JC-2 Tutorial-1 Immunology Practice

MCQs Dr. Patrick Walsh

19th Feb. 2015
1 Which of the following does not protect body surfaces:
a. Skin.
b. Mucus.
c. Gastric acid.
d. Salivary amylase
e. Gut microflora.
2 Pattern recognition receptors (PRR) include:
a. LPS.
b. PAMPs.
c. Lipoteichoic acid.
d. Lectin-like molecules.
e. Unmethylated CpG sequences.
3 The mononuclear phagocyte system does not include:
a. Monocytes.
b. Kupffer cells.
c. Kidney mesangial cells.
d. Lymph node medullary macrophages.
e. Endothelial cells.
4 A polymorphonuclear neutrophil (PMN):
a. Is a bone marrow stem cell.
b. Is closely similar to a mast cell.
c. Contains microbicidal cytoplasmic granules.
d. Is not a professional phagocytic cell.
e. Has granules which stain with eosin.
5 Which of the following is not produced following activation
of the NADPH oxidase microbicidal pathway
a. O2
b. O2
c. H2O2
d. NO

e. OH
6 Neutrophil defensins are:
a. Anti-toxins.
b. Oxygen-dependent.
c. Enzymes.
d. Glycolipids.
e. Peptide antibiotics.
7. The membrane attack complex consists of:
a. OH
b. Colicins
c. C3b3b,Bb
d. C5b,6,7,8,9
e. Properdin
8. C3b:
a. Is chemotactic.
b. Is an anaphylatoxin.
c. Opsonizes bacteria.
d. Directly injures bacteria.
e. Is the inactive form of C3.
9. Acute inflammation characteristically involves:
a. Constriction of arterioles.
b. Capillary endothelial cell enlargement.
c. Influx of macrophages.
d. Influx of mast cells.
e. Influx of neutrophils.
10.
Which of the following is not an acute phase protein:
a. Serum amyloid P component.
b. Chondroitin sulfate.
c. C-reactive protein.
d. Mannose binding lectin.
e. Fibrinogen.
11.
a.
b.
c.
d.

Interferons:
Are found only in mammalian species.
Are divided into 5 main families.
Induce enzyme synthesis in the target cell.
Only affect infected cells.

e. Are specific for individual viruses.

12.
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.

Natural killer (NK) cells do not:

Respond to interferon.
Contain perforin.
Contain tumor necrosis factor (TNF).
Kill only by damaging the target cell outer membrane.
Contain serine proteases.

13.
A complement component which is strongly
chemotactic for neutrophils is:
a. C9
b. C5a
c. C3
d. C3b
e. C5b
14.
A Fab fragment:
a. Is produced by pepsin treatment.
b. Is produced by separation of heavy and light chains.
c. Binds antigen.
d. Lacks light chains.
e. Has no interchain disulfide bonds.
15.
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.

The complementarity determining regions:

Are restricted to light chains.
Are in the constant part of the Ig molecule.
Bind to Fc receptors.
Are concerned in antigen recognition.
Occur at the C-terminal end of the Ig peptide chains.

16 . Which of the following gene clusters do not contribute to

antigen binding:
a. VL
b. CL
c. VH
d. D
e. J
17.
Which of the following statements does not apply to
IgG?:

a.
b.
c.
d.
e.

Appears early in the primary immune response.

Neutralizes bacterial toxins.
Can fix complement.
Crosses the human placenta.
Opsonizes bacteria.

a.
b.
c.
d.
e.

IgA in sero-muc0us secretions:

Has no J-chain.
Has no secretory piece.
Is dimeric.
Cannot bind to neutrophils.
Activates the classical complement pathway.

18.

19 . IgM:
a. Is usually of high affinity.
b. Is most commonly tetrameric.
c. Has the same number of constant domains as IgG.
d. Is a weak bacterial agglutinator.
e. Is the main class of the 'natural antibodies'.
20.
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
21.

IgD:
Is pentameric.
Is resistant to proteolytic degradation.
Is present mainly as a surface receptor on B-cells.
Is present with unusual frequency in myelomas.
Is abundant in milk

IgE:
a. Is abundant in saliva.
b. Binds strongly to mast cells.
c. Cannot bind to macrophages.
d. Activates the complement cascade.
e. Has an insignificant role in worm infestations
22.
A hapten is:
a. An epitope.
b. A paratope.
c. A small chemical grouping which reacts with preformed
antibodies.
d. A carrier.
e. An immunogen

23.

