1. Which of the following is true about testis?

A. Ectodermal in origin
B. Gubernaculum is attached to the caudal end
of testis
C. Surrounded by peritoneal tunica albuginea
D. Reach scrotum at 28th weeks of gestation
2. Which nerve does not supply gluteal region?
A. Sciatic nerve
B. Superior gluteal nerve
C. Inferior gluteal nerve
D. Nerve to obturator internus
3 a. Nerve damaged in case of numbness of
little and ring finger, atrophy of hypothenar
muscels
A. Palmar cutaneous branch of ulnar
B. Deep branch of ulnar
C. Ulnar nerve before division into superficial
and deep branches
D. Posterior cord of branchial plexus
3 b. Loss of extension of little ring finger,
hypothenar atrophy is seen in injury of
A. Post interosseous nerve
B. Radial trunk
C. Ulnar Nerve
D. Median nerve
4.Root value of long thoracic nerve
A. C-3,4,5
B. C-5,6,7
C. C- 7,8,T-1
D. C-2,3,4
5. Ciliary muscles develop from
A. Surface ectoderm
B. Neural crest cell
C. Mesoderm
D. Neuroectoderm
6. Which of the following structure in the
spermatic cord is not damaged during
vasectomy
A. Testicular artery
B. Ilioinguinal nerve
C. Autonomic nerves
D. Pampiniform plexus
7. Sternocleidomastoid is supplied by all of the
following artery except
A. Occipital
B. Superior auricular Artery
C. Posterior auricular Artery
D. Thyrocervical trunk
8. All of the following organs develop in the
mesentery of stomach except
A. Liver
B. Spleen
C. Kidney
D. Pancreas

9. Number of vertebrae is usually constant in

A. Cervical
B. Thoracic
C. Lumbar
D. Sacral
10. The ligaments connecting the menisci to the
tibia are known as
A. Coronary
B. Arcuate
C. Transverse
D. oblique
11. A person was taking something over
bookshelf falls on his arm laterally, after which
he is not able to extend his wrist, unable to
make a strong hand grip and there is long of
sensation on dorsum of hand and fingers. Which
of the following structure is involved?
A. Brachial plexus
B. C7 radiculopathy
C. Posterior cord injury
D. Radial nerve injury
12. Epiglottis develops from which of the
following structre?
A. 2nd pharyngeal arch
B. 3rd pharyngeal arch
C. 4th pharyngeal arch
D. 6th pharyngeal arch
13. All are true regarding blood supply increase
in muscle during exercise except
A. Local Metabolite
B. Sympathetic stimulation
C. Cholinergic stimulation
D. Inhibition of beta receptor
14. End diastolic volume increases in
A. Decrease in total blood volume
B. Increase in intra pericardial pressure
C. Increase in negative intra thoracic pressure
D. Decrease in ventricular compliance
15. Right axis deviation is seen in
A. Lying down position
B. Thin and tall
C. Obese person
D. At the end of peak expiration
16a. Clamping of the carotid arteries below
(proximal) the carotid sinus is likely to produce:
A. Increase in vasomotor centre activity
B. Increase in discharge of carotid sinus afferent
nerves
C. Decreased heart rate and blood pressure
D. Baroreceptor adaptation
16b. Clamping of the carotid arteries below
(proximal) the carotid sinus is likely to produce
A. Increase in blood pressure and increase in
heart rate
B. Decrease in blood pressure and decrease in
heart rate

C. Increase in blood pressure and decrease in

heart rate
D. Decrease in blood pressure and increase in
heart rate
17a. Self stimulation is experimentally done
from which part of brain?
A. Medial forebrain bundle
B. Area around aqueduct of sylvius
C. PV region of hypothalamus
D. Radial radiotherapy
17b. Stimulation of which of the following areas
of brain is experimentally used to control
intractable pain
A. Periaquaeductal grey matter
B. Mesencephalon
C. Subthalamic nucleus
D. Medial forebrain bundle
18. A politician is shot in the back during a rally
at level of TB vertebral immediately after the
shot he loses all the sensation below level of
lesion. Chance of regeneration of spinal cord
due to the fact that injured nerve is not able to
regeneration is due to reason all except
A. Lack of the endoneural tubes
B. Lack of growth factors
C. Presence Of glial scar
D. lack of myelin inhibiting substance
19. Which of the following is true?
A. Dopamine increase the hepatic and
mesenteric blood flow at high dose
B. Dobutamine decreases peripheral vascular
resistance
C. Nor-adrenaline increases the renal blood flow
D. Adrenaline causes selective renal
vasodilation
20. Which of the following is not a second
messenger?
A. c-AMP
B. IP3
C. Guanylyl cyclase
D. Diacylglycerol (DAG)
21. Which of the following is seen in association
with membrane raft?
A. Mannose binding protein
B. GTP associated receptor
C. GPI anchored protein
D. G-coupled receptor
22. Hepatic enzyme undergoes phosphorylation
from dephosphorylated state. Which of the
following is true?
A. Affected by level of Catecholamines
B. Occurs in starvation rather than well fed
state
C. Always activated by c-AMP dependent protein
kinase
D. Always activates the enzyme
23. Which of the following is not true regarding
the principle of using nanotechnology for its use
in the medical science?

