CPC

2010
PracticeTest
for the
American Academy
of Professional Coders
CPC Exam
2010 Practice Test for the American Academy of Professional Coders CPC Exam is published by HCPro, Inc.
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Lisa Rae Roper, MHA, CCS-P, CPC, CPC-I, PCS, Author
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Rev. 06/2010
21784
iii
Contents
2010 Practice CPC Examination.....................................................................................................1
Section 1..............................................................................................................................................2
Integumentary (9 questions)..........................................................................................................2
Musculoskeletal System (10 Questions)........................................................................................4
Respiratory/Cardiovascular Systems (10 Questions)..................................................................6
Digestive System (10 Questions)...................................................................................................8
Urinary System, Male and Female Genital Systems (11 Questions)........................................11
Nervous System, Eye and Ocular Adnexa, and Auditory System (10 questions)...................13
Section 2............................................................................................................................................16
Evaluation and Management (12 Questions). ...........................................................................16
Anesthesia (6 Questions).............................................................................................................20
Radiology (9 Questions)..............................................................................................................21
Laboratory and Pathology (10 Questions).................................................................................24
Medicine (10 Questions).............................................................................................................27
Section 3............................................................................................................................................30
Medical Terminology (8 Questions)............................................................................................30
Anatomy (8 Questions). ..............................................................................................................31
ICD-9-CM (10 Questions)...........................................................................................................33
HCPCS Level II (5 Questions). .....................................................................................................35
Coding Guidelines (6 Questions). ..............................................................................................36
Practice Management (6 Questions)...........................................................................................37
Bonus Questions. ..............................................................................................................................39
2010 Practice Test Answer Key....................................................................................................41

Section 1............................................................................................................................................41
Section 2............................................................................................................................................46
Section 3............................................................................................................................................51
Answers to Bonus Practice Management Questions. ....................................................................54
2010 Practice Test for the American Academy of Professional Coders CPC Exam
2010 HCPro, Inc.
2010 Practice CPC Examination
The following Certified Professional Coder (CPC) practice exam was developed by Lisa Rae Roper,
MHA, CCS-P, CPC, CPC-I, PCS, an adjunct instructor for HCPros Certified Coder Boot Camp, to
help JustCoding Platinum members interested in obtaining a CPC credential prepare for the exam.
Unless the question states otherwise, assume that a physician documented all the information provided.
You have two minutes to complete each question. You may not use any outside materials for this exam
other than the 2010 CPT, ICD-9-CM, and HCPCS Level II manuals.
2010 HCPro, Inc.
Section 1
Integumentary (9 questions)
1.
Sam had six actinic keratoses destroyed. How would you report this service?
a.
b.
c.
d.
2.
17004
17000, 17003
17000, 17003 x 5
17110, 17111 x 5
History: A 41-year-old male with an open wound to the left upper leg presents for debridement and
preparation of the skin graft site, followed by a split-thickness skin graft.
Procedure: After informed consent was obtained, the patient was taken to the operating room, where he
was prepped and draped in a sterile fashion. The VAC machine was disconnected. The wound was malodorous.
Tissue was debrided on the surface, and some of the hypertrophic skin around the edge was also debrided. The
total size is now 150 sq cm prepped and ready. Skin was harvested at 15/1000ths of an inch, at the patients
request, from the trunk. An epinephrine-soaked gauze, 1/10,000 dilution, as well as Marcaine 0.5% with
1:200,000 dilution of epinephrine, was applied to the wound. Injection around the donor site was carried out
with the same Marcaine solution. Marcaine 0.5% with 1:200,000 dilution of epinephrine was infiltrated around
the left upper leg. Next, the skin graft was meshed at a 1.5:1 ratio. The skin graft, 150 sq cm, was applied to the
left upper leg, and a 4-0 chromic suture was used. Next, the VAC sponge was placed over the skin graft.
The skin graft area was secured with Stomahesive dressing around the edge. The patients donor site was
dressed with Xeroform gauze and a Telfa, Kerlix gauze, ABD, and tape. The patient tolerated the procedure
well and left the operating room in good condition. Needle and sponge counts were correct.
How would you report the professional services for this case?
a.
b.
c.
d.
15004, 15005-51, 15170-51, 15171-59

15002, 15100, 15101-51
15004, 15005, 15170, 15171
15100, 15101, 15002-51, 15003
2010 HCPro, Inc.
3.
A patient had a left breast reconstruction with free flap. The surgeon used a microsurgical technique, requiring
an operating microscope during the procedure. How would you report this procedure?
a.
b.
c.
d.
4.
19364 -LT, 69990

19357
19361, 69990
19364 -LT
A patient underwent an incision and drainage of a seroma without imaging and guidance. How would you
report these professional services?
a.
b.
c.
d.
5.
Dr. Shars took skin biopsies of three lesions from Lauras back. How would you report Dr. Shars services?
a.
b.
c.
d.
6.
10140, 76942-26
10140
10080
10060, 76942-26
11100, 11101-51
11056, 11100, 11101-51
11100, 11101 x 2
Biopsy codes are not reported unless the lesions are removed
Dr. Dan excised a benign lesion from Saras left arm and another benign lesion from her right leg. The excised
diameter lesion on the arm was 2 cm and the excised diameter lesion on the leg was 6.2 cm. How would you
report this service?
a.
b.
c.
d.
7.
11406, 11402-59
11406
11602, 11606-59
11406, 11402
Dr. Dan completed a 2.4 cm simple defect closure to the excision on the arm and a 10.4 cm intermediate wound
defect closure to the leg. How would the closures be reported?
a.
b.
c.
d.
12034, 12002-59
12034
12002, 12045
All closures are bundled with excision procedures
2010 HCPro, Inc.
8.
According to CPT guidelines for repair (closure), which modifier is reported when more than one classification of
wounds is repaired?
a.
b.
c.
d.
9.
-54
-25
-51
-59
Dr. Craig completed a malignant lesion removal and an adjacent tissue transfer on the trunk of a patient. The
lesion defect was 1 sq cm and the transfer defect was 2 sq cm. How would you report this procedure?
a.
b.
c.
d.
14000
11601, 14000-51
11601, 14000-59
11601, 12001-51
Musculoskeletal System (10 Questions)

10.
A patient amputated her thumb in an automobile accident. A surgeon performed a replantation of the thumb,
including carpometacarpal joint to the MP joint. How would you report this procedure?
a.
b.
c.
d.
11.
20824
20827
20822
20808, 20824-59
A patient underwent a right surgical arthroscopic medial meniscal transplant, which required a remnant of the
meniscus to be removed. How would you report this procedure?
a.
b.
c.
d.
12.
29866, 29868-59
29868-RT
29868
29870-RT
A patient had four artificial cervical discs removed by total disc arthroplasty in an anterior approach. What is
the appropriate code to report the three additional interspaces?
a.
b.
c.
d.
22527 x 3
0095T x 3
22534 x 3
22585 x 3
2010 HCPro, Inc.
13.
When coding for spinal procedures, how is segmental instrumentation defined?
a. Fixation at each end of the construct

b. Fixation at each end of the construct
the intervening segments
c. Fixation at each end of the construct
d. Fixation at each end of the construct
to the intervening segments
14.
29035
29450
29044
29000
A patient underwent a percutaneous repair of an Achilles tendon with graft. How would you report this?
a.
b.
c.
d.
16.
and at least one additional interposed bony attachment

and may span several vertebral segments without attachment
What is the appropriate code for application of a body cast including one thigh?
a.
b.
c.
d.
15.
and no additional interposed bony attachment

and may span four vertebral segments with attachment to
27680, 20824-59
27654
27652, 20824
27652
While shopping at the mall, Renee dislocated her patella when she fell from the escalator. The surgeon documented
an open dislocation and performed an open treatment with total patellectomy to repair the patella. How would you
code this treatment and diagnosis?
a.
b.
c.
d.
17.
27840, 27562-51, 836.3, E884.9

27566, 836.4, E880.0, E849.6
27562, 836.4
27566, 27560-51, 836.4, E880.0, E884.9
A patient suffered a penetrating wound to his abdomen when he fell into a plate glass window. A surgeon
performed wound exploration with enlargement, debridement, and removal of glass from the site. The surgeon
decided a laparotomy procedure was not necessary at this time. How would this procedure be reported?
a.
b.
c.
d.
20102
49000, 97602-51, 20102-59
20100, 49000-59
This procedure is bundled with the laparotomy
2010 HCPro, Inc.
18.
Dr. Roberts patient suffered an open fracture to his left elbow. The elbow was repaired surgically with several
pins. Two weeks after the repair, Dr. Roberts had to re-reduce the fracture. Which modifier would describe the
re-reduction procedure?
a.
b.
c.
d.
19.
-76
-78
-58
-52
Tom suffered a burst fracture to his lumbar spine when he fell from a ladder at work. Dr. Bill performed a partial
corpectomy to L2 by a transperitoneal approach, followed by anterior arthrodesis of L1L3. He also positioned
anterior instrumentation and placed a structural allograft to L1L3. How would Dr. Bill report this procedure?
a.
b.
c.
d.
22558, 22858-51, 22845-51, 20931-59

63085, 22533, 22585-51, 22808-59
22612 x 2, 22808, 22840-51, 20931
63090, 22558-51, 22585, 22845, 20931
Respiratory/Cardiovascular Systems (10 Questions)

20.
A patient had a dual temporary pacemaker inserted. Which code captures this service?
a.
b.
c.
d.
21.
33210
33211
33212
33213
Alices heart condition is worsening and she is scheduled for an upgraded system change from a single to a
dual chamber system. Today, Dr. Smith removed Alices single chamber pacemaker, pulse generator, and
electrodes. He then inserted a dual chamber system with insertion of new electrodes. Assign the correct code(s)
for todays service.
a.
b.
c.
d.
33208, 33217
33233, 33234-51, 33208-51
33214
33214, 33208-51, 33233-51, 33234-51
2010 HCPro, Inc.
22.
If an electrode needed to be repositioned in the right ventricle, which code would describe this service?
a.
b.
c.
d.
23.
33218
33226
33215
This service is bundled with all pacemaker services
Three years after a double bypass, Toms heart condition deteriorated and he had to have another bypass
surgery. Today, he had a triple arterial and a double venous graft surgery with harvesting of a radial artery.
How would todays procedure be reported?
a.
b.
c.
d.
24.
33511, 35500, 33518, 33534

