2015
cm
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1. What is the uplink frequency or Reverse direction (MS to BTS) for CDMA WLL?
(a) 824-849 MHz
(b) 834-859 MHz
(c) 869-894 MHz
(d) 879-904 MHz
2. What is the downlink frequency or Forward direction (BTS to MS) for CDMA WLL?
(a) 824-849 MHz
(b) 834-859 MHz
(c) 869-894 MHz
(d) 879-904 MHz
3. What is the RF carrier Bandwidth in CDMA WLL?
(a) 125 MHz
(b) 1.25 MHz
(c) 250 MHZ
(d) none of the above
4. What is the Duplex Separation in CDMA WLL?
(a) 25 MHz
(b) 25 MHz
(c) 45 MHz
(d) 250 MHz
5. CDMA is a ____________technology, allowing many users to occupy the same time and
frequency allocations in a given band/space.
(a) spread spectrum
(b) OFDMA
(c) Future
(d) none of the above
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18. _________ does not accommodate any supplementary service except for IWF.
(a) BTS
(b) BSC
(c) MSC
(d) none of the above
19. A maximum of _______ BTSs can be accommodated into one base station controller (BSC)
(a) 4
(b) 12
(c) 48
(d) 90
20. Maximum of _______ can be interworked with one transmission line in the daisy chain for
the sake of efficient use of transmission lines.
(a) 2BTS
(b) 4BTS
(c) 8BTS
(d) 10BTS
21. Which of this is the function of the BTS?
(a) call control
(b) monitoring power and environments
(c) maintenance functions concering mobile stations
(d) All of the above
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22. The CDMA system has a soft capacity limit. That is increasing the number of users will
__________ the system performance.
(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) stabilise
(d) None of the above
23. GSM is a widely spread standard and CDMA is a __________technology.
(a) Owned
(b) proprietry
(c) Patented
(d) None of the above
24. CDMA base station consumes ___________ power than GSM and also covers a _______
distance.
(a) more, large
(b) less, large
(c) less, less
(d) None of the above
25.The access method used in CDMA is CDMA while in GSM it is _______________.
(a) FDMA
(b) CDMA
(c) TDMA
(d) All of the above
26. In CDMA operator locking is provided by ESN while in GSM it is __________
(a) SIM
(b) RUIM
(c) UNlockable
(d) None of the above
27.In GSM Handset interoperability is provided by _______and in CDMA it is _________.
(a) SIM, ESN
(b) SIM, RUIM
(c) RUIM, SIM
(d) ESN, SIM
28. In GSM handoff is _________ while in CDMA it is ___________.
(a) hard, hard
(b) soft, hard
(c) hard, soft
(d) soft, soft
29. Various factors such as echoes, call dropping, or voice distortion are almost non-existent in
______, whereas in ________, there is a high probability of errors.
(a) GSM, CDMA
(b) CDMA, GSM
(c) GSM, CorDECT
(d) None of the above
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30. What is time interval for checking signal strength power level of MS by BTS in Closed loop
power control in reverse link of CDMA technology?
(a) 1.25 ms
(b) (b)5 ms
(c) 5 ms
(d) 10 ms
31. High-powered GSM signals have been shown to cause ____________of CDMA receivers
due to CDMAs reliance upon broadcasting across its entire available band.
(a) overloading
(b) jamming
(c) Both 1 & 2
(d) None of the above
32. In general, Spread Spectrum communications is distinguished by which of these elements?
(a) The signal occupies a bandwidth much greater than that which is necessary to send the
information
(b) The bandwidth is spread by means of a code which is independent of the data
(c) The receiver synchronizes to the code to recover the data
(d) All of the above
33. Which of this is the way to spread the bandwidth of the signal:
(a) Frequency hopping
(b) Time hopping
(c) Direct sequence
(d) All of the above
34. The digital data is directly coded at a much higher frequency. The code is generated pseudorandomly, the receiver knows how to generate the same code, and correlates the received signal
with that code to extract the data. Which type of spread spectrum is this?
(a) Frequency hopping
(b) Time hopping
(c) Direct sequence
(d) None of the above
35. The signal is transmitted in short bursts pseudo-randomly, and the receiver knows before
hand when to expect the burst. Which type of spread spectrum is this?
