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Q0001:Derived from what germ cell layer: Aorticopulmonary
septum
Neural crest
Q0002:Derived from what germ cell layer: Astrocytes
Neuroectoderm
Q0003:Derived from what germ cell layer: Autonomic ganglia
Neural crest
Q0004:Derived from what germ cell layer: Choroid plexus
cells
Neuroectoderm
Q0005:Derived from what germ cell layer: Cornea
Ectoderm:(Anterior epithelium); Mesoderm:(Substantia
propria and endothelium)
Q0006:Derived from what germ cell layer: Eye
Ectoderm:(lens; anterior epithelium of
cornea);Neuroectoderm:(iris; dilatory/sphincter pupillae
muscles);Mesoderm:(extraocular muscles; sclera; substantia
propria of cornea; corneal endothelium; ciliary muscle of eye;
choroid)
Q0007:Derived from what germ cell layer: Oligodendrocytes
Neuroectoderm
Q0008:Derived from what germ cell layer: Utricle
Ectoderm
Q0009:Derived from what germ cell layer: Acinar and islet
cells of pancreas
Endoderm
Q0010:Derived from what germ cell layer: Acinar cells of
mammary gland
Ectoderm
sublingual gland
Endoderm
submandibular gland
Endoderm
Q0013:Derived from what germ cell layer: Acinar cells of the
parotid gland
Ectoderm
Q0014:Derived from what germ cell layer: Adenohypophysis
Ectoderm
Q0015:Derived from what germ cell layer: Adrenal cortex
Mesoderm
Q0016:Derived from what germ cell layer: Ameloblasts
(columnar epithelium of enamel inner layer)
Ectoderm
Q0017:Derived from what germ cell layer: Anterior
epithelium of the cornea
Ectoderm
Q0018:Derived from what germ cell layer: Arachnoid Mater
Neural crest
Q0019:Derived from what germ cell layer: Blood vessel
endothelium
Mesoderm
Q0020:Derived from what germ cell layer: Bone
Mesoderm
Q0021:Derived from what germ cell layer: Bones of
neurocranium
Neural crest
Q0022:Derived from what germ cell layer: Cardiac muscle
Mesoderm
Q0023:Derived from what germ cell layer: Cartilage
Mesoderm
Q0024:Derived from what germ cell layer: Choroid of eye
Mesoderm
Q0025:Derived from what germ cell layer: Chromaffin cells of
the adrenal medulla
Neural crest
Q0026:Derived from what germ cell layer: Ciliary body
Neuroectoderm
Q0027:Derived from what germ cell layer: Ciliary muscle of
eye
Mesoderm
Q0028:Derived from what germ cell layer: CN I
Ectoderm
Q0029:Derived from what germ cell layer: CN II
Neuroectoderm
Q0030:Derived from what germ cell layer: CNS neurons
Neuroectoderm
Q0031:Derived from what germ cell layer: Cochlear duct
Ectoderm
Q0032:Derived from what germ cell layer: Connective tissue
Mesoderm
Q0033:Derived from what germ cell layer: Corneal
endothelium
Mesoderm
Q0034:Derived from what germ cell layer: Cranial ganglion
Neural crest
Q0035:Derived from what germ cell layer: Dermis of skin
Mesoderm
Q0036:Derived from what germ cell layer: Dilator pupilae
muscles
Neuroectoderm
Q0037:Derived from what germ cell layer: Dorsal root
ganglion
Neural crest
Q0038:Derived from what germ cell layer: Dura Mater
Mesoderm
Q0039:Derived from what germ cell layer: Ependymocytes
Neuroectoderm
Q0040:Derived from what germ cell layer: Epidermis
Ectoderm
Q0041:Derived from what germ cell layer: Epithelial lining of
auditory tube
Endoderm
biliary apparatus
Endoderm
bronchi
Endoderm
crypts of palatine tonsils
Endoderm
distal part of male urethra
Ectoderm
external auditory meatus
Ectoderm
female urethra
Endoderm
GI tract
Endoderm (except lower anal canal: Ectoderm)
lower anal canal
Ectoderm
lungs
Endoderm
middle ear cavity
Endoderm
proximal majority of male urethra
Endoderm
trachea
Endoderm
urinary bladder
Endoderm
vagina
Endoderm
male urethra
Ectoderm:(Distal part);Endoderm:(Most of male urethra)
Q0057:Derived from what germ cell layer: Epithelial reticular
cells off thymus
Endoderm
Q0058:Derived from what germ cell layer: Extraocular
muscles
Mesoderm (Preotic Somites)
Q0059:Derived from what germ cell layer: Hair
Ectoderm
Q0060:Derived from what germ cell layer: Hepatocytes
Endoderm
Q0061:Derived from what germ cell layer: Iris
Neuroectoderm
Q0062:Derived from what germ cell layer: Kidney
Mesoderm
Q0063:Derived from what germ cell layer: Kupffer cells
Mesoderm
Q0064:Derived from what germ cell layer: Laryngeal cartilages
Mesoderm
Q0065:Derived from what germ cell layer: Lens of eye
Ectoderm
Q0066:Derived from what germ cell layer: Lymph vessel
endothelium
Mesoderm
Q0067:Derived from what germ cell layer: Melanocytes
Neural crest
Q0068:Derived from what germ cell layer: Meninges
Neural crest:(Pia and arachnoid);Mesoderm:(Dura)
Q0069:Derived from what germ cell layer: Microglia
Mesoderm
Q0070:Derived from what germ cell layer: Muscles of tongue
(occipital somites)
Mesoderm
Q0071:Derived from what germ cell layer: Nails
Ectoderm
Q0072:Derived from what germ cell layer: Neurohypophysis
Neuroectoderm
Q0073:Derived from what germ cell layer: Odontoblasts
Neural crest
Q0074:Derived from what germ cell layer: Olfactory placodes
Ectoderm
Q0075:Derived from what germ cell layer: Optic chiasm
Neuroectoderm
Q0076:Derived from what germ cell layer: Optic tract
Neuroectoderm
Q0077:Derived from what germ cell layer: Oxyphil cells of
parathyroid
Endoderm
Q0078:Derived from what germ cell layer: Parafollicular C
cells of thyroid
Neural crest
Q0079:Derived from what germ cell layer: Pharyngeal arch
muscles
Mesoderm
Q0080:Derived from what germ cell layer: Pharyngeal arch
skeletal components
Neural crest
Q0081:Derived from what germ cell layer: Pia Mater
Neural crest
Q0082:Derived from what germ cell layer: Pineal gland
Neuroectoderm
Q0083:Derived from what germ cell layer: Pituitary gland
Ectoderm:(Anterior pituitary);Neuroectoderm:(Posterior
pituitary)
Q0084:Derived from what germ cell layer: Principle cells of
parathyroid
Endoderm
Q0085:Derived from what germ cell layer: Red Blood Cells
Mesoderm
Q0086:Derived from what germ cell layer: Retina
Neuroectoderm
Q0087:Derived from what germ cell layer: Saccule
Ectoderm
Q0088:Derived from what germ cell layer: Salivary gland acini
Ectoderm:(Parotid);Endoderm:(Submandibular;Sublingual)
Q0089:Derived from what germ cell layer: Schwann cells
Neural crest
Q0090:Derived from what germ cell layer: Sclera of eye
Mesoderm
Q0091:Derived from what germ cell layer: Sebaceous glands
Ectoderm
Q0092:Derived from what germ cell layer: Semicircular ducts
Ectoderm
Q0093:Derived from what germ cell layer: Skeletal muscle
Mesoderm
Q0094:Derived from what germ cell layer: Smooth muscle
Mesoderm
Q0095:Derived from what germ cell layer: Sphincter pupilae
muscles
Neuroectoderm
Q0096:Derived from what germ cell layer: Spiral ganglion of
CN VIII
Ectoderm
Q0097:Derived from what germ cell layer: Spleen
Mesoderm
Q0098:Derived from what germ cell layer: Substantia propria
of cornea
Mesoderm
Q0099:Derived from what germ cell layer: Sweat glands
Ectoderm
Q0100:Derived from what germ cell layer: Tanycytes
Neuroectoderm
Q0101:Derived from what germ cell layer: Testes/Ovaries
Mesoderm
Q0102:Derived from what germ cell layer: Thyroid follicular
cells
Endoderm
Q0103:Derived from what germ cell layer: Tooth
Ectoderm:(Ameloblast);Neural Crest:(Odontoblast)
Q0104:Derived from what germ cell layer: Vestibular ganglion
of CN VIII
Ectoderm
Q0105:Derived from what germ cell layer: White Blood Cells
Mesoderm
Q0106:Fetal landmark; Day 2
Zygote
Morula
Blastocyst
Implantation of blastocyst
Q0110:Fetal landmark; Within week 2
RULE OF 2S: Bilaminar disk:(epiblast;hypoblast);2
cavities:(amniotic cavity;yolk sac);2 placental
components:(cyto/syncytiotrophoblast)
Q0111:Fetal landmark; Within week 3
RULE OF 3S: Gastrulation:(Ectoderm; Mesoderm;
Endoderm);New structures(Primitive streak;notochord;neural
plate)
Q0112:Ectoderm comes from what?
Epiblast
Q0113:Epiblast becomes what?
Ectoderm
Q0114:Invagination of epiblast is called what?
Primitive streak
Q0115:Cells from the primitive streak give rise to what?