A. Spectrum of the frequency between

absorption and emission is narrow
B. Produce long lasting fluorescence
C. Has narrow spectrum of emission frequency
D. Not recalled

24. Which of the following is not a cause of

point mutation?
A. Paracentric inversion
B. Deletion
C. Substitution
D. Insertion
25. A child develop skin tumor with blisters on
exposure to sunlight. Irregular dark spots on the
skin were also found. He is very likely has defect
in which of the following mechanism?
A. Thymidine dimmers repair
B. Base excision repair
C. Mismatch repair
D. Double strand break repair
26. True about RIBOZYME
A. Peptidyl transferase activity
B. Cut DNA at specific site
C. Participate in DNA synthesis
D. GTPase activity
27. Test to differentiate the chromosome of
normal & cancer cells
A. PCR
B. Comparative genomic hybridization
C. Karyotyping
D. Western Blotting
28. Enzymes found in CSF
A. GGT + ALP
B. ALP + CK-MB
C. CK + LDH
D. Deaminase and Peroxidase
29. Hyperacute rejection is due to
A. Preformed antibodies
B. Cytotoxic T-lymphocyte mediated injury
C. Circulating macrophage mediated injury
D. Endothelitis caused by donor antibodies
30. Flow cytometry is done on
A. Polycythemia
B. Thrombocytosis
C. Basophil
D. Lymphocytes
31. Which of the following does not indicate
megaloblastic anemia?
A. Increased reticulocyte count
B. Raised Bilirubin
C. Mild splenomegaly
D. Nucleated RBC.
32. Myelofibrosis leading to a dry tap on bone
marrow aspiration is seen with which of the
following condition?

A. Burkitts lymphoma
B. Acute erythroleukemia
C. Acute megakaryocytic leukemia
D. Acute myelomonocytic leukemia

33. Receptor on neuronal membrane that

induces development of glioma:
A. CD-117
B. CD-133
C. CD-33
D. CD-45
34. CD 95 is a marker of:
A. Intrinsic pathway of apoptosis
B. Extrinsic pathway of apoptosis
C. Monocyte
D. Leucocyte
35. Lymphoma Marker is:
A. S-100
B. HMB-45
C. Leukocyte common antigen
D. Cytokeratin
36. A patient of more then 70 years, presented
with generalized lymphadenopathy. WBC count
was 20,000/mm3 and blood film showed >70%
mature looking
Lymphocytes. Next investigation that should be
done :
A. LN biopsy
B. Peripheral Immunophenotyping
C. Bone merrow aspiration
D. Peripheral blood cytogenetics
37. Most common fixative used in electron
microscopy:
A. Glutaraldehyde
B. Formalin
C. Picric Acid
D. Absolute alcohol
38. In a specimen of kidney, fibrinoid necrosis is
seen and onion peel appearance is also present.
Most probable pathology is
A. Hyaline degeration
B. Hyperplastic arteriosclerosis
C. Glomerulosclerosis
D. Fibrilliary glomerulonephritis
39. Staining done for sebaceous cell carcinoma
A. Oil Red O
B. PAS
C. Methamine silver
D. KOH
40. Mutation in COL4A5 chain the diagnosis
A. Alports syndrome
B. Good pastures syndrome
C. Hereditary Non-polyposis Colon Cancer
D. Xeroderma Pigmentosum

41. Person having heterozygous sickle cell trait

is
protected from infection of
A. P. falciparum
B. P. vivax
C. Pneumococcus
D. Salmonella
42. Which of the following is an ocular side
effect of HAART therapy?
A. Retinitis
B. Uveitis
C. Optic neuritis
D. Scleritis
43. Rho kinase inhibitor
A. Fasudil
B. Ranolazine
C. Amiloride
D. Nicorandil
44. Best agent for premenstrual syndrome
management
A. Progesterone
B. Anxiolytics
C. SSRI
D. Vitamin E
45. Which of the following is not a 2 generation
antihistamine?
A. Cetrizine
B. Cyclizine
C. Loratidine
D. Fexofenadine
nd

