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Biology Health related

Tattoo
1. Which of the following diseases can be transmitted from one person to another through
tattooing?
1. Chikungunya
2. Hepatitis B
3. HIV-AIDS
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
a. 1 only
b.
2 and 3 only
c. 1 and 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3
Hepatitis B and HIV are spread via Tattoing hence Indian Army had made rule that disqualified
youngsters with tattoos on medical ground.
Chikungunya is not spread via tattooing.
Hence answer (B) 2 and 3 only.

Muscle contractions
2. Consider the following minerals
1. Calcium
2. Iron
3. Sodium
Which of the minerals given above is/are required by human body for the contraction of
muscles?

a. 1 only
b. 2 and 3 only
c. 1 and 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3
Calcium=necessary for muscle contraction (NIOS Science Lesson 25, Page9)
Sodium helps nerve cells send electrical signals to muscles for contraction. (Britannica)
Hence answer (D) 1 and 3 only. Or (A) only 1 (depending on the interpretation of UPSC
examiner.)

Virus
3. Which of the following statements is / are correct?
1. Viruses lack enzymes necessary for the generation of energy.
2. Viruses can be cultured in any synthetic medium.
3. Viruses are transmitted from one organism to another by biological vectors only.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
a. 1 only
b. 2 and 3 only
c. 1 and 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3

Statement#2 is wrong because


As per page 109-110 of Analytic techniques in Biotechnology TMH
Since Viruses lack organelles and are totally dependent on the host cells metabolic machinery
for replication, (hence) they cannot be grown in synthetic media. In laboratory, animal viruses
are grown in Animalsplant viruses are grown in plants or plant cell culture.

Statement #3 is wrong because

As per page26 Studies in Viral Ecology: Animal Host Systems by Christon J. Hurst

There are two categories of Vectors: biological and mechanical. As was stated earlier, if
virus increases its number while in association with a vector, then that vector is termed as
being biological.

Conversely, the vector is termed to be mechanical, if virus doesnt increase its number
while in association with that vector

Arthropods such as wasps, which repeatedly can sting multiple animals, could serve as
mechanical vectors by transporting viruses on the surface of their stingers.

Thus, #2 and #3 are wrong, eliminate choices accordingly


a. 1 only
b. 2 and 3 only
c. 1 and 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3
and we are left with answer (A) only 1.

Genetic Engineering
4. Recombinant DNA technology (Genetic Engineering) allows genes to be transferred
1. across different species of plants
2. from animals to plants
3. from microorganisms to higher organisms
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
a. 1 only
b. 2 and 3 only
c. 1 and 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3

#1 is correct

as per BBC article on Genetic Engineering


Golden rice is developed by transferring carrot genes to rice. the new variety of rice contains
Vitamin A. Hence Statement #1 correct (across different species of plants)

#2 is correct
as per http://news.ucdavis.edu/search/news_detail.lasso?id=4812
In 1953, scientists discovered the structure of DNA, and in 1972, researchers developed a
method for cutting and splicing DNA. That method became known as recombinant DNA, or
rDNA. Since then, researchers have learned how to move genetic material in the form of DNA
from one plant or animal to another. They can also take DNA from an animal and place it in a
plant, and vice versa.

#3 is correct
TMH General studies manual, General science, Page 129, Topic #14.14
..e.g. transfer of gene/s from bacteria to man or vice versa or from bacteria to a flowering
plant.=>Statement #3 correct (from microorganism to higher organism)
Hence answer (D) 1,2 and 3 correct.

Biology: Botany/Agro related


Aflatoxin
1. Improper handling and storage of cereal grains and oilseeds result in the production of
toxins known as aflatoxins which are not generally destroyed by normal cooking process.
Aflatoxins are produced by
a. bacteria
b. protozoa
c. moulds
d. viruses
Aflatoxin is a mould produced by fungus that are toxic and carcinogenic. (IndianExpress)
Answer=(C)

Fruits, Cold storage


2.Fruits stored in a cold chamber exhibit longer storage life because
a. exposure to sunlight is prevented
b. concentration dioxide in the is increased of carbon environment
c. rate of respiration is decreased
d. there is an increase in humidity
Fruits and vegetables continue their metabolic activity after harvestMetabolic Activity is
manifested by respiration.Reduction of temperature is an effective means of reducing the rate
of respiration. (Fundamentals of food process engineering, Page 402)
Hence Answer (C)

Seedlings
3. Many transplanted seedlings do not grow because
a. the new soil does not contain favorable minerals
b. most of the root hairs grip the new soil too hard
c. most of the root hairs are lost during transplantation
d. leaves get damaged during transplantation
Root hairs are extremely delicate, whether on a tree or a seedling. When transplanting young
trees from a nursery to a woodland, damage to the roots and root hairs often leads to death of a
tree. (Advanced Biology, Michael Kent, Page 279)
Hence Answer (C) (or debatable)

Desert Leaf
4. Which of the following leaf modifications occurs/occur in desert areas to inhibit water
loss?
1. Hard and waxy leaves
2. Tiny leaves or no leaves

3. Thorns instead of leaves


Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 2 only
c. 1 and 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3

Page 530 of Physical Geography by Savindra Singh The vegetation of hot desert
climate is xerophytic type which has special characteristics to withstand very high rate of
evaporation. They have long roots, thick barks, waxy leaves, thorns and little leaves.

Also in Ch. 5 of NCERT 9th Std. Geo book (Page 46)

Hence Ans (D) all of above.

Physics
Ball bearings
1. Ball bearings are used in bicycles, cars, etc., because
A. The actual area of contact between the wheel and axle is increased
B. The effective area of contact between the wheel and axle is increased
C. The effective area of contact between the wheel and axle is reduced
D. None of the statements is correct

Friction is independent of surface area of contact. (Pearson Objective Physics For AIEEE
page 77)

Rolling friction is smaller than the sliding friction, (therefore) sliding is replaced in most
machines by rolling by the use of ball bearings. (NCERT Science, Class 8, Chapter 12,
Page 153)

Therefore, answer (D) none of the statements is correct (or may be the debatable.)

Optical illusions

2. Consider the following phenomena:


1. Size of the sun at dusk
2. Colour of the sun at dawn
3. Moon being visible at dawn
4. Twinkle of stars in the sky
5. Polestar being visible in the sky
Which of the above are optical illusions?
a. 1, 2 and 3
b. 3, 4 and 5
c. 1, 2 and 4
d. 2, 3 and 5
TMH General Studies Manual, General Science > Physics, Page 25. Following things happen
due to Atmospheric refraction
1. When the sun or moon is near horizon, it appears elliptical i.e. with vertical diameter less
than the horizontal diameter =>Statement #1 is correct.
2. Twinkling of stars =>statement #4 is correct.
Hence answer must contain both #1 and #4. Eliminate the choices accordingly
a. 1, 2 and 3
b. 3, 4 and 5
c. 1, 2 and 4
d. 2, 3 and 5
Thus we are left with answer C.

Rainbow
3. Rainbow is produced when sunlight falls on drops of rain.

Which of the following physical phenomena are responsible for this?


