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BIOL 104-05 - Fall 2013

Exam 2 (10/17/2013)

BIOL 104-05 - Fall 2013 - Exam 2


Student Name:
___________________________________________________________________________

INSTRUCTIONS:
Please clear your desk of everything except for #2 pencils, erasers, your student ID, the exam, and the
scantron form.
PRINT YOUR NAME clearly on the FIRST and LAST PAGE of the exam.
On your scantron:
1. ONLY write with a #2 pencil
2. mark which version of the exam you have (at the bottom of this page) in the KEY ID box in the upper left
corner;

3. print your name in the appropriate space and fill in your SLU username in the space on the right side of
the form (your SLU username is what comes before @ in your SLU email address). Start from the first
column; if your SLU username is shorter than 8 characters, fill in all eight columns by using the blank bubbles
at the end.
4. for each multiple choice (MC) question, select the ONE option that BEST answers the question or
completes the statement. Record your answer on the scantron sheet. Only the answers that are recorded on
the scantron sheet will be considered.
5. Follow instructions for open-ended questions: If an open-ended question has a box or space for the
answer printed on the exam, then go ahead and write on the exam; otherwise, write on the back of the
scantron.
If you have a question during the exam, please remain in your seat and raise your hand.
When you are finished, please hand in both the printed exam and your Scantron form and show your photo
ID.
ACADEMIC INTEGRITY REMINDER: All cell phones, calculators, translators and other electronic devices
must be put away. Use of these devices will be considered a violation of academic integrity.
If you are observed communicating with another student during the exam, or looking at another student's
exam, these behaviors will be noted, and your exam grade will be in jeopardy. We value academic honesty
and take it very seriously. Faculty members are required to report violations of academic integrity to their
department chairs and to the Dean's office.
____________________________________________________________
Total exam points: 60 (38 multiple-choice questions and 22 points for open-ended questions)
Point values are indicated next to each question.
____________________________________________________________

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BIOL 104-05 - Fall 2013

Exam 2 (10/17/2013)

Mendelian and Non-Mendelian Inheritance Problems


1. A phenotype ratio of 9:3:3:1 in the offspring of a mating of two organisms heterozygous for two traits is
expected when:
A) The traits are both sex-linked
B) The traits are determined by two genes on the same chromosome
C) The traits are determined by two genes on two different chromosomes
D) The traits are determined by one autosomal and one X-linked gene
2. If a woman with blood type A has a child with blood type O, then the woman's genotype must be:
A) IA IB
B) IA IA
C) IA i
D) It is impossible to determine based on this information
3. If two alleles of a single gene are both expressed in heterozygous individuals and both their products
influence (or are visible in) the phenotype, we refer to this as a case of:
A) complete dominance
B) co-dominance
C) epistasis
D) incomplete dominance
4. Which of a woman's grandparents could not be the source of any of the genes on either of her X
chromosomes?
A) Her father's mother and her father's mother
B) Her father's mother
C) Her mother's father
D) Her mother's mother
E) Her father's father
5. A human female who is heterozygous (a carrier) for the recessive, X-linked trait red-color blindness,
marries a normal male.
What proportion of their female progeny will show the trait?
A) 50%
B) 25%
C) 0%
D) 75%
E) 100%

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BIOL 104-05 - Fall 2013

Exam 2 (10/17/2013)

Refer to the pedigree below to answer the following questions:

6. Which individuals in the pedigree are definitely carriers for the trait represented?
A) III-4 and III-5 only
B) II-6, III-4 and III-5
C) IV-1, IV-2 and IV-4
D) III-1, III-2 and III-3
7. Which individuals in the pedigree above do you expect to have essentially the same Y chromosome?
A) I-1, II-7, and III-9
B) II-1, III-1, and IV-1
C) I-1, II-5, III-9
D) II-5, III-8, and IV-3
8. The pedigree above follows inheritance of an _______________ trait.
A) X-linked dominant
B) autosomal dominant
C) autosomal recessive
D) X-linked recessive

Fertilization and embryo development


9. If gastrulation failed to occur, which of the following structures would not be formed?
A) the blastocyst
B) the endoderm
C) the morula
D) the inner cell mass

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BIOL 104-05 - Fall 2013

Exam 2 (10/17/2013)

10. In early human development, the inner cell mass of the blastocyst becomes _______, while the outer
cell layer of the blastocyst develops into _______.
A) the umbilical cord; the placenta
B) the embryo; part of the placenta
C) the embryo; embryonic stem cells
D) part of the placenta; the embryo
11. Which of the following is considered to be a pluripotent cell?
A) A cell of the ectoderm
B) A skin cell
C) A cell of the inner cell mass
D) A gamete
E) The zygote
12. Select the best (most specific) answer. A human embryo will develop the primary and secondary sex
characteristics of a male if:
A) its genome contains a Y chromosome.
B) its genome contains only one X chromosome.
C) it has a functional SRY gene and a functional testosterone receptor protein.
D) its Y chromosome carries a functional copy of the SRY gene.
13. A human
A) in the
B) in the
C) in the
D) in the

zygote begins dividing _______.