33535, 33518-51, 33530-51, 35600-51
33511, 33518, 33530
33535, 33518, 33530, 35600
Dr. Nector performed a direct thrombectomy to the iliac vein by abdominal and leg incision. How would Dr. Nector
report her professional services?
a.
b.
c.
d.
25.
34401
34451
34421
34201
A 62-year-old patient had her non-tunneled, centrally inserted CVAD without a port or pump replaced with the
same type of system. The removal and replacement was completed through the same access site. How would
you report this procedure?
a.
b.
c.
d.
26.
36580
36589, 36580-51
36581, 36589-59
36578
What vascular order branch is the right internal carotid if the starting point of the catheterization is the aorta?
a.
b.
c.
d.
First order branch

Second order branch
Third order branch
Beyond the third order
2010 HCPro, Inc.
27.
A patient had a biopsy of the temporal artery. What is the appropriate code to identify this service?
a.
b.
c.
d.
28.
How many times can codes 3820738215 be reported per day?
a.
b.
c.
d.
29.
37650
37609
37700
37565
Once per day

As many times as the procedure is completed within one service day
Twice per day
None of the above
How would you report a diagnostic bronchoscopy with fluoroscopic guidance and a cervical approach
mediastinotomy with biopsy?
a.
b.
c.
d.
39000, 31622-51
39000, 31622-51, 71034
31635, 71034
39000, 31630-59, 71034
Digestive System (10 Questions)

30.
A 45-year-old female patient with mild hypertension underwent a proctosigmoidoscopy with ablation of three
lesions under moderate sedation. Dr. Terry performed the procedure and the sedation in her office suite. The
intraservice time for the procedure was 45 minutes. How would you report these services?
a.
b.
c.
d.
31.
45320
45320, 99144, 99145
45309, 45320 x 3, 00810-P2
45320 x 3
Juan, a 42-year-old healthy male patient, had a laparoscopic cholecystectomy with cholangiography. Select the
appropriate CPT code(s) to report these services.
a.
b.
c.
d.
47605
47562, 47605-51
47563
47560, 47563-59
2010 HCPro, Inc.
32.
Jennifer underwent a hernioplasty to repair a strangulated, recurrent ventral hernia, which required implantation
of mesh for successful closure. Additionally, the surgeon completed debridement for necrotizing soft tissue due to
infection. How would the professional services be reported in this procedure?
a.
b.
c.
d.
33.
A 16-year-old patient underwent an adenoidectomy. During the same surgical session, his chronic nose bleeding
on the left side was addressed. The surgeon found an abnormal vasculature in this area and cauterized using
suction cautery in the left nasal septum to control this problem. Next, the inferior turbinates were reduced using
the Coblation device. How would you report these procedures?
a.
b.
c.
d.
34.
49566, 11005-51, 49568-51

49561, 49568
49566, 11005-51, 49568
49565, 11004-59, 49568
30140, 42831-51
42835, 30999-51, 30901-50
42830, 30140, 30901
42831, 30140-52, 30901-59-LT
How would Dr. Ross report a 3.2 cm complex closure for a laceration to the vestibule of the mouth that he
completed on a 12-year-old patient?
a.
b.
c.
d.
13132
40831, 13132-51
40830
40831
35.
Dr. Manual completed the following service for a 22-year-old male:
Preoperative note: The patient has a history of diabetes, smokes, and does not exercise. However, the
patient states that he is in excellent health. Prior to the surgery, the patient signed consent forms and indicates
that he understands the surgery and risks.
Procedure: The patient was prepped and taken into the operating room, where a diagnostic endoscopic
retrograde cholangiopancreatography with endoscopic retrograde and insertion of nasobiliary drainage tube were
completed. Within the same operative session, we also performed a sphincterotomy. I completed the radiological
supervision and interpretation with this procedure.
How would Dr. Manual report her professional services?
a.
b.
c.
d.
43260, 74330, 43262-52, 43267-59

43267-51, 43262-51, 74330-26
43260, 99144, 74330-26
43259, 99144, 74330-26, 43260-51, 43267-59
2010 HCPro, Inc.
10
36.
If a diagnostic esophagoscopy is completed on the same patient, for the same condition, in the same session as a
surgical esophagoscopy, how is it coded?
a.
b.
c.
d.
37.
A surgical endoscopy always includes a diagnostic endoscopy

Code both procedures with a modifier -59 on the surgical endoscopy
Code both procedures with a modifier -51 on the diagnostic endoscopy
A surgical endoscopy always includes a diagnostic open excision
Select the appropriate CPT code(s) to report a laparoscopic surgical repair of an incisional reducible hernia
with mesh.
a.
b.
c.
d.
38.
49655
49654
49654, 49568
49560, 49568
A 22-year-old patient pulled out his gastrostomy tube while trying to fix it. An interventional radiologist,
Dr. Milk, took him into an angiography suite, administered moderate sedation where she probed the site with
a catheter, and injected contrast medium to provide assessment and tube placement. Dr. Milk documented that
the entry site was open, and she replaced the tube in the proper position. This procedure was completed via the
same percutaneous access site. The intraservice time for the procedure was 30 minutes. How would you report
the professional services for this case?
a.
b.
c.
d.
39.
49450, 99144
49450
49440, 99148
49440
Usually, an incidental appendectomy during an intra-abdominal surgery is not coded separately. However, if it is
necessary to report this as a separate procedure, which modifier best describes this situation?
a.
b.
c.
d.
-52
-59
-51
-58
2010 HCPro, Inc.
11
Urinary System, Male and Female Genital Systems (11 Questions)

40.
Indication for procedure: The patient has a known history of bladder tumor. She presents today for bladder
biopsy and fulguration, as well as instillation of Mitomycin C. She understands the treatment and risks and
agrees by signed consent to the procedure.
Procedure: The patient was taken to the operating room and induced under general anesthesia with appropriate
lines and monitoring placed. The patient was in a dorsal lithotomy position. A 23-French cystourethroscope was
advanced per urethra into the bladder. The bladder was carefully inspected, with no evidence of abnormalities
noted other than two previously noted lesions for transitional cell carcinomaone near the right ureteral orifice and
one inferior to the left ureteral orifice. These lesions were biopsied and cauterized without difficulty. The lesions
were noted at approximately 78 mm in size. A 20-French Foley catheter was inserted per urethra into the bladder
without difficulty and noted to be draining clear urine. Next, instillation of Mitomycin C was completed with a plan
to keep in place for 4550 minutes. The patient tolerated the procedure well. There were no complications. She
was taken from the operating room to recovery in satisfactory condition. How would you report this procedure?
a.
b.
c.
d.
41.
52000, 52204-59
51720, 51715-51, 52000-59
52204, 51720-51
51720
Steven, a 52-year-old male patient, underwent an extracorporeal shockwave lithotripsy and cystourethroscopy
with removal of a double-J stent. How would you report this procedure?
a.
b.
c.
d.
42.
50590
50590, 52310-51
50590, 52315-59
52317, 52310-51
What are the three distinct components of physician work for renal allotransplantation?
a. Cadaver or living donor nephrectomy (unilateral or bilateral), backbench work, and recipient
renal allotransplantation
b. Cadaver donor nephrectomy (unilateral or bilateral), backbench work, and recipient
renal autotransplantation
c. No donor nephrectomy (unilateral or bilateral), backbench work, and recipient
d. Cadaver donor nephrectomy (unilateral or bilateral), forward bench-set work, and recipient
2010 HCPro, Inc.
12
43.
A patient had an open cryosurgical ablation of two renal mass lesions. The surgeon used an intraoperative
ultrasound for the procedure. Select the appropriate code for this procedure.
a.
b.
c.
d.
44.
50250 x 2
50593
50542
50250
Sally has been unable to become pregnant and has undergone extensive testing. She is now scheduled for an
in vitro fertilization procedure. She underwent a follicle puncture to retrieve 12 eggs. The surgeon then injected
one egg into the right fallopian tube. Which codes capture this procedure?
a.
b.
c.
d.
45.
58970, 58976-51
58970, 58976-59
58660, 58661-51
58660, 58976-59
Which modifiers should be appended when multiple investigative procedures are performed in the same
urodynamic session and the physician only interprets the results and/or operates the equipment?
a.
b.
c.
d.
46.
-51, TC
-51, -26
-59, TC
No modifiers are necessary
A 65-year-old male patient underwent a repair of the tunica vaginalis hydrocele, Bottle type. Which CPT code is
appropriate to report this procedure?
a.
b.
c.
d.
47.
55041
55000
55060
54865
A patient had a vulvectomy with removal of greater than 80% of the vulvar area and a bilateral inguinofemoral
lymphadenectomy. Which CPT code is appropriate to report this procedure?
a.
b.
c.
d.
56634
56620
56637
56632
2010 HCPro, Inc.
13
48.
Dr. Level delivered a healthy baby boy via routine cesarean delivery. He also provided all the antepartum and
postpartum care for this patient. How would you report this procedure?
a.
b.
c.
d.
49.
59510, 59425-59, 59430-59