1. Dispersion
2. Refraction
3. Internal reflection
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 2 and 3 only
c. 1 and 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3
NCERT Science Class 10, Chapter 11, Page 194
A rainbow is always formed in a direction opposite to that of the Sun. The water droplets act like
small prisms. They refract and disperse the incident sunlight, then reflect it internally, and
finally refract it again when it comes out of the raindrop Due to the dispersion of light and
internal reflection, different colours reach the observers eye
Hence all 3 correct=>Answer (D)

Forces of Nature
4. The known forces of nature can be divided into four classes, viz, gravity,
electromagnetism, weak nuclear force and strong nuclear force. with reference to them,
which one of the following statements is not correct?
a. Gravity is the strongest of the four
b. Electromagnetism act only on particles with an electric charge
c. Weak nuclear force causes radioactivity
d. Strong nuclear force holds protons and nutrons inside the nuclear of an atom.
Refer to the table given on NCERT Physics Class11, Chapter1, Page 10
Name
Gravitational force
Weak nuclear force

Relative strength
10-39
10-13

Electromagnetic force
Strong nuclear force

10-2
1

As you can see, Gravity is the weakest of them all. Hence statement #A is definitely
incorrect

And the question wants us to identify the wrong statement, hence Answer = (A)

Higgs Boson
5. The efforts to detect the existence of Higgs boson particle have become frequent news in
the recent past. What is /are the importance/importance of discovering this particle?
1. It will enable us to understand as to why elementary particles have mass.
2. It will enables us in the near future to develop the technology to transferring matter from
one point to another without traversing the physical space between them.
3. It will enable us to create better fuels for nuclear fission.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
a. 1 only
b. 2 and 3 only
c. 1 and 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3
The Higgs Boson gives idea on how each particle has mass. It doesnt give better fuels for
nuclear fission or for inter-space travel. (or atleast I did not find it on the internet.)
Ans: (A) (or perhaps C or D hahaha)

1. Which of the following concepts can be used to study the rate of acceleration of the
Universe?
1. Supernovae Explosions.
2. Dark Matter.
3. Dark Energy.
4. Black Holes.
A. 1 & 3 only.
B. 1 & 2 only.
C. 2, 3 & 4 only.
D. 1, 3 & 4 only.

Which of the following can be a trigger for Coral Bleaching?

1. Increase in ocean temperature.


2. Decrease in ocean temperature.
3. Decline in Zooplankton levels.
4. Changes in salinity.
5. Elevated sea levels due to global warming.
A. All except 2.
B. All except 2 & 4.
C. All except 5.
D. None of the above options are correct.
1

The Basel Convention on the Control of Trans boundary Movements of Hazardous


Wastes and Their Disposal, usually known as the Basel Convention:

1. It is an international treaty that was designed to reduce the movements of hazardous


wastes from developed to less developed countries.
2. It does not address the movement of radioactive waste.
A. 1 only.
B. 2 only.
C. Both.
D. None.
1

Which of the following statements are correct with regard to Red tide a term used to
describe Harmful Algal Blooms (HABs) in marine coastal areas.

1. These blooms are not associated with tides.


2. HABs tint the seawater to a reddish color.
3. Not all algal blooms are harmful, even those involving red discoloration.
A. 1 & 3 only.

B. 1 & 2 only.
C. 2 & 3 only.
D. 1, 2 & 3.
1

Which of the following statements is/are correct:

1. Ozone Depletion causes reduction in stratospheric and upper tropospheric temperatures.


2. Increase in Green House Gases causes reduction in stratospheric and upper tropospheric
temperatures.
A. 1 only.
B. 2 only.
C. Both.
D. None.
1

Which of the following statements is/are correct with regard to Ozone Depletion:

1. Ozone hole is measured in terms of ozone concentrations, which is expressed in Dobson


units.
2. The major cause for Ozone Depletion is the presence of CFCs in stratosphere CFCs are
entirely man made and not found naturally.
A. 1 only.
B. 2 only.
C. Both.
D. None.
1

Which of the following statements is/are correct with regard to Vitamin D:

1. Vitamin D is produced in the skin by ultraviolet light.


2. Higher levels of Vitamin D are associated with higher morbidity.
3. Body has no mechanism to prevent sunlight from producing too much Vitamin D.
A. 1 & 3 only.

B. 1 & 2 only.
C. 2 & 3 only.
D. 1, 2 & 3.
1

If the Arctic Ice was somehow replaced with dense forest, which of the following
situation may arise:

A. It will accelerate Global Warming.


B. It will decelerate Global Warming.
C. It may or may not affect Global warming.
D. It will have no affect on Global Warming.
1

Recently Chinese scientists have developed Carbon Aerogel. Which of the following
is/are correct about it:

1. It is the second lightest material after Graphite aerogel.


2. It has excellent elasticity.
3. It is expected to play an important role in pollution control.
4. It is expected to become ideal material for sound absorption.
A. 2, 3 & 4 only.
B. 2 & 4 only.
C. 1 & 3 only.
D. 1, 2, 3 & 4.
1

Lantana know as Phool Lakhri in local parlance is a shrub found in abundance in


Himachal Pradesh. Which of the following statements are correct about it?

1. It is a toxic weed and has affected the mountain diversity of the state.
2. Lantana species are widely cultivated for their flowers.
3. It is endemic to India.
4. It is considered as potential fire hazard and it is combustible even when green.

A. 1, 2 & 4 only.
B. 2 & 4 only.
C. 1 & 3 only.
D. 1, 2, 3 & 4.
1

Which of the following statements are correct about C & Ku Band that are used for
satellite communications transmissions:

1. The frequency of Ku Band is greater than C band.


2. C band performs better under adverse weather conditions in comparison to Ku band.
3. C band has a higher likelihood of terrestrial interference in comparison to Ku Band.
A. 1, 2 & 3.
B. 1 & 2 only.
C. 1 & 3 only.
D. 2 & 3 only.
1

Which of the following statements are true regarding Soda Lake:

1. Soda lakes are highly acidic lakes.


2. Soda lakes are highly productive ecosystems.
3. A critical geological condition for the formation of Soda Lake is the absence of soluble
calcium or magnesium.
4. Lonar and Sambhar lakes are examples of Soda lakes in India.
A. 1, 2 & 3 only.
B. 1 & 4 only.
C. 2, 3 & 4 only.
D. 3 & 4 only.
1

Which of the following is/are the Industrial uses of Hydraulic Fracturing:

1. Arousing production from oil and gas wells.


2. To dispose of waste by injection into deep rock formations.
3. As a method to measure the stress in the Earth.
A. 1, 2 & 3.
B. 1 only.
C. 1 & 3 only.
D. 2 & 3 only.
1

Plasma arc technology is used for the disposal of waste, which of the following
statements is/are correct with regard to this technology:

1. It can be used for the disposal of hazardous and radioactive waste.


2. Oxides of Sulphur and Nitrogen are the polluting gases produced in this process.
3. This technology has not been tried anywhere in India.
A. 1, 2 & 3.
B. 1 & 2 only.
C. 1 & 3 only.
D. 3 only.
1

What do you understand by the term Dark Fermentation:

A. It is a method to reduce CO2 in the atmosphere.


B. It is a method to produce Hydrogen as fuel from wastewater.
C. It is a method to dispose nuclear wastes.
D. It is a method to produce methane from organic waste.
1

Which of the following statements are correct with regard to Hepatitis (A, B, C, D & E):

1. Hepatitis is the inflation of Liver due to viral infection.


2. Hepatitis B vaccine is enough to keep type D at bay.

3. Type B & C are mainly transmitted through blood transfusion.


4. Type A & E are caused due to exposure to polluted food and water.
A. 1, 2 & 3 only.
B. 1, 3 & 4 only.
C. 2 & 4 only.
D. 1, 2, 3 & 4 only.
1

Which of the following functions are performed by the Liver:

1. Plays a role in immunity.


2. Helps in processing nutrients.
3. Helps in maintaining bloods clotting capacity.
4. Helps in purifying blood.
A. 1, 2 & 3 only.
B. 2, 3 & 4 only.
C. 1 & 4 only.
D. 1, 2, 3 & 4.
1

Which of the following statements is/are correct with regard to Carbon Monoxide:

1. It is produced in the human body.


2. It helps in treating sickle cell anemia.
3. It acts as a neurotransmitter.
A. 1, 2 & 3.
B. 1 only.
C. 1 & 3 only.
D. 2 & 3 only.

Assertion: Viral Pneumonia does not require intensive care and treatment.

Reason: Viruses dont respond to vaccines and antibiotics.


A. Assertion & Reason both are correct and Reason is the correct explanation.
B. Assertion is wrong but reason is correct.
C. Assertion is correct but reason is wrong.
D. Both Assertion & reason are correct but reason is not the correct explanation of reason.
1

Which of the following statements is/are correct with regard to mobile touch screen
technologies.