(a) Frequency hopping
(b) Time hopping
(c) Direct Sequence
(d) None of the above
36. In CDMA, the pseudo-random code must have the following property
(a) It must be deterministic
(b) It must appear random to a listener without prior knowledge of the code
(c) The code must have a long period
(d) All of the above
37. What will be the correlation of two codes ,if the two codes are identical ?
(a) 0
(b) 0.5
(c) 1
(d) infinite
Explanation: It equals 0 of the two codes have nothing in common
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(b) jamming
(d) None of the above
42. In CDMA, the system uses ______for the Forward and Reverse links
(a) FDD
(b) TDD
(c) Both 1 & 2
(d) None of the above
43. Which of this channel is unidirectional?
(a) Broadcast
(b) Call Setup
(c) Assigned (d) None of the above
44Communication Standards for CDMA , the spread spectrum signal rate is
(a) 2.048Mbit/s
(b) 1.4444Mbit/s
(c) 1.2288Mbit/s
(d) None of the above
45. Which of this is a reverse channel?
1. Pilot
(b) Sync
(c) Paging
(d) Access
46. Which of this is forward channel?
(a) Pilot
(b) Sync
(c) Paging
(d) All of the above
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47. Which of these Obtains a phase offset by short PN sequences, in order to identify different
base stations?
(a) Pilot
(b) Sync
(c) Paging
(d) Access
48. Once the mobile station accepts the _________, a traffic channel is assigned by the base
station for the mobile station to use.
(a) pilot
(b) page
(c) access channel
(d) None of the above
49. Although a sector can have up to seven paging channels, and each paging channel can have
up to 32 access channels, nearly all systems today use only _______paging channel per sector
and only ________access channel per paging channel.
(a) one, one
(b) one, three
(c) three, one
(d) None of the above
50. Reverse Traffic Channel is :
1. used when a call is in progress to send
(b) Response to commands/queries from the base station
(c) Requests to the base station
(d) All of the above
51. Which of these Respond to Paging Channel messages?
1. pilot
(b) forward traffic
(c) reverse traffic
(d) access
52. The paging channel originates at the ___________.
1. BSC
(b) base station
(c) MS
(d) None of the above
53. RUIM Full form is Removable User Interface Module.
True/False
True/False
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(d) 802.16
True/False
5. Because of the shared media operation, all Wi-Fi networks are ___________.
(a) simplex
(b) half duplex
(c) full duplex
(d) None of the above
6. All Wi-Fi networks are contention-based ___________ systems where the access point and
the mobile stations all vie for use of the same channel.
(a) TDD
(b) FDD
(c) Both 1 & 2
(d) None of the above
7. An RC4-based 40-or 104-bit encryption with a static key is called ____________________
(a) Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP)
(b) Wi-Fi Protected Access (WPA)
(c) IEEE 80(b)11i/WPA2
(d) None of the above
8. In Wi-Fi, which version operates in the 5GHz band frequency(a) 802.11a (b) 802.11b (c) 802.11d (d) 802.11e
9. In Wi-Fi this uses the 40 or 104-bit WEP key, but it changes the key on each packet. Which
type of encryption is this called?
(a) Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP)
(b) Wi-Fi Protected Access (WPA)
(c) IEEE 80(b)11i/WPA2
(d) None of the above
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(c) both
(d) None
18. The Wi-Fi standards define a fixed channel bandwidth of _______for 802.11b and
___________for either 802.11a or g networks.
(a) 25 MHz ,25 MHz
(b) 20 MHz ,20 MHz
(c) 25 MHz , 20 MHz
(d) 20 MHz ,25 MHz
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(d) PCM
(d) CSMA/CD
21. WiFi make use of adaptive modulation and varying levels of __________________ to
optimize transmission rate and error performance.