59400
59618
59510
A patient had a laparoscopic treatment of ectopic pregnancy with a salpingectomy and an oophorectomy.
Which code captures this procedure?
a.
b.
c.
d.
50.
59150
59136
59120
59151
A physician inserts a catheter into a renal abscess using radiologic guidance, then drains the abscess. How
would you code the physicians professional services?
a.
b.
c.
d.
50020, 75989
50021, 75989-26
50021, 75989-TC
50021, 50020-51, 75989-TC
Nervous System, Eye and Ocular Adnexa, and Auditory System (10 questions)
51.
A patient had a 2 cm lesion excised from conjunctiva in the right eye. How would you report this procedure?
a.
b.
c.
d.
52.
68135-RT
68115-RT
68330-RT
68110-RT
A patient underwent a phacoemulsification extra-capsular cataract extraction with an Alcon 6.0 mm optic 21.6
diopter posterior chamber intraocular lens inserted into the capsular bag. This procedure was completed with a
surgical microscope. How would you report this service?
a.
b.
c.
d.
66982
66982, 69990
66984, 69990
66984
2010 HCPro, Inc.
14
53.
A patient had four prophylaxis photocoagulation treatments for lattice degeneration. These treatments were
completed over a one-week time period. How many units of code 67145 would be reported?
a.
b.
c.
d.
54.
How would you report an endolymphatic sac operation with shunt?
a.
b.
c.
d.
55.
One
Two
Three
Four
69806
69801
69949
69949, 69990-51
Bob, a healthy 12-year-old patient, had bilateral removal of ventilating tubes. An anesthesiologist administered
general anesthesia for the procedure. How would the surgeon report her services?
a.
b.
c.
d.
56.
69424-47, 00120-P1
69200-50
69424-50
69200, 00120-P1
The code range 6571065757 should not be reported in conjunction with which of the following?
a. Sensorimotor examination with single measurement, unilateral or bilateral, with interpretation

and report
b. Any codes in the E/M section
c. Computerized corneal topography, unilateral or bilateral, with interpretation and report
d. There is not a code for reporting a restriction
57.
Dr. Smith injected 12 cc of 0.5% Marcaine in the occipital nerve for a patient suffering from occipital neuralgia/
headache. How would you report this professional service?
a.
b.
c.
d.
64653
64408
64405
64650
2010 HCPro, Inc.
15
58.
Select the appropriate codes to report a supratentorial craniectomy for excision of a brain tumor and implantation
of brain intracavitary chemotherapy agent.
a.
b.
c.
d.
59.
61510, 61517
61518, 61517
61512, 61517-59
61510, 61316-59
A patient with spondylosis and lumbar degenerative disc disease underwent bilateral steroid paravertebral facet
joint injections to C3 and C4. Additionally, a transforaminal epidural injection of anesthetic was done to the right
side at T2. These procedures were completed under fluoroscopic guidance. How would you report these
professional services?
a.
b.
c.
d.
60.
64490-50, 64491-50, 64479-59-RT

64490, 64491, 64483, 77003
64494, 64480-59-RT, 77003-26
64483-50, 64479-59-RT, 64480-59, 77003-26
Ted had a neuroplasty of the ulnar nerve at the elbow. How would you report this procedure?
a.
b.
c.
d.
64719
64718
64822
64836
2010 HCPro, Inc.
16
Section 2
Evaluation and Management (12 Questions)
61.
Chief complaint: Nausea and vomiting, diffuse abdominal pain and headache.
Present illness: Lucy is a well-known 45-year-old patient with a history of adult onset diabetes. She was
on insulin while pregnant but has not taken any medicine since she delivered one year ago. She has a poor
understanding of her disease and does not keep her follow-up appointments. She complained of onset of the
above-mentioned symptoms as of yesterday morning. Today, she reports continued chief complaint problems
and generalized aches.
Past medical history: Lives alone with her infant son.
Social history: Smokes three packs of cigarettes per day.
Surgical history: C-section one year ago. Otherwise negative.
Family history: Positive for diabetes mellitus and breast cancer. Both parents died in their early 50s after
years on dialysis.
Medications: Patient discontinued her insulin. She takes a multiple vitamin, birth control pills, and herbal remedies.
Physical exam: Temperature is 106, pulse is 94, blood pressure 145/70. Generally, she is uncooperative and
appears tired, sweaty, and disoriented. Her external movements are intact, but she is slow to verbal commands.
Pupils are equal, round, and reactive to light. Her throat is negative, mouth is clear, and teeth appear to be fine. Chest
exam reveals crackles in her left lower lobe. Her abdomen has normal bowel sounds and is soft and non-tender with
no masses. Her liver span is 8 cm in the midclavicular line. Heart shows a normal rate and regular rhythm without
murmurs, rubs, or gallops. Her extremities are negative. Her back showed no costovertebral angle tenderness.
Laboratory: Urine shows positive culture and E. coli growth.
Assessment and plan: This patient is noncompliant with medical treatment and stopped her insulin. She lives
alone with her 1-year-old son. Today, I plan to admit her to the hospital from the office.
How would Dr. Terry report her evaluation and management (E/M) for this patient?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Code
Code
Code
Code
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for
for
for
a
a
a
a
new patient, office visit

follow-up patient, office visit
hospital admission
hospital admission and a follow-up office visit
17
62.
James was admitted to the critical care unit following a car accident. Today, his physician reported two hours
and 15 minutes of critical care services. The physician also reported 35 minutes to complete insertion of a
tunneled, centrally inserted central venous access device with a subcutaneous pump. How would you report
these services?
a.
b.
c.
d.
63.
99291-25, 99292 x 3, 36563

99291, 99292 x 4
99291-25, 99292 x 4, 36565
99291, 99292 x 3, 36000
Dr. George completed a circumcision and an initial visit on a normal newborn. The place of service was a
birthing center. Which code(s) would you report for this service?
a.
b.
c.
d.
64.
99460-25, 54150
99222-25, 54150
99462
99462, 54150-59
Before he moved to another city three years ago, Bill was a patient of Dr. Smiths. Since Bill returned to Dallas,
where Dr. Smith is located, he has not seen him or any other provider in Dr. Smiths office. Today, Dr. Smith
evaluated Bill for a cough and fever. He documented a detailed history, performed a detailed examination, and
decision-making was of low complexity. How would you report this service?
a.
b.
c.
d.
65.
99214
99204
99213
99203
When can time be considered a key or controlling factor to qualify for a particular level of E/M service?
a. When the examination and coordination of care dominates more than 50% of the face-to-face
time or floor/unit time
b. When counseling and/or coordination of care dominates more than 50% of the face-to-face time or
floor/unit time
c. When counseling and/or coordination of history dominates more than 50% of the face-to-face
time or floor/unit time
d. When the examination and decision-making takes less than 50% of the face-to-face time or floor/
unit time
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66.
Nancy, a 91-year-old patient, had a stroke with late effect hemiplegia to her left side. Dr. Pedro discharged
Nancy from the hospital to a nursing facility. Dr. Glenn, her internist, was called, and he admits Nancy to the
nursing facility. He documents a multisystem examination and comprehensive history and reviews an extensive
amount of data from her hospital stay and information provided to him by her daughter. He documents a high
risk of complications due to extensive medications and management of multiple systemic diseases. Dr. Glenn
talks with the multidisciplinary rehabilitation team regarding Nancys physical activities, including a plan for
physical and speech therapy to strengthen her left side. How would Dr. Glenns service be reported?
a.
b.
c.
d.
67.
99304, 438.21, 438.19

99310, 438.20, 438.10
99306, 438.20, 438.10
99306, 438.22, 438.12
Dr. Denver, a pediatrician, continues to follow Zachary, a 12-day-old, non-critically ill infant who currently
weighs 3,850 grams. Zachary requires intensive cardiac and respiratory monitoring and nutritional adjustments,
with vital signs and oxygen monitoring. Dr. Denver checked on Zachary five separate times on both Saturday
and Sunday. Which code(s) captures these services?
a.
b.
c.
d.
68.
99472 Saturday, 99476 Sunday

99480 Saturday, 99480 Sunday
99479 x 10 reported for each visit
99380 x 5 Saturday, 99477 x 5 Sunday
A 22-year-old female patient returns to see Dr. Moore for her yearly examination. During this examination, Dr.
Moore documents the patient is in good health with the exception of smoking; she documents a detailed review
of organ systems, extensive past medical history, and indicates that there are no new symptoms. Dr. Moores
decision-making is limited with notes regarding an over-the-counter medication review and diet plan. Dr. Moore
counsels the patient regarding tobacco cessation and prescribes a patch to help her quit smoking. Dr. Moore
reviews the use and side effects of the patch, along with 15 minutes of counseling documented. How would you
report this encounter?
a.
b.
c.
d.
99385-25, 99401
99395-25, 99407
99213-25, 99385, 99407
99202-25, 99407
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69.
Critical care codes 99291 and 99292 are used for patients starting at what age?
a.
b.
c.
d.
70.
There is no age limit for these codes

Older than 2 years of age
Dr. Miles, an internist, spoke to the ER physician, then admitted Sam to an observation bed on Tuesday at
6:00 a.m. Sam is a well-known diabetic patient of Dr. Miles and is having difficulty controlling his blood sugars.
Additionally, Sam is suffering from severe hypertension and was given new medications for both conditions
two weeks ago. After admission into observation status, Dr. Miles documented a comprehensive history and
performed a comprehensive examination. Decision-making was of moderate complexity. Dr. Miles followed
Sams course of care for 12 hours and changed medication with observation prior to discharging him. How
would Dr. Miles report this visit?
a.
b.
c.
d.
71.
99235-25, 99285
99285
99235
99215
A physician located in the critical care department is in two-way voice communication with an ambulance
crew outside the hospital and is directing telemetry of cardiac rhythm; pulmonary resuscitation; esophageal
obturator airway intubation; administration of IV fluids and administration of intramuscular drugs; and electrical
conversion of arrhythmia. How would you report this service?
a.
b.
c.
d.
72.
99288
99291
99288, 99358-59
There is no code to report this service
A 65-year-old male presented to Broadway Street Clinic complaining of persistent abdominal pain. This patient
was seen in the clinic two years ago by Dr. Bill. Today, Dr. John documented a comprehensive history and per
formed a comprehensive examination. Additionally, Dr. John reviewed a few pages of online medical informa
tion the patient printed prior to the visit. The physician spent approximately 50 minutes with the patient. The
physician spent 15 of those minutes counseling the patient on dietary changes. How would Dr. John report
this visit?
a.
b.
c.
d.
99215
99204
99213
99205
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Anesthesia (6 Questions)
73.
Anesthesia for a diagnostic arteriography/venography cannot be reported with which set of therapeutic
anesthesia codes?
a.
b.
c.
d.
74.
Dr. Myron, an anesthesiologist, performed general anesthesia for a Walsh modified radical prostatectomy on a
74-year-old male patient with mild hypertension. Which codes capture the services performed by Dr. Myron?
a.
b.
c.
d.
75.
01470-P2, 99140
01470-P1
01470-P1, 28294-51
28294-47
If a patient does not require moderate conscious sedation for an induction of arrhythmia by electrical pacing,
is it necessary to append modifier -52 to the procedure code (93618)?
a.
b.
c.
d.
77.
55810, 00865-P2
00865-P2, 99100
00865, 99100
99100, 55810-51, 00865-51
A surgeon performed a Joplin procedure with tendon transplants under general anesthesia for a healthy
35-year-old patient. How would the surgeon report his services for both the surgery and anesthesia in this case?
a.
b.
c.
d.
76.
0192401926, 0193001933
0171001782, 0183001860
0087200873, 0079000792
0063000635, 0193501936
Yes, according to moderate conscious sedation guidelines