1. When a user touches a capacitive touch screen some charge is transferred to the user from
the screen.
2. Capacitive touch screen technology has more life than resistive touch screen technology.
3. Capacitive screens provide clearer image than resistive screens.
A. 1, 2 & 3.
B. 1 only.
C. 1 & 3 only.
D. 2 & 3 only.

Question 21 to 40
1

The Rajasthan university of veterinary and animal sciences has set up a Emu breeding
farm and is promoting Emu breeding in the state because:

1. Emu meat has much lower fat compared to chicken, mutton, pork or turkey, & low in
cholesterol, hence good for heart patients.
2. Emu oil can be used to cure arthritis and joint pains.
3. Emu oil is an analgesic, antiseptic and anti allergic.
4. Emu oil is used in cosmetic products.
5. Feathers are used to make artifacts & decorative items.

6. Emu egg is a great nutritional supplement as one egg can feed an entire family.
A. All except 3, 4 & 6.
B. All except 3 & 4.
C. All except 3.
D. None of the above options are correct.
1

A new vertical single bud technique has been implemented in some areas of Punjab for
sugar cane cultivation. Which of the following statements are true with regard to this
technique:

1. This technique requires 85% fewer seeds than traditional method for the same field size.
2. It reduces water consumption by 50 %.
3. The yield is almost doubled.
A. 1, 2 & 3.
B. 1 only.
C. 1 & 3 only.
D. 2 & 3 only.
1

Which of the following species are critically endangered:

1. White bellied heron.


2. Gangetic Dolphins.
3. River Terrapins.
A. 1, 2 & 3.
B. 2 only.
C. 1 & 3 only.
D. 2 & 3 only.
1

Which of the following statements are correct with regard to Siddha form of medicinal
system:

1. Siddha form of medicinal system is usually practiced in South India.


2. Siddha is believed to be the oldest medicinal system in the world.
A. 1 only.
B. 2 only.
C. Both.
D. None.
1

Which of the following statements is/are correct with regard to Siddha & Unani form of
medicinal systems:

1. Siddha system is based on the premise that only a healthy body can help develop a
healthy soul.
2. According to Unani medicine, management of any disease depends upon the diagnosis of
disease.
A. 1 only.
B. 2 only.
C. Both.
D. None.
1

Which of the following statements is/are correct with regard to Ayurveda form of
medicinal systems:

1. Hygiene is a central practice of Ayurveda medicine.


2. According to Ayurveda suppressing natural urges is seen to be unhealthy, and doing so
claimed to lead to illness.
3. Ayurveda is related to the Vedic period in India.
A. 1 only.
B. 1 & 2 only.
C. 2 & 3 only.
D. 1, 2 & 3.

Which of the following statements is/are correct with regard to Homeopathy form of
medicinal systems:

1. According to homeopathy a substance that causes the symptoms of a disease in healthy


people will cure similar symptoms in sick people.
2. Scientific community regards homeopathy as a sham.
A. 1 only.
B. 2 only.
C. Both.
D. None.
1

Which of the following statements is/are correct with regard to Naturopathy:

1. According to Naturopathy Food is the only medicine hence no external medications are
used.
2. Performing prayer according to ones spiritual faith is an important part of treatment.
3. The treatment of all diseases is elimination of morbid matter from the body.
A. 1 only.
B. 1 & 2 only.
C. 2 & 3 only.
D. 1, 2 & 3.
1

Which of the following statements is/are correct with regard to Sowa Rigpa medicinal
system:

1. This system is popular in the Himalayan region of India.


2. It is similar to Ayurveda.
3. It is believed that Buddha himself taught it.
4. It includes few principles of Traditional Chinese medicinal systems.
A. 1 & 4 only.

B. 2 & 3 only.
C. 1, 2 & 3 only.
D. 1, 2, 3 & 4.
1

Match the following: Mundane question. But one can expect at least one such question in
any paper.

1. National Institute of Homeopathy.


2. National Institute of Siddha.
3. National Institute of Unani Medicine.
4. National Institute of Naturopathy.
5. National Institute of Ayurveda.
a. Chennai.
b. Kolkata.
c. Pune.
d. Jaipur.
e. Bengaluru.
A. 1 a, 2 b, 3 c, 4 d, 5 e.
B. 1 b, 2 a, 3 e, 4 c, 5 d.
C. 1 e, 2 d, 3 c, 4 b, 5 a.
D. 1 b, 2 a, 3 c, 4 e, 5 d.
1

Which of the following are the potential benefits of Nuclear fusion reactors:

1. Enough readily available fuel to last more than millions of years.


2. No Green House gas emissions.
3. Plants will produce more readily controllable nuclear wastes.
4. Deuterium and Lithium can be used as potential fuels.

A. 1, 2 & 3 only.
B. 2, 3 & 4 only.
C. 1 & 4 only.
D. 1, 2, 3 & 4 only.
1

Which of the following statements is/are correct about syngas:

1. It is a mixture of carbon monoxide and hydrogen.


2. It can easily be converted into gasoline through a process called steam reforming.
3. It is easily storable.
4. It is combustible and can be used as fuel in Internal combustion engines.
5. Syngas has almost double the energy density of natural gas.
A. All except 4.
B. All except 5.
C. All except 1 & 5.
D. None of the above options are correct.
1

Which of the following are the objectives of Mars Orbiter Mission scheduled to be
launched by India in mid November this year:

1. Detect Methane in the atmosphere of Mars.


2. Map the surface composition of Mars.
3. Measure atomic hydrogen in the atmosphere of Mars.
4. Understand Martian dust storms.
A. 1, 2 & 3 only.
B. 2, 3 & 4 only.
C. 1 & 4 only.
D. 1, 2, 3 & 4 only.

Which of the following statements with regard to two solar events Solar Flare and
Coronal Mass Ejection are correct:

1. Coronal Mass Ejection (CME) can cause serious problems for electrical systems on
Earth.
2. Solar flares have no effect on terrestrial life.
3. All CMEs are accompanied by solar flares.
4. The Northern and Southern Lights (aurora borealis and aurora australis) are often
associated with coronal mass ejections.
5. Both solar flares and coronal mass ejections are the result of magnetic activity on the sun.
A. All except 2 & 5.
B. All except 2 & 3.
C. All except 3.
D. All the statements are wrong.
1

Which of the following statements is/are correct about Lagrange point in the context of
space terminology:

1. Lagrange points are locations in space where gravitational forces and the orbital motion
of a body balance each other.
2. Lagrange points are locations in space where net force due to gravity is zero.
3. There are five Lagrangian points in the Sun-Earth system.
4. No such points exist in the Earth-Moon system.
A. 2 & 3 only.
B. 1, 3 & 4 only.
C. 2, 3 & 4 only.
D. 1 & 4 only.
1

Which of the following statements is/are correct about Dark Matter:

1. Dark matter does not interact with any electromagnetic radiation.

2. Dark matter interacts with ordinary matter through gravity only.


3. The force between dark matter and ordinary matter is repulsive.
A. 1 only.
B. 1 & 2 only.
C. 2 & 3 only.
D. 1, 2 & 3.
1

Consider the following statements with regard to Thorium based nuclear power plants:

Assertion: Thorium cannot be used directly to produce nuclear energy.


Reason: Thorium does not contain any fissile material.
A. Assertion & Reason both are correct and Reason is the correct explanation.
B. Assertion & Reason both are correct but reason is not the correct explanation.
C. Assertion is wrong, Reason is correct.
D. Assertion is correct, reason is wrong.
1

Which of the following Cyber attacks is related to India:

A. Stuxnet.
B. Flame.
C. Titan Rain.
D. GhostNet.
1

To increase yield, the cows are injected with Oxytocin, a hormone banned in India under
the Prevention of Cruelty to Animals Act and section 12 of Food and Drug Adulteration
Prevention Act, 1960. Why is this hormone banned?