(a) double error correction
(b) backward error correction
(c) forward error correction
(d) None of the above
22. Which of these are issues which are assumed to be the cause of the sluggish adoption of WiFi technology?
(a) Security Problems
(b) Compatibility and Interpretability
(c) Billing Issues
(d) All of the above
23. Which of this pertains to wireless LANs and provides 20+ Mbps in the 2.4-GHz band.
(a) 802.11
(b) 802.11a
(c) 802.11b (d) 802.11g
24. Which device operates in 2.4 GHz band(a) Bluetooth
(b) Cordless phone
25. The standard (IEEE 802) format for printing MAC-48 addresses in humanly-friendly form is
_________, separated by hyphens (-) or colons (:)
(a) twelve groups of four hexadecimal digits
(b) six groups of two hexadecimal digits
(c) two groups of six hexadecimal digits
(d) None of the above
26. MAC Address is for__________
(a) PC
(b) Modem
(c) Wi-Fi Network (d) None of the above
27. WEP encryption relies on a secret key that is shared between the ______________ and the
wireless access point.
(a) mobile station
(b) modem (c) ISP (d) None of the above
28. What is the full form of MAC address?
(a) Media Authentication Controller
(b) Mobile Access Control
(c) Media Access Control
(d) None of the above
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(b) 802.16
(c) 802.22
(d) 801.16
40. A wireless communications system allows users to access information beyond their desk and
conduct business from anywhere without having wire connectivity. This characteristic is called
(a) Reachability
(b) Mobility
(c) Simplicity
(d) Maintainability
41. Wireless communications systems enable people to be better connected and reachable
without any limitation of any location.This characteristic is called
(a) Mobility
(b) Simplicity
(c) Reachability
(d) Maintainability
42. Wireless communication system are easy and fast to deploy in comparison of cabled
network. This characteristic is called
(a) Mobility:
(b) Reachability
(c) Simplicity
(d) Maintainability
43. Which of this is not a part of Wi MAX network?
(a) Base station (BS)
(b) access service network (ASN)
(c) Connectivity service network (CSN)
(d) Radio Network
Controllerb(RNC)
44. IEEE 802.16-2004 and IEEE 802.16e-2005 supports _________________, which allows for
a low-cost system implementation.
(a) TDD
(b) FDD
(c) half-duplex FDD
(d) All of the above
45. Which of these coding schemes is supported by WiMAX?
(a) hoffman codes (b) convolutional codes (c) BSD codes (d) gray codes
46. ________________is an effective mechanism to maximize throughput in a time-varying
channel.
(a) Link-layer retransmissions
(b) Adaptive modulation and coding (AMC)
(c) Robust security
(d) OFDM-based physical layer
47. Which of these are the Issues with Wireless Networks?
(a) Quality of Service (QoS) (b) Security Risk (c) Reachable Range (d) All of the above
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48. Which of this network is an independent local area network that is not connected to a wired
infrastructure and in which all stations are connected directly to one another?
(a) Point-to-point bridge
(b) Point-to-multipoint bridge
(c) Mesh or ad hoc network
(d) None of the above
49. What is the spectrum used in Wi MAX for IEEE 802.16 ?
(a) 2-11 GHZ
(b) 10-66 GHZ
(c) <6GHZ
(d) None of the above
50. What is the spectrum used in Wi MAX for IEEE 802.16a ?
(a) 2-11 GHZ
(b) 10-66 GHZ
(c) <6GHZ
(d) None of the above
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57. The___________________,which comprises one or more base stations and one or more ASN
gateways that form the radio access network at the edge.
(a) Base station (BS)
(b) access service network (ASN)
(c) Connectivity service network (CSN)
(d) None of the above
58. __________________, which provides IP connectivity and all the IP core network functions.
(a) Base station (BS)
(b) access service network (ASN)
(c) Connectivity service network (CSN)
(d) None of the above
True/False
(d) Alcatel
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1. In India Which type of MNP system is used for Mobile number portability :
(a) Recipient led porting system
(b) Donor- led Porting System
(c) Channel led porting system
(d) All of these
2. Which is best defines Donor led porting system:
(a)In this system, customer contact to current network (donor) for porting out code, in this
process donor has a opportunity to winning back the customers.
(b) In this system, customer contact to new network (recipient) which then sends number porting
request to current network.
(c) Both are correct
(d) both are wrong statement
3. In which country , Recipient led system is used:
(a) UK
(b) America
(c) India
4. If a Resident of Delhi wants to port out from one operator to other operator , then what is
minimum time frame to accept port request by Donor operator:
(a) 30 Min
(b) 7 Days
(c) 15 Days
(d) 30 Days
(b) 7 Days
(c) 15 Days
(d) 30 Days
7. Presently MNP is allowed within same circle/state, inter circle is yet to be started; However
Customer may migrate from CDMA to Gm & vice versa.