46. Treatment of choice for extended spectrum

beta lactamase producing enterococci
A. Ampxicillin clavalunic acid
B. Piperacillin-Tazobactam
C. Ampicillin only
D. Ampicillin + Sulbactam
47. In new drug designing, problem arises in
A. Decreasing interaction of drug with target
proteins
B. Increasing drug nteraction with non-target
proteins
C. Decreasing potency of drugs
D. Increased binding with target protein
48. Unfavorable interaction of drug and
substrate in human beings are all except
A. Omeprazole reduces stomach acid secretion
B. Methotrexate inhibiting folate
C. Barbiturates decreases B12 absorption
D. Retinoic acid inhibits vitamin E
49. A patient with glaucoma is being treated
with systemic beta blocker. All of the following
can be given to the patient except?
A. Brimonidine
B. Dorzolamide
C. Levobunolol
D. Prostaglandin

50. Which of the following agent is not used in

erectile dysfunction?
A. PGE2
B. Vardenafil
C. Phenylephrine
D. Alprostadil

51. True about Penicillin G

A. It can be given orally
B. It is has broad spectrum activity
C. Used for treatment rat bite fever
D. Probenecid given along with PnG decrease its
direction of action
52. Cholinomimetic is not used for
A. Open angle glaucoma
B. Bradycardia
C. Cobra bite
D. Myasthenia gravis
53. The endotoxin of the following gram
negative bacteria doesnt play any part in the
pathogenesis of the natural disease?
A. E. coli
B. Klebsiella
C. Vibrio cholera
D. Pseudomonas
54. Aerosol spread leading to epidemics is seen
in infection with:
A. Legionella
B. Hemophilus
C. Influenza
D. Mycoplasma
55. Which of the following features is not shared
between T cells and B cells?
A. Positive selection during development
B. Class I MHC Expression
C. Antigen Specific Receptors
D. All of the above
56. With reference to Bacteroides fragilis, all of
the following statements are true except
A. B. Fragilis is the most frequent anaerobe
isolated from clinical samples
B. B. Fragilis is not uniformly sensitive to
Metronidazole
C. Lipopopolysaccharide formed by B. fragilis is
structurally and functionally different from the
conventional Endotoxin
D. Shock and DIC are common in Bacteroides
bacteremia
57. A formal from the sub-Himalayan region
presents with multiple leg ulcers. The most
likely causative agent is
A. Trichophyton
B. Cladosporium
C. Sporothrix schenkii
D. Aspergillus

58. Farmer presents with the features of high

fever, painful inguinal lymphadenopathy,
vomiting and diarrhea and hypotension. Which
stain will help in the diagnosis?
A. Nesser stain
B. Waysons stain
C. Alberts stain
D. McFadyeans stain

59. An abattoir worker presented with a

malignant pustule on his hand that progressed
to form an ulcer. Smear was taken from the
ulcer and sent to laboratory for investigation.
The diagnosis is
A. Cutaneous anthrax
B. Carbuncle
C. Ulcerating melanoma
D. Infected rodent ulcer
60. Which of following is correct about Prions?
A. Long incubation period
B. Destroyed by autoclaving at 121 C
C. Nucleic acid present
D. Immunogenic
61. In the forensic laboratory some samples are
being examined under ultraviolet ray, the
doctor notices blue white colour of the sample.
Which is the most probable content of the
samle?
A. Semen
B. Urine
C. Pus
D. Leucorrhoea discharge
62. A young man with known history of heroine
addiction is brought in the emergency in
unconscious state by his friends. On
examination his pupil are pin point. What will be
the treatment of choice?
A. Oral naltrexone
B. IV naloxone
C. Oral diazepam
D. Oral buprenorphine
63. A woman assaulted by neighbor was
brought to you in the emergency department
with fracture of middle tooth. Injury was
extended medially to the mouth and there was
also contusion to bilateral leg. What is the
nature of
thi injury?
A. Grievous injury
B. Simple injury
C. Dangerous injury
D. Assault
64. A police officer brings the aborted product
of conception of size 2 cm and weight 10 gm.
For all forensic purposes what will be the age of
the fetus?
A. 2 weeks

B. 4 weeks
C. 6 weeks
D. 8 weeks
65. A person keeps a man under his power and
threatens him to assault or cause harm
withoutany intension to kill comes under?
A. Section 44
B. Section 351
C. Section 319
D. Section 320

66. Choking is seen in?

A. Revolver
B. Shopping rifle
C. Shotgun
D. Pistol

72. Mass chemoprophylaxis is not given for one

of the following
A. Lymphatic filariasis
B. Plague
C. Vitamin A deficiency
D. Scabies
73. District population 10 lac, with under 16
are 30%, prevalence of blindness is 0.8 / 1000
of under 16 population. Calculate the no. of
blind under 16
A. 240
B. 2400
C. 24000
D. 240000