1. Milk produced from such cows is unfit/harmful for human consumption.


2. Cows injected with Oxytocin have a greater incidence of abortions, mastitis and lower
conception rates.

3. Calves born to Oxytocin injected cows suffer higher than normal infant mortality and
delayed puberty.
A. 1 only.
B. 1 & 2 only.
C. 2 & 3 only.
D. 1, 2 & 3.
1

Which of the following statements is/are correct with regard to the Solar cell
technologies:

1. Crystalline silicon solar cells have a greater market share than thin film solar cells.
2. Thin film solar cells are cheaper than crystalline silicon solar cells.
3. Crystalline silicon cells are more efficient than thin film solar cells.
4. Both the technology operates on the same photovoltaic principle.
5. Crystalline silicon solar cells are more environmental friendly to dispose than thin film
solar cells at the end of their respective lives.
A. All except 2 & 5.
B. All except 2 & 3.
C. All except 3.
D. All the above options are wrong.

Question 41 to 60
1

According to Western Ghats Ecological Expert Panel report Ecologically Sensitive


Areas are:

1. Ecologically important.
2. Economically important.
3. Vulnerable to even mild disturbances.
A. 1 only.

B. 1 & 3 only.
C. 3 only.
D. 1, 2 & 3.
1

Which of the following types of Coral Reefs are found in India:

1. Atoll.
2. Fringing.
3. Barrier.
A. 1 & 2 only.
B. 1 & 3 only.
C. 2 & 3 only.
D. 1, 2 & 3.
1

The union Ministry of Environment & Forest has introduced a new scheme called the
Emissions Trading Scheme which of the following statements is/are correct with regard
to this scheme:

1. This is a market-based scheme to reduce air pollution.


2. It has been implemented only in 3 states till now.
3. The scheme allows the Pollution control boards to set a cap on the level of pollution
permitted in an industrial area, and then allows the industries to self regulate to ensure
that pollution does not exceed this cap.
4. This scheme is the first of its kind in the world.
A. 1, 2, 3 & 4.
B. 1 & 3 only.
C. 2 & 3 only.
D. 1, 2 & 3.
1

Which of the following species is locally extinct in India:

1. White bellied heron.


2. Siberian Crane.
3. The gyps Vulture.
4. Forest owlet.
A. 1, 2 & 4 only.
B. 1 & 2 only.
C.

2 only.

D. 1, 3 & 4 only.
1

Desertification can lead to:

1. Decrease in food supplies.


2. Decrease in water supplies.
3. Migration.
4. Loss of jobs.
5. Global warming.
A. All except 4 & 5.
B. All except 5.
C. All except 4.
D. All the above options are wrong.
1

Which of the following is true with regard to regulation of GM crops in India:

1. At present GM crops are regulated under the purview of the Union Ministry of
Agriculture.
2. Ministry of Environment and forest has introduced a new bill to set up a new regulatory
system for GM crops by the name Biotechnology Regulatory Authority of India (BRAI).
3. The Bill proposes setting up BRAI under the Ministry of Science and Technology.

4. BRAI will act as a single window clearance system for products of modern
biotechnology, including GM crops.
A. 1, 2 & 4 only.
B. 1, 2 & 3 only.
C. 1, 3 & 4 only.
D. 3 & 4 only.
1

Pyrolysis/Gasification is a process of chemical decomposition of Organic matter through


heat. The organic matter is heated in the absence of air till it breaks down to smaller
molecules of gas. The gas is known as Producer Gas Constituents of this gas are:

1. Carbon Di oxide.
2. Carbon mono oxide.
3. Nitrogen.
4. Hydrogen.
5. Sulphur di oxide.
6. Ammonia.
A. All except 5.
B. All except 6.
C. All except 5 & 6.
D. All the above options are wrong.
1

Landfill Gas Recovery is a measure of recovering gas from waste dumps wherein the
waste slowly decomposes to produce Landfill gas. Which of the following statements
are correct.

1. This gas consists of high percentage of methane.


2. Has a high calorific value.
3. Cannot be used for generating power.
A. 1 & 2 only.

B. 1 & 3 only.
C. 2 & 3 only.
D. 1, 2 & 3 only.
1

Consider the following statements:

1. Refineries and Fertilizer plants are the major consumers of Hydrogen gas.
2. Refineries and Fertilizer plants are the major producers of Hydrogen gas.
The correct statements is/are:
A. 1 only.
B. 2 only.
C. Both.
D. None.
1

Hydrogen is being projected as the fuel for future. Which of the following processes are
used to produce Hydrogen:

1. Steam Methane Reformation.


2. Gasification of Coal.
3. Gasification of biomass.
4. Electrolytic process using electricity to produce hydrogen.
5. Photolytic process using sunlight to produce hydrogen.
A. All except 1.
B. All except 2.
C. All except 1 & 2.
D. All the above options are wrong.
1

Which of the following are potential reasons for decline of house sparrow:

1. Severe changes in urban ecosystem.

2. Radiations from mobile tower.


3. Excessive use of chemical fertilizers.
4. Poaching.
A. 1 & 4 only.
B. 1, 2 & 3 only.
C. 1 & 2 only.
D. 1, 2, 3 & 4.
1

The riverbank between the Tungabhadra reservoir and Kampli has been identified as
Protected area for Otters. Which of the following are true about Otters.

1. Otters are listed as endangered in the IUCN Red list of threatened species.
2. Otters are hunted for their fur.
A. 1 only.
B. 2 only.
C. Both.
D. None.
1

Consider the following lakes in J&K.

1. Hokersar.
2. Tsomoriri.
3. Mansar.
4. Surinsar.
Which of these lakes are listed under the Ramsar convention.
A. All except 2.
B. All except 3.
C. All except 4.

D. None of the above options are correct.


1

The Montreux Record is a register of wetland sites on the List of Wetlands of


International Importance where changes in ecological character have occurred, are
occurring, or are likely to occur as a result of technological developments, pollution or
other human interference. It is maintained as part of the Ramsar List. Which of the
following lakes from India are included in the Montreux record.

1. Loktak Lake.
2. Chilka Lake.
3. Wullar Lake.
A. 1 only.
B. 1 & 2 only.
C. 2 & 3 only.
D. 1, 2 & 3 only.
1

Which of the following statements are correct according to the India State of Forest
Report 2011 Published by Forest Survey of India.

1. There has been a net decrease in the forest cover of hill districts of India in comparison to
previous assessment.
2. There has been a net decrease in the forest cover of tribal districts of India in comparison
to previous assessment.
3. There has been a net decrease in the forest cover of North Eastern states of India in
comparison to previous assessment.
4. There has been a net decrease in the Mangrove cover in comparison to previous
assessment.
5. There has been a net decrease in the forest cover of India in comparison to previous
assessment
A. All except 2.
B. All except 3.
C. All except 4.

D. None of the above options are correct.


1

The Union Ministry of Environment and Forest has suggested species recovery action
plans in the State to save Great Indian Bustard, Lesser Florican and Bengal Florican.
Which of the following statements with regard to these three birds are correct.

1. All these 3 birds are critically endangered according to IUCN Red list.
2. Lesser Florican is mostly found in the Western part of India whereas Bengal Florican is
found in the Eastern part of India.
3. All the three birds belong to the Bustard family.
A. 1 & 2 only.
B. 1 & 3 only.
C. 2 & 3 only.
D. 1, 2 & 3 only.
1

Consider the following four birds.

i.

Great Indian Bustard.

ii.

Lesser Florican.

iii.

Bengal Florican.

iv.

Houbara Bustard.

Consider the following statements with regard to these four birds.


1. Out of these four birds exactly two are listed as critically endangered according to IUCN
Red list.
2. Out of these four birds exactly one is listed as vulnerable according to IUCN Red list.
3. Out of these four birds exactly one bird is listed as threatened according to IUCN Red
list.
Which of the above statements are correct.
A. 1 only.
B. 3 only.

C. 1, 2 & 3.
D. 1 & 3 only.
1

Forest Rights Act recognizes the rights of forest dwellers over forestland and forest
resources such as minor forest produce they have traditionally been extracting and using.
Which of the following statements is/are correct with regard to this Act.