Intraembryonic mesoderm and endoderm
Q0116:Fetal landmark: Weeks 3-8
Neural tube formed; Organogenesis; extreme susceptibility to
teratogens
Q0117:Neural plate becomes what?
Neural tube and neural crest
Q0118:Neural crest comes from what?
Edge of neural plate
Q0119:Neural tube comes from what?
Invaginated/closed neural plate
Q0120:Fetal landmark; Week 4
Heart begins to beat (4 chambers on week 4); Upper and
lower limb buds begin to form
Fetal movement; fetus looks like a baby
Genitalia have male/female characteristics
Q0123:Alar plate vs Basal plate
A: Sensory; B: Motor
Q0124:Mesodermal defects
VACTERL (Vertebral; Anal atresia; Cardiac; Tracheo-
Esophageal fistula; Renal; Limb)
Q0125:Most common congenital malformations
Heart defects; Hypospadias; Cleft lip; Congenital hip
dislocation; Spina bifida; Anencephaly; Pyloric stenosis
Q0126:Teratogen categories
Recreational drugs (Alcohol; Cocaine; Tobacco); Medications
(ACE inhibitors; 13-cis-retinoic acid; Thalidomide; Warfarin;
anticonvulsants); Other (Diethylbestrol [DES]; Iodide; x-rays)
Q0127:Recreational drug teratogens
Alcohol; cocaine; tobacco
Q0128:Teratogen effects: Alcohol
Leading cause of birth defects and mental retardation; Fetal
alcohol syndrome
Q0129:Teratogen effects: ACE inhibitors
Renal damage
Q0130:Teratogen effects: Cocaine
Abnormal fetal development; fetal addiction
Q0131:Teratogen effects: Diethylbestrol [DES]
Vaginal clear cell adenocarcinoma
Q0132:Teratogen effects: Iodide
Congenital goiter/hypothyroidism
Q0133:Teratogen effects: 13-cis-retinoic acid
Extremely high risk for birth defects
Q0134:Teratogen effects: Thalidomide
flipper limbs
Q0135:Leading cause of birth defects and mental retardation
Alcohol
Q0136:Teratogen effects: Tobacco
Preterm labor; placental problems; ADHD
Q0137:Teratogen most commonly associated with: Renal
damage
ACE inhibitors
Q0138:Teratogen most commonly associated with: Abnormal
fetal development
Cocaine
Q0139:Teratogen most commonly associated with: Vaginal
clear cell adenocarcinoma
DES (Diethylbestrol)
Q0140:Teratogen most commonly associated with: Congenital
hypothyroidism
Iodide
Q0141:Teratogen most commonly associated with: flipper
limbs
Thalidomide
Q0142:Teratogen most commonly associated with: Preterm
labor
Tobacco
Q0143:Teratogen most commonly associated with: ADHD
Tobacco
Q0144:Teratogen most commonly associated with: Congenital
goiter
Iodide
Q0145:Teratogen most commonly associated with: Placental
problems
Tobacco
Q0146:Monozygotic twins: # of placentas; amniotic sacs and
chorions
1 placenta; 2 amniotic sacs; 1 chorion (or 2 placentas; 2
amniotic sacs; 2 chorions)
Q0147:Dizygotic twins: # of placentas; amniotic sacs and
chorions
2 placentas; 2 amniotic sacs; 2 chorions
Q0148:Contents of the umbilical cord
2 umbilical arteries (deoxy from fetal iliacs); 1 umbilical vein
(oxy to fetus); Allantoic duct (functions like fetal urethra) all
floating in Wharton's jelly and surrounded by amniotic
epithelium
Q0149:How many umbilical arteries are normally present and
what happens if the wrong number is present?
2 (1 umbilical artery is associated with congenital and
chromosomal abnormalities)
Q0150:What happens to the Zona Pellucida before
implantation?
It degenerates prior to implantation.
Q0151:What is the most common site for an ectopic
pregnancy?
Ampulla of uterine tube
Q0152:What is the most common site for an ectopic
abdominal pregnancy?
Rectouterine pouch (Pouch of Douglas)
Q0153:When can hCG be assayed in maternal blood and
urine?
Blood: 8 days;Urine: 10 days
Q0154:What do very high levels of hCG indicate?
Hydatidiform moles or Gestational trophoblastic neoplasia
(aka choriocarcinoma)
Q0155:What are oncofetal antigens?
Cell surface antigens that normally only appear on embryonic
cells.
Q0156:What is Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) and what is
it associated with?
-Oncofetal antigen;-Associated with Colorectal carcinoma
Q0157:What is alpha-Fetoprotein and what is it associated
with?
-Oncofetal antigen;-associated with hepatoma and germ cell
tumors
Q0158:What is the Hox complex?
#NAME?
Q0159:What does mesoderm give rise to?
-Paraxial mesoderm (somitomeres and 35 pairs of somites);-
Intermediate mesoderm;-Lateral mesoderm
Q0160:Sacrococcygeal teratoma: What does it arise from?
Remnants of the primitive streak
Q0161:Sacrococcygeal teratoma: What population?
Female infants
Q0162:Sacrococcygeal teratoma: Timetable and therapy
-Malignant during infancy;-Must be removed by 6 months of
age
Q0163:Chordoma: What does it arise from?
Remnants of the notochord
Q0164:Chordoma: Where on the body is it found?
-Intracranially;-Sacral region
Q0165:Chordoma: What population?
Men over age 50
Q0166:Chordoma: Benign or malignant
Either
Q0167:What is another name for caudal dysplasia?
Sirenomelia
Q0168:What is another name for sirenomelia?
Caudal dysplasia
Q0169:Caudal Dysplasia: How does it manifest?
A constellation of syndromes ranging from minor lesions of
the lower vertebrae to complete fusion of the lower limbs
Q0170:Caudal dysplasia: What causes it?
Abnormal gastrulation (disturbance of mesoderm migration)
Q0171:Two components of the placenta
-Decidua Basalis (Maternal);-Villous chorion (Fetal)
Q0172:Decidua Basalis: What is it?
-Maternal component of the placenta;-A portion of
endometrium
Q0173:Villous Chorion: What is it?
-Fetal component of the placenta;-Tertiary chorionic villi
Q0174:Maternal Placenta: Afterbirth appearance
15-20 cotyledons imparting a cobblestone appearance. Dark
red surface oozing blood (torn maternal vessels).
Q0175:Fetal placenta: Afterbirth appearance
Chorionic blood vessels. Smooth and shiny as it is covered by
amnion.
Q0176:Velamentous placenta: Cause?
Umbilical vessels abnormally travel through the
amniochorionic membrane before reaching the placenta
proper.
Q0177:Vasa previa: What is it?
Velamentous placenta which crosses the internal os.
Q0178:Vasa previa: What is the danger?
If one of the umbilical vessels ruptures during pregnancy;
labor; or delivery; the fetus will bleed to death.
Q0179:Why does the mother not reject the placenta as an
allograft?
Syncytiotrophoblast cells lack MHC antigens and decidual
cells in the endometrium secrete PGE2 to inhibit T cells.
Q0180:Teratogenic effect of;Alcohol
Fetal alcohol syndrome;Birth defects and MR
Q0181:Teratogenic effect of;ACE inhibitors
Fetal Renal damage
Q0182:Teratogenic effect of;Cocaine
Abnormal fetal development & fetal addiction
Q0183:Teratogenic effect of;Diethylstilbestrol
Fetal Vaginal Clear cell carcinoma
Q0184:Teratogenic effect of;Iodide
Congenital goiter or hypothyroidism
Q0185:Teratogenic effect of;13-cis-retinoic acid
Extremely high risk for birth defects
Q0186:Teratogenic effect of;Thalidomide
Limb defects ("flipper" limbs)
Q0187:Teratogenic effect of;Tobacco
Preterm labor; placental problems; ADHD
Q0188:Teratogenic effect of;Warfarin
Multiple anomalies
Q0189:Teratogenic effect of;Anticonvulsants
Multiple anomalies
Q0190:Teratogenic effect of;X-rays
Multiple anomalies
Q0191:What does the truncus arteriosus become?
Ascending aorta & pulmonary trunk
Q0192:What does the bulbis cordis become?
Smooth parts of left & right ventricle
Q0193:What does the primitive ventricle become?
Trabeculated parts of left & right ventricle
Q0194:What does the primitive atria become?
Trabeculated parts of left & right atria
Q0195:What does the sinus venosus become?
Left horn becomes coronary sinus;Right horn becomes
smooth part of right atrium
Q0196:What embryonic structure becomes the SVC?
Right common cardinal vein & right anterior cardinal vein
Q0197:What is used to close a PDA?
Indomethacin
Q0198:What is used to keep a PDA open?
Prostaglandin- PGE1 analogs;Misoprostol/Alprostadil
Q0199:What is the remnant of;Umbilical vein
Ligamentum teres hepatis
Q0200:What is the remnant of;Umbilical arteries
Medial umbilical ligaments
Q0201:What is the remnant of;Ductus arteriosus
Ligamentum arteriosum
Q0202:What is the remnant of;Ductus venosum
Ligamentum venosum
Q0203:What is the remnant of;Foramen ovale
Fossa ovalis
Q0204:What is the remnant of;Allantois
Median umbilical ligament;More specifically; the ligament is a
remnant of the urachus (the part of the allantois between the
bladder & umbilicus)
Q0205:What is the remnant of;Notochord
Nucleus pulposus of intervertebral disk
Q0206:What fetal structure forms;Maxillary artery
1st aortic arch
Q0207:What fetal structure forms;Stapedial artery
2nd aortic arch
Q0208:What fetal structure forms;Hyoid artery
2nd aortic arch
Q0209:What fetal structure forms;Common carotid artery
3rd aortic arch
Q0210:What fetal structure forms;Proximal internal carotid
3rd aortic arch
Q0211:What fetal structure forms;Part of the aortic arch
Left side of 4th aortic arch
Q0212:What fetal structure forms;Proximal Right subclavian
a.