True/False
8. After port in MNP, customer has to remain at least for 90 days with new operator. After 90
days he/she become eligible for porting to another operator.
True/False
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(b) Rs. 50
(c) Rs.100
11. Consumer can withdraw porting request within 24 Hrs of submitting their request.
True/False
12. In J&K, SMS is not allowed from Prepaid Mobile service, hence for Prepaid MNP, call 1900
instead of SMS.
True/False
13. What is the validity period (Except J&K,Assam & NE) of system generated UPC code for
MNP?
(a) 1 day
(b) 7 days
(c) 15 days (d) 30 days
Explanation: In J&K,Assam & NE UPC validity time is 30 days.
14. For MNP entire country is divided in two zones, zone1& Zone2. Rajasthan falls in Zone 1
which Tamilnadu falls in Zone 2.
True/False
15. MCHA (Mobile number portability Clearing housing administrator) license for Zone 1 is
with M/s Syniverse Technology.
True/False
16. MCHA (Mobile number portability Clearing housing administrator) license for Zone 2 is
with M/s Interconnection Telecom solution India Pvt. Ltd.
True/False
Important Abbreviations:
LSA: License Service Area
LNPD: Local number Portability database, it is maintained by SSTP.
LRN: Location Routing Number
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1. In Case of PLMN registration on MS, the registered PLMN Identity is stored in ______
(a) MS Internal Memory
(b) External memory
SIM card memory
(d) PLMN identity is never stored on MS
2. Which service status appears in MS when there are one or more PLMN available and
allowable but LU (Location update) failure made registration on those PLMN unsuccessful or an
entry in a forbidden LAI:
(a) Normal Network active state
(b) Limited service state
SOS calls only state
(d) None
3. In PLMN selector what is the minimum value of received signal level for other PLMNs except
from HPLMN:
(a) -110dBm (b) -85 dBm (c) -43 dBm (d) None
4. During the National Roaming, which value is stored in SIM so that MS can periodically
attempt to obtain service from on its HPLMN (Home PLMN):
(a) VPLMN
(b) EF HPLMN
(c) AB HPLMN
(d) 30 Min
5. What is the range of EF HPLMN minutes?
(a) either 6 minutes to 8 Hours in 6 minutes step & in case of no value, default 30 min is
used,
(b) either 8 minutes to 8 Hours in 8 minutes step & in case of no value, default 60 min is used
120 min & in case of no value, default 60 min is used
(d) any one value can be used
6. Who is authorize to set EF HPLMN value in case of National Roaming/
(a) TRAI
(b) DoT
(c) Service Provider of SIM
(d) ITU
7. It is possible to define National Roaming with a foreign operator (with another MCC). This
leads desired behavior at borders between countries.
True/False
Explanation: Because two MCC is not allowed in one country
8. At the border (entrance area), Cells should be set up on all major entrances to the country as
well as high signal strength levels are also important at the actual border.
True/False
9. National Roaming is allowed and activated on basis of;
(a) BTS
(b) LA
(c) MSC
(d) GGSN
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10. ACCMIN (minimum received signal level for network access) should be set as low as
possible. This corresponds to 110 dBm.
True/False
11. CMTS full form is Cellular Mobile Telephone service
True/False
12. Which company has provided facility for testing International Roaming services in BSNL:
(a) M/s Roamware, USA
(b) SigTel,UK
(c) M/s Ericsson, China
(d) None
13. For International Roaming, which circle is the Nodal Circle of BSNL & other circles are
piggy back on nodal network.
(a) Maharashtra
(b) Karnataka
(c) Kolkata
(d) Delhi
14. In which states in India, subscribers of foreign Operators are not permitted to roam:
(A) Assam ,J&K, North East
(b) Jharkhand, Telangana
J&K, Goa
(d) Assam, Kerala and J&K.
15. Which Circle is responsible for Financial Settlements with Foreign Operators for charges
during International Roaming of In-Roamer & Out Roamers:
(a) Maharashtra
(b) Karnataka
(c) Kolkata
(d) Delhi
16. During International Roaming local plans for GPRS/Blackberry are not valid and all data
usages are charged at the visited operator rates.