1. Forest dwellers can transport minor forest produce by any appropriate means of transport.
2. A committee set up by Gram Sabha issues transit passes for transporting minor forest
produce.
A. 1 only.
B. 2 only.
C. Both.
D. None.
1

Consider the following:

1. 2012 was the 40h anniversary of Stockholm conference.


2. 2012 was the 25th anniversary of Montreal protocol.
3. 2012 was the 20th anniversary of Rio Earth Summit.
4. 2012 was the 10th anniversary of World sustainable summit.
Which of the above statements are correct.
A. 2 & 4 only.
B. 1, 2 & 3 only.
C. 1, 2, 3 & 4.
D. 3 & 4 only.
1

Which of the following Ozone depleting substances have been completely phased out
(Both production and consumption) from India:

1. CFCs.

2. CTC.
3. Halons.
4. Methyl Bromides.
5. HCFCs.
A. All except 4 & 5.
B. All except 5.
C. All except 2, 3, 4 & 5.
D. None of the above options are correct.

Question 61 to 80
1

Indian firm Godrej claims to be the first company in the world to have started making and
selling air conditioners that do not use HFCs. Which of the following statements with
regard to HFCs (Hydroflorocarbon) are correct:

1. HFCs have replaced CFCs and HCFCs as coolant for refrigerators.


2. HFCs pose no harm to the ozone layer.
3. HFCs are potent Green house gases.
4. HFCs are generated during the manufacturing of HCFCs.
A. 2 & 4 only.
B. 1, 2 & 3 only.
C. 1, 2, 3 & 4.
D. 3 & 4 only.
1

The targets for the first commitment period of the Kyoto Protocol cover emissions of the
six main greenhouse gases, which of the following gas is NOT one of these:

A. Carbontetrachloride (CTC)
B. Hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs)

C. Perfluorocarbons (PFCs)
D. Sulphur hexafluoride (SF6)
1

The Himalayan Yew Tree in the Himalayan region that has cancer curing properties is
facing near extinction. The reason for this is:

A. A widespread attack of fungus on these trees.


B. Introduction of other invasive species.
C. Over exploitation.
D. Construction of new dams that has led to submersion of vast areas.
1
I.

Consider the following lakes:


Sasthamkotta Lake.

II.

Vembanad Lake.

III.

Ashtamudi Lake.

IV.

Vellayani Lake.

Which if the following statements are correct:


1. All these lakes are located in Kerala.
2. Exactly three lakes are located in Kerala.
3. All these lakes are Ramsar sites.
4. Exactly three lakes are Ramsar sites.
A. 1 & 4 only.
B. 2 & 3 only.
C. 1 & 3 only.
D. 2 & 4 only.
1

Boron is an essential micronutrient for crops. Which of the following are the functions of
Boron in crops:

1. Facilitates pollination.
2. Aids in translocation of sugar and carbohydrates.
3. It plays an important role in the proper function of cell membranes.
4. Helps in Nitrogen fixation.
5. Aids in photosynthesis.
A. All except 4 & 5.
B. All except 5.
C. All except 3, 4 & 5.
D. None of the above options are correct.
1

Which of the following can accelerate global warming:

1. Rice cultivation.
2. Cattle breeding.
3. Melting of permafrost in the Arctic region.
A. 1 & 3 only.
B. 1 & 2 only.
C. 2 & 3 only.
D. 1, 2 & 3.
1

Which of the following statements are correct:

1. Indian high temperature Reactor (IHTR) will be installed in remote areas and will require
refueling only once in 15 years.
2. Compact high temperature reactor (CHTR) will generate hydrogen.
3. Advanced heavy water reactor (AHWR) will generate electricity from thorium.
A. 1 & 3 only.
B. 1 & 2 only.

C. 2 & 3
D. 1, 2 & 3.
1

Under the Integrated Nutrient Management (INM), Mycorrhiza is an indispensable


agricultural input. Mycorrhiza is a symbiotic association of fungus with the root of the
plant. The benefits associated with such association are:

1. Improved supply of water and nutrients to the plants.


2. Increases tolerance of plants to environmental stress.
3. Protects plant from soil borne pathogenic diseases.
4. Maintains biological health of soil.
A. 2 & 4 only.
B. 1, 2 & 3 only.
C. 1, 2, 3 & 4.
D. 3 & 4 only.
1

Algaculture is a form of aquaculture involving the farming of species of algae. The


potential benefits of algal biomass are:

1. It can be used as fertilizer.


2. It can be used for power generation.
3. It can be used for production of biodegradable plastics.
4. It is useful for food processing.
5. It can help in controlling air and water pollution.
6. It can be used in cosmetics and pharmaceutical industries.
7. It can be used to produce biodiesel.
A. All except 4 & 5.
B. All except 1 & 5.
C. All except 7.

D. None of the above options are correct.


1

Over 140 countries have agreed on the first international treaty that aims to reduce the
emission and release of mercury into the air, water and land. Treaty is named as the
Minamata convention. Which of the following is correct with regard to this treaty:

1. The convention prohibits primary mining of mercury.


2. The use of mercury in products like CFL, batteries, soaps, cosmetics and medical
appliances must be phased out by 2020.
3. Treaty keeps exception for the products like vaccines preservatives and products related
to religious faith.
A. 1 only.
B. 1, 2 & 3.
C. 3 only.
D. 1 & 2 only.
1

Assertion: Arctics Ozone depletion tends to be milder and short lived than the
Antarctics.

Reason: CFCs, Frigid temperatures and sunlight are not present at the Arctic at the same time.
A. Assertion & Reason both are correct and Reason is the correct explanation.
B. Assertion & Reason both are correct but reason is not the correct explanation.
C. Assertion is wrong, Reason is correct.
D. Assertion is correct, reason is wrong.
1

Agricultural activities produce Green house Gases, which of the following are the gases
that are produced:

A. CO2, NO2 & CH4.


B. NO2 & CH4 only.
C. CO2 & CH4 only.
D. CH4 only.

Which of the following crops are used for producing Bio fuels.

1. Sugar cane.
2. Corn.
3. Potato
A. 1 & 2 only.
B. 1 & 3 only.
C. 2 & 3 only.
D. 1, 2 & 3.
1

Assertion: Two major energy blocs the U.S. and the EU are leading the way to phase
out first-generation biofuels and replace them completely with second-generation
biofuels.

Reason: Second generation bio fuels do not interfere with food production.
A. Assertion & Reason both are correct and Reason is the correct explanation.
B. Assertion & Reason both are correct but reason is not the correct explanation.
C. Assertion is wrong, Reason is correct.
D. Assertion is correct, reason is wrong.
1

A recent study taken up by a team of researchers from the Zoological Survey of India
(ZSI), Chennai, brought to light the serious threat of extinction the coral reef colonies and
mangrove forests in the Palk Bay are facing. The probable reasons for this decline are:

1. Global Warming.
2. Siltation.
3. Overgrowth of Algae.
A. 1 & 2 only.
B. 1 & 3 only.
C. 2 & 3 only.

D. 1, 2 & 3.
1

Which of the following Indian Biosphere Reserves have been included in the World
network of Biosphere reserves under the Man Biosphere program of UNESCO:

1. Simplipal Biosphere Reserve.


2. Achanakmar Amarkantak Biosphere Reserve.
3. Pachmarhi Biosphere Reserve.
4. Western Ghats
A. 1, 2 & 4 only.
B. 1 & 3 only.
C. 1, 2, 3 & 4.
D. 1, 2 & 3 only.
1

Consider the following four species.

i.

Forest Owlet.

ii.

Ganges Dolphin.

iii.

Ganges Shark.

iv.

Dugongs.

Consider the following statements with regard to these four birds.


1. Out of these four, exactly two are listed as critically endangered according to IUCN Red
list.
2. Out of these four, exactly one is listed as vulnerable according to IUCN Red list.
3. Out of these four, exactly one is listed as threatened according to IUCN Red list.
Which of the above statements are correct.
A. 1 only.
B. 3 only.