Right side of 4th aortic arch
Q0213:What fetal structure forms;Proximal pulmonary
arteries and ductus arteriosus
6th aortic arch
Q0214:What fetal structure forms;Meckel's Cartilage
1st Branchial Arch
Q0215:What fetal structure forms;Mandible
1st Branchial Arch
Q0216:What fetal structure forms;Muscle of mastication
1st Branchial Arch
Q0217:What fetal structure forms;Anterior 2/3 of tongue
1st Branchial Arch
Q0218:What fetal structure forms;Many structures of ear
1st Branchial Arch
Q0219:What fetal structure forms;Muscles of facial
expression
2nd Branchial Arch
Q0220:What fetal structure forms;Stapes
2nd Branchial Arch
Q0221:What fetal structure forms;Styloid process
2nd Branchial Arch
Q0222:What fetal structure forms;Stylopharyngeus muscle
3rd Branchial Arch
Q0223:What fetal structure forms;Posterior 1/3 of tongue
3rd and 4th Branchial Arch
Q0224:What fetal structure forms;Thyroid cartilage
4th-6th Branchial Arch
Q0225:What fetal structure forms;Cricoid cartilage
4th-6th Branchial arch
Q0226:What fetal structure forms;Arytenoid cartilage
Q0227:What fetal structure forms;Cuneiform cartilage
Q0228:What fetal structure forms;Most pharyngeal
constrictors
4th Branchial arch
Q0229:What fetal structure forms;Cricothyroid muscle
4th Branchial arch
Q0230:What fetal structure forms;Levator veli platini muscle
4th Branchial arch
Q0231:What fetal structure forms;Intrinsic muscles of larynx
6th Branchial arch;Exception: Cricothyroid muscle
Q0232:What fetal structure forms;External auditory meatus
1st Branchial cleft
Q0233:What fetal structure forms;A branchial cyst
2nd-4th Branchial cleft;Abnormal finding from persistance of
the temporary cervical sinuses
Q0234:What fetal structure forms;Endoderm lined structures
of ear
1st Branchial pouch
Q0235:What fetal structure forms;Eustachian tube
1st Branchial pouch
Q0236:What fetal structure forms;Middle ear cavity
1st Branchial pouch
Q0237:What fetal structure forms;Mastoid air cells
1st Branchial pouch
Q0238:What fetal structure forms;Epithelium of palatine
tonsil
2nd Branchial pouch
Q0239:What fetal structure forms;Inferior parathyroids
Dorsal wings of 3rd Branchial pouch
Q0240:What fetal structure forms;Thymus
Ventral wings of 3rd Branchial pouch
Q0241:What fetal structure forms;Superior parathyroids
4th Branchial pouch
Q0242:What nerve innervates;1st Branchial arch
CN V2 and V3- Trigeminal
Q0243:What nerve innervates;2nd Branchial arch
CN VII- Facial
Q0244:What nerve innervates;3rd Branchial arch
CN IX- Glossopharyngeal
Q0245:What nerve innervates;4th Branchial arch
Superior laryngeal nerve;Branch of CN X- Vagus
Q0246:What nerve innervates;6th Branchial arch
Recurrent laryngeal nerve;Branch of CN X- Vagus
Q0247:What nerve innervates;Taste on anterior 2/3 of tongue
CN VII- Facial
Q0248:What nerve innervates;Taste on posterior 1/3 of
tongue
CN IX- Glossopharyngeal;Extreme posterior is via CN X-
Vagus
Q0249:What nerve innervates;Sensation on anterior 2/3 of
tongue
CN V3- Trigeminal
Q0250:What nerve innervates;Sensation on posterior 1/3 of
tongue
CN IX- Glossopharyngeal;Extreme posterior is via CN X-
Vagus
Q0251:What nerve innervates;Motor functions of tongue
CN XII- Hypoglossal
Q0252:Failure of development of what fetal structure leads to
DiGeorge syndrome
3rd & 4th Branchial pouches;These form the Thymus &
Parathyroids which are absent in DiGeorge syndrome
Q0253:What does the Genital tubercle form into in men?
Glans penis
Q0254:What does the Genital tubercle form into in women?
Glans clitoris
Q0255:What does the Urogenital sinus form into in men?
Corpus spongiosum; Bulbourethral glands(of cowper);
Prostate gland
Q0256:What does the Urogenital sinus form into in women?
Vestibular bulbs; Greater vestibular glands(of Bartholin);
urethral & paraurethral glands(of Skene)
Q0257:What do the Urogenital folds form into in men?
Ventral shaft of penis(penile urethra)
Q0258:What do the Urogenital folds form into in women?
Labia minora
Q0259:What does the Labioscrotal swelling form into in men?
Scrotum
Q0260:What does the Labioscrotal swelling form into in
women?
Labia majora
Q0261:Branchial clefts are derived from
ectoderm;"CAP" clefts-Arches-Pouches = ecto meso and endo
Q0262:Branchial arches are derived from (2)
mesoderm and neural crests
Q0263:Branchial pouches are derived from
endoderm
Q0264:First Pharyngeal Arch;Nerve
Trigeminal Mandibular V3
Q0265:First Pharyngeal Arch;Muscles
4 muscles of mastication (masseter; temporalis; lateral and
medial pterygoid) ;anterior belly of
digastric;mylohyoid;tensor tympani;tensor veli palatini
Q0266:First Pharyngeal Arch;Skeletal elements
Mandibular and Maxillary process;Malleus;Incus
Q0267:Treacher Collins syndrome and Robin sequence have
this symptoms
mandibular hyperplasia (first pharyngeal arch) - both involve
neural crest cells
Q0268:Pharyngeal Arch 2;Nerve
Facial CN VII
Q0269:Pharyngeal Arch 2;Muscles
Muscles of Facial Expression (orbicularis oculi and oris;
buccinator etc.);posterior belly of digastric;stylohyoid;
stapedius
Q0270:Pharyngeal Arch 2;Skeletal elements
Hyoid (inferior part);styloid process;stapes;(Reichert's
cartilage)
Glossopharyngeal (CN IX)
stylopharyngeus
Q0273:Pharyngeal Arch 3;skeletal elements
Hyoid (superior part)
Vagus (X);superior laryngeal branch;pharyngeal branches
Cricothyroid;levator veli palatini;pharyngeal
constrictors;uvular;salpingopharyngeus;palatoglossus;palatop
haryngeus
Q0276:Pharyngeal Arch 4;Skeletal elements
Thyroid cartilage
Vagus (CN X);recurrent laryngeal
all intrinsic muscles of larynx except cricothyroid;lateral and
post. cricoarytenoid;transverse and oblique
arytenoid;thyroarytenoid (vocalis)
Q0279:Pharyngeal Arch 6 ;skeletal elements
cricoid;arytenoid;corniculate;cuneiform
Q0280:1st Pharyngeal Cleft derivatives
Q0281:2nd-4th Pharyngeal Cleft derivative
temporary cervical sinuses
Q0282:Persistant cervical sinus (Pharyngeal Clefts 2-4) can
lead to a
branchial cyst in the neck
Q0283:1st Pharyngeal Pouch
endoderm-lined structures of ear;middle ear cavity;eustacian
tube;mastoid air cells
Q0284:2nd Pharyngeal Pouch
epithelial lining of palatine tonsil
Q0285:3rd Pharyngeal Pouch
inferior parathyroids and thymus
Q0286:4th Pharyngeal Pouch
superior parathyroids and thymus;ultimobranchial body
Q0287:The anterior 2/3rds of tongue form from
1st branchial arch (taste VII sensation V3)
Q0288:The posterior 1/3rd of tongue forms from
3rd and 4th branchial arches (sensation/taste IX)
Q0289:Motor innervation of the tongue
CN XII
Q0290:Taste in tongue involves CN
VII; IX; and X (solitary nucleus)
Q0291:nerve that lies in the tonsillar fossa
glossopharyngeal CN IX
Q0292:the constrictor muscles of the pharynx and the
muscles of the soft palate are innervated by the
vagus nerve
Q0293:astrocytes are derived from
neural tube
Q0294:oligodendrocytes are derived from
neural tube
Q0295:ependymal cells are derived from
neural tube
Q0296:psuedounipolar cells are derived from
neural crest
Q0297:schwann cells are derived from
neural crest
Q0298:chromaffin cells are derived from
neural crest
Q0299:odontoblasts and melanocytes are derived from
neural crest
Q0300:leptomeninges are derived from
neural crest
Q0301:Epidermis; hair; nails; and sebacious glands
Ectoderm
Q0302:Utricle; semicircular ducts; vestibular ganglion of CN
VIII
Ectoderm
Q0303:Saccule; cochlear duct (organ of Corti); spiral ganglion
of CN VIII
Ectoderm
Q0304:Olfactory placode; CN I
Ectoderm
Q0305:Ameloblasts (enamel of teeth)
Ectoderm
Q0306:ADENOhypophysis (anterior pituitary)
Ectoderm
Q0307:Lens of eye
Ectoderm
Q0308:Anterior epithelium of cornea
Ectoderm
Q0309:Acinar cells of parotid gland
Ectoderm
Q0310:Acinar cells of mammary gland
Ectoderm