Yes, according to anesthesia guidelines
No, according to moderate conscious sedation guidelines
No, according to medicine guidelines
In his office suite, Dr. Smith performed a diagnostic colonoscopy under moderate conscious sedation on a
54-year-old male patient. The intraservice time for the sedation was 45 minutes. How would Dr. Smith report
these services?
a.
b.
c.
d.
45378
45378, 99144-51, 99145-51
99148, 99149
45378-P1, 00740
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78.
Which modifier best describes general anesthesia being delivered under unusual circumstances?
a.
b.
c.
d.
-P6
-47
-23
-59
Radiology (9 Questions)
79.
How would you report the professional service for the following study?
Reason for study: R/O fracture
Findings: CT scan of the abdomen and pelvis is performed with a power-injected bolus of 125 cc of Optiray
320. Images are obtained at 1.5 cm slice thickness at 1.5 cm intervals in the diaphragm to pelvic floor and
demonstrate a left subcapsular hematoma. There is minimal fluid anterior to the left lobe of the liver consistent
with a tear of the capsule. Fluid is noted lateral to the spleen. Adequately enhancing spleen is noted, and this
may be secondary to splenic contusion or small surface tear of the spleen. The gallbladder is adequately
visualized and appears within normal limits.
The pancreas also appears within normal limits. Both kidneys function adequately bilaterally. There is evidence
of active bleeding approximately 2 cm above the umbilicus and approximately 34 cm to the left of midline in
the mesentery. There is a small pool of blood at the level of the umbilicus in the midline and slightly below. There
are at least three left anterior lower rib fractures identified.
Impression:
1. Kidneys and gallbladder within normal limits
2. Small surface tear of the spleen
3. Anterior lower rib fractures
a.
b.
c.
d.
80.
72193-26, 74160-26
74150-26, 72192-26
74160, 74150-TC
76376-26, 76377-26, 74160-TC
Dr. Chandler ordered and read a two-view x-ray of Marshas calcaneus and toes. This study was completed in
Dr. Chandlers office. How would Dr. Chandler report this study?
a.
b.
c.
d.
73630
73630-TC
73660
73660-26
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81.
A diagnostic ultrasound that is described in terms of a one-dimensional ultrasonic measurement procedure with
movement of the trace to record amplitude and velocity of moving echo-producing structures is what type of
an ultrasound?
a.
b.
c.
d.
82.
A-mode
B-scan
M-mode
Real-time scan
A patient pregnant with triplets had a transabdominal ultrasound to reevaluate fetal size for confirmation of
abnormalities to the cardiac system. Which codes capture this service?
a.
b.
c.
d.
83.
76815, 76815-51, 76815-59

76816, 76816-59, 76816-59
76811, 76812 x 2
76816, 76815 x 2
A patient was diagnosed with vaginal cancer. Dr. Smith completed the surgical removal of the tumor and
placement of the catheters for delivery of brachytherapy. After the surgery and adequate recovery, the patient
received low-dose brachytherapy treatment. She was readmitted to the hospital by Dr. Howard, a therapeutic
radiologist, for a 48-hour course of intermediate intracavitary brachytherapy with placement of five sources.
Day one: Dr. Howards admission documentation supported a comprehensive history, comprehensive
examination, and high-complexity decision-making. She also documented and completed the application,
supervision, and dose interpretation of brachytherapy.
Day two: Dr. Howards subsequent hospital visit documentation supported a detailed history, an expanded
problem-focused examination, and moderate decision-making. She also completed and documented follow-up
evaluation of the brachytherapy.
How would you report Dr. Howards services for these two days?
a.
b.
c.
d.
77762
57155-59, 77777-51
77777, 99223-51, 99232-25
99223-25, 99232-25, 77762 x 5
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84.
During her monthly self-examination, Linda felt a lump in her right breast. She made an appointment with
her physician to have the lump evaluated. Dr. Dan reviewed the results of Lindas last screening mammography,
which was completed a year ago. It showed no abnormalities. Dr. Dan completed an exam, noting a lump in
the right breast and abnormal dense changes in the left breast. After a complete workup, Dr. Dan ordered
a bilateral diagnostic mammography with computer-aided detection. Which codes correctly capture the
current mammography?
a.
b.
c.
d.
85.
76499, 77051
77056-50, 77052-59
77057-50, 77052-51
77056, 77051
A physician performed a complete transvaginal ultrasound of a male pelvis. She documents visualization and
evaluation of a growth in the urinary bladder. How would you report this service?
a.
b.
c.
d.
86.
76830, 76856-59-TC
76870
76856
Query the physician and patient chart for additional information to correctly code this service
Vascular radiology procedures for the aorta include work captured in the radiological supervision and inter
pretation code(s) and should not be used with interventional procedures for which of the following statements?
a. Prior study available, but, as documented in the record, there is inadequate visualization of the
anatomy and/or pathology
b. Contrast injections, angiography, road mapping, and/or fluoroscopic guidance for the intervention,
vessel measurement, and post-angioplasty/stent angiography
c. Three prior studies available, but, as documented in the record, there is inadequate visualization
of the anatomy and/or pathology
d. Adequate visualization of the anatomy documented and/or fluoroscopic guidance for the
intervention, and post-angioplasty/stent angiography for anatomy and/or pathology
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87.
Mrs. Prentice is entering her fourth phase of radiation treatment for bladder and kidney cancer. Today, she
reports to the cancer treatment facility for her regularly scheduled treatment. She missed her treatment on
Tuesday due to an illness. Typically, patients do not receive two treatments on the same day. However, her
physician determined that she can be given two separate radiation treatments to keep her on course. She
receives two treatments of 10 MeV to separate treatment areas, which require three ports and multiple blocks.
How should the facility report this service?
a.
b.
c.
d.
77408, 77408-59
77403-TC, 77413-59
77408-26
77401, 77408 x 2, 77333
Laboratory and Pathology (10 Questions)

88.
A forensic autopsy was completed on an adult female for evidence of poisoning. How would you report this service?
a.
b.
c.
d.
89.
88027
88040
88099
88000
Dr. Green, an OB/GYN, verbally requested Dr. Randall, a clinical pathologist who specializes in genetic disorders,
to provide a consultation for Maryanne, a high-risk pregnant patient. Dr. Randall provided a comprehensive
consultation with extensive medical records review of the patients and husbands family history, medical treat
ment for previous miscarriages, and episodes of seizures during pregnancy. Dr. Randall reviewed several series
of genetic tests, which required his specialized medical interpretive judgment. After a complete review, Dr. Randall
sent a comprehensive report back to Dr. Green. Which code(s) would you report for Dr. Randalls services?
a.
b.
c.
d.
80502
99214-25, 80502
99223-25, 80500
80500
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90.
A patient underwent cytogenetic testing for a neoplastic hereditary paraganglioma disorder in a solid tumor.
Which code(s) would you report for this study, the interpretation, and the report?
a.
b.
c.
d.
91.
Code 3278F is used to report what type of performance measure testing for chronic kidney disease (CKD)?
a.
b.
c.
d.
92.
88239-0H, 88291
88291
88241-50, 88291-24
88299
Laboratory testing for influenza immunization

Laboratory testing for elevated hemoglobin levels and erythropoiesis-stimulating agents
Laboratory testing for calcium, phosphorus, and intact antigene hormone and lipid profile
Serum levels of calcium, phosphorus, intact parathyroid hormone, and lipid profile ordered CKD
Eldon had a breath alcohol test at the hospital after being arrested for jogging naked through the park. Eldon
told the police that he had a few beers for breakfast but was not drunk and enjoyed the air on his skin while
jogging. Eldons breath alcohol test was mathematically calculated. How would the calculation on this test
be reported?
a.
b.
c.
d.
93.
84600
82055
82075, 82355
82075
Panel tests in the Pathology and Laboratory section of the CPT book include all the codes listed with the panel
description. When a panel is performed and additional pathology/laboratory tests are completed, how should
you report those additional tests?
a.
b.
c.
d.
All tests are bundled when performed with a panel

Reporting additional tests is upcoding and could flag an audit that always leads to financial penalties
Both a and b
The additional test should be reported separately in addition to the panel code
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94.
A patient presents to the hospital for a scheduled procedure to remove suspicious lesions from her left arm and
chest. The surgeon excised one lesion near the posterior side of the olecranon process; the second just under
the clavicle bone. The surgeon requests a pathology consult during surgery for immediate diagnosis. The path
ologist received two separately labeled containers: container A-olecranon process and container B-clavicle. The
pathologist completed gross and microscopic examinations for each specimen.
Specimen A: Three blocks
Two frozen sections
Specimen B: Four blocks
Five frozen sections
Which codes correctly capture the pathologists professional services?
a.
b.
c.
d.
95.
88331, 88332-26 x 2
88331-26 x 2, 88332-26 x 5
88331, 88332 x 7
88329, 88331-47, 88332-26 x 2
After surgical excision of a breast lesion, the breast biopsy was submitted for surgical pathology gross and
microscopic evaluation of the surgical margins. A pathologist reported a comprehensive examination on the
specimen. Select the appropriate code(s) for the laboratory services.
a.
b.
c.
d.
96.
88302
88305, 88331, 88323-26
88307
88307, 88331, 88323-26
Irma has had intermittent abdominal pain, occasional diarrhea, stool frequency, and excessive abdominal
bloating. Her symptoms have worsened over the past three months. Her physician ordered a fecal Calprotectin
test to check for Crohns disease. Which code(s) best captures this study?
a.
b.
c.
d.
82270
82272, 83993
83993
82271, 82272
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97.
Mr. Hall takes a prescribed dose of Topiramate for his migraine disorder. Three days ago, he stopped taking his
medication because he ran out. He knew he had an appointment with his physician and decided to wait until his
next checkup to get a new prescription. His physician ordered a quantitative drug assay to check the therapeutic
level of Topiramate still present in the patients blood before giving a new prescribed dose and instruction to get
Mr. Hall back on the treatment course. Select the correct code(s) to capture this laboratory service.
a.
b.
c.
d.
80299, 80100
80103
80102
80201
Medicine (10 Questions)