C. 1, 2 & 3.
D. 1 & 2 only.
1

An allotrope of carbon, graphite is a convenient choice to act as a neutron-moderator in a


nuclear reactor. What can be a potential reason for this:

1. The carbon atom has a light nucleus that can absorb a lot of energy from fast neutrons,
slowing them down effectively
2. Carbon is easily available as a solid.
3. It is light and inexpensive to handle.
A. 1 only.
B. 3 only.
C. 1, 2 & 3.
D. 1 & 2 only.
1

Horticulture is the science of cultivation of:

1. Fruit.
2. Vegetables.
3. Flowers.
A. 1 & 2 only.
B. 3 only.
C. 1, 2 & 3.
D. 1 & 3 only.
1

Which of the following statements are correct with regard to Deer & Antelopes:

1. Deer have antlers.


2. Antelopes have horns.
3. Antlers are permanent.

4. Horns grow periodically.


A. 1 & 3 only.
B. 1 & 2 only.
C. 1, 2, 3 & 4.
D. 2 & 4 only.

Question 81 to 100
1

Which of the following statements are correct with regard to Grass:

1. Grass has flowers.


2. Grass has fruits.
3. Grass has stem.
4. Bamboo is a grass.
5. Sugarcane is a grass.
A. All except 5.
B. All except 1 & 2.
C. All except 2.
D. None of the above options are correct.
1

For the purpose of coastal regulation, Coastal regulation Zone 2011 notification states
that the coastal zone is:

1. 500 m on the landward side from high tide line.


2. 500 m on the landward side from low tide line.
3. 12 nautical miles on the seaward side from the high tide line.
4. 12 nautical miles on the seaward side from the low tide line.
A. 2 & 4 only.

B. 1 & 3 only.
C. 1 & 4 only.
D. 2 & 3 only.
1

Consider the following statements:

1. A gulf is a large body of sea surrounded by land on three sides.


2. A bay is a large area of sea partially enclosed by land.
3. A lagoon is a shallow lake of salt water separated from sea by offshore islands.
4. Chilka Lake is a lagoon.
A. 1, 2 & 4 only.
B. 1, 2, 3 & 4.
C. 3 & 4 only.
D. 1, 2 & 3 only.
1

Consider the following statements:

1. Aceclofenac is a painkiller used by veterinary doctors.


2. Aceclofenac is derived from diclofenac.
3. Aceclofenac is a potential threat to vultures.
Which of the above statements is/are correct.
A. 1 only.
B. 3 only.
C. 1, 2 & 3.
D. 1 & 2 only.
1

Consider the following statements with regard to Global Hunger Index (GHI):

1. The dimensions of hunger that are measured for GHI are undernourishment, child under
weight and child mortality.

2. Countries are ranked on 100-point scale.


3. Higher the GHI values, the worse the ranking of the country.
4. India has a higher rank than Bangladesh but lower rank than Pakistan.
Which of the above statements is/are correct.
A. 1 & 4 only.
B. 3 only.
C. 1, 2 & 3 only.
D. 1, 2, 3 & 4.
1

In which of the following diseases, a mosquito can pick up the infection from one human
and transmit the infection to another:

1. Malaria.
2. Japanese Encephalitis.
3. Filariasis.
A. 1 & 2 only.
B. 2 only.
C. 1, 2 & 3.
D. 1 & 3 only.
1

Which of the following statements with regard to type 1 and type 2 diabetes are correct.

1. The onset of type 1 is sudden whereas onset of type 2 is gradual.


2. Type 2 is more common than type 1.
3. In type 2, the body stops producing insulin.
4. The onset of type 2 is primarily due to lifestyle reasons whereas the onset of type 1 is
unrelated to lifestyle.
5. Type 1 mostly affects children whereas type 2 mostly affects adults.

A. All except 5.
B. All except 1.
C. All except 2 & 4.
D. All except 3
1

Chemical castration is a medical procedure that reduces sexual urges and arousals in a
human being. The side effects of Chemical Castration include:

1. Loss in Bone density.


2. Loss of body hair.
3. Greater deposition of body fat.
4. Female like breasts in male.
A. 1 & 3 only.
B. 2 & 3 only.
C. 1, 2 & 4 only.
D. 1, 2, 3 & 4.
1

Rabies has been made as the priority disease for control under the 12th 5-year plan. Rabies
is caused by the bite of:

1. Dogs.
2. Monkeys.
3. Cats.
A. 1 & 3 only.
B. 2 & 3 only.
C. 1, 2 & 3.
D. 1 & 2 only.
1

Which of the following statements with regard to BCG is/are correct:

1. BCG is a vaccine for TB.


2. BCG cannot be given to HIV positive people.
3. BCG is a live attenuated vaccine.
A. 1 & 3 only.
B. 2 & 3 only.
C. 1, 2 & 3.
D. 1 & 2 only.
1

Chronic Myeloid Leukemia a form of cancer was in news recently. The context was:
a. Gliveec Patent case
b. Angelina Jolie double mastectomy Gene Patent case.
c. A new cure has been found for this form of cancer.
d.

Fukushima Nuclear disaster.

Correct Statements?
a. Northwestern Himalayas are famous for Karewa formations.
b. Karewa formations are helpful in the cultivation of Zafran.
c. Both A and B are correct
d. Both A and B are incorrect

What do you understand by Intensive Subsistence Agriculture?


a. In this type of agriculture the yield per unit area is high but per labour
productivity is low.
b. In this type of agriculture the yield per unit area is low but per labour productivity
is high.
c. In this type of agriculture the yield per unit area & per labour productivity is low.
d. In this type of agriculture the yield per unit area & per labour productivity is high.

The net primary productivity of an ecosystem is


a. The gross primary productivity minus plant respiration
b. The primary productivity at herbivore level
c. The primary at consumer level
d. The productivity at top consumer level minus at all levels

consider following statements


a. An ecotype is Genetically different forms of the same organisms
b. Pyramid of trophic levels is always upright in case of energy
c. Both A and B correct
d. Neither A or B correct

Correct Statement?
a. Black foot disease is caused by Excess of fluoride in water
b. Snow blindness is caused due to Ultraviolet radiations
c. Both correct
d. Both Incorrect

Correct Statement
a. The term ecology was first used by term by German zoologist Ernst Haeckel
b. Richael Carssons famous book Silent Spring dealt with the Impacts of agrochemicals on ecological functions
c. Both Correct
d. None Correct

An oligotrophic lake has


a. High levels of nutrients in water
b. High aquatic productivity

c. Algal blooms
d. Low nutrients and low productivity
1

Incorrect Statements about Eutrophication


a. Eutrophication is the enrichment of surface waters with plant nutrients.
b. Eutrophication can leads to algal blooms, deoxygenation of water and ultimately
fish kills.
c. Eutrophicated water is oxygen rich and safe for direct human consumption
without requiring any treatment.
d. None of above

Consider the following two fresh water ecosystem


a. Streams, Springs, Rivers are examples of lotic type fresh water ecosystem
b. Pond, lake, ditch are examples of lentic type fresh water ecosystem
c. both A and B are correct.
d. Both A and B incorrect.

Answers
Courtesy: These Question-Answers were setup by Mr. Palas Nuwal
1. D
2. D All are correct.
3. C Both are correct.
4. D All are correct Refer Wiki.
5. C
6. B It is not concentration but column thickness.
7. B Body has mechanism to prevent sunlight from producing too much vitamin D.