67. Double based smokeless gun powder

consists of
A. Nitrocellulose plus nitroglycerine
B. Introcellulose plus sulphur
C. Potassium nitrate plus nitroglycerine
D. Potassium nitrate plus charcoal

74. All of the following are true regarding

tetanus except
A. It is transmitted from person to person
B. Herd immunity is not of much value
C. The main reservoir is soil and intestine of
animals and human
D. Incubation period is 6 10 days

68. True about OPV all except

A. We get immune response
B. It is a live vaccine
C. It is used in epidemic
D. maternal antibody interferes with immune
response

75. Current percent of Indian GDP spent on

health
A. 1.2
B. 2
C. 10
D. 15

69. If the prevalence is very low as compared to

the incidence for a disease. It implies
A. Disease is very fatal and / or easily curable
B. Disease is non fatal
C. calculation of prevalence and incidence is
wrong
D. Nothing can be said as they are independent

76. Which of the following is the most common

cause of neonatal mortality in India?
A. Prematurity
B. Neonatal infection
C. Diarrheal disease
D. Congenital anomalies

70. For Randomized Control Trial (RCT) to assess

dating in adolescent, a study was done by
selecting random sections and then random
students. This is an example of
A. Stratified sampling
B. Simple random sampling
C. Cluster sampling
D. Multistage sampling
71. The pattern of change of disease trends of
mortality and morbidity where the pandemics
infection are replaced by degenerative and
manmade disorders, the main cause of
morbidity and the most frequent cause of
fatality is known
as
A. Cross transition
B. paradoxical transition
C. Epidemiological transition
D. Demographic transition

77. In a population of 5000 people, 500 are

already myopic on January 1, 2011, number of
new myopic cases till December 31, 2011 is 9.
Calculate incidence
A. 1.8 %
B. 2%
C. 5%
D. 20%
78. New cancer patients in India reported
annually
A. 05. Million
B. 1 million
C. 5 million
D. 10 million
79. In a certain population, there were 4050
births in the last one year. There were 50 still
births, 50 infants died within 7 days. What is the
neonatal mortality rate?
A. 50
B. 62.5
C. 12.5

D. 49.4
80. Which is true about MDG?
A. Reduce by 2/3rd the under five mortality by
year 1990 2012
B. Half the prevalence of HIV AIDS by 2015
C. Reduce maternal mortality by 50% by 1990
2012
D. Reduce hunger and poverty by half
81. Screening age for trachoma is
A. Below 5 school child only
B. 1 9 Years
C. 9 14 Years
D. 5 15 Years
82. True about NPCDCS is all except
A. Separate centre for stroke, DM
B. Implementation in some 5 states over 10
district
C. CHC has facilities for diagnosis and treatment
of CVD, Diabetes
D. Day care facilities are available at subcentre
83. Rashtriya Swasthya Yojana
A. Applies to BPL only
B. 30,000 per family member
C. 75% premium borne by family
D. Implemented all over India
84. HIV sentinel surveillance used to calculate
A. Detection of high risk group
B. Prevalence
C. Monitoring disease trend
D. Detection of incidence
85. In a population of 200 people with normal
distribution. How many people would be
included in 1 SD?
A. 136
B. 140
C. 150
D. 190
86. All of the following are true about Roll back
malaria except
A. Insecticide treated bed nets
B. Strengthening health system
C. Develop new insecticide
D. Training health workers
87. Highest mean and lowest mode indicates
A. Positive skewing
B. Negative skewing
C. Normal
D. Symmetrical
88. Disability certificate for poor vision if 4/60, is
impairment percentage of
A. 100
B. 75
C. 40
D. 30