Q0311:Epithelial lining of lower anal canal (below pectinate
line)
Ectoderm
Q0312:Epithelial lining of distal part of male urethra
Ectoderm
Q0313:Epithelial lining of external auditory meatus
Ectoderm
Q0314:Muscle (smooth; cardiac; skeletal)
Mesoderm
Q0315:Extraocular muscles; ciliary muscles of eye; iris
stroma; ciliary body stroma; substantia propria of cornea;
corneal endothelium; sclera; choroid
Mesoderm
Q0316:Muscles of tongue (occiptal somites)
Mesoderm
Q0317:Pharyngeal arch muscles
Mesoderm
Q0318:Laryngeal cartilage
Mesoderm
Q0319:Connective tissue
Mesoderm
Q0320:Dermis and subcutaneous layer of skin
Mesoderm
Q0321:Bone and cartilage
Mesoderm
Q0322:Dura mater
Mesoderm
Q0323:Endothelium of blood and lymph vessels
Mesoderm
Q0324:RBCs; WBCs; microglia; and Kupffer cells
Mesoderm
Q0325:Spleen
Mesoderm
Q0326:Kidney
Mesoderm
Q0327:Adrenal CORTEX (not medulla)
Mesoderm
Q0328:Testes; epididymis; ductus deferens; seminal vesicle;
ejaculatory duct
Mesoderm
Q0329:Ovary; uterus; uterine tubes; superior 1/3 of vagina
Mesoderm
Q0330:Hepatocytes
Endoderm
Q0331:Principal and Oxyphil cells of parathyroid
Endoderm
Q0332:Thyroid follicular cells
Endoderm
Q0333:Epithelial reticular cells of the thymus
Endoderm
Q0334:Acinar and islet cells of pancreas
Endoderm
Q0335:Acinar cells of submandibular and sublingual glands
Endoderm
Q0336:Epithelial lining of GI tract
Endoderm
Q0337:Epithelial lining of Trachea; Bronchi; and Lungs
Endoderm
Q0338:Epithelial lining of Urinary bladder; femal urethra;
most of male urethra
Endoderm
Q0339:Epithelial lining of inferior 2/3 of vagina
Endoderm
Q0340:Epithelial lining of auditory tube; MIDDLE ear cavity
Endoderm
Q0341:Epithelial lining of crypts of palatine tonsils
Endoderm
Q0342:All neurons within the brain and spinal cord (CNS)
Neuroectoderm
Q0343:Retina; iris epithelium; ciliary body epithelium; optic
nerve (CN II); optic chiasm; optic tract; dilator and sphincter
pupillae muscles
Neuroectoderm
Q0344:Astrocytes; oligodendrocytes; ependymocytes;
tanycytes; choroid plexus cells
Neuroectoderm
Q0345:NERUOhypophysis (posterior pituitary)
Neuroectoderm
Q0346:Pineal gland
Neuroectoderm
Q0347:Neurons within ganglia (Dorsal/sensory root; cranial;
autnomic/motor)
Neuro Crest
Q0348:Schwann cells
Neuro Crest
Q0349:Odontoblasts (dentin of teeth)
Neuro Crest
Q0350:Pia and arachnoid (not dura)
Neuro Crest
Q0351:Chromaffin cells (adrenal MEDULLA)
Neuro Crest
Q0352:Parafollicular (C) cells of thyroid
Neuro Crest
Q0353:Melanocytes
Neuro Crest
Q0354:Aorticopulmonary septum of heart
Neuro Crest
Q0355:Pharyngeal arch skeletal components
Neuro Crest
Q0356:Bones of neurocranium
Neuro Crest
Q0357:Endocardial cushions of heart
Neuro Crest
Q0358:Nucleus pulposus of intervertebral disk
Notochord
Q0359:Trace the name of the fertilized egg through the first
week embryogenesis.
Fertilization; Zygote; Morula; Blastocyst
Q0360:What is the name for the embryo at the time of
implantation into the uterine wall?
Blastocyst
Q0361:What are the developmental milestones for the 2nd
week of embryogenesis?
2 germ layers (bilaminar disk); 2 cavities (amniotic cavity;
yolk sac); 2components to the placenta (cytotrophoblast;
syncytiotrophoblast)
Q0362:What are the developmental milestones for the 3rd
week of embryogenesis?
3 germ layers: ectoderm; endoderm; mesoderm
Q0363:In what weeks is the neural tube formed?
Weeks 3-8
Q0364:In what weeks is the embryo most susceptible to
teratogens?
Weeks 3-8
Q0365:in what week does the heart begin to beat?
Week 4
Q0366:When does fetal movement begin?
Week 8
Q0367:When does a fetus bein to look like a baby?
Week 8
Q0368:When doe male/female genital characteristics begin to
form in the fetus?
Week 10
Q0369:What is the progression of the development of the
neural tube in the fetus?
Day 18: Neural plate atop of notochord; Days 18-20:neural
plate rounds up to neural crest; Days 20-21: neural crest joins
at the top to form neural tube with surrounding neural crest
cells
Q0370:What are some of the embryologic derivatives of the
surface ectoderm?
Adenohypophysis; lens of the eye; epithelial linings of the
skin; ear; eye and nose; epidermis
neuroectoderm?
neurohypophysis; CNS neurons; oligodendrocytes;
astrocytes; ependymal cells; pineal gland
Neural crest?
ANS; DRG; cranial nerves; melanocytes; chromaffin cells of
the adrenal medulla; Schwann cells; parafollicular cells of
thyroid; bones of skull
Endoderm?
Gut tube epithelium and its derivatives (lungs; liver; pancreas;
thymus; parathyroid; thyroid follicular cells)
Notochord?
nucleus polpsus of the intervertebral disk
Mesoderm?
dura mater; connective tissue; muscle; bone; CV structures;
lymph; blood; spleen; kidneys
Q0376:What are the top 7 congenital malformations?
Heart defects; hypospadias; cleft lip; congenital hip
dislocation; spina bifida; anencephaly; pyloric stenosis
Q0377:For the following teratogen state the effects on the
fetus: alcohol
birth defects and mental retardation; fetal alcohol syndrome
fetus: ACE Inhibitor
renal damage
fetus: Cocaine
abnl fetal development and fetal addiction
fetus: Diethylstilbestrol (DES)
Vaginal clear cell adenocarcinoma
fetus: Iodide
congenital goiter or hypothyroidism
fetus: 13-cis-retinoic acid
extemely high risk for birth defects
fetus: Thalidomide
limb defects ("flipper" limbs)
fetus: tobacco
preterm labor; placental problems; ADHD
fetus: warfrin; x-rays; anticonvulsants
multiple anomalies
Q0386:What structures are shared/separate in the case of
monozygotic twins?
Share 1 chorion; 1 placenta; 2 amniotic sacs
Q0387:What structures are shared/separate in the case of
dizygotic twins?
2 of everything: amniotic sacs; placental; chorions (some
monozygotes can do this too)
Q0388:Which umbilical vessel supplies oxygenated blood
from the placenta to the fetus?
The umbilical vein
Q0389:For the following caridio embryonic structure state the
neonatal structure to which is gives rise: truncus arteriosus
Ascending aorta and pulmonary trunk
neonatal structure to which is gives rise: Bulbus cordis
smooth parts of the L and R ventricle
neonatal structure to which is gives rise: Primitive ventricle
trabeculated parts of the L and R ventricle
neonatal structure to which is gives rise: Primitive atria
trabeculated L and R aorta
neonatal structure to which is gives rise: Left horn of the sinus
venosus (SV)
coronoary sinus
neonatal structure to which is gives rise: Right horn of the
sinus venosus (SV)
smooth part of the R atrium
neonatal structure to which is gives rise: R common cardinal
vein and R anterior cardinal vein
SVC
Q0396:What are the four organs that engage in fetal
erythropiesis?
Yolk sac; Liver; Spleen; Bone Marrow
Q0397:At what age of fetal development does erythropoiesis
occur in the yolk sac?
3-8 weeks
occur in the liver?
6-30 weeks
occur in the spleen?
9-28 weeks
occur in the bone marrow?
28 weeks onward
Q0401:What is the O2 saturation of blood in the umbilical
vein?
80%
Q0402:What are the 3 important shunts in fetal circulation?
Foramen ovale; ductus arteriosus; ductus venosus
Q0403:What is the function of the foramen ovale?
to shunt oxygenated blood from the IVC through the aorta and
to the head
Q0404:What is the function of theductus arteriosus?
deoxgenated blood from SVC to the lower body of the fetus
Q0405:What is the function of the ductus venosus?
blood from the umbilical vein to the IVC
Q0406:What happens physiologically once an infant takes
their first breath at birth?
pulmonary vasculature resistance decreases -> increase in L
atrial pressure vs. R atrial pressure; foramen ovale closes;
increased O2 -> decreased prostaglandins -> ductus arteriosus
closes
Q0407:What drug can be used to close a PDA? Keep a PDA
open?