ovary, shortly after fertilization
ovary, shortly after ovulation
uterus, shortly after implantation
Fallopian tube, shortly after fertilization

14. A human 16-cell morula is roughly the same size as the zygote it derives from. A likely explanation for
this is that cleavage is a series of mitotic cell divisions (M) that occur repeatedly without ________
in between them.
A) interphase (I)
B) DNA replication (S)
C) cell growth (G1)
D) cytokinesis
15. In humans, the cell that is released from a follicle at ovulation is a secodary oocyte, arrested in
metaphase II of meiosis. Do all oocytes complete meiosis?
A) No, only the oocytes that are fertilized complete meiosis.
B) No, only the oocytes that enter the Fallopian tube complete meiosis.
C) Yes, as soon as they reach the uterus.
D) Yes, they must complete meiosis, otherwise they can't be fertilized.

Scrambled version A

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BIOL 104-05 - Fall 2013

Exam 2 (10/17/2013)

The figure below, in your textbook, illustrates the hormonal changes that influence the human female
reproductive system, specifically the maturation of follicles in the ovary (top panel) and the growth of the
endometrial lining of the uterus (bottom panel).

Use the figure to answer the related questions that follow.


16. According to the diagram, what is occurring on day 26 of the cycle?
A) the corpus luteum degenerates
B) ovulation
C) the corpus luteum forms
D) menstruation
17. The hormone progesterone is secreted by the corpus luteum. According to the diagram above, what
physiological event closely parallels (and depends on) the rise of progesterone?
A) a surge in LH and FSH
B) thickening of the endometrium
C) ovulation
D) follicle development
E) a surge in estradiol

Scrambled version A

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BIOL 104-05 - Fall 2013

Exam 2 (10/17/2013)

18. According to the diagram, which of the following is the most likely day in which fertilization of the
oocyte could occur?
A) day 2
B) day 7
C) day 21
D) day 15
E) day 28
19. The lining of the uterus grows and thickens (proliferates) during the uterine cycle to become ready to
accept an embryo in the event of fertilization. This lining, also called endometrium, sheds off if
fertilization does not happen, in a process called
A) menstruation
B) birth
C) luteal regression
D) ovulation

Reproductive strategies
20. Which of the following mechanisms does NOT normally contribute to increasing genetic variation?
A) Mitosis
B) Fertilization
C) Meiosis
D) Crossing-over
E) Independent assortment
21. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
A) r-strategists produce large numbers of offspring
B) r-strategists have low probability of offspring survival
C) K-strategists produce small numbers of offspring
D) r-strategists invest little to nothing in parental care
E) K-strategists have exclusively internal fertilization
22. Which of the following types of cells divide by binary fission?
A) Unicellular fungi, like yeast
B) Plant cells
C) Animal somatic cells
D) Prokaryotes, like bacteria
23. What is the primary source of genetic variation in populations of cells or organisms that reproduce
asexually?
A) Meiosis
B) Mutation
C) Independent assortment
D) Recombination

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BIOL 104-05 - Fall 2013


24. An
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)

Exam 2 (10/17/2013)

animal is defined as viviparous when _______.


it produces a large number of progeny but does not invest into parental care.
it develops from an egg that has a large amount of yolk.
its progeny undergoes embryonic development outside the body of the mother.
its progeny undergoes embryonic development inside the body of the mother.
it produces a small number of progeny and invests a lot of energy in taking care of them.

The Cell Cycle and Cell Division


25. Sister chromatids are separated during:
A) Anaphase I of meiosis
B) Anaphase of mitosis
C) Anaphase of mitosis and anaphase I of meiosis
D) Anaphase of mitosis and anaphase II of meiosis
E) Anaphase II of meiosis
26. The genetic material in a cell's nucleus during interphase of the cell cycle (diagram below) does not
appear as distinct visible chromosomes because:

A)
B)
C)
D)

In interphase, DNA is not subdivided into chromosomes


Chromosomes only condense and become visible prior to cell division
Chromosomes are only present after cell division
Chromosomes are only present after DNA replication

27. A drug that blocks microtubules depolymerization (shortening) will prevent _______ from happening,
therefore a cell treated with the drug would be arrested in ______.
A) metaphase; prophase
B) DNA replication; G1
C) anaphase; metaphase
D) prophase; G2

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BIOL 104-05 - Fall 2013

Exam 2 (10/17/2013)