89. A patient with Hepatitis C exhibits

hypocomplimentemia with 2gm / day
proteinuria and
hematuria. The most probable diagnosis is
A. MPGN
B. Cryoglobulinemia
C. Membranous glomerulopathy
D. Post-infectious glomerulonephritis
90. All are indicated in a patient with cystinuria
with multiple renal stones except
A. Cysteamine
B. Increase fluid intake
C. Alkalinization of urine
D. Penicillamine
91. All of the following are true regarding
Raynauds phenomenon except
A. It involves acral parts of fingers
B. migratory thrombophlebitis is seen only in
Raynauds phenomenon
C. Drugs acting by inhibiting the beta receptors
in blood vessels also play a role
D. Emotional stress may also precipitate
Raynauds phenomenon
92. A patient on amphotericin B develops
hypokalemia of 2.3 mwq / 1. K+
supplementation required
A. 40 mEq over 24 hours
B. 60 mEq over 24 hours
C. 80 mEq over 24 hours
D. 120-160 mEq over 24 hours
93. A patient with 8 cm x 8 cm abscess in right
lobe of liver was treated with aspiration multiple
times (3 times) and with system amebicide.
Now cavity is remaning in right lobe of liver but
there is nothing in the cavity. Seven days course
of luminal amebicides is given. How will you
follow up?
A. Stool examination only
B. USG weekly for 1 month followed by monthly
USG till 1 year
C. USG weekly for 3 months followed by CT scan
at 3 months
D. USG or CT scan monthly and stool
examination weekly
94. Which of the following is not true about
polymyositis?
A. limb girdle weakness
B. Ophthalmoplegia
C. Para-neoplastic syndrome
D. Spontaneous discharge in EMG
95. Which of the following advises is not given
to a 35 years old female patient with recurrent
renal stone?
A. Increase water
B. restrict protein
C. restrict salt
D. Restrict calcium intake
96. A 28 years old man has anterior lenticonus
and ESRO now. His misternal uncle also died of
similar illness. Diagnosis is

A. ARPKD
B. ADPKD
C. Oxalosis
D. Alports syndrome
97. Pinna calcification is seen in all except
A. Gaut
B. Ochronosis
C. Frost bite
D. Addisons disease
98. Which of the following does not need
treatment?
A. Neuroblastoma
B. Burkitts lymphoma
C. T cell lumphoblastic leukemia
D. AML
99. With ageing, a slight decrease in cognitive
impairment is seen due to increase in level of
A. Homocysteine
B. taurine
C. Methionine
D. Cysteine

100. A patient presents with pain in Meta-TarsoPhalangeal joints and is a known case of chronic
renal failure. This is due to accumulation of
A. Rh factor
B. uric acid
C. Serum urea
D. HLA B27 typing
101. SARS causative agent
A. Corona-virus
B. Picorna-virus
C. Myxovirus
D. Retrovirus
102. Blink reflex is used for
A. Mid pontine lesions
B. Neuromuscular transmission
C. Axonal neuropathy
D. Motor neuron disease

C. Necrotizing vasculitis
D. Leucocytoclastic vasculitis
106. A 70 years old retired military person with
good previous medical record complains of
bitemporal headache which is decreased in
lying down position. He states that he gets relief
by giving pressure over bilateral temples. The
patient also complains of loss of appetite with
feeling feverish. Diagnosis is
A. Chronic tension headache
B. Temporal arteritis
C. Migrane
D. Fibromyalgia
107. A patient of rheumatoid arthritis develops
sudden onset quadriparesis, Babinsky sign was
positive, increased muscle tone of limbs with
exaggerated tendon jerks and
worsening of gait with no sensory, sphincter
involvement. Best initial investigation is
A. X-ray of cervical area of neck in flexion and
extension
B. MRI brain
C. EMG brain
D. Carotid angipgraphy

108. In a patient with implanted cardiac

pacemaker (defibrillator), which of the following
investigation is useful to know the position of
the misplaced implant?
A. X-ray
B. CT scan
C. MRI
D. USG
109. All are true about 1 renal tubular acidosis
except
A. Renal stones
B. Hypokalemia
C. Sodium bicarbonate requirement > 4mg /
day
D. urine pH > 5.5

103. Grisel syndrome all are true except

A. Post-adenoidectomy
B. Conservation treatment
C. Inflammation of cervical spine ligaments
D. No need for neurosurgeon

110. An elderly female presents with the nasal

blockade and nasal discharge with black debris.
Blood sugar was raised and urine is positive for
the patient would be
A. Amphotericin B
B. Itraconazole
C. Ketoconazole
D. Broad spectrum antibiotics

104. All of the following are seen in cervical

syringomyelia except
A. Burning sensation in hands
B. Hypertrophy of abductor pollicis brevis
C. Plantar extensor
D. Absent biceps reflex