8. A Ice reflects sunrays. If it is replaced by dense forest, it will absorb more heat. As dark
regions absorb more heat. Eventually aiding in Global Warming.
9. A It is the lightest material. Graphite Aerogel was the lightest material previously.
10. A It is not endemic to India It is an invasive species. Source The Hindu
http://www.thehindu.com/news/national/other-states/a-floweringoutbreak/article4588572.ece
11. A
12. C It is basic in nature.
13. A
14. C SOx and NOx are not produced.
15. B
16. D
17. D
18. A
19. A
20. A
21. D All are correct.
22. A
23. C
24. C
25. C
26. D
27. C
28. D
29. D

30. B
31. D
32. B It has half the energy density of Natural gas.
33. D
34. C
35. B
36. B Force is attractive.
37. A
38. D
39. C There is no concrete research to prove option 1 If you find any proofs do share.
40. D All are correct.
41. D
42. D
43. D
44. C
45. B
46. D
47. C
48. A
49. C
50. D
51. D
52. B

53. D
54. A
55. C
56. C
57. C Refer IUCN Red list.
58. C
59. C
60. A.
61. C
62. A
63. C
64. A Vellayani Lake is not a Ramsar site.
65. B
66. D Rice (Methane), Cattle (Methane), Permafrost (Methane and Carbon dioxide)
67. C
68. B
69. D All are correct.
70. B
71. A It is necessary to have all three at the same time for ozone layer to deplete.
72. A
73. D
74. A
75. D

76. D Achanakmar Amarkantak was included in 2012. Western Ghats is world heritage
site.
77. D
78. D
79. C
80. B Antlers grow in periodic fashion and horns are permanent.
81. D. All are correct. Bamboo is the tallest grass. Sugarcane is sweet grass. Grass has
flowers, fruits and stems.
82. C
83. C
84. C
85. D
86. D
87. D
88. D
89. C
90. C
91. A-glivec case
92. C- NCERT class 12
93. A- NCERT class 12
94. A- gross minus respiration
95. C both right
96. B- blackfood=arsenic
97. C- both right

98. D- low nutrient


99. C- read impacts of eutrophication in http://www.fao.org/docrep/w2598e/w2598e06.htm
100.

C- both definitions are correct. memorise: lentic =static (water).

Q1. Two layers of a cloth of equal thickness provide warmer covering than -a single layer of
cloth with doable the thickness. Why?
a. Because of the air encapsulated between two layers
b. Since effective thickness of two layers is more

c. Fabric of the cloth plays the role


d. Weaving of the cloth plays the role
NCERT Class 7 Ch 4 Page 10
Suppose you are given the choice in winter of using either one thick blanket or two thin blankets
joined together. What would you choose and why? Remember that there would be a layer of air
in between the blankets This air prevents the flow of heat from our body to the cold
surroundings. So, we feel warm.
Hence answer A
Q2. A metal screw-top on a glass bottle which appears to be stuck could be opened by using
the fact that
A. the metal expands more than the glass when both are heated
B. the metal and glass expand identically when heated
C. the metal shrinks when heated
D. both metal and glass shrink when cooled
NCERT physics, Class 11 Ch 11, Page 4
It is our common experience that most substances expand on heating and contract on cooling. A
change in the temperature of a body causes change in its dimensions. The increase in the
dimensions of a body due to the increase in its temperature is called thermal expansion. Thermal
expansion coefficients given in Table 11.1
Glass : 0.32. And all the metals have higher coefficient than glass. Therefore, (A) is the
explaination.
Georgia State University confirms
Even if you heated the metal lid and the glass jar equally, you would loosen the lid a bit because
the thermal expansion coefficient of the metal is greater than that of the glass.
Hence answer (A)

Motion (2)
Q1. You are asked to jog in a circular track of radius 35 metres. Right at one complete round on
the circular track, your displacement and the distance covered by you are respectively

a. zero and 220 metres


b. 220 metres and zero
c. zero and 110 metres
d. 110 metres and 220 metres
NCERT 9 Ch 8 Page 2
Displacement: If final position coincides with the initial position, then displacement is zero.
Distance=circumference of the circle= 2 (pie)R= 2* (22/7) * 35= 220 metres
Hence answer (A)
Q2. In cricket match, while catching a fast-moving ball, a fielder in the ground gradually
pulls his hands backwards with the moving ball to reduce the velocity to zero. The act
represents
a. Newtons first law of motion
b. Newtons second law of motion
c. Newtons third law of motion
d. law of conservation of energy
NCERT Class 11 Ch.5 page 5
Newtons second law of motion:
A seasoned cricketer catches a cricket ball coming in with great speed far more easily than a
novice, who can hurt his hands in the act. One reason is that the cricketer allows a longer time
for his hands to stop the ball. As you may have noticed, he draws in the hands backward in the
act of catching the ball
Hence answer (B)

Optics (2)
Q1.No matter how far you stand from a mirror, your image appears erect. The mirror is
likely to be
a. Either plane or convex

b. Plane only
c. Concave
d. Convex only
NCERT 10, Ch 10 page 2

page 2: Image formed by a plane mirror is always virtual and erect.

page 9: Convex mirrors are preferred because they always give an erect image.

Source#2: Page 441 Lucent GK Book GK.


Q2. The position, relative size and nature of the image formed by a concave lens for an
object placed at infinity are respectively:
a. at focus, diminished and virtual
b. at focus, diminished and real
c. between focus and optical centre, diminished and virtual
d. between focus and optical centre, magnified and real
NCERT Class 10 Ch 10 Page 20, table 10.5
object position
infinite

image position
at focus F1

size of image
highly diminished

nature of image
virtual and erect.

Therefore answer (A)


Source #2: TMH General Studies Manual Page 28 under Science section.

Electricity (2)
Q1. A mobile phone charger is
a. an inverter
b. a UPS
c. a step-down transformer
(d)-1 step-up transformer

Physical Processes By Mark Pinsent, Page 103


A step down transfer decreases voltage. Mobile phone charger uses a step down transformer.
Q2. When an incandescent electric bulb glows
a. the electric energy is completely converted into light energy
b. the electric energy is partly converted into light energy and partly into heat energy
c. the light energy is converted into electric energy
d. the electric energy is converted into magnetic energy
NCERT Class 7 ch14 page 6
An electric bulb is used for light but it also gives heat. This is not desirable. This results in the
wastage of electricity. => Answer (B)

Astro (1)
Q3. A typical black hole is always specified by
a. a (curvature) singularity
b. a horizon
c. either a (curvature) singularity or a horizon
d. a charge
TheHindu Jan 2014
physicist Stephen Hawking, one of the creators of modern theory on black holes, has now
questioned the existence of the phenomenon known as event horizon around them. Mening, so far
typical black hole is specified by a horizon.
Britannica confirms
Event horizon is the Boundary marking the limits of a black hole.
Nothing that enters a black hole can get out or can be observed from outside the event horizon.
Likewise, any radiation generated inside the horizon can never escape beyond it.
hence answer (B)

Chemistry Answerkey (5 MCQs)


Q1. Which of the following solutions will not change the colour of blue litmus paper to red?
1. Acid solution
2. Base solution
3. Common salt solution
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
a. 1 and 3
b. 2 and 3
c. 1 only
d. 2 only
NCERT class 7 ch 5 page 8: Acid turns blue litmus red. Bases turn red litmus blue.
Therefore, anything that is not Acid, will not change color of litmus from blue to red. Hence
(B) 2 and 3 only.
Source #2: Lucent GK Book Page 481
Q2. Which one of the following gases is supporter of combustion?
a. Hydrogen
b. Nitrogen
c. Carbon dioxide
d. Oxygen
NCERT 8 ch. 6 page 11: Oxygen (in air) is essential for combustion. Answer (D)
Q3.Date of manufacture of food items fried in oil should be checked before buying because
oils become rancid due to
a. Oxidation.
b. Reduction.

c. Hydrogenation.
d. Decrease in velocity.
NCERT 10 Ch 1 Page 13: When fats and oils are oxidised, they become rancid and their smell
and taste change. Hence answer (A)
Q4. Iron sheet kept in moist air gets covered with rust. Rust is
a. an element
b. a compound
c. a mixture of iron and dust
d. a mixture of iron, oxygen and water
NCERT Class 12 chemistry Ch3 Page 28-29
Corrosion of iron (commonly known as rusting) occurs in presence of water and air.
Rust is the hydrated ferric oxide Fe2O3xH20
Hence answer (D)
counter view: rust is a compound and not a mixture hence answer (B).
Q5.Addition of ethylene dibormide to petrol
a. Increases the octane number of fuel
b. Helps elimination of lead oxide
c. Removes the sulphur compound in petrol
d. Serves as a substitute of tetra-ethyl lead
Analytical Chemistry VK Sharma, Page A70
Lead oxide deposit is harmful to engine life. Thus, a small amount of ethylene dibromide is also
added to petrol for simultaneously removal of lead oxide.
Hence answer (B)

1. Which of the following structures of a plant is responsible for transpiration? a. Xylem


b. Root
c. Stomata
d. Bark
Ans. NCERT Class 7 Ch 11 page 129
The water evaporates through the stomata present on the surface of the leaves by the process of
transpiration. Answer C
Q2. Which of the following does not possess a specialized conducting tissue for transport of
water and other substances in plants?
a. Marchantia
b. Marsilea
c. Cycas
d. Fern
NCERT Biology class 11, Ch3, Page 8
Pteridophytes include horsetails and ferns. Evolutionarily, they are the first terrestrial plants to
possess vascular tissues xylem and phloem. => D eliminated.
And this also hints that any plant Before pteridophtes, doesnt possess specialized tissues.
Same chapter, page7
The liverworts grow usually in moist, shady habitats such as banks of streams, marshy ground,
damp soil, bark of trees and deep in the woods. The plant body of a liverwort is thalloid, e.g.,
Marchantia.
Hence answer should be (A).