98.
A 7-year-old female patient was tested for a language delay. The physician explained to the patient to use her
words to describe games at school and her ideas about the pictures she would be seeing. The physician completed
language standardized tests, including the Peabody Picture Vocabulary and Word Knowledge instrument. The
physician documented his findings of a mixed receptive-expressive language disorder. He spent 70 minutes with
the patient and her family, scored the tests, and completed a report. Which codes capture this service?
a.
b.
c.
d.
99.
96101, 315.32
96111, 315.32
90809-25, 96118, 315.02, 515.39
96111, 315.09, 315.31
A patient with severe asthma was seen in the office and given two nebulized Albuterol treatments and steroids
during the same visit with the same provider. How would you report these services?
a.
b.
c.
d.
100.
94644
94640, 94640-76
94664
94664, 94640-76
A patient suspected to have macular degeneration is tested by electro-oculography. How would you report
this service?
a.
b.
c.
d.
92260
92250
92270
92499
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101.
John, a 52-year-old patient with severe artery disease, underwent a percutaneous transluminal coronary
atherectomy with a balloon to the left main coronary vessel. During the same session, his physician placed
three drug-coated stents in the left circumflex vessel and a PTCA in the left anterior descending artery. How
would you report these procedures?
a.
b.
c.
d.
102.
92981 x 2, 92995, 92996, 92984

92980, 92996-51, 92982, 92984-51
92980, 92981 x 2, 92995, 92982
92980, 92996, 92984
A 4-year-old patient was given the immunizations listed below during a follow-up visit. The nurse administered
the immunizations per the physicians written orders. How would you report these immunization services?
DTaP, intramuscular administration
Influenza split virus, intramuscular administration
Pneumococcal conjugate 7 valent, intramuscular
a.
b.
c.
d.
103.
90669, 90656, 90700, 90471, 90472 x 2

90669, 90656, 90700, 90473, 90473 x 2
90471, 90472, 90700-51, 90656-51, 90669-51
90658, 90465, 90700-51, 90466-51, 90471-59
A patient with a non-healing diabetic ulcer on her left leg underwent three sessions of negative pressure wound
therapy. The patient was given detailed instructions for ongoing home care and an appointment to return to the
wound care clinic in two days for additional treatments. The ulcer site being treated is 22 sq cm. Which code(s)
would you report for this procedure?
a.
b.
c.
d.
104.
97605-LT x 3, 11044-LT-51
97597-LT, 11044-LT-59
97605-LT, 97606-LT x 2
97605-LT x 3
Dr. Trunk completed a bilateral H-reflex amplitude and latency study for the gracilis muscles. Which code
captures this study?
a.
b.
c.
d.
95937-50
95926-50
95934-50
95936-50
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105.
An implantable loop records cardiac episodes from which two sources?
a.
b.
c.
d.
106.
Patient initiated and AV interval voltage duration sensors

Patient initiated and SA rhythm strip algorithms
Patient initiated and device algorithm
Patient initiated and intravascular acquisition sensors
Sam, a 22-year-old ESRD patient, completes a full month of dialysis at his assigned treatment center. During
these monthly visits, he and his physician have five face-to-face visits. Assign the correct code(s) for this service.
a.
b.
c.
d.
107.
90960
99212-25 x 5, 90954
90954 x 5
99211-25, 90960 x 5
Jane, a 45-year-old patient, is undergoing inpatient psychiatric services for an eating disorder. On Monday,
Dr. Palma documents a subsequent visit with an extended problem-focused history, an extended problemfocused examination, and decision-making of moderate complexity. She also spends 45 minutes with Jane
providing psychotherapy. Assign the correct code(s) for this service.
a.
b.
c.
d.
99232-25, 90819
90819
90827, 90826-52
90818, 90819-52
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Section 3
Medical Terminology (8 Questions)
108.
What does the prefix aniso mean?
a.
b.
c.
d.
109.
What does it mean to place a patient in a prone position?
a.
b.
c.
d.
110.
Cardiovascular system
Musculoskeletal system
Integumentary system
Nervous system
What does Hexocyclium refer to?
a.
b.
c.
d.
112.
Face up or palms up
On the left side facing backward
Face down or palms down
On the right side facing forward
A ventriculomyectomy procedure is performed on which body system?
a.
b.
c.
d.
111.
Large
Different
Three
Unequal
A
A
A
A
diagnosis
procedure
syndrome
drug
Which term refers to a pregnancy in which an embryo grows outside the uterus?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Intramural
Viral
Ectopic
Retention
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113.
Which procedure is used to create an opening of the ileum to the outside of the body?
a.
b.
c.
d.
114.
Hodgkins disease is an example of which type of tumor?
a.
b.
c.
d.
115.
A colostomy
A nephrostomy
An ileostomy
An arthrocentesis
Lymphoma
Sarcoma
Myoma
Adenoma
Which term describes a patient with a slow heart rhythm?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Arrhythmia
Tachycardia
Dysrhythmia
Bradycardia
Anatomy (8 Questions)
116.
What does the term cholelithiasis refer to?
a.
b.
c.
d.
117.
Inflammation of the liver

Abnormal condition of gallstones
Small growths in the colon
A yellow discoloration of the skin and other tissues
What is an arteriole?
a.
b.
c.
d.
A
A
A
A
small artery
large artery
dark pigmented area around the nipple
joint
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118.
Which direction divides the body into front and back sections?
a.
b.
c.
d.
119.
The term mastication refers to what process?
a.
b.
c.
d.
120.
Coronal
Lateral
Sagittal
Superior
Squeezing movement
Backward gastric content movement
Swallowing
Chewing
Which type of nervous system response would define a patient who suffers from decreased blood pressure,
salivation, and heart rate?
a.
b.
c.
d.
121.
Which of the of the following bones are located in the skull?
a.
b.
c.
d.
122.
Parasympathetic
Sympathetic
Central
Automatic
Carpal, ulna, zygomatic

Nasal, femoral, tarsal
Nasal, temporal, zygomatic
Calcaneus, talus, nasal
The appendix is attached to the end of which part of the digestive system?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Small intestine in the lower right area of the abdomen

Large intestine in the lower right area of the abdomen
Small intestine in the lower left area of the abdomen
Large intestine in the lower left area of the abdomen
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123.
What is another term for the viral disease varicella?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Smallpox
Chickenpox
Cowpox
Pseudo-cowpox
ICD-9-CM (10 Questions)

124.
A patient had an inconclusive HIV test. Which diagnosis code is used to report this finding?
a.
b.
c.
d.
125.
795.79
042
795.71
V08
Cynthia suffered second-degree burns to her chin and third-degree burns to her nose. These burns occurred
when a propane grill exploded while she was trying to light it in her garage. How would the diagnoses codes
for Cynthias condition be reported?
a.
b.
c.
d.
126.
941.39, E923.2, E849.0

941.24, 941.34, E923.8, E849.4
941.49, E849.1, E924.2
941.49. 941.24, 921.34, E849.1, E849.0
While on the golf course with his mother, a 15-year-old patient accidentally took his mothers thyroid hormone
pills instead of Tylenol. He suffered from dizziness and was taken to the ED for treatment. How would the
diagnoses codes be reported for this patient?
a.
b.
c.
d.
962.6, E932.6, E849.4

780.4, 962.7
962.7, 780.4, E858.0, E849.4
780.4, 926.7, E932.7, E849.4
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127.
Tom was taken to the hospital by his wife after falling from a ladder. He told the ED staff that he was putting
screens on the windows of his house when the ladder slipped. Tom was examined and diagnosed with derange
ment of the left knee, multiple closed fractures of the phalanges on the left foot, and an open wound to the
upper right arm and scapular region. How would you report the diagnoses codes for this patient?
a.
b.
c.
d.
128.
A patient was admitted to the hospital with Anthrax pneumonia. Assign the correct code(s) for this case.
a.
b.
c.
d.
129.
718.36, 880.9, E881.0, E849.0

880.09, 826.0, 836.2, E881.0, E849.0
836.2, 825.21, 718.36, E881.0
836.62, 880.03, 880.01, E881.0, E849.0
022.1, 484.5
484.5, 022.1
480.8, 002.1
482.41
Sally was diagnosed with acute narrow-angle glaucoma-OD and chronic narrow-angle glaucoma-OS. Which
code(s) should you report for Sallys condition?
a.
b.
c.
d.
130.
365.9
365.24
356.11
365.22, 365.23
Baby Gomez was born premature, weighing 1,400 grams. He was delivered in the hospital with hyaline
membrane disease. How would you report the diagnoses for this newborn?
a.
b.
c.
d.
131.
V27.0, 769
V30.1, 769
V30.00, 765.15, 765.20, 769
V27.0, 765.15, 765.20, 769
Doug was treated for multiple conditions: bleeding internal and external hemorrhoids and a stasis ulcer with
inflammation to the right lower leg. How would you report his diagnoses?
a.
b.
c.
d.
455.2, 455.5, 454.2

455.1, 455.5
455.6, 455.8, 454.0
454.9, 455.0, 455.3
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132.
How is the time frame for a late effect of cerebrovascular disease defined?
a.
b.
c.
d.
133.
May be present from the onset or may arise only within 24 hours from the condition
May be present from the onset or may arise at any time after the onset of the condition
May be present from the onset or may arise only within the first three weeks of the condition
Must be present 36 hours prior to the onset of the condition to be coded
Mrs. Units suffers with uncontrolled type 2 diabetes. She recently decided to stop taking her regular dose of
insulin and control her condition by diet, like her friend does. Today, during her examination, the physician
increases her regular dose of insulin and re-explains to Mrs. Units that ongoing use of insulin in her condition is
necessary and she cannot control her diabetes through diet. Mrs. Units also told her physician that her vision is
fading and it is difficult to read or watch television. She is now diagnosed with cataracts as a manifestation of
her diabetic condition. How would the physician document the diagnoses codes for todays visit?
a.
b.
c.
d.
366.41, 250.01
250.52, 366.41, V58.67
V58.67, 366.41
250.00, 366.41, V58.67
HCPCS Level II (5 Questions)