Indomethacin to close the PDA; prostaglandins to keep a
PDA open
Q0408:For the following fetal circulation structure state the
postnatal derivative: umbilical vein
ligamentum teres hepatis
postnatal derivative: umbilical arteries
medial umbilical ligaments
postnatal derivative: ductus arteriosus
ligamentum arteriosus
postnatal derivative: ductus venosus
ligamentum venosum
postnatal derivative: foramen ovale
fossa ovalis
postnatal derivative: Allantois
urachus -> median umbilical ligament
postnatal derivative: notochord
nucleus pulposus of intervertebral disk
Q0415:For the following arotic arch state the postnatal
derivative: 1st
part of the Maxillary artery
derivative: 2nd
Stapedial artery and hyoid artery
derivative: 3rd
common carotid artery and proximal part of internal cartoid
artery
derivative: 4th
on left; aortic arch; on right; proximal part of the R subclavian
artery
derivative: 6th
proximal part of pulmonary arteries and ductus arteriosus (on
L)
Q0420:What are the three components of the branchial
apparatus?
Clefts; arches and pouches
Q0421:What is another name for the branchial apparatus?
pharyngeal apparatus
Q0422:The branchial clefts are dervided from what
embryological cell type?
ectoderm
Q0423:What is another name for branchial clefts?
grooves
Q0424:The branchial arches are dervided from what
mesoderm
Q0425:The branchial pouches are dervided from what
endoderm
Q0426:What are the main derivatives of Branchial arch 1?
Meckel's cartilage (mandible; malleus); muscles of
masticaltion; mylohyoid; CN V2 and CN V3
Reichert's cartilage (stapes; styloid process); muscles of facial
expression; Stapedius; Stylohyoid; CN VII
Greater horn of the hyoid; stylopharyngeus muscle; CN IX
most pharyngeal constrictors; cricothyroid m; levator veli
palatini m; post 1/3 of tongue; superior laryngeal branch of
CN X
all intrinsic muscles of the larynx except cricothyroid;
recurrent laryngeal of CN X
Q0431:Which nerve(s) innervate branchial arch 1?
CN V2 and V3
CN VII
CN IX
Q0434:Which nerve(s) innervate branchial arch 4 and 6?
CN X
Q0435:which branchial arch makes no major developmental
contributions?
Arch 5
Q0436:Which branchial arch forms the anterior 2/3 of tongue?
Arch 1
Q0437:Which branchial arch(es) form the posterior 1/3 of the
tongue?
Arches 3 and 4
Q0438:Motor innervation of the tongue is via which nerve?
CN XII
Q0439:Which CNs provide taste to the tongue?
VII; IX; X (solitary nucleus)
Q0440:Which CNs provide pain to the tongue?
CN V3; IX; X
Q0441:The 1st branchial arch develops into which bones and
muscles of the ear?
Bones: malleus/incus Muscles: Tensor tympani
Q0442:The 2nd branchial arch develops into which bones and
muscles of the ear?
Bones: Stapes Muscles: stapedius
Q0443:The middle ear cavity; eustachian tube and mastoid air
cells are derived from which branchial pouch?
1st pouch
Q0444:The epithelial lining of the palatine tonsil are derived
from which branchial pouch?
2nd pouch
Q0445:The inferior parathyroids are derived from which
branchial pouch?
the dorsal wings of the 3rd pouch
Q0446:The thymus is derived from which branchial pouch?
the ventral wings of the 3rd pouch
Q0447:The superior parathyroids are derived from which
branchial pouch?
4th pouch
Q0448:Aberrant development of the 3rd and 4th pouches
leads to what syndrome?
DiGeorge (T-cell deficiency; hypocalcemia (failure of
parathyroid development)
Q0449:Where is the most common site of ectopic thyroid
tissue?
Tongue (thyroid dysgenesis)
Q0450:What causes a cleft lip?
Failure of fusion of the maxillary and ledial nasal processes
Q0451:What causes a cleft palate?
failure of fusion of the lateral palatine processes; the nasal
septum and/or the median palatine process
Q0452:Which 4 structures form the diaphragm?
Septum transversum; Pleuroperitoneal folds; Body wall;
Dorsal mesentery of esophagus
Q0453:Which nerves innervate the diaphragm?
C3-C5
Q0454:The pancreas is derived from which embryological
structure?
foregut
Q0455:The spleen arises from which embryological structure?
mesentery but is supplied by artery of forgut
Q0456:Which segment of the GI tract is derived from the
foregut?
pharynx to duodenum
midgut?
duodenum to transverse colon
hindgut?
distal transverse colon to rectum
Q0459:What are the 3 embryologic structures of the kidney
and when do they develop?
Pronephros (week 4); Mesonephros (1st trimester);
Metanephros (permanent)
Q0460:The mesonephric (wolffian) duct develops into which
strucutres?
seminal vesicles; epididymis; ejaculatory duct and ductus
deferens
Q0461:The paramesonephric (mullerian) duct develops into
which structures?
fallopian tube; uterus; part of the vagina
Q0462:Mullerian inhibitor substance is secreted by what
organ to suppress development of the paramesonephric duct
in males?
testes
Q0463:For the following embryologic structure give the male
and female gential homologue: genital tubercle
Male: glans penis Female: Glans clitoris
and female gential homologue: urogenital sinus
M: corpus spongiosum; prostate; Cowper gland F: vestibular
bulbs; vestibular glands; urethral and paraurethral glands
and female gential homologue: urogenital folds
M: ventral shaft of penis F: labia minora
and female gential homologue: Labioscrotal swelling
M: scrotum F: labia majora
Q0467:Adenohypophysis
Surface ectoderm
Q0468:Lens of eye
Surface ectoderm
Q0469:Epithelial linings
Surface ectoderm
Q0470:Epidermis
Surface ectoderm
Q0471:Neurohypophysis
Neuroectoderm
Q0472:CNS neurons
Neuroectoderm
Q0473:Oligodendrocytes
Neuroectoderm
Q0474:Astrocytes
Neuroectoderm
Q0475:Pineal gland
Neuroectoderm
Q0476:Choroidal mesoderm
Neuroectoderm
Q0477:Iris
Neuroectoderm
Q0478:Ciliary Body
Neuroectoderm
Q0479:ANS
Neural crest
Q0480:Dorsal root ganglia
Neural crest
Q0481:Melanocytes
Neural crest
Q0482:Chromaffin cells of adrenal medulla
Neural crest
Q0483:Enterochromaffin cells
Neural crest
Q0484:Pia mater
Neural crest
Q0485:Celiac ganglion
Neural crest
Q0486:Schwann cells
Neural crest
Q0487:Odontoblasts
Neural crest
Q0488:Parafollicular (C) cells of thyroid
Neural crest
Q0489:Laryngeal cartilage
Neural crest
Q0490:Dura connective tissue
Mesoderm
Q0491:Muscle
Mesoderm
Q0492:Bone
Mesoderm
Q0493:Cardiovascular structures
Mesoderm
Q0494:Lymphatics
Mesoderm
Q0495:Blood
Mesoderm
Q0496:Urogenital structures
Mesoderm
Q0497:Serous linings of body cavities (e.g; peritoneal)
Mesoderm
Q0498:Spleen
Mesoderm
Q0499:Adrenal cortex
Mesoderm
Q0500:Gut tube epithelium
Endoderm
Q0501:Lungs
Endoderm
Q0502:Liver
Endoderm
Q0503:Pancreas
Endoderm
Q0504:Thymus
Endoderm
Q0505:Thyroid
Endoderm
Q0506:Parathyroid
Endoderm
Q0507:Nucleus pulposus of IV disk
Notochord
Q0508:Pseudounipolar cells
Neural crest
Q0509:1st pharyngeal groove
Q0510:corpus cavernosus;corpus spongiosum;gland and body
of penis
phallus
Q0511:scrotum
labioscrotal swelling
Q0512:urinary bladder;urethra ;prostate gland;bulbourethral
gland
urogenital sinus
Q0513:testes ;seminiferous tubules;rete testes
gonads
Q0514:ventral part of penis
urogenital folds
Q0515:gubernaculum testes
gubernaculum
Q0516:epididymis;ductus deferens;seminal
vesicles;ejaculatory duct
mesonephric duct
Q0517:which PG maintains a PDA
PGE;indomethacin; catecholamines and ACh promote
closures
Q0518:when does the primitive gut herniate out in the
embryo;when does it go back in
wk 6;wk 10
Q0519:what results when the palanting prominences fail to
fuse w/ the other side
cleft palate
Q0520:what is the term for a direct connection between the
intestine and the external environment through the umbnilicus
vitelline fistula (persistance of the vitelline duct)
Q0521:where do primordial germ cells arise
wall of yolk sac
Q0522:5-alpha-reductase deficiency
male pseudo-hermaphrodism;(individuals are XY);->
testicular tissue and stunted male external genitalia
Q0523:when does the intraembryonic coelom form
wk 3
Q0524:cerebral hemispheres
proencephalon
Q0525:midbrain
mesencephalon
Q0526:cerebellum
rhombencephalon
Q0527:medulla
rhombencephalon
Q0528:diencephalon
proencephalon
Q0529:metencephalon
rhombencephalon
Q0530:telencephalon
proencephalon
Q0531:thalamus
proencephalon
Q0532:pons
rhombhencephalon
Q0533:eye
proencephalon (diencephalon)
Q0534:myelencephalon
rhombencephalon
Q0535:pineal gland
proencephalon (diencephalon)
Q0536:cerebral aqueduct
mesencephalon
Q0537:neurohypophysis
proencephalon(diencephalon)
Q0538:3rd ventricle
proencephalon
Q0539:hypothalamus
proencephalon;(diencephalon)
Q0540:lateral ventricles
proencephalon
Q0541:what malignant tumor of the trophoblast causes high
levels of hCG and may occur after a hydatidiform mole;
abortion; or normal pregnancy
gestational trophoblastic neoplasia (GTN);(choriocarcinoma)
Q0542:how many oogonia are present at birth
none (not formed until puberty)
Q0543:what right to left shunt occurs when the aorta opens
into the righ ventricle and the pulmonary trunk upens into the
left ventricle
transposition of the great vessels (failure of aorticopulmonary
septum to grow in a spiral)
Q0544:left umbilical vein remnant
ligamentum teres
Q0545:foramen ovale remnant
fossa ovale
Q0546:right and left umbilical arteries remnants
medial umbilical ligaments
Q0547:ductus arteriosus ligament
ligamentum arteriosum
Q0548:ductus venosus remnant
ligamentum venosum
Q0549:mandibular hypoplasia; down-slanted palpebral
fissures; colobomas; malformed ears; zygomatic hypoplasi are
commonly seen in what pharyngeal arch 1 abnormality
Treacher Collins Syndrome
Q0550:tetrology of fallot
Pulmonary stenosis;Right ventricular hypertrophy;Over-
riding aorta;Ventricular septal defect;(PROVe)
Q0551:external urethra opening onto the ventral surface of the
penis
hypospadia
Q0552:CN of the;1st pharyngeal arch?;2nd?;3rd?;4th and 6th?