True/False
17. What are the Time frames for sending TAP files to foreign Operators including for CDRS in
MIU (Message Investigation Unit):
(a) Every 6 hours
(b) every24 hours
(c) every 36 Hours (d) every Hour
18. In case TAP files do not reach the foreign Operator 24-36 hrs they are liable to be rejected
and no payment made to the VPLMN.
True/False
19. IMSI format is MCC-MNC-MSIN, each code is in (3-2-10) length, its total code length is 15
digits.
True/False
20. In Triple IMSI SIM, one IMSI is used in HPLMN (W.B. in case of BSNL), second used by
Sponser network like Spice, third is used during VPLMN of overseas.
True/False
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17. The conductive mass of the earth, whose electric potential at any point is conventionally
taken is:
(a) zero
(b) one
(c) ten
(d) infinity
18. Which of this is not a Service Earthing Systems?
(a) switching equipment earth
(b) transmission equipment earth
(c) Lightning protective earth to provide protection against excessive voltage
(d) A.C. power supply earth
Explanation: Lightning protective earth to provide protection against excessive voltage is
Protective Earthing System
19. Which of these can be used as Earth Electrode Materials?
(a) Galvanized steel
(b) Plain steel
(c) Stainless steel
(d) Any of the above
20. Earthing Arrangement is consists of:
(a) Soil
(b) Earth Electrode & Earthing Lead
(c) Connecting wire to extend earth to equipment
(d) All of the above
21. Which of this system is generally used at all new auto exchange installations where adequate
space is available around the exchange building and where subsoil suitable for driving in pipes to
the prescribed depth exists?
(a) Spike earth electrode system
(b) Lead strip electrode systems
(c) Earth plate electrode system
(d) none of the above
22. A conductor or group of conductors in intimate contact with and providing an electrical
connection to earth.
(a) Earth Electrode
(b) Earthing Lead
(c) Earthing
(d) none of the above
23. A protective conductor connecting the main earthing terminal to an earth electrode or to
other means of earthing.
(a) Earth Electrode
(b) Earthing Lead
(c) Earthing
(d) none of the above
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24. Which of this is used when adequate space around the exchange building is available but
where rock is encountered at a depth less than 375 cm below ground level?
(a) Spike earth electrode system
(b) Lead strip electrode systems
(c) Earth plate electrode system
(d) none of the above
25. Which of this is employed when the layout of the exchange site is such that adequate space
is not available to install an earth electrode system of other type?
(a) Spike earth electrode system
(b) Lead strip electrode systems
(c) Earth plate electrode system
(d) none of the above
26. Earth electrode system should, as far as possible, be far removed from other similar earth in
area like AC, earth etc. and in no case should the separation between the two be less than?
(a) 225 cms
(b) 375 cms
(c) 450 cms
(d) none of the above
27. Earth plate electrode system consists of ___________ galvanized iron plates of 145 SWG 76
cms square arranged
(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Three
(d) Four
28. In winter specific resistively of soil _______sharply with temperature near or below 0 deg C.
(a) Increases
(b) Decreases
(c) Remains same
(d) None of the above
29. In general, service-earthing systems should have a _________ D.C. resistance to the general
body of the earth, in order to ensure that the potential drop across the earth connection is low.
(a) High
(b) Low
(c) Moderate
(d) None of the above
30. The electrodes must be located in __________.
(a) made up soil
(b) undisturbed soil
(c) loose soil
(d) rubble
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31. The present standard for spike earth-electrode system consists of _________ 25.0 mm or
38.00 mm diameter G.I pipes, each of 275 or 375 cm length.
(a) two
(b) ten
(c) twenty
(d) fifty
32. Positive plate of VRLA cell is made up of Patented MFX alloy while Negative plate is of
lead calcium alloy.
True/False
33. In BSNL Exchanges, we use -48 V DC supply. It can be achieved by:
(a) Negative Terminal is earthed and positive terminal is connected through fuse.
(b) positive terminal is earthed and Negative Terminal is connected through fuse.
