Was the message of Jesus Christ

'universal' ?!
________________________________________
All praises are due to Allah.

The Quran tells us :

"And (make him) a messenger to the children of Israel:

That I have come to you with a sign from your Lord, that I
determine for you out of dust like the form of a bird, then I
breathe into it and it becomes a bird with Allah's
permission and I heal the blind and the leprous, and bring
the dead to life with Allah's permission and I inform you of
what you should eat and what you should store in your
houses; most surely there is a sign in this for you, if you are
believers." [Quran 3:49]

"And remember, Jesus, the son of Mary, said: "O Children

of Israel! I am the messenger of Allah (sent) to you,
confirming the Law (which came) before me, and giving
Glad Tidings of a Messenger to come after me .. " [Quran
61:6]

The Bible tells us that :

Jesus Christ (Peace be upon Him) said: “I was sent ONLY

to the lost sheep of Israel” [Matthew 15:24].

He also instructed his disciples "Do NOT go among the

Gentiles or enter any town of the Samaritans. Go rather to
the lost sheep of Israel” [Matthew 10:5-6].
My reply to Christians who claim that Jesus' message was
universal by misquoting [Matthew 28:19], [Mark 16:15],
and also [Luke 24:47] would simply be :

1.[Matthew 28:19], [Mark 16:15], and also [Luke 24:47]

refer not to the historical Jesus Christ (the prophet, the son
of man, the man .. etc) who lived, preached and walk with
his disciples. They rather refer to the 'risen' Jesus after the
so-called resurrection. Now, what major event happened
between the time of his ministry (when he clearly stated to
have been sent only to the lost sheep of Israel and his clear
instructions to his disciples not to go to the Gentiles) and
his resurrection?? Did he changed his mind, or did the
orders of the Father in Heaven change? What event
occurred during his time in death that changed the nature
of his mission to universal? Was not such major event
worth being clearly mentioned and explained?

2.Jesus Christ has foretold that he and his disciples would

be judging the twelve tribes of Israel: "I tell you the truth,
at the renewal of all things, when the Son of Man sits on his
glorious throne, you who have followed me will also sit on
twelve thrones, judging the twelve tribes of Israel."
[Matthew 19:28]. "so that you may eat and drink at my
table in my kingdom and sit on thrones, judging the twelve
tribes of Israel." [Luke 22:30]. Who will then judge all
others (i.e. the Gentiles)? Doesn't the 'risen' Jesus' mission,
changed to universal, clearly contradict his own prophecy
in his own words spoken before 'resurrection'?

3. It is the shortest and the earliest of the four Gospels,

 presumably written during the decade preceding the
destruction of Jerusalem in AD 70. Most scholars agree
that it was used by Matthew and Luke in composing their
accounts; more than 90 percent of the ******* of Mark's
Gospel appears in Matthew's, and more than 50 percent in
the Gospel of Luke.

http://www.britannica.com/eb/article...ording-to-Mark

3(a). Also the verses Mark 16:9-20 have been considered a

later addition to the Gospel of Mark by most New
Testament scholars in the past century. The main reason
for doubting the authenticity of the ending is that it does
not appear in some of the oldest existing witnesses, and it is
reported to be absent from many others in ancient times by
early writers of the Church.

http://bible-researcher.com/endmark.html

3(b). Two passages, the longer ending of Mark (16.9-20)

and the account of the woman caught in adultery (Jn 7.53-
8.11), are restored to the ****, separated from it by a blank
space and accompanied by informative notes describing the
various arrangements of the **** in the ancient
authorities.

http://bible.crosswalk.com/Informati...rdVersion.html

3(c). The most reliable early manu******s and other

ancient witnesses do not have Mark 16:9-20.

http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/...0;&version=31;
 So they were all based on 'later addition'. Therefore, it is
reasonable to ask, was it really Jesus Christ who said
what's in the verses you quoted? Or was it someone else?

4. Now, let's for a moment consider the possibility that the

second instruction was an abrogation of the first, and that
Jesus' ministry went through two major phases. Phase 1:
Only to the lost sheep of Israel, and Phase 2: Universal
mission. However, common sense tells us there can be no
abrogation in the Divine Message or in information (i.e.
Jesus can't be born in two places) , as abrogation is
logically only acceptable in regulations and instructions.
Abrogation in the very substance of the Divine Message is a
clear contradiction that is just not acceptable for the word
of Almighty God. A statement such as "I was sent ONLY to
the lost sheep of Israel" is substantial information on the
Divine Message, not an instruction or a change in
regulations. How could it be changed, especially without a
single word of explanation?

The only possible explanation that does not contradict the

religion, and at the same time fulfils the above-mentioned
prophecy, is that 'all nations' refers to the Israelite nations,
i.e. the "twelve tribes".

5.When the Canaanite women came to him for her

possessed daughter and 'cried' and 'asked for mercy' Jesus
didn't reply to her then his disciples came and 'begged'
him. But Jesus stood firm and steady, and leaving no
chance for a different interpretation he said: "I was sent
ONLY to the lost sheep of "Israel". She then knelt before
 him and said: "Lord, help me!" He said: It is not right to
take the children's bread and toss it to their DOGS! When
that lady didn't mind to be a DOG and said "but even the
dogs eat the crumbs that fall from their masters' table",
only then he decided to helped her! He helped her since
DOGS would benefit from their masters. Here Jesus Christ
repeated his words twice and very clearly, which denies
with no mistake the universality of his mission. Would that
be the quotes from a man that came for the sin of ALL
mankind (that they didn't commit) ? What harm and loss
would bring Jesus Christ to help possessed-people not from
the lost sheep of Israel especially if he knew that his
mission is universal or did he not know ? Finally, if Jesus
Christ was himself the Almighty God, then he would be in
no way restrained to a specific mission to a specific nation.
On what ground could he stand firm in denying assistance
to others then Israelites, if not from fear of trespassing the
boundaries of precise orders he was given from Someone
above?

6.Isn't it unlikely and far fetched that the disciples would

contradict the risen 'Jesus' teachings and only baptize in
the name of Jesus Christ (the son) instead of the Trinity?
"Peter replied: Repent and be baptized, every one of you,
in the name of Jesus Christ for the forgiveness of your
sins" [Acts 2:38]

Therefore :

The basis of the whole story of Jesus' rising from the dead
is at its best open to question. The reference to the mission
being universal and Trinity [Matthew 28:19] attributed to
 Jesus is dubious and in contradiction with his teachings
during his lifetime and is absent from the other three
Gospels. How could such a groundbreaking 'truth', i.e. the
revelation of Almighty God being no longer One, as in the
Ten Commandments given to Moses, but Trine, be only
mentioned in only one place in the four Gospels, let alone
being missing from the rest of the ******ure?

***

This leads us to an important question :

Who was the ONLY messenger that was sent as a mercy to

ALL mankind and that his message was 'universal' ?

We need to know him so we can consequently follow him

and have gain the pleasure of our Creator !

May Al-mighty God guide us ALL to the right path (the

absolute 'Truth') and prevent us from being : "Though
seeing, they do not see; though hearing, they do not hear or
understand" [Matthew 13:13], Amen.