V;VII;IX;X
Q0553:failure of neural crest cells to migrate to myenteric
plexus of sigmoid colon and rectum
hirschsprungs
Q0554:pharyngeal pouch 3 and 4 failure
DiGeorge's
Q0555:what embryonic structure; around day 19; tells the
ectoderm above it to differentiate into neural tissue
notochord
Q0556:are membranous septal defects interventricular or
interatrial
interventricular
Q0557:pharyngeal pouch and groove in a pharyngeal fistula
2nd
Q0558:hCG in blood?;in urine?
day 8;day 10
Q0559:pharnygeal pouch derivatives
1- middle ear;2- palantine tonsil;3- inferior parathyroid and
;thymus;4- superior parathyroid;M PITS
Q0560:true or false; in females meiosis II is incomplete until
fertilization takes place
true
Q0561:what derives from preotic somites
internal eye muscles
Q0562:jaundice;white stools;dark urine
extrahepatic biliary atresia due to biliary duct occlusion
secondary to incomplete recanalization
Q0563:what hormone produced by the synctiotrophoblast
stimulates the production of progesterone by the corpus
luteum
hCG
Q0564:how many sperm are produced by one type B
spermatagonium
4
Q0565:all primary oocytes in females are formed by what
age?
5th month
Q0566:ascending aorta and pulmonary trunk
truncus arteriosus
Q0567:sinus venaru;coronary sinus;oblique vein of left atrium
sinus venosus
Q0568:right and left ventricles
primitive ventricle
Q0569:aortic vestibule and conus arteriosus
bulbus cordis
Q0570:right and left atruim
primitive atrium
Q0571:after a longstanding left-to-right shunt reverses;
causing cyanosis; and becomnes a right-to-left shunt; what is
it called
Eisenmenger's syndrome
Q0572:true or false?;thyroid from foregut?
true
Q0573:collecting duct;calyces;renal pelvis;ureter
mesonephric duct
Q0574:urinary bladder and urethra
urogenital sinus
Q0575:external genitalia
phallus;urogenital folds;labioscrotal swellings
Q0576:nephrons; kidney
metanephros
Q0577:median umbilical ligament
urachus
Q0578:epithelial lining of urinary bladder and urethra are
__gut derivatives
hindgut
Q0579:projective NONbilious vomiting;and a small knot at
the right costal margin (olive sign)
hypertrophic pyloric stenosis due to hypertrophy of
muscularis externa
Q0580:separation of 46 chromosomes without splitting of the
centromeres occurs during what phase of meiosis
Meiosis I
Q0581:blood and its vessels form during what embryonic
week
wk 3
Q0582:glans clitoris;corpus cavernosus;spongiosum
phallus
Q0583:gartner's duct
mesonephric duct
Q0584:ovary; follicles; rete ovarri
gonads
Q0585:uterine tube;uterus;cevix;upper third of vagina
paramesonphric ducts
Q0586:labia majora
labioscrotal swelling
Q0587:labia minora
urogenital folds
Q0588:ovarian and round ligaments
gubernaculum
Q0589:urinary bladder; urethra; greater vestubular glands;
vagina
urogenital sinus
Q0590:what direction does the primitive gut rotate
clockwise around the superior mesenteric artery
Q0591:preeclampsia in first trimester;hCG levels
>100;000;enlarged bleeding uterus
hydatiform mole
Q0592:when does the foramen ovale close
just after birth
Q0593:at ovulation; in what stage of meiosis II is the
secondary oocyte arrested
metaphase II
Q0594:failed recanalizationof the duodenum resulting in
polyhydramnios; bile-containing vomitus; and a distended
stomach
duodenal atresia
Q0595:what remains patent in a hydrocele of the testis;
allowing peritoneal fluid to form into a cyst
patent processus vaginalis
Q0596:respiratory system is derived from the ventral wall of
the foregut- true or false?
true
Q0597:failure of the allantois to close
patent urachus- urachal fistula
Q0598:prochordal plate derivative
mouth
Q0599:only organ supplied by the foregut artery that is of
mesodermal origin
spleen
Q0600:tumor derived form primative streak remnants and
often contains bone; hair; or other tissue types
sacrococcygeal teratoma
Q0601:two pathologic conditions occur when the gut does not
return to the embryo?
omphalocele;and;gastroschisis
Q0602:true or false- for implantation to occur; the zona
pellucida must degenerate?
true- it degenerates 4-5 days post fertilization and
implantation happens day 7
Q0603:what results when the maxillary prominence fails to
fuse with the medial nasal prominence
cleft lip
Q0604:what is the direction of growth for the primitive
streak?
caudal to rostral
Q0605:during what embryonic week do somites begin to form
wk 3
Q0606:what embryonic week sees the formation of the
notochord and the neural tube
third week
Q0607:what right-to-left shunt occurs when only one vessel
receives blood from both the right and left ventricle
persistant truncus arteriosus
Q0608:what forms the chorion
cytotrophoblast;syncytiotrophoblast;extraembryonic
mesoderm
Q0609:give the day/week in a pregnancy-- fertilization by
sperm; initiating embryogenesis
day 0
Q0610:give the day/week in a pregnancy --implantation (as a
blastocyst)
w/in week 1
Q0611:give the day/week in a pregnancy-- bilaminar disk
w/in week 2
Q0612:give the day/week in a pregnancy-- gastrulation;
primitive streak; notochord; and neural plate begin to form
w/in week 3
Q0613:give the day/week in a pregnancy--neural tube formed.
Organogenesis. Extremely susceptible to teratogens
Week 4
Q0614:give the day/week in a pregnancy-heart begins to beat.
Upper and lower limb buds begin to form
week 4
Q0615:give the day/week in a pregnancy--genitalia have
male/female characteristics
week 10
Q0616:image p. 118 fetal landmark
--
Q0617:rule of 2s for 2nd week
2 germ layers (bilaminar disk): epiblast; hypoblast;2 cavities:
amniotic cavity; yolk sac;2 components to placenta:
cytotrophoblast; syncytiotrophoblast
Q0618:rule of 3s for 3rd week
3 germ layers (gastrula) ectoderm; mesoderm; endodderm
Q0619:the epiblast (precursor to ectoderm) invaginates to
form this.
primitive streak
Q0620:cells from the primitive streak give rise to what
both intraembryionic mesoderm and endoderm
Q0621:give some adult sxs that arise from the surface
ectoderm
adenohypophysis; lens of eye; epithelial linings; epidermis
Q0622:give some adult sxs that arise from the neuroectoderm
neurohypohyisis; CNS neurons; oligodendrocytes; astrocytes;
ependymal cells; pineal gland
Q0623:give some adult sxs that arise from the neural crest
cells
ANS; dorsal root ganglia; cranial nerves; melanocytes;
chromaffin cells of adrenal medulla; enterochromaffin cells; pia
and arachnoid; celiac ganglion; schwann cells; odontoblasts;
parafollicular (C) cells of thyroid; laryngeal cartilage; bones of
the skull
Q0624:give some adult sxs that arise from the mesoderm
dura mater; CT; mm; bone; CB sxs; lymphatics; blood; UG
sxs; serous linings of body cavities (e.g; peritoneal); spleen;
adrenal cortex; kidneys.
Q0625:give some adult sxs that arise from the endoderm
gut tube epithelium and derivitives (e.g; lungs; liver; pancreas;
thymus; parathyroid; thyroid follicular cells).