Just to crosscheck, Britannica also confirms:


Vascular plants are those that possess a specialized conducting system for the transport of water,
minerals, and food materials, as opposed to the more primitive bryophytesmosses and
liverwortswhich lack such a system.
and since Marchantia is one type of liverwort=> it lacks the specialized tissues to transport water
etc.
Therefore, answer (A)
Q3. Which one of the following elements is present in green pigment of leaf?
a. Magnesium
b. Phosphorus
c. Iron
d. Calcium
NCERT biology class 11, Ch12, Page4: Magnesium is a constituent of the ring structure of
chlorophyll.
And we know that chlorophyll=green pigment. Hence answer (A)

Zoology(1)
Q1. Among the following animals, choose the one having three pairs of legs.
a. Spider
b. Scorpion
c. Bug
d. Mite
NCERT Class 11 Ch1 Page8
Insects represent a group of organisms sharing common features like three pairs of jointed legs.
Therefore, answer (C)
Source #2: Lucent GK Book Page 539: there are six feet and four wings in the insects (six feet =
three pairs).

Source #3: TMH General Studies Manual, page 87


Just to cross check:
1. Britannica page on Arachnid: Spiders, Scorpions and Mites fall under Arachnid class.
and from the photos posted in there, you can see theyre more than three pair of legs.
2. Britannica page on insects: Insects are distinguished from other arthropods by their
bodywhich usually has three pairs of legs

Disease/microbes (2)
Q1. Which method of water purification does not kill microorganism?
a. Boiling
b. Filtration
c. Chlorination
d. UV-irradiation
Although common sense suggest answer should be filtration among the given option. But for the
sake of reference: FAQ page of a UV filter company
Do ordinary filters kill bacteria?
No. Ordinary filters cannot kill bacteria. The bacteria will enter the filter and either pass through
the filter or grow within the filter.
Hence answer (B).
Q2. What causes dough (a mixture of flour, water, etc.) to rise when yeast is added to it?
a. An increase in the temperature
b. An increase in the amount of the substance
c. An increase in the number of yeast cells
d. Release of carbon dioxide gas
NCERT 7 Ch. 10 page 1

there are some organisms such as yeast that can survive in the absence of air. They are called
anaerobes. They get energy through anaerobic respiration. In the absence of oxygen, they
breakdown glucose into alcohol and carbon dioxide. => Answer should be D.
Britannica confirms
leavening agent cause expansion of doughs by the release of gases within such mixtures, thus,
producing baked products with porous structure. Yeast, baking powder, and baking soda are
examples of leavening agents.
Final answer (D)

Human Biology(6)
Q1. Deficiency of which of the following elements is responsible for weakening of bones?
1. Calcium
2. Phosphorus
3. Nitrogen
4. Carbon
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1 only
c. 1, 2 and 3
d. 4
Common sense suggests answer should be only 1 (Calcium). but this is UPSC, so before
applying common sense we should cross check that atleast #2 (phosphorous) is wrong. (if
phosphorous is wrong, then itll automatically eliminate A and C)
NCERT Class 12 Chemistry Ch 7 Page 2.
Phosphorus is an essential constituent of animal and plant matter. It is present in bones as well
as in living cells.
But, will its deficiency weaken the bone?

1. Britannica Kids: A diet deficient in vitamin D, calcium, or phosphorus, can result in


rickets.. causes bone deformities such as bowlegs.
2. Encyclopedia of Animal Science by Wilson G. Pond Page 636: The outstanding disease
of Ca and P deficiency is rickets. Rickets results in weak bones, causing curving and
bending of the bones.
3. Food and nutrition education, Punam Chopra, Page 123: In Children, phosphorous
deficiency causes weakening of teeth and bones.
Therefore, answer (A) only 1 and 2. i.e. deficiency of calcium and phosphorous leads to
weakening of bones.
Q2. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding fats?
1. Fats are needed for the formation of cell membrane.
2. Fats help the body to absorb calcium from food.
3. Fats are required to repair damaged tissue.
4. Body cannot release energy in fats as quickly as the energy in carbohydrates.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
a. 1 and 4
b. 1 only
c. 2 and 4
d. 3 and 4
Statement #1 is correct
1. theHindu from 2010: Fifty per cent of all our cell membranes are made up of saturated
fat.
2. Cellular physiology, Livio Luzi, Page18: The three main classes of lipids that makeup the
cell membranes are fats, phospholipids and steroids
Statement 4 is correct
1. Energy Balance by Westerterp, Page 34: Carbohydrate is a fast energy source. Fat as an
energy source only becomes available through a longer digestion process.

2. Advanced Marathoning By Pete Pfitzinger, Page 37: Carbohydrate is a more efficient


energy source than fat. You cannot run as fast by burning just fat.
Final answer: (A) 1 and 4
Q3. Which of-the following statements is /are correct?
1. Amnion contains fluid.
2. Ultrasound scan can detect the sex of an embryo.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
Statement #1 is right, as per Britannica
Amnion is a membrane forming a fluid-filled cavity (the amniotic sac) that encloses the embryo
in reptiles, birds, and mammals
Statement #2 is right. Although we all know it but for the sake of reference: Textbook of Basic
nursing, Nursine by aroline Rosdahl and Mary Kowalski, Page 949
Ultrasound scan can determine the age, size and sex of the foetus.
counter argument: Ultrasound cannot detect @Embryo stage.
Answer (C) or A.
Q4.Two strands of DNA are held together by
a. hydrogen bonds
b. covalent bonds
c. electrostatic force
d. van der Waals forces
Page 519 of Lucent GK Book =>answer A

Q5.Match List-I with List-II and select the answer using the code given below the Lists:
List-I(Gland)
A.Pancreas
B.Pituitary
C.Adrenals
D.Kidneys

List-II(Hormone)
1.Cortisol
2.Vitamin D
3.Thyroid stimulating hormone
4.Glucagon

Code:
A
4
4
2
2

a
b
c
d

B
3
1
1
3

C
1
3
3
1

D
2
2
4
4

correct pairs
A4: Pancreas (alpha cells) =Glucagon
B3: Pituitary = Thyroid
C1: Adrenal = Cortisol

NCERT 11 Biology, ch 22 page 7


page3
page 6

There is only one option A where such pattern emergences. Hence answer (A)
Source#2: Lucent GK Book Page 554-555
Source#3: TMH General Studies Manual, Page 110
Q6. People suffering from anorexia nervosa
a. Develop paralysis
b. Show poor reflex
c. Cannot speak properly
d. Eat very little and fear gaining weight
NCERT 12 Psychology Ch.4 Page 16
In anorexia nervosa, the individual has a distorted body image that leads her/him to see
herself/himself as overweight. Often refusing to eat, exercising compulsively and developing

unusual habits such as refusing to eat in front of others, the anorexic may lose large amounts of
weight and even starve herself/himself to death. Hence answer (D).

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