111. Gait apraxia is seen in thromboembolic

episode involving
A. ACA
B. MCA
C. PCA
D. Posterior choroidal artery

105. Which of the following is a feature of

temporal arteritis?
A. Giant cell arteritis
B. Granulomatous vasculitis

112. A 12 months old girl of Punjabi parents

developed pallor since 3 months of age. One
unit of blood transfusion was done at 5 months
of age. Now presents with pallor,

on examination hepatosplenomegaly.
Hemoglobin was 3.8gm / dl, MCV = 19.
Peripheral smear showed schistocytes. Bone
marrow examination show erythroid
hyperplasia. Diagnosis is
A. Sickle cell anemia
B. Alpha-thalassemia
C. Beta-thalassemia (major)
D. Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase
113. A patient with Tubercular meningitis was
taking ATT regulary. At end of 1 month of
regular intake of drugs deterioration in
sensorium is noted in condition of the
patient. Which of the following investigations is
not required on emergency evaluation?
A. MRI
B. NCCT
C. CSF examination
D. Liver function test
114. Which of the following is true about Wilson
disease?
A. High copper in urine, high copper in serum
B. High ceruloplasmin
C. Low serum copper
D. Low urinary copper
115. All of the following are true about hernia
surgery xcept
A. Surgery should not be done unless patient
becomes symptomatic
B. Hernia in children is treated with herniotomy
C. Absorbable mesh should not be used for
surgery
D. Surgery can be done using laparoscopy
116. Patient present with varicose vein with
sapheno-femoral incompetence and normal
perforator. Management options include all of
the following except
A. Endovascular stripping
B. Sclerotherapy
C. Sapheno-femoral flush ligation
D. Saphenofemoral flush ligation with striping
117. Not a cause of acute anal pain
A. Thrombosed hemorrhoids
B. Acute anal fissure
C. Fistula in ano
D. Perianal abscess
118. A 70 years old man with prostate cancer
was given radiotherapy. The recurrence of the
cancer is monitored biochemically by
A. Androgene only
B. Prostate specific antigen and
carcinoembryonic antigen
C. Prostate specific antigen only
D. ALP and CEA
119. A patient has a surgical cause of
obstructive jaundice. USG can tell all of the
following except
A. Biliary trees obstruction
B. Peritoneal deposits

C. Gall bladder stone

D. Ascites
120a. Organism associated with fish
consumption that also cause carcinoma
gallbladder
A. Clonorchis sinensis
B. Gnathostoma
C. Strongyloides cantonensis
D. H. dimunata
120b. A patient presents to you with the
features or billary obstruction. He gives history
of the consumption of fish while on the trip.
Which of the following is most probable
etiology?
A. Clonorchis sinensis
B. Ancylostoma
C. Strongyloides
D. Anterior abdominal wall
121. With the knowledge of anatomy of the
pelvis and perineum, which of the following is
true regarding collection of urine in urethral
above deep perineal pouch?
A. Medial aspect of thigh
B. Scrotum
C. True pelvis only
D. Anterior abdominal wall
122. A child was operated for small intestine
mass with intussusceptions and after the
operation the tumor was diagnosed in
histologial section. Which is the most likely
tumor associated?
A. Carcinoid
B. Villous adenoma
C. Lymphoma
D. Smooth muscle tumor
123. All are about radiological features of the
intestinal obstruction except
A. Absence of air fluid level in straight X-ray
rules out any obstruction
B. Volvulus and mesenteric ischemia has a
specific feature
C. Small intestine dilatation >3 cm
D. Distal large intestine >9 cm and proximal
intestine >5 cm
124. Which of the following is true about
Buergers disease?
A. Antherosclerotic
B. Neural involvement present
C. Ulnar artery and peroneal arteries involved
D. Only arteriole is involved
125. A lady 35 years old lactating mother
presented with a painful breast lump. Most
appropriate initial investigation should be
A. Mammography
B. USG
C. MRI
D. X- ray

126. A middle aged patients presents with the

complained of right hypochondrial pain. On
Xray, elevated right hemidaphragm was seen.
All of the following are the possible diagnoses
except?
A. Subphrenic abscess
B. Acute cholecystis
C. Pyogenic liver abscess
D. Amoebic liver abscess in right lobe
127a. Treatment of carcinoma Cervix stage IIIB
include
A. Wertheims hysterectomy
B. Schuatas hysterectomy
C. Chemotherapy
D. Concurrent chemoradiation
127b. Treatment of carcinoma cervix stage IIIB
include
A. Concurrent of chemoradiation
B. Surgery
C. Neoadjuvant chemotherapy followed by
radiotherapy
D. Only radiotherapy
128a. A female presents with 8 weeks
amenorrhea with pain left lower abdomen. On
USG, there was thick endometrium with mass in
lateral adnexa. Most probable diagnosis
A. Ectopic pregnancy
B. Torsion of dermoid cyst
C. Tubo-ovarian mass
D. Hydrosalpinx
128b. A young female with 2 month
amenorrhea presents with sudden abdominal
pain with adnexal mass, urine pregnancy test is
positive. Most likely diagnosis
A. Ovarian
B. Ectopic pregnancy
C. Pelvic tumor
D. Ovarian cyst