Q0626:give some adult sxs that arise from the notochord
induces ectoderm to form neuroectoderm (neural plate). Its
postnatal derivitive is the nucleus pulposus of the
intervertebral disk
Q0627:when are babies most susceptible to the effects of
teratogens
3rd-8th weeks (organogenesis)
Q0628:given the teratogen give some possible effects on the
fetus;etoh
birth defects and mental retardation (leading cause); FAS
fetus: ACE inhibitors
renal damage
fetus: Cocaine
abnormal fetal dvlpmt and fetal addiction
fetus: DES
vaginal clear cell adenocarcinoma
fetus: iodide
congenital goiter or hypothyroidism
fetus: 13-cis-retinoic acid
extremely high risk for birht defects
fetus: thalidomide
limb defects ("flipper" limbs)
fetus: tobacco
preterm labor; placental problems; ADHD
fetus: warfarin; X-rays
multiple anomalies
Q0637:what else can cause congenital malformations
fetal infections (TORCH)
Q0638:image p. 119 - twinning
--
Q0639:the umbilical cord contains 2 umbilical artieries which
do this;and 1 umbilical vein which does this
return deoxygenated blood from fetal internal illiac
arteries;supplies oxygenated blood from the placenta to the
fetus
Q0640:this sx in the umbilical cord removes nitrogenous
waste from the fetal bladder (lika a urethra)
allantoic duct
Q0641:what does the ascending aorta and pulmonary trunk
arise from embryologically
truncus arteriosus
Q0642:what do the smooth parts of left and right ventricle
bulbus cordid
Q0643:what do the trabeculated parts of left and right
ventricle arise from embryologically
primitive ventricle
Q0644:what do the trabeculated parts of left and right atrium
primitive atria
Q0645:what does the coronary sinus arise from
embryologically
Left horn of sinus venosus (SV)
Q0646:what does the smooth part of right atrium arise from
embryologically
right horn of SV
Q0647:what does the SVC arise from embryologically
right common cardinal vein and right anterior cardinal vein
Q0648:fetal erythropoeis occurs in these 4 places (give them
in correct order
1) Yolk sac (3-8 wk);2) Liver (6-30 wk);3) Spleen (9-28
wk);4) Bone Marrow (28 wk onward);mneu : Young Liver
Synthesizes Blood
Q0649:adult hemoglobin sx
(alpha)2(beta)2
Q0650:fetal hgb sx
(alpha)2(gamma)2
Q0651:bloood in umbilical vv is _____ saturated w/ O2
80%
Q0652:fetal circulation involves 3 important shunts because
this organ is not yet in use
lungs
Q0653:Shunt 1: Most oxygenated blood reaching the heart via
the IVC is diverted through this sx and pumped out of the
aorta to the head
foramen ovale
Q0654:Shunt 2: Deoxygenated blood from the SVC is expelled
into the pulmonary artery and _________ to the lower body
of the fetus
ductus arteriosus
Q0655:Shunt 3: Blood entering the fetus through the umbilical
vv is conducted via this into the IVC
ductus venosis
Q0656:describe what happens at birth when the infant takes a
breath
decreased resistance in pulmonary vasculature causes
increased L atrial presure v. right atrial pressure; foramen
ovale closes. Increased O2 leads to decrease in prostaglandins;
causing closure of ductus arteriosis
Q0657:what drug closes the PDA
indomethacin
Q0658:what "drug" can keep a patent PDA open
Prostaglandins
Q0659:the ligamentum teres hepatis arises from the _____
umbilical vein
Q0660:the mediaL umbilical ligaments arises from the
UmbiLical artieries
Q0661:the ligamentum arteriosum arises from the
ductus arteriosus
Q0662:the ligamentum venosum arises from the
ductus venosus
Q0663:the fossa ovalis develops from the
foramen ovale
Q0664:the mediaN umbilical ligament arises from the urachus
which arises from the
AllaNtois
Q0665:what is the urachus
part of the allantoic duct between the bladder and the
umbilicus
Q0666:the nucleus pulposus of the intervertebral disk arises
from teh
notochord
Q0667:what aortic arch doese the MAXillary aa arise from
1st;mneu: 1st arch is MAXimal
Q0668:what aortic arch doese the Stapedial aa and hyoid aa
arise from
2nd;mneu: second=stepedial
Q0669:what aortic arch doese the Common Corotid aa & the
proximal part of the internal Carotic arise from
3rd;mneu: C is 3rd letter of alphabet
Q0670:what aortic arch doese the aortic arch on L and
proximal part of the subclavian aa on R arise from
4th;mneu:4th arch (4 limbs)=systemic
Q0671:what aortic arch doese the proximal part of pulmonary
and (on L only) ductus arteriosus arise from
6th;mneu :6 upside down looks kind of like a P;6=pulmonary
and pulmonary to systemic shunt ductus arteriosis
Q0672:branchial clefts are derived from this tissue
ectoderm;mneu: CAP covers outside from inside
(Clefts=ectoderm; Arches=mesoderm; Pouches=endoderm)
Q0673:branchial arches are derived from this tissue
mesoderm and neural crests
Q0674:branchial pouches are derived from this tissue
endoderm
Q0675:branchial is sometimes called this
pharyngeal
Q0676:clefts are sometimes called this
grooves
Q0677:Give 2 bones/cartilage; muscles; and 1 nerve that
arrises from branchial arch 1 derivitives
Meckel's cartilage: Mandible; Malleus; incus;
sphenoMandibular ligament;Muscles: Muscles of Mastication
(temporalis; Masseter; lateral and Medial pterygoids);
Mylohyoid; anterior belly of digastric; tensor tympany;
tensor veli palatini; anterior 2/3 of tongue;nerve: CN V2; V3
Reichert's cartilage: Stapes; Syloid process; lesser horn of
hyoid; Stylohyoid ligament;Muscles: mm of facial expression;
stapedius; stylohyoid; posterior belly of digastric;Nerve: CN
VII
Cartilage: greater horn of hyoid;mm: stylopharyngeus;nn: CN
IX;hint: think of pharynx: stylopharyngeus is innervated by
glossopharyngeal nerve
Q0680:Give 2 cartilage; muscles; and 1 nerve that arrises from
branchial arch 4-6 derivitives
cartilages: thyroid; cricoid; arytenoids; corniculate;
cuneform;mm (4th arch): most pharyngeal constrictors;
cricothyroid; levator veli palatini;mm (6th arch): all intrinsic
mm of larynx EXCEPT CRICOTHYROID;nerve: 4th arch --
CN X (superior laryngeal branch);6th arch - CN X (recurrent
laryngael branch)
Q0681:give the brancial arch innervation of arch 1
CN V2 & V3
CN VII
CN IX
Q0684:give the brancial arch innervation of arch 4 & 6
CN X
Q0685:1st branchial arch forms this portion of the
tongue;what is its innervation
anterior 2/3;CN V3 (sensation);CN VII (taste)
Q0686:3rd & 4th branchial arches forms this portion of the
tongue;what is its innervation
post 1/3 ;CN IX-taste;CN X-extreme posterior
Q0687:give the cranial nn and nucleus responsible for taste
CN VII; IX; X (solitary nucleus
Q0688:give the cranial nn responsible for pain
CN V3; IX; X
Q0689:give the cranial nn responsilbe for motor
CN XII
Q0690:1st branchial cleft develops into this
Q0691:2nd-4th branchial cleft develops into this
temporary cervical sinuses; which are obliterated by
proliferation of 2nd arch mesenchyme
Q0692:persistant cervical sinuses can lead to this
branchial cyst in the neck
Q0693:what parts of the ear develop from the 1st branchial
arch
bones: Malleus/incus;mm: Tensor tyMpani (V3)
cleft
arch
bones: stapes;mm: stapedius (VII)
Q0696:what is a branchial membrane
located at the jx of clefts and pouches
Q0697:what part of the ear develops from the 1st branchial
membrane
eardrum and eustachian tube
Q0698:what does the 1st branchial pouch develop into
middle ear cavity; eustachian tube; mastoid air cell;note: 1st
pouch contributes to endoderm-lined sxs of ear
Q0699:what does the 2nd branchial pouch develop into
epithenial lining of the palatine tonsil
Q0700:what does the 3rd branchial pouch (dorsal wings)
develop into
INFERIOR PARATHYROIDS
Q0701:what does the 3rd branchial pouch (ventral wings)
develop into
thymus
Q0702:what does the 4th branchial pouch develop into
superior parathyroids
Q0703:aberant development of 3rd and 4th pouches can result
in this syndrome which leads to T-cell deficiency (thymic
aplasia) and hypocalcemia (failure of parathyroid
development
DiGeorge syndrome
Q0704:The development of the thyroid: The thyroid
diverticulum arises from the floor of primitive pharyx; which
descends into the neck. It is connected to the tongue by the
thyroglossal duct; which normally disappears but may persist
as a pyramidal lobe of thyroid. Foramen cecum is normal
remnant of thyroglossal duct. The most common ectopic
thyroid tissue is found at this site
tongue
Q0705:A cleft lip is the result of failure of fusion of these two
processes
maxillary and medial nasal processes (formation of primary
plate)
Q0706:A cleft palate is failure of fusion of these things
lateral palatine processes; the nasal septum; and/or the median
palatine processes (formation of secondary paalate)
Q0707:diaphram is derived from 4 sxs what are they
1) septum transversum;2) pleuroperitoneal folds;3) body
wall;4) dorsal mesentery of esophagus;mneu: Several Parts
Build Diaphram
Q0708:Diaphram descends during dvlpmt but maintains
innervation from above. what is the innervation.