Both positive & negative terminal are connected through fuse
(d) Both positive & negative terminal are earthed
34. In case batteries are to be stored for longer duration, the batteries must be charged with
freshening voltage. Charging must be carried out at constant Voltage /potential at limited current
True/False
35. In float charging under normal condition, the batteries must be connected in parallel at
constant voltage charge and critical load circuits.
True/False
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True/ False
2. With the help of CDR Project,_______billing system has possible, e-stapling or Single bill can
be issued to Corporate Customers having all India presence.
(a) Single
(b) Convergent
(c) KNN
(d) Dotsoft
3. CDR has feature for providing facility for Combo plans, flexible tariff plans of Landline,
Broadbad and Mobile.
True/False
4. Which interface is used between E-10 B Exchange and Local Exchange Router ( LE-Router)?
(a) MTE
(b) CES
(c) E1
(d) STM-1
5. Which interface is used between C-Dot Exchange and Local Exchange Router ( LE-Router)?
(a) MTE
(b) CES
(c) E1
(d) STM-1
6. A CDR file contains MO No, MT No, Duration, Time, Rate.
True/ False
True/ False
True/ False
True/ False
(d) None
(d) None
12. What is name of the package used for subscriber creation in BSNL.
(a)Kanan FX (b) Pyro
(c) Sanchasoft
(d) Min Set
13. MSC and other value added services (VAS) servers are connected to MSC router that is
available at each MSC location. MSC routers are, in turn, connected to Central Router at
_______ site through _______ links.
(a) BSC, E1
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(d) None
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14. The Central Router acts as an __________ for all the links from the MSCs. The Central
Router is connected to LAN switch of the B&CCS network
(a) Aggregator
(c) LE
(d) Cloud
(c) LE
(d) Cloud
16. The in-roamers CDRs are also rated as per configuration & TAPOUT files are generated for
different roaming partners.
True/False
17. The out roamer CDRs pre rated at_______ are received as TAPIN files. Such
TAPOUT/TAPIN files are nothing but Invoices raised between roaming partners.
(a) HPLMN
(d) IR
18.__________ server is not directly associated with subscriber billing. It generates Bill / Invoice
for other who used our network.
(a) Aggregator (b) Mediation Server (c) ICB(Inter Connect Bill)
(d) Cloud
19. Each exchange is connected to a router, which is called LE router. All new technology
switches such as OCB, EWSD, 5ESS, AXE, shall be connected using_______ cards and
___________Interface.
(a) V.35, E1
20. Which server performs the following jobs: Collection, Filtering, Conversion, Aggregation
and Dumping?
(a) Aggregator
(c) LE
(d) Cloud
21. Arrange in chronicle order, the various Routers are connected up to Mediation server, starting
from LE Server:
(a) LE ServerAggregator serverEdge ServerBackbone Server
(b) LE ServerEdge Server Aggregator server --Backbone Server
(c) LE ServerEdge Server --Backbone Server Aggregator server
(d) LE ServerBackbone Server Aggregator server-- Edge Server
22. TAPOUT files are generated for In-Roamers while TAPIN files are for Out-Roamers.
True/False
23.Error CDR files are put into log file(Bad directory).
True/False
24.Converted files by Billing and ICB servers are stored in Dumpers for end use which is pushed
Billing Server(BP) which provides CDR files.
True/False
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True/False
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Important Abbreviations:
UMTS :
WCDMA:
HSDPA:
HSUPA:
LTE:
LTE-A :
WIMAX:
True / False
True / False
3. For LTE what is true about downlink and uplink direction multiplexing:
(a) OFDM (Orthogonal Frequency-Division Multiplexing) technology for downlink and
SC-FDMA (Single carrier Frequency Division Multiplexing) for Uplink.
(b) SC-FDMA for downlink and OFDM for Uplink.
