns
( 3) Catharanthus roseau:;
( 4) Azhadirachtu indica
114. \Vhich of the following docs not participate in the formation of antigen
antibody complex?
( I ) Hydrophobic bonds
( 2) Covalent bonds
( 3) Hydrogen bonds
( 2) Secondary structure
( 3) Tertiary strU(:tuTC
( 4) Quaternary structure
( 2) Liver
1 3) Kidney
14) Heart
118. The separation of two DNA strand for replication is brought about hy
( 2) DNA helicase
( 4) DNA ligase
( 20 )
(ConliIlLJcd)
llP/210/31
119. The codon of mRNA and anticodon of tRNA recognise each other by
pairing
(I) 5' .... 3' ofmRNAwith 5' .... 3' oftRNA
(2) 3' .... 5'ofmRNAwith3' .... 5'oftRNA
(3) 5' .... 3' ofmRNA with 3' .... 5' oftRNA
(4) In any of the above manner
(2) Wool
(3) Silk
( 4) Collagen
( 2) Nucleotide sugars
( 3) Glycoproteins
(4) Hcxoarnine
i 21 )
IIP/2ID!31
(2) Tends to occur more readily as the temperature of the DNA solution
i:-; decreas.ed
( 3) Results in decrease in the absorption of light at 260 nm by the DNA
solution
Is known as transcription
Requires the DNA double helix to be unwound
Occurs in the 3' to 5' direction
Employs an enzyme called DNA Jigase
(Continued)
IIP/210/31
128. A protein molecule binds a drug at two ditlerent sites. The method to
evaluate the two binding constants and whether binding at onC site
intluences binding at the other is by generating a
( 1) Lineweaver-Burk plot
( 3) Arrhenius plot
130. Amino acid that most often occurs at the active sites of enzymes and
can be uncharged or positively charged depending on its' local
environment
( 1) R
( 2) H
(3) K
(4) 0
131. Lysine is an ammo acid with three ionizable groups. These are the
a-COOH, a-amino and E-amino groups with pKa values of 22, 92 and
108, respectively. The isoelectric point (pI) for lysine is
( 1 ) 57
(2) 65
( 3) 92
(4) 100
( 1)
(2 )
(3)
(4 )
Inclusion in microcapsules
I Tum Over)
IlP/210/31
( 2) Urease
(4) Amylase
( 2) Leucoeytes
( 3) Thrombocytes
136. Blood is classified into four main groups on the hasis of the nature of?
( I) Erythrocyte
(2) Leucocyte
( 3) Thrombocyte
( 2) Biodissel
( 4) Biocompost
( 24 )
(CuJl/illued l
IlP/210/31
(2) Alkali
( 3) Acid
( 4)
~-mercaptoethanoI
(3)N\1R
(4) Ultraviolet
( 2) A yeast cell
( 3) Virus
( 4) Bacteria
141. The mechanisms regulating the decision between lysis and lysogeny for
bacteriophage lamda have been described as 'genetic switch'. Which
of the following statements arc true of the systems?
( I) The cI and era genes are transcribed in opposite directions
( 2) The mRNAs encoding cl and era protein arc synthesized using the
same strand of DNA as template
( 3) Synthesis of cI is not stimulated by its binding to OR I and OR 2
(4) Of the three OR sites in the lambda genome, c1 has greatest affinity
for OR I
142. A double stranded DNA molecule with 6390 base pairs long will have
the following number of turns
( I) 639
.I 2) 639
(3)6-39
f 25 )
( 4) 195
t Tum Over)
llP/210/31
144. Which one of the following is essential for bacteria for DNA rcpair and
recombination?
( I ) DNA E protein
( 2) Rec A protein
( 3) Thymidine kinase
(4) Chaperone proteins
t 26 )
(Colliinucd)
IIP/210/31
( I) Coronary diseases
( 3) Leukaemia
( 2) Liver diseases
(4) Eye diseases
FAD'
(2) TPN
(4) eoA
( 2) Thiamine
( J) Mg"
(4) Fe"
( 3) Glucocorticoids
(2) Epinephrine
(4) Insulin
( 27 l
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