134.
How would you report the supply for a knee ankle foot orthosis fracture orthosis, femoral fracture cast orthosis,
rigid, prefabricated, includes fitting and adjustment with a drop lock knee joint?
a.
b.
c.
d.
135.
L0970, L2126, L3995

E1805, L2136
L1700, L2182
L2136, L2182
How would you report the supply of Ketorolac tromethamine 30 mg injected intravenously?
a.
b.
c.
d.
J1885 x 2
J1840 x 2
J1885
J1850
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136.
Codes that begin with the letter D refer to which type of procedure?
a.
b.
c.
d.
137.
Select the supply code for a spherocylinder, trifocal, sphere over plus or minus 12.00d, per lens.
a.
b.
c.
d.
138.
Disorder
Dental
Disability
Dislocation
V2314
V2399
V2785
V2300
How would the transportation of a portable EKG machine be reported when used for six patients?
a.
b.
c.
d.
R0076 x 6
R0075 x 6
R0070 x 6
None of the above
Coding Guidelines (6 Questions)

139.
What are the two types of ICD-9 history codes?
a.
b.
c.
d.
140.
Personal and family history

High-risk and screening history
Observation and family history
Personal and status history
Radiology procedures or services completed with administration of oral and/or rectal contrast alone do not
qualify as which type of study?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Study with contrast

Supervision study
Intravascular needle point study
None of the above
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141.
A surgical pathology unlisted specimen should be assigned to a code that most closely reflects what?
a.
b.
c.
d.
142.
Which is the correct set of codes that can have modifiers 1P, 2P, 3P, and 8P attached when reporting services?
a.
b.
c.
d.
143.
Evaluation and Management

Pathology
Anesthesia
Category II
Which type of provider can report stereotactic radiosurgery codes and head frame application procedures?
a.
b.
c.
d.
144.
The hospital laboratory work involved when compared to other specimens assigned to that code
The physician work involved when compared to other specimens assigned to that code
The patient work involved when compared to other specimens assigned to that code
The examination work involved when compared to other specimens assigned to that code
Radiologist
Neurosurgeon
Oncologist
General surgeon
What is the CPT definition of professional services?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Face-to-face services rendered within a facility by any staff member

Face-to-face services rendered by a physician
Face-to-face services rendered by a nursing assistant
Nonface-to-face services rendered by a physician
Practice Management (6 Questions)

145.
What does the symbol mean when it precedes a code in the CPT book?
a.
b.
c.
d.
New or revised text

Vaccines pending FDA approval
New code
Add-on code
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146.
The supplemental clinical examples provided by the AMA in the CPT manual include which type of services?
a. Clinical examples of laboratory testing and function testing

b. Documented notes for surgical services
c. Office or other outpatient services, hospital inpatient services, consultations, critical care,
prolonged services, and care plan oversight
d. Documented examples of surgical notes for orthopedic cases
147.
What is indicated by the use of a modifier?
a. That a service or procedure is exempt from all payment rules and regulations set by
insurance companies
b. That a service or procedure is not covered under professional liability insurance and should not
be paid
c. That a service or procedure that has been performed has not been altered by a specific circumstance
but not changed in its definition or code
d. That a service or procedure that has been performed has been altered by a specific circumstance but
not changed in its definition or code
148.
What date has been set for adoption and implementation for ICD-10-CM and ICD-10-PCS?
a.
b.
c.
d.
149.
What does the abbreviation RAC stand for related to medical claims?
a.
b.
c.
d.
150.
October 1, 2013
January 1, 2013
September 15, 2011
October 30, 2012
Relative Action Claims

Recovery Audit Comments
Recovery Audit Contractors
Recoverable Action Claims
Which two departments within the U.S. federal governments Department of Health and Human Services provide
guidelines for coding and reporting ICD-9 codes?
a.
b.
c.
d.
CMS and AHA

CMS and NIH
CMS and NCHS
NCHS and RAC
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Bonus Questions
151.
Questions regarding the use and interpretation of the International Classification of Diseases (ICD-9-CM) can be
directed to which of the following organizations?
a. Central Office of ICD-9-CM, National Center for Health Statistics, Centers for Medicare &
Medicaid Services
b. Central Office of ICD-9-CM, National Center for Health Statistics, Centers for Health
Insurance Reform
c. Central Office of ICD-9-CM, National Center for Health Statistics, AMA
d. Central Office of ICD-9-CM, National Center for Health Statistics, Centers for Medicine &
Medicaid Services
152.
Which organization is responsible for updating the Resource-Based Relative Value Scale?
a.
b.
c.
d.
153.
What was the original ICD, published in 1948, designed to do for the medical field?
a.
b.
c.
d.
154.
CMS
RBRVS
HIPAA
AMA
Calculate diagnoses for morbidity

Track diagnoses for manifestations
Track diagnoses statistics
Calculate diagnoses only for chemical exposure
The AMA cites which of the following as a reference source for obtaining reliable information for service or
procedure code usage and reporting?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Radiology News Update Web site

ICD-9-CM Board of Coding
CPT Assistant
CPT Association
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155.
Which organization updates the HCPCS II D codes?
a.
b.
c.
d.
AMA
ADA
CMS
OIG
156. The Office of Inspector General has the responsibility to report program and management problems along with
recommendations for correction to which two branches of government?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Secretary
Secretary
Secretary
Secretary
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of
of
of
Departments of Health and Economics

HHS and Congress
HHS and the Corporate Center
Departments of Health and Education
41
2010 Practice Test Answer Key

Section 1
1.
C. The first lesion is reported with code 17000; the next five lesions are reported with the add-on code
17003 x 5 (count each additional lesion after the first).
2.
D. The surgical preparation and autograft are reported by the recipient site and size. Review
Appendix A for the definition of modifier -51. This modifier (51) should not be appended to
add-on codes.
3.
D. One way to find this answer in the CPT Professional Edition index is under Breast, Reconstruction,
with free flap. The operating microscopy is bundled with this procedure. Notice the parenthetical note
following the surgical code.
4.
B. Carefully reading questions is important when coding. This question states without imaging
and guidance.
5.
C. Skin biopsy codes are reported when the biopsy is completed without a removal. Review the biopsy
guidelines in the integumentary system for correct coding rules.
6.
A. See the guidelines for excision of benign lesions regarding separate reporting for each lesion.
Additionally, review Appendix A and the definition for modifier -59 when reporting lesions.
7.
B. See the guidelines for excision of benign lesions, which state that simple closures are included,
but intermediate or complex closures should be reported. Additionally, review the guidelines for
closures regarding measurement, anatomic site, and other coding rules.
8.
C. See the guidelines for repair of closures for multiple wounds.
9.
A. Excision of the lesion is bundled with adjacent tissue transfer codes. This coding rule can be
found in the guidelines for these codes.
10.
A. One way to find this procedure in the CPT Professional Edition index is under Replantation,
Thumb. Once the code range is located, each code description should be read to find the correct code.
11.
B. The code 29868 includes the arthrotomy for meniscal insertion, medial or lateral.
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12.
B. This add-on code is listed in a parenthetical note under the primary procedure 22864.
13.
C. This definition can be found in the sub-guidelines under Spinal Instrumentation.
14.
C. One way to find this answer in the CPT Professional Edition index is under Cast, Body Cast,
Upper Body and One Leg.
15.
D. One way to find this answer in the CPT Professional Edition index is under Achilles
Tendon, Repair.
16.
B. Refer to the index of the CPT Professional Edition under Dislocation, Patella, Open Treat
ment for the procedure. The ICD-9 codes describe the injury. Additionally, be sure to use E codes
to describe how and where the accident occurred.
17.
A. One way to find this answer is in the index of the CPT Professional Edition under Wound,
Exploration, Abdomen.
18.
A. This answer can be found in the CPT Professional Edition in the guidelines for the Musculo
skeletal System. Also, remember that modifiers are listed on the inside front flap of the CPT
Professional Edition and in Appendix A.
19.
D. The primary procedure is a partial corpectomy. An arthrodesis procedure was completed in