(c) OFDMA in both directions
(d) QPSK in Downlink and 16 QAM in uplink
4. LTE is generally Known as 4G technology.
True / False
5. What will be name of 5G Technology which will be launched in 2018 having 1 Gbps
download speed:
(a) RAT (Radio Access Technology)
(b) ALL in one
Theme Air
(d) Power G
6. Wi-MAX is based on 802.16 standard of IEEE.
True / False
7. WiMAX is the standard of IEEE 802 and is comparable to LTE / LTE-A of 3GPP.
True / False
8. Which are Beyond 3G (B3G) technologies & they are technologies capable of providing
mobile Broadband:
(a) WCDMA, HSDPA
(b) HSUPA, HSPA+,HSPA
LTE, LTE-A, WiMAX
(d) All of these
TXG
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9. WiMAX work on ________connectivity and its base station on the average can cover between
____________ km.
(a) MAN,5-10 Km
(b) LAN, 100to 200 m
WAN, thousands Km
(d) None
10. What is the carrier bandwidth used in LTE?
(a) 200 KHz
(d) 63 MHz
(c) 1.4 MHz to 20 MHz
TXG
(d) OFDD
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Important Abbreviations:
SSP: Service Switching Point
SCP: Service Control Point
SIB: Service Independent Building Blocks
SDF: Specialized database function
SRF: Specialized resource function
MIN: Mobile Intelligent Network
INAP: Intelligent Network Application part
CAMEL: Customized Application for Mobile Enhanced logic
CAP: CAMEL Application Part
STP : Signaling transfer point
1. The two forms of mobile intelligent technology in GSM networks among the following
(i) INAP, (ii) EDGE, (iii) CAMEL, (iv) SIP, (v) SS7, (vi) SCP
(a) (i) and (vi) only
(i) and (iii) only
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8. For, MIN connectivity, every MSC has signaling(SSCP) with SCP of its respective Zonal
MIN.
True/False
9. Voice and data roaming was possible due to CAMEL-III implementation.
True/False
True/False
11. In CAMEL-II, VRU(Voice response Unit) plays prompt about account recharge and low
balance.
True/False
12. BSNL has CDMA 1X 2000 & EVDO network across the country. ZTE make IN platform
has been installed at three locations namely Baroda, Kolkata and Bangalore.
True/False
13. Calling party is the person who dials IN number, and called party is the person who answer
the IN call.
True/False
14.One of the major advances that result from implementing intelligent networks is that
(a) computers no longer have control over the network
(b) wide-area service outages are much less likely
(c) services can be adapted to user needs more efficiently
(d) service providers are now limited to a single equipment provider
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18. Which of this service feature allows the called party to automatically call back the calling
party of the last call directed to the called party?
(a) ACB
(b) CU
(c) AUTZ
(d) None of the above
19. Which of this service feature allows a VPN user to access his or her VPN from any non-VPN
station in the PSTN by using a Personal Identification Number (PIN).
(a) Off-Net Calling (ONC)
(b) Off-Net Access (OFA)
(c) Private Numbering Plan (PNP)
(d) Multiway Calling (MWC)
20. The call model consists of
(a) point in calls (PICs)
(b) detection points (DPs)
(c) triggers
(d) All of the above
21. The SCP is connected to SSPs by the
(a) E1R2
(b) CCS7
(c) V5.2
(d) CAS
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TXG
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Note: For Exam Point of view, Correct Answer of Question with Explanation(wherever required) is marked
in Bold Text which is given in the Question, it will save your time during revision of Chapter.
The VLR controls the allocation of new Temporary Mobile Subscriber Identity (TMSI) and
notify them to HLR. The TMSI will be updated frequently; this makes it very difficult for the
call to be traced and therefore provides a high degree of security for the subscriber. True/False
1.
areas of the body, the ________and the ___________testes, are particularly vulnerable to
RF heating because of the relative lack of available blood flow to dissipate the excess heat load.
(a) Eye, Testes
(b) Lung, Heart
(c) Head, Heart
(d) Eye, Breast
8. When was International Commission of Non Ionization Radiation Program (ICNIRP) issued
guidelines in Telecommunication sector regarding basic restrictions and reference levels for
limiting EMF exposure from BTS towers (Base Trans-receiver station) & SAR level of Mobile
Handsets. (a) 2000
(b) 2001
(c)2008
(d) 2015
9. DoT notified for implementation of revised SAR level for mobile handsets _______measured
over 1 gram of tissue effective from 1st Sept 2012
(a) 1.6 W/ kg (b) 2 W/Kg (c) 5 W/kg
(d) 1.6 KW/Kg
TXG
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TXG
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TXG
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