129. In a study it is observed that the right

ovary ovulates more than the left, all are
possible explanation for the cause except
A. Anatomical difference between right and left
side
B. Difference in blood supply to both sides
C. Right handedness is more common in
population
D. Some embryological basis
130. A young lady presents to your office with
complain of copious vaginal discharge, but
there is no cervical discharge on per speculum
examination. Which of the following should be
given for the management?
A. Metronidazole and fluconazole
B. Metronidazole and azithromycin
C. Metronidazole and doxycycline
D. Fluconazole only

131. Which of the following is least seen in

uterine fibroid?
A. Hyaline degeneration
B. Sarcomatous change
C. Red degeneration
D. fatty degeneration
132. Which of the following is seen in pregnancy
heart disease which is not seen in normal
pregnancy?
A. Distended neck veins
B. Exertional dyspnea
C. Pedal edema
D. Supine hypotension
133. A 24 years gravid female at 36 weeks
gestation comes with visual disturbance,
headache and elevated BP of 180 / 110 mm HG
and 176 / 104 mm Hg in two readings taken 20
minuts apart. Which is the best management?
A. Start antihypertensive, magnesium sulphate
and terminate pregnancy
B. Admit, start antihypertensive and allow to
continue the pregnancy to the term
C. Give antihypertensive and treat in OPD basis
D. Only admit & watch the patient
134a. Test not useful in case of tubal pregnancy
A. Pelvic examination
B. USG
C. HCG levels
D. Hysterosalpingography
134b. Which of the following is not helpful in
diagnosis of tubal mass in ectopic pregnancy?
A. Beta-HCG estimation
B. Hysterosalpingography
C. Transvaginal ultrasound
D. Pelvic examination
135. A 19 years old patient came to the out
patient department with complaints of primary
amenorrhea.
She had well absence of vagina and uterus but
normal ovaries. Likely diagnosis is
A. XYY
B. Mullerian agenesis
C. Gonadal dysgenesis
D. Klinefelters syndrome
136. A 36 years old multigravida at 34 weeks,
with previous 2 normal vaginal delivery now
presented with unstable lie. The most likely
diagnosis in this case is
A. Oligohydramnios
B. Placenta previa
C. pelvic tumor
D. Uterine anomalies
137a. A lady withprevious cesarean section
presents in labour. Trial of normal vaginal
delivery is contraindicated in
A. Breech presentation
B. Fact of knowing that previous caesarean
section was due to CPD
C. Previous classical cesarean section

D. D. No previous vaginal delivery

D. Incontinenta pigmenti

137b. Trial of normal labour is contrainendicated

in
A. History of previous classical caesarean
section
B. History of previous caesarean section due to
CPD
C. No history of prior vaginal delivery
D. History of previous caesarean section due to
malpresentation

143. A child is able to dress herself, knows her

gender, feeds without spilling. What is her age?
A. 2 years
B. 3 years
C. 4 years
D. 5 years

138. A young female presents with cyclical pain,

dysmenorrheal and complain of infertility. Which
of the following would be investigation of choice
in her?
A. TVS
B. Diagnostic laparoscopy
C. Aspirate from pouch of Douglas
D. Hormonal Assessment
139. Shock index (HR / SBP) can be used to
know the severity of the bleeding in cases of
hemorrhage. Which of the following is most
indicative for significant PPH?
A. 0.3 0.5
B. 0.5 0.7
C. 0.7 0.9
D. 0.9 1.1
140. Forceps is preferred over vacuum for the
delivery because of the following reasons
except?
A. Vacuum requires more clinical skills than
forceps
B. Vacuum is preferred more than forceps in HIV
patient
C. Forceps is more commonly associated with
fetal facial injury
D. Vacuum has more chance of formation of
cephalhematoma
141. A neurosurgeon dropped his kid to the
school then there he saw a child with
uncontrollable laughing and precocious puberty.
When he again went to the school in capital
parents teachers meeting, he talked to the
father of that boy and advised him to get an
MRI done and the diagnosis was confirmed.
What is the most probable
diagnosis?
A. Hypothalemic hamartoma
B. Pineal germinoma
C. Pituitary adenoma
D. Craniopharygioma

142. A child presented to the casualty with

seizures. On examination an oval hypopigmented macules were noted diagnosis of the
child is
A. Neurofibromatosis
B. Sturge Weber
C. Tuberous sclerosis