Binding of antigen to antibody:

a. Is usually unaffected by molecular rigidity.
b. Is unaffected by the presence or absence of water
molecules.
c. Involves covalent bonding.
d. Is optimized by spatial complementarity.
e. Is usually unaffected by pH.

24.
The intermolecular forces which contribute to the
interaction between antibody and antigen:
a. Are all electrostatic.
b. Are all van der Waals.
c. Are all hydrophobic.
d. Are all hydrogen bonds.
e Rely on a combination of the above.
25.
The antigen moiety on an antigen-presenting cell
recognized by the alpha beta T-cell receptor is:
a. Native protein antigen plus major histocompatibility complex
(MHC) molecule.
b. Processed (peptide) antigen plus MHC.
c. Processed peptide antigen.
d. Native antigen.
e. MHC alone.
26.
The initial complement component that is bound by
complement-fixing antibodies is:
a. C1q
b. C1s
c. C3b
d. C5a
e. C9
27.
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.

Several of the complement components are:

Glycolipids
Cytokines
Enzymes
Hormones
Antibodies

28.
The classical and alternative pathways meet at
complement component:
a. C4
b. C4b
c. Factor D
d. C5
e. C3
29.
Clonal selection occurs when antigen is encountered
by:
a. Neutrophils
b. Mast cells
c. T-cells
d. Basophils
e. Eosinophils
30.
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.

Plasma cells:
Have a thin layer of cytoplasm
Are derived from T-cells
Develop into B-cells
Secrete large amounts of gamma interferon
Have a highly developed rough endoplasmic reticulum

31.
Specific antibodies are readily detectable in serum
following primary contact with antigen after:
a. 10 min
b. 1 h
c. 57 days
d. 35 weeks
e. Only following a second contact with antigen
32.
Adoptive transfer of acquired immune
responsiveness involves the transfer of:
a. Antibody
b. Complement
c. Phagocytes
d. Lymphocytes
e. Serum

33.
The main reason an experimental animal treated with
X-rays can act as a living test tube for lymphocyte transfer
experiments is because:
a. It is microbiologically sterile
b. Complement components will be inactivated
c. The host lymphocytes are destroyed or unable to divide
d. Only non-dividing cells are affected
e. The requirement for T-cell help is overcome
34.
Immunological unresponsiveness to self antigens is
called:
a. Tolerance
b. Tolerogen
c. Memory
d. Acquired immunity
e. ADCC
35.
Protective antibodies against infectious agents are
often:
a. Autoantibodies
b. Neutralizing
c. Toxoids
d. Natural Killer
e. Non-specific
36.
Intracellular parasites within macrophages are killed
more readily in the presence of:
a. Antibody
b. Kinins
c. Properdin
d. Gamma-interferon
e. Anaphylatoxin
37.
T cell surface receptors for antigen partly recognize:
a. Cytokines
b. MHC
c. ADCC
d. Antibody
e. IL-2
38.
An immune response against grass pollen often
involves:
a. Pathogen-associated molecular patterns
b. Breakdown of self tolerance
c. A hypersensitivity reaction

d. Reaction against MHC

e. Persistent infection by the pollen
39.
Secondary antibody responses are better because:
a. They provide defense against unrelated antigens
b. The antibody can be made by both T and B cells
c. Complement-fixing antibodies are made
d. They do not require T-cell help
e. They are stronger and faster
40.
Clonal selection occurs when a B-lymphocyte
encounters:
a. Cytokines
b. Antigen
c. T-lymphocytes
d. Complement
e. Chemotactic factors
41.
The secondary, but not the primary, immune response
is based on:
a. Memory
b. The bonus effect of multivalency
c. Complement activation
d. Mast cell degranulation
e. Clonal selection
42.
Protection against microorganisms inside cells is
provided by:
a. T-cells
b. Antibody
c. C3b
d. C1q
e. The membrane attack complex
43. What are the two types of immunity?
a. active, adaptive
b. adaptive, innate
c. acquired, inactive
d. inactive, innate
e. adaptive, acquired
44. Which of these are the most abundant in circulation?
a. basophils
b. dendritic cells

c. neutrophils
d. mast cells
e. eosinophils
45. Which of these is a professional antigen presenting cell
(APC)?
a. dendritic cells
b. erythrocytes
c. eosinophils
d. mast cells
46. Which of these is a secondary lymphoid organ?
a. Kidney
b. Brain
c. Spleen
d. Heart
e. Thymus
47. T cells require two signals to be activated. One signal is
the binding of the antigen presented by the antigen
presenting cell (APC).
The other is the binding of:
a. interfering molecules
b. partner molecules
c. helper molecules
d. co-stimulators
e. Toll receptors
48. How are the different isotypes of antibodies produced?
a. somatic hypermutation
b. evolution
c. randomly produced
d. class switching
49. Which of these is an autoimmune disease?
a. Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (SLE)
b. Rheumatoid Arthritis
c. Graves Disease
d. All of these
50. What is hypersensitivity?
a. Excessive emotions