addition to the definitive procedure; therefore, modifier -51 is reported. This rule can be found in
the subcategory guidelines under Arthrodesis. It is necessary to report the code for a structural
allograft in addition to the procedures.
20.
B. There are only two temporary pacemaker codes. One reports a single system and the other
reports a dual system.
21.
C. 33214 is an upgrade from a single to a dual system. This code includes removal of previous placed
pulse generator, testing of existing lead, insertion of new lead, and insertion of new pulse generator.
22.
C. Notice that code 33215 describes the right atrial or right ventricular, whereas code 33226
describes the left ventricular.
23.
D. Codes for bypass surgery are selected by the type and number of grafts. Read the sub-guidelines
in the bypass section carefully regarding harvesting of veins or arteries that can be reported with
these codes. Modifier -51 should not be attached to add-on codessee Appendix A for definitions
of modifiers.
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24.
B. This code can be found in the index of the CPT Professional Edition under the main
heading Thrombectomy.
25.
A. Review the guidelines with the codes for central venous access procedures. Removal and replace
ment is reported separately if the procedure occurs via a separate venous access site.
26.
C. This answer can be found in Appendix L of the CPT Professional Edition. This appendix is very
helpful with questions related to vascular injection procedures.
27.
B. This code can be found in the index of the CPT Professional Edition under Biopsy,
Artery, Temporal.
28.
A. This rule can be found in the sub-guidelines for the bone marrow or stem cell services.
29.
A. Diagnostic bronchoscopy codes include fluoroscopic guidance. See the subcategory guidelines
with the code set 3162231646.
30.
A. This procedure includes the moderate sedation.
31.
C. Carefully review how procedures are performed: laparoscopy, excision, etc. This is one of the
keys to finding and reporting the correct codes.
32.
C. The add-on code 49568 is used in conjunction with certain codes. See the parenthetical note
following this code for reporting restrictions. Modifier -51 is not attached to add-on codes; see
Appendix A for modifier definitions.
33.
D. This is an example of reading exam questions carefully for the subtle differences in codes, de
scriptions, and use of modifiers. This question states that the interior turbinates were reduced
this implies a lesser procedure from a resection of a terbinate. Therefore, code 30140-52 is the best
choice available. Additionally, the code 30901-59-LT indicates a distinct procedural service and the
left side of the nose.
34.
D. One way to find this code is in the index of the CPT Professional Edition under Mouth,
Vestibule, Repair. Once you find this code range, read the descriptions to select the correct code.
35.
B. Review the parenthetical note for code 43267 with sphincterotomy. Modifier -51 is appended for
a multiple procedure in the same session by the same provider.
36.
A. This rule is repeated many times in CPT coding and can be found in the esophagoscopy sub
section of the CPT Professional Edition.
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37.
B. This code includes mesh insertion when performed.
38.
A. This is a replacement procedure through the same access site. The moderate sedation is not
included with this procedure and should be coded.
39.
A. See the parenthetical note following code 44950 for this answer.
40.
C. The primary procedure can be found in the CPT Professional Edition index under Biopsy,
Bladder, Cystourethroscope. The instillation for the drug Mitomycin C can be located in the index
under Instillation, Drugs, Bladder. Modifier -51 is used to indicate a procedure in the same organ
system during the same procedure.
41.
B. Modifier -51 is reported because there were two procedures in the same organ system.
42.
A. This answer can be found in the index of the CPT Professional Edition under Renal
Transplantation.
43.
D. Careful attention is required for the correct code selection in this answer. This procedure is not
completed laparoscopically or for renal tumors.
44.
A. Modifier -51 is reported because there were two procedures in the same organ system.
45.
B. See the subcategory guidelines with Urodynamics.
46.
C. One way to find this code is in the index of the CPT Professional Edition under Bottle
Type Procedure.
47.
C. Definitions for vulvectomy codes 5662056640 are provided in the same area of the CPT
Professional Edition to assist you when selecting codes.
48.
D. This is a complete delivery package with antepartum and postpartum care.
49.
D. This is a laparoscopic treatment, not a surgical treatment.
50.
B. If the access for a procedure is not clearly stated, a more conservative code should be selected.
Modifier -26 reports the professional component of the radiology service.
51.
B. One way to find this answer in the CPT Professional Edition index is under Conjunctiva,
Lesion, Excision.
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52.
D. The surgical microscope is not reported separately. See the codes that are included with the
surgical microscope listed above code 69990.
53.
A. The sub-guidelines for prophylaxis state that codes in this section should be reported once
during a treatment period, even if these treatments occur during different encounters.
54.
A. One way to find this code in the CPT Professional Edition index is under Ear, Inner,
Exploration, Endolymphatic sac.
55.
C. A parenthetical note under the code 69242 indicates that modifier -50 should be reported for a
bilateral procedure. This question asks only for the surgeons services.
56.
C. The code range 6571065757 is reported for keratoplasty procedures. There is a statement in the
sub-guidelines for this code set; do not report 6571065757 in conjunction with 92025. To select
the correct answer, cross-reference the code 92025 for the description.
57.
C. This code can be found in the CPT Professional Edition index under Injection, Nerve, Anesthetic.
58.
A. Multiple code sets are listed in the CPT Professional Edition index under Craniectomy, Surgical.
To find the correct code, it is necessary to look at the codes listed and read the descriptions. See the
parenthetical note with the add-on code 61517. This code can be used only with 61510 or 61518.
59.
A. Codes in this question are selected based on the type of procedure and the level in the spine.
Modifier -59 indicates a separate level of the spine and a separate procedure. Per the sub-guidelines for
paravertebral spinal nerves and branches, the image guidance is inclusive with codes 6449064495.
60.
B. When reporting neuroplasty codes, read carefully to select the correct nerve.
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Section 2
61.
C. The office visit code is bundled into the admission code for this patient. Refer to the guidelines
listed under the initial hospital care for this rule.
62.
A. The critical care is reported according to the total duration of time spent to deliver that service
(or those services bundled with critical care). The procedure would be reported because it is not
bundled with the critical care services. Look carefully at the procedures that are bundled with
critical care codes. Additionally, the guidelines listed under the critical care codes indicate that time
spent performing separately reportable procedures should not be included as time reported for
critical care. Therefore, the 35 minutes to complete the procedure are not included with the two
hours and 15 minutes of critical care time.
63.
A. This Evaluation and Management (E/M) code should be reported with the Newborn Care
Service code. The circumcision procedure would be reported in addition to the E/M code.
64.
D. This is a new patient visit according to the Evaluation and Management (E/M) guidelines. A
decision tree to assist coders with determining New vs. Established Patients is also provided in
the E/M guidelines.
65.
B. This answer can be found in the E/M guidelines under the selection of appropriate level of service.
66.
C. The diagnoses codes 438.20 and 438.10 are unspecified codes. The test question does not give us
enough information to select more specific diagnoses codes. The E/M guidelines are used to identify
code 99306 as the correct E/M level. Use Table 2 in the E/M guidelines of the CPT Professional
Edition to determine the level of decision-making. The guidelines state that two of the three ele
ments in Table 2 must be met or exceeded to qualify for a certain level of decision-making. Also
listed in the guidelines is a definition for examination performed. Review these definitions for the
use of the term multisystem.
67.
B. Review of the guidelines for the Initial and Continuing Intensive Care Services indicate services
that are included. Additionally, the weight of the baby is important when selecting codes.
68.
B. This encounter would be reported with a preventive medicine visit code according to age and
established patient. Additionally, the smoking cessation counseling would be reported.
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69.
D. This notation regarding age can be found in the Inpatient Neonatal and Pediatric Critical
Care guidelines. It is important that the age of the patient is considered when you report critical
care codes.
70.
C. This visit would be reported with observation or inpatient care service codes (including
admission and discharge services).
71.
A. Review the guidelines for Other Emergency Services for this answer.
72.
A. This is an established patient visit. Two of the three key components are documented to qualify
for a 99215 level visit.
73.
A. One way to find the code 01916 in the CPT Professional Edition is to index Anesthesia,
Arteriography. See the parenthetical notes under code 01916 for this rule.
74.
B. The modifier P2 indicates that the patient has a mild systemic disease, and the add-on code
provides the age of the patient. Both codes and the modifier are necessary to get this answer correct.
75.
D. Rules for reporting modifier -47 when a physician performs both the general or regional
anesthesia and the procedure are covered in the Anesthesia Guidelines and in Appendix A of the
CPT Professional Edition.
76.
C. A summary of CPT codes that include moderate conscious sedation is listed in Appendix G of
the CPT Professional Edition. Additionally, use of modifier -52 for these procedures can be found
in this appendix section.
77.
A. Moderate conscious sedation is included with the colonoscopy.
78.
C. Refer to Appendix A for descriptions of modifiers.
79.
A. This report describes a CT scan with contract to the abdomen and pelvis. The professional
services are identified with modifier -26 attached to the codes.
80.
C. No modifiers are required with this study because the provider completed both the professional
and technical components.
81.
C. This answer can be found by using the CPT index. Look up Diagnostic Ultrasound, which
refers to the heading of Echography, or look up Ultrasound in the index. The codes listed
under these headings will lead back to the Diagnostic Ultrasound guidelines.
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82.
B. Notice the parenthetical note under code 76816, which references the use of modifier -59 for each
additional fetus examined in a multiple pregnancy.
83.
A. Clinical brachytherapy includes admission to the hospital and daily visits. This coding
instruction can be found by reviewing the notes in the subcategory guidelines under the heading for
clinical brachytherapy.
84.
D. Diagnostic mammography studies are reported with a unilateral code 77055, or a bilateral study
with code 77056. Additionally, the add-on code 77051 is reported for the computer-aided detection.
Add-on codes should not have modifier -51 attached. Review Appendix A for guidance for use of
modifier -51.
85.
D. A query is required to gain correct information before reporting this service. A male patient
would not have a transvaginal study. This is an example of a test question that measures careful
reading prior to answering.
86.
B. One way to find this answer is by using the CPT Professional Edition index; look up the
main term Aorta and the sub-term aortography. Then cross-reference these codes for
reporting guidelines.
87.
A. Radiation treatment delivery is reported by the facility; therefore, a TC modifier would not be
necessary. Modifier -59 is appended to the second course of treatment to indicate a different session
not normally encountered or performed on the same day. Review modifier -50 in Appendix A for
reporting guidelines.
88.
B. This answer can be found in the CPT Professional Edition manual index under the main
term Autopsy.
89.
A. Codes 80500 and 80502 are reported when the patient is not present, but review of the patients
history and medical records is completed.
90.
A. Modifiers in Appendix I provide information about genetic testing. The guidelines for
cytogenesis procedures refer to these modifiers.
91.
D. Use of the CPT Professional Edition index will help you find this code in Category II. Look up
the main term Performance measures, Chronic Kidney Disease, Serum Levels. Once you find this
index listing, review the codes, then cross-reference to find the answer.
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92.
D. The math calculations are included (bundled) with chemistry tests. This note can be found in the
guidelines for chemistry testing in the CPT Professional Edition. This question does not ask for the
code to report the test, only the code for the calculations.
93.
D. The guidelines listed with the organ or disease-oriented panels give the reporting rules for these
codes. You can find these guidelines by indexing Organ or Disease-Oriented Panel, then crossreferencing the codes.
94.
B. Modifier -26 is used to report the professional services in this case. According to the Principles
of CPT Coding and CPT Assistant July 2000, code 88331 is reported once per specimen, not per
surgery; therefore, reporting multiple units is required for correct coding.
95.
C. Notice under code 88305 that breast, biopsy further specifies ... not requiring microscopic
evaluation of the surgical margins. This test question asks for evaluation of the surgical margins;
therefore, code 88307 is the correct choice.
96.
C. The guidelines for chemistry testing indicate that the material for examination may be from any
source unless otherwise specified in the code descriptor. Because the code 83993 indicates fecal,
that is the only source that may be reported for this test.
97.
D. Topiramate is listed under the therapeutic drug assays, which are described as quantitative tests.
98.
B. Both the diagnosis code and procedure code must be correct in this answer. The code 96111
describes an extended developmental testing service.
99.
B. The parenthetical note under code 94640 indicates the use of modifier -76. The use of this
modifier and reporting on one line with a change in units or reporting the code multiple times with
the modifier is payer dependent.
100. C. This test can be found in the index of the CPT Professional Edition under the main term
Electro-Oculography.
101. D. This question involves three different vessels. The code 92980 is used to report stents placed in
the left circumflex vessel. This code is reported once regardless of the number of stents placed in a
single vessel. The code 92984 is an add-on code reported for the PTCA in the left anterior
descending vessel. The parenthetical note under this code helps with coding the add-on code
combinations. The code 92996 is used to report the atherectomy in the left main vessel. Again, the
parenthetical note under this code helps with code reporting.
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102. A. Administration of immunizations is reported separately from the vaccines that are injected. In
the CPT Professional Edition, guidelines for coding vaccines and toxoids indicate that modifier -51
is not reported for the vaccines and toxoids when performed with administration procedures.
103. D. The parenthetical note with active wound care management indicates that the codes 97959
97606 are not reported in conjunction with codes 1140411044.
104. D. Use the illustrated figures of the muscular system at the front of the CPT Professional Edition to
locate the muscle in this question. Review the illustrated figure and locate the gracilis muscle to
determine which code is correct for this question.
105. C. One way to find this answer is in the index of the CPT Professional Edition under the main
heading Cardiology and subheading Loop Recorder, Implantable. Once you locate these codes,
cross-reference to the guidelines to find the definitions.
106. A. The code 90960 is reported for a full month of ESRD services and includes four or more face-toface physician visits.
107. B. The guidelines indicate that E/M services are reported when there is no psychiatric therapeutic
procedure on the same day of service.
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Section 3
108. D. You can find this answer by reviewing the prefix table at the front of the CPT Professional Edition.
109. C. You can find this answer by reviewing the direction and position in the front of the CPT
Professional Edition.
110. A. You can find this answer by looking up the procedure in the index of the CPT Professional
Edition, then cross-referencing the code for the body system.
111. D. You can find this answer in the ICD-9 table of drugs and chemicals.
112. C. You can find this answer by referencing the ICD-9 index.
113. C. You can find this answer by looking up the procedure in the index of the CPT Professional
Edition, then cross-referencing the code for the body system.
114. A. You can find this answer by referencing the ICD-9 index.
115. D. You can find this answer by referencing the ICD-9 index.
116. B. You can find this answer by referencing the ICD-9 index.
117. A. This is an example of a question that cannot be found in the indexes of the reference materials
allowed during testing.
118. A. You can find this answer by reviewing the direction and position in the front of the CPT
119. D. This is an example of a question that cannot be found in the indexes of the reference materials
allowed during testing. It is important to study medical terminology, anatomy, and physiology prior
to testing.
120. A. This is an example of a question that cannot be found in the indexes of the reference materials
allowed during testing. It is important to study medical terminology, anatomy, and physiology prior
to testing.
121. C. You can find this answer by reviewing the illustrations and anatomical figures in the front of the
CPT Professional Edition.
2010 HCPro, Inc.
52
122. B. You can find this answer by reviewing the direction and position in the front of the CPT Pro
fessional Edition.
123. B. You can find this answer by referencing the ICD-9 index and reviewing codes in the viral disease
section of the tabular listing.
124. C. You can find this answer in the ICD-9 index under Findings and serology for HIV.
125. A. Burns to multiple sites in the same anatomic location are reported with a 5th digit of 9 (multiple
sites). Additionally, burns with more than one degree by anatomic site are listed to the highest
degree. Refer to the ICD-9 guidelines related to burns for further reporting rules. Also, it is im
portant to code for the cause of the burn and place of occurrence.
126. C. Codes for poisoning should be reported in this order: poisoning first, followed by the condition,
then the E code(s) for cause and place of occurrence. Reference ICD-9 guidelines in Chapter 17 for
correct reporting sequences and the differences between adverse effect and poisoning.
127. B. Review documentation carefully when reporting derangements for current injury versus a
recurrent problem. Additionally, report the open wound of the shoulder and upper arm with a 5th
digit of 9 to indicate multiple sites in that anatomic region.
128. A. Follow the coding instructions listed in the ICD-9 manual with code 484.5. Manifestation codes
are never reported as first-listed diagnoses codes.
129. D. You can find this answer in the index of the ICD-9 manual under Glaucoma, narrow angle.
Both the acute and chronic diagnoses codes are reported due to the difference between the right
(OD) and left (OS) eyes.
130. C. It is important to watch the weight and weeks of gestation when reporting ICD-9 codes for
premature babies. You can find this instruction with the codes for premature or low-birth-
weight newborns.
131. A. You can find this answer in the ICD-9 index under two main headings: Hemorrhoids for the
first two diagnoses, and Ulcer for the last diagnosis code.
132. B. You can find this answer in the ICD-9 guidelines for Chapter 7, Diseases of the Circulatory System.
133. B. For correct reporting in this question, it is important to understand how the code V58.67 is reported.
Refer to the ICD-9 guidelines in Chapter 3 for the rules related to use of insulin and code V58.67.
2010 HCPro, Inc.
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134. D. You can find this answer in the index of the HCPCS Level II manual under the heading Orthotic
devices, knee-ankle-foot. The additional code can be found under the heading Orthotic additions,
lower extremity.
135. A. You can find this answer in the Table of Drugs or in the index of the HCPCS Level II manual.
136. B. You can find this answer by referring to the set of codes that begin with the letter D in the
HCPCS Level II manual.
137. A. You can find this answer in the index of the HCPCS Level II manual under the heading
Trifocal, glass or plastic.
138. A. You can find this answer in the index of the HCPCS Level II manual under the heading
Transportation, EKG.
139. A. You can find this answer in the ICD-9 guidelines in Chapter 18.
140. A. You can find this answer in the radiology guidelines of the CPT Professional Edition.
141. B. You can find this answer in the surgical pathology guidelines in the CPT Professional Edition.
142. D. You can find this answer in the guidelines for Category II codes and in Appendix H of the CPT
143. B. You can find this answer in the subcategory guidelines under stereotactic radiosurgery (cranial)
listed prior to CPT code 61795 in the Nervous System section. One way to find these guidelines in
the index of the CPT Professional Edition is by looking under the main term Stereotaxis.
144. B. You can find this answer in the Evaluation and Management main guidelines located in the front
of the CPT Professional Edition.
145. A. You can find this answer on the inside front cover, along the bottom of the CPT text, or in
Appendix B of the CPT Professional Edition.
146. C. You can find this answer in Appendix C of the CPT Professional Edition.
147. D. You can find this answer in the introduction of the CPT Professional Edition. The introduction
of the CPT book contains many important facts that could be used in testing. Prior to taking an
exam, review this section to help answer questions.
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148. A. This answer was published in the Federal Register on January 16, 2009, in Vol. 74, No. 11.
149. C. You can find this answer within the definitions developed by the U.S. Department of Health and
Human Services.
150. C. You can find this answer in the guidelines for coding and reporting in the front of the ICD-9 book.
Answers to Bonus Practice Management Questions