144. A pre-term 32 weeks new-born baby with

respiratory rate of 86 / min with presence of
grunting. On examination there was no nasal
flaring, abdomen behind in movement than
chest, minimal intercostals retraction and no
xiphisternal retraction. The silverman scoring
for the neonate shall be
A. 3
B. 4
C. 5
D. 6
145. A 2 years old child with rickets in on
calcium supplements and has a foot deformity.
When should a
decision to undertake corrective surgery be
undertaken?
A. When vitamin D levels turn to normal
B. When growth plate healing is seen
radiographically
C. When bone specific alkaline phosphatase is
normal
D. When serum calcium becomes normal
146. Which of the following in the natural
course of disease has no reversal of the shunt?
A. ASD
B. VSD
C. TOF
D. PDA
147. A preterm infant with poor respiration at
birth starts throwing seizures at 10 hours after
birth. Antiepileptic of choice shall be
A. Leveteracetam
B. Phenytoin
C. Phenobarbitone
D. Lorazepam
148. Corrent about respiratory distress
syndrome is
A. Seen after 6 hours of birth
B. Ante natal steroid
C. Term pregnancy
D. Air bronchogram seen on X-ray chest
149. About trisomy 13, which of the following is
a true statement?
A. Bilateral micropthalmia
B. Neurofibroma
C. Rocker bottom feet
D. Dermoid cyst
150. A 7 years old girl with falling grades and
complaints by teacher that she is inattentive in
class to her parents and has bad school

performance. On hyperventilation her

symptoms increased and showed the following
the following EEG findings. Diagnosis is (graph
is given)
A. Myoclonic epilepsy
B. myoclonus
C. Absence seizure
D. Juvenile myclonic epilepsy
151. One of the parents has a balanced
translocation between chromosome 15 and 21.
What advice will you provide to the couple to
prevent a child being born with Downs
syndrome
A. Prenatal diagnosis & advice abortion
B. Artificial insemination with donors sperm
C. Adoption
D. No need worry as there is no increased risk
152. A child hypoglycemia is not able to utilize
glucose from glycogenolysis or
gluconeogenesis. Which of the following
enzyme is deficient in the child?
A. Fructokinase
B. Glucokinase
C. Glucose 6-phosphatase
D. Transketolase
153. In a child, CSF examination is not used in
diagnosis of
A. ALL
B. Hodgkings lymphoma
C. Non-Hodgkins lymphoma
D. AML
2. A
31- A
3a. C
32- C
3b. C
33- B
4. B
34- B
5. B
35- C
6. B
36- B
7. D
37- A
8. C
38- B
9. A
39- A
10. A
40- A
11. D
41- A
12. C
42- B
13. D
43- A
14. C
44. C
15. B
45. B
16a- A
46. B
16b- A
47. B
17a-A
48. A
17b- A
49. C
18- D
50. C
19- B
51. C
20- C
52. B
21- C
53. C
22-C
54. A
23 55. A
24- A
56. D
25- A
57. C
26- A
58. B
27- B
59. A
28- C
60. A
29- A
61. A
30- D
62. B

154. A child presents with seborrheic dermatitis,

sinusitis and chronically draining ears. On
examination child h as failure to thrive with
hepatosplenomegaly and exophthalmos.
Probable diagnosis is
A. Histiocytosis-X
B. Wegeners granulomatosis
C. Chronic granulomatous disease
D. Chediak-Higashi syndrome
155. Most common organism causing neonatal
sepsis
A. Staphylococcus aureus
B. E. coli
C. Hemophilus influenza
D. Klebsiella
156. Which of the following is not a sign of PDA
in a preterm baby?
A. Apnea
B. tachycardia
C. Necrotizing enterocolitis
D. Narrow pulse pressure
157. A 7 years old child comes with fever and
tibial swelling exhibits on X-ray exhibits
periosteal reaction > Laboratory diagnosis of
the patient?
A. MRI
B. Pus culture
C. Bone biopsy
D. Blood Culture
1. B
63. A
64. C
65. B
66. C
67. A
68. A
69. A
70. D
71. C
72. D
73. A
74. A
75. A
76. A
77. B
78. B
79. A
80. A
81. B
82. C
83. A
84. C
85. A
86. C
87. A
88. B
89. A
90. A
91. B
92. D
93. B
94. B

95. D
96. D
97. A
98. A
99. A
100. B
101. A
102. A
103. D
104. B
105. A
106. A
107. A
108. A
109. C
110. A
111. A
112. C
113. C
114. C
115. A
116. B
117. C

118. C
119. B
120a. A
120b. A
121. C
122. C
123. A
124. B
125. B
126. B
127a. D
127b. A
128a. A
128b. B
129. C
130. A
131. B
132. A
133. A
134a. D
134b. B
135. B
136. B

137a. C
137b. B
138. B
139. D
140. A
141. A
142. C
143. B
144. B
145. B
146. C
147. C
148. D
149. A
150. C
151. A
152. C
153. B
154. A
155. D
156. D
157. C