b. Elevated levels of hormones

c. A sensitive character
d. Allergic reactions
51. When the innate immune system encounters a foreign
antigen, what cell-surface molecule plays the role of
recognizing the presence of a foreign antigen?
a. Antibody
b. T cell receptor
c. The membrane attack complex of complement
d. Toll-like receptor
e. HLA Class II
52. Binding of mannose-binding lectin to mannose-containing
molecules on an antigens surface _____.
a. inactivates the complement cascade before it can do
damage to host cells.
b. activates T cell proliferation and differentiation.
c. activates B cell proliferation and differentiation.
d. directly causes the release of histamine.
e. is an example of pattern recognition.
53. Nave CD4+ T cells _____.
a. are also known as cytotoxic T cells.
b. respond to IL-1 + IL-12 to become T1 helper T cells.
c. respond to antigen presented by HLA Class I molecules.
d. are stimulated to rearrange the DNA for their T cell receptors
in the bone marrow.
e. strongly respond to polysaccharide antigens.
54. The part of an antigen that is recognized by the adaptive
immune system is called _____.
a. an epitope.
b. an isotype.
c. a paratope.
d. a cytokine.

e. a chemokine.
55. Which part of the IgE antibody is responsible for binding to
mast cells and basophils?
a. Light chain
b. Immunoglobulin fold
c. Fc region
d. Complementarity-determining region
e. Complement binding site
56. Which of the following bonds is NOT responsible for linking
an antibody to its cognate region of an antigen?
a. Van der Waals forces
b. Hydrophobic forces
c. Hydrogen bonds
d. Ionic bonds
e. Disulfide bonds
57. Antibodies to Streptococcus pyogenes attack certain
proteins in the heart valves, causing rheumatic fever. This is an
example of _____.
a. an autoimmune disease.
b. cross-reactivity.
c. passive immunization.
d. neutralization of antigens.
e. an immunodeficiency disease.
58. Two antibodies that have the same antigenic recognition
sequence are called _____.
a. isotypes.
b. allotypes.
c. haptens.
d. idiotypes.
e. autotypes.

59. Identify the TRUE statement about MHC molecules.

a. T cells can recognize antigen bound to either self or non-self
MHC.
b. MHC Class II is composed of one unique alpha chain and
the common beta2 microglobulin chain.
c. MHC Class II is recognized by CD8+ T cells.
d. MHC Class I has the primary role of recognition of selfpeptides.
e. MHC Class I is expressed on a given T cell as either the
cassette of MHC inherited from mom or as the cassette of MHC
inherited from dad.

60. Dendritic cells _____.

a. constitutively express Class II antigens and B7.
b. constitutively express Class I antigens but not B7.
c. constitutively express Class II antigens but not B7.
d. constitutively express B7 but not Class II antigens.
e. constitutively express Class II antigens but not Class I
antigens.
61. T cells mature in the thymus. Their maturation is driven by
the ______ protein that is expressed by stromal cells in the
thymus.
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.

zeta protein of CD3

CD44
IL-2
Notch
NF-B

62. Which of the following procedures or tests allows the

identification and collecting of a particular type of cell that has
been recognized by labeled antibody?
a. Western blot
b. Electrophoresis

c. Fluorescence-activated cell sorting

d. Immunofluorescence
e. Immunofixation test
63. A given macrophage producing IL-1 can induce cells in the
brain to reset the body thermostat to a higher temperature.
This represents ______ action of a cytokine.
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.

autocrine
endocrine
exocrine
paracrine
orthocrine

64. The ability of several different cytokines to exert a similar

activity is called ______.
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.

redundancy
pleiotropy
synergism
additivity
transmembrane alteration

65. Identify the cytokine that is responsible for early

development of B cells in the bone marrow. In its absence, B
cells do not develop.
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.

IL-1
IL-2
IL-4
IL-7
IL-10

66. Which immunoglobulin has the following properties?

A is bactericidal against Gram negative organisms in the
presence of lysozyme
B is present in mucous secretions
C does not bind complement
D does not bind to immune cells by its Fc region
E is an efficient antiviral antibody