28. During which phase of the cell cycle would you expect a cell to have the least amount of gene
expression?
Select your answer and mark the scantron. On the back of the scantron, briefly explain how you
reasoned to answer this question [indicate the Q. number: 1 pt for a coherent explanation; 2 pts for a
coherent AND correct explanation]
A) S
B) G1
C) G2
D) M
29. Which of the following mechanisms is responsible for independent assortment of chromosomes of
maternal and paternal origin?
A) Anaphase I of meiosis
B) Random mutation
C) Crossing-over
D) DNA replication
E) Anaphase II of meiosis
30. Complete the sentence: DNA replication does NOT occur in a cell ______.
A) following the G1 phase of the cell cycle
B) prior to mitosis
C) prior to meiosis I
D) between meiosis I and meiosis II
31. Crossing-over in meiosis is an exchange of genetic material between
A) sister chromatids of the same chromosome
B) sister chromatids of homologous chromosomes
C) sister chromatids of non-homologous chromosomes
32. A diploid cell with 2n=46 chromosomes enters the S phase of the cell cycle; when this phase is
complete, the cell has:
A) 46 sister chromatids
B) 23 tetrads, or bivalents
C) 92 homologous chromosomes
D) 92 sister chromatids
33. A cell with 18 replicated chromosomes undergoes cell division to produce 2 cells with 9 replicated
chromosomes each. This cell just went through _____.
A) meiosis II
B) meiosis I
C) meiosis I and meiosis II
D) mitosis

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BIOL 104-05 - Fall 2013

Exam 2 (10/17/2013)

CCR5 case study.


This textbook figure refers to a human mutation which has beneficial effects.

The Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV) causes AIDS, which kills approximately 2 million people every
year. The HIV virus gains access into human white blood cells (like the T cell in the diagram) because
the HIV surface glycoproteins are able to bind to receptor proteins (like the CD4 receptor and the CCR5
co-receptor) on the plasma membrane of human T cells.
The majority of the human population is highly susceptible to HIV infection; however, studies on rare
individuals that were naturally resistant to HIV infection revealed that these individuals carried a
mutation in the gene coding for the CCR5 protein.
Resistance to HIV is associated with a 32-nucleotide deletion in the CCR5 gene sequence. Individuals
that are homozygous for the mutation (CCR5-32) produce a defective CCR5 protein that cannot be
used by the virus to enter the white blood cells, therefore these individuals are immune (resistant) to
HIV.
34. The CCR5 gene is located on chromosome 3. The HIV-resistant phenotype is only manifested in
individuals that are homozygous for the mutant CCR5-32 allele. Based on this information, you can
deduce that this type of HIV-resistance is an ________.
A) X-linked recessive trait.
B) X-linked dominant trait
C) autosomal recessive trait.
D) autosomal dominant trait.

Scrambled version A

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BIOL 104-05 - Fall 2013

Exam 2 (10/17/2013)

35. In the following diagram, the CCR5 gene is indicated as wt (wild type) and the mutant allele CCR5-32
is indicated as 32, in a somatic cell of an individual that is heterozygous for this gene. Which panel
accurately represents the chromosomes of this individual in a somatic cell in G1 of the cell cycle?

A)
B)
C)
D)
E)

III
it could be either I or III
it could be either II or IV
I
II

36. Which of the panels in the diagram above represents the chromosomes of the same heterozygous
individual in a somatic cell in the G2 phase of the cell cycle?
A) I
B) II
C) III
D) IV
E) it could be either II or IV
37. In a male that is heterozygous for the CCR5 gene (CCR5/CCR5-32), _______ of his somatic cells and
________ of his gametes contain the mutant CCR5- 32 allele.
A) half; half
B) all; half
C) half; all
D) none; half
E) all; all
38. When a male that is homozygous for the CCR5-32 allele reproduces, what proportion of his gametes
will carry the mutant 32 allele AND a Y chromosome?
A) none of them
B) 1/4 of them
C) 1/2 of them
D) all of them

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39. Q.A [8 points]. Refer to the CCR5 mutation case study. On the back of the scantron, build a single boxand-arrow [SMRF] model representing: (a) the origin of the HIV-resistant phenotype in the human
population, and (b) how genotype determines phenotype in individuals that are resistant (immune) to
HIV.
Use, at a minimum, the following structures: chromosome, nucleotide sequence, gene, allele, mRNA,
protein, phenotype. Make your language in the model specific to the HIV-resistance scenario. You may
use any structure more than once, and you may include additional structures, if it helps you build a
meaningful model.

Q.B [6 points]. Write on the back of the scantron. Consider a hypothetical human population living in a
geographic location where there is a high frequency of HIV-resistant individuals. How would a biologist
explain the evolution of HIV-resistance in this hypothetical population? Be brief but specific.

Q.C [6 points]. Complete the table below, using your current understanding of molecular genetics to
briefly define each of these biological structures (first column) and briefly describe its function (second
column). Write in the space provided.

Scrambled version A

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