151. A. You can find this answer in the front of the ICD-9 manual.
152. A. This is an example of an answer that cannot be found in the manuals allowed for use during the
CPC exam. This answer can be found on the CMS Web site.
153. C. You can find this answer in the ICD-9-CM introduction background.
154. C. You can find this answer in the CPT Professional Edition under the instruction for use of the
CPT codebook.
155. B. The American Dental Association (ADA) updated the dental codes listed in the HCPCS II manual.
156. B. This is an example of an answer that cannot be found in the manuals allowed for use during the
CPC exam. This answer can be found on the Web site for the Office of Inspector General (OIG).
2010 HCPro, Inc.
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2010 Practice Test Answer Key....................................................................................................41

2010 HCPro, Inc.

2010 Practice CPC Examination

2010 HCPro, Inc.

15004, 15005-51, 15170-51, 15171-59

2010 HCPro, Inc.

19364 -LT, 69990

2010 HCPro, Inc.

Musculoskeletal System (10 Questions)

2010 HCPro, Inc.

When coding for spinal procedures, how is segmental instrumentation defined?

a. Fixation at each end of the construct

and at least one additional interposed bony attachment

and no additional interposed bony attachment

27840, 27562-51, 836.3, E884.9

2010 HCPro, Inc.

22558, 22858-51, 22845-51, 20931-59

Respiratory/Cardiovascular Systems (10 Questions)

2010 HCPro, Inc.

33511, 35500, 33518, 33534

First order branch

2010 HCPro, Inc.

How many times can codes 3820738215 be reported per day?

Once per day

Digestive System (10 Questions)

2010 HCPro, Inc.

49566, 11005-51, 49568-51

Dr. Manual completed the following service for a 22-year-old male:

How would Dr. Manual report her professional services?

43260, 74330, 43262-52, 43267-59

2010 HCPro, Inc.

A surgical endoscopy always includes a diagnostic endoscopy

2010 HCPro, Inc.

Urinary System, Male and Female Genital Systems (11 Questions)

2010 HCPro, Inc.

2010 HCPro, Inc.

59510, 59425-59, 59430-59

2010 HCPro, Inc.

How would you report an endolymphatic sac operation with shunt?

a. Sensorimotor examination with single measurement, unilateral or bilateral, with interpretation

2010 HCPro, Inc.

64490-50, 64491-50, 64479-59-RT

2010 HCPro, Inc.

Past medical history: Lives alone with her infant son.

Social history: Smokes three packs of cigarettes per day.

Surgical history: C-section one year ago. Otherwise negative.

Laboratory: Urine shows positive culture and E. coli growth.

2010 HCPro, Inc.

new patient, office visit

99291-25, 99292 x 3, 36563

2010 HCPro, Inc.

99304, 438.21, 438.19

99472 Saturday, 99476 Sunday