C3-5;mneu: C3;4;5 keeps the diaphram alive
Q0709:incomplete develop of the diaphram may cause
abdominal contents to herniate into the thorax. What is this
called
hiatal hernia
Q0710:what part of the gut is the pancreas derived
foregut
Q0711:which pancreatic bud develops into the pancreatic
head; uncinate proces (lower half of head); and main
pancreatic duct.
ventral pancratic bud
Q0712:which pancreatic bud develops into the body; tail;
isthmus; and accessory pancreatic duct
dorsal pancreatic duct
Q0713:this describes when ventral and dorsal pancreatic buds
abnormally encircle the duodenum forming a ring of pancreatic
tissue that may cause duodenal narrowing
annular pancreus
Q0714:T or F: Spleen arises from dorsal mesentary but is
supplied by artery of foregut
T
Q0715:name the genital ducts of the embryo
mesonephric (wolffian) duct;paramesonephric (mullerian)
duct
Q0716:what does the mesonephric (wolffian) duct develop
into
Seminal vesicles; Epididymis; Ejaculatory duct; and Ductus
deferens
Q0717:what does the paramesonephric (wolffian) duct
develop into
fallopian tube; uterus; and part of vagina
Q0718:this substance secreted by the testes; suppresses
development of paramesonephric ducts in males
mullerian inhibiting substance
Q0719:increase in these hormones cause the development of
the mesonephric ducts
increase androgens
Q0720:genetial tubercle exposed to dihydrotestosterone will
develop into
glans penis
Q0721:genetial tubercle exposed to estrogen will develop into
glans clitoris
Q0722:UG sinus exposed to dihydrotestosterone will develop
into
corpus spongiosum; bulbourethral glands (cowpers); prostate
gland
Q0723:UG sinus exposed to estrogen will develop into
vestibular bulbs; greater vestibular glands (of Bartholin);
urethral and paraurethral glands (of Skene
Q0724:UG folds exposed to dihydrotestosterone will develop
into
ventral shaft of penis (penile urethra)
Q0725:UG folds exposed to estrogen will develop into
labia minora
Q0726:labioscrotal swelling exposed to dihydrotestosterone
will develop into
scrotum
Q0727:labioscrotal swelling exposed to estrogenwill develop
into
labia majora
Q0728:What does the truncus arteriosus give rise to?
Ascending aorta;Pulmonary trunk
Q0729:What does the bulbus cordis give rise to?
Smooth parts of left and right ventricle
Q0730:What does the primitive ventricle give rise to?
Trabeculated parts of left and right ventricle
Q0731:What does the primitive atria give rise to?
Trabeculated left and right atrium
Q0732:What does the left horn of the sinus venosus give rise
to?
Coronary sinus
Q0733:What does the right horn of the sinus venosus give rise
to?
Smooth part of right atrium
Q0734:What does the right common cardinal vein and right
anterior cardinal vein give rise to?
SVC
Q0735:What EMBRYONIC STRUCTURE becomes the
ascending aorta and pulmonary trunk?
Truncus arteriosus
smooth parts of left and right ventricle?
Bulbus cordis
trabeculated parts of left and right ventricle?
Primitive ventricle
trabeculated left and right atrium?
Primitive atria
coronary sinus?
Left horn of sinus venosus
smooth part of right atrium?
Right horn of sinus venosus
SVC?
Right common cardinal vein ;Right anterior cardinal vein
Q0742:What is the order of embryonic structures from top to
bottom?
Truncus arteriosus ("TABC VAS");Bulbus cordis;Primitive
ventricle;Primitive atria;Left horn of sinus venosus;Right horn
of sinus venosus;Cardinal veins
Q0743:where do primordial germ cells originate from?
wall of yolk sac; and then migrate into gonad region
Q0744:what are the different stages of female gametogenesis
and when do they occur?
primary germ cell (46; 2N)--> primordial oognonia (46; 2N) --
> primary oocytes (46; 4N) - where they remain arrested until
puberty ;--> primary oocyte completes meiosis 1 and forms a
secondary oocyte (23; 2N) + 1st polar body --> secondary
oocyte is arrested in metaphase II until fertilization ;at
fertilization: secondary oocyte completes meiosis II and
forms a mature oocyte (23;1N) + 2nd polar body
Q0745:what are the different stages of male gametogenesis
and when do they occur?
primordial germ cells (46; 2N) --> type A spermatogonia (46;
2N; can undergo mitosis and provide a continuous supply of
sperm throughout lifetime) ;some type A --> type B
spermatogonia (46; 2N); which enter meiosis I --> primary
spermatocytes (46; 4N) --> secondary spermatocytes (23;
2N) --> 4 spermatids (23; 1N)
Q0746:describe maturation process of spermatids;how long
does it take?
spermatids --> spermatozoa ;condensation of nucleus;
formation of acrosome; formation of head; neck; adn tail)
;takes 64 days
Q0747:what is capacitation?
sperm can't fertilize an egg until they go through this
process;unmasking of sperm glycosyltransferase and removal
of proteins that coat the surface of the sperm
Q0748:what are offspring at risk for if there is advanced
Paternal age?
achondroplasia (retaded bone growth)
Q0749:how does hte "morning after" pill work?
high doses of steroids that disrupt the endometrium so that
implantation can't occur
Q0750:what precaution must be taken if someone takes the
mornign after pill?
steroids --> teratogenicity ;if the pill doesn't work;
therapeutic abortion recommended
Q0751:what can be used to treat anovulatory cycle?;MOA
clomiphene citrate;it competes with estrogen at binding sites
at the adenohypophysis; so it causes an increase in FSH/LH
by suppressing the normal negative feedback
Q0752:where does fertilization occur?
in the ampulla of the uterine tube
Q0753:what are the steps of fertilization?
acrosomal reaction so sperm can penetrate the zona pellucida
;--> cortical reaction so egg is not fertilized by more than 1
sperm ;sperm and secondary oocyte membranes fuse adn
sperm contents enter the cytoplasm of the egg;sprem genetic
material --> male pronucleus and tail/mitochondria
degenerate;secondary oocyte completes MII and forms a
mature ovum. nucleus of ovum = female pronucleus ;pronuclei
fuse --> zygote!
Q0754:what stages does the zygote go through following
fertilization?
series of mitotic divisions ;blastula (2 cells; then 4 cells; 8; 16)
each cell is called a blastomere --> morula (32 cells) -->
blastocyst
Q0755:what is the structure of the morula?
inner cell mass and outer cell mass
Q0756:at what stage is the zygote totipotent?
until the 8 cell stage ;each blastomere can form an entire
embryo by itself
Q0757:how does the blastocyst form?
fluid is secreted within the morula; forming the blastocyst
cavity ;the outer cell mass becomes part of the placenta
(trophoblast) and the inner cell mass becomes teh embryo
Q0758:what does the trophoblast differentiate into?
syncytiotrophoblast;cytotrophoblast
Q0759:what must happen in order for implantation to occur?
zona pellucida degeneration
Q0760:where does the blastocyst implant?
within the posterior superior wall of the uterus; unless it's
during the seretory phase of mentrual cycle; then it will
implant in teh functional layer of the endometrium
Q0761:describe the process of ectopic pregnancy
blastocyst implants in uterine tube d/t delayed transport `
Q0762:what is the most common site for ectopic
pregnance?;most common site for ectopic abdominal
pregnancy
uterine tube;rectouterine pouch (pouch of douglass)
Q0763:what predisposes ppl to ectopic pregnancy
endometriosis;PID
Q0764:cause of dizygotc tiwns?
fertilization of 2 different eggs with 2 different sperm
Q0765:cause of monozygotic twins
fertilization of 1 egg w 1 sperm ;division of inner cell mass of
blastocyst (embryoblast) in same placenta
Q0766:cause of conjoined twins
embryoblast doesnt' entirely split
Q0767:when does the embryoblast become bilaminar?
during week 2
Q0768:what are the 2 layers the embryoblast divides
into?;what does each become?
epiblast (--> amniotic sac);hypoblast (--> yolk sac)
Q0769:what is the future site of the mouth at week 2?
prochordal plate (the fusion of the epiblast and hypoblast
cells)
Q0770:describe the growth of syncytiotrophoblast?
continues growth into endometrium and makes contact wiht
endometrial BV and glands;it doesn't divide mitotically
Q0771:describe the growth of the cytotrophoblast?
primary chorionic villi protrude into
syncytiotrophoblast;divides mitotically
Q0772:what is the extraembryonic mesoderm?
new layer of cells derived from epiblast;--> connecting stalk
and covers amnion
Q0773:what forms the connecting stalk?
extraembryonic somatic mesoderm that lines the
cytotrophoblast
Q0774:what is the wall of the chorionic cavity called?;what
does it consist of?
chorion;extraembryonic somatic
mesoderm;cytotrophoblast;syncytiotrophoblast
Q0775:what are the different types of extraembryonic
mesoderm?
extraembryonic somatic mesoderm (--> connecting stalk)
;extraembryonic visceral mesoderm (covers yolk sac)
Q0776:where is hCG produced? what does hCG do?
syncytiotrophoblast;stimulates production of corpus luteum;
which is necessary for progesterone production during the
first 8 weeks of pregnancy
Q0777:describe the source of progesterone in pregnancy?
made by the syncytiotrophoblast for the first 8 weeks; and
then made by teh placenta for the remainder of the pregnancy
Q0778:when can hCG be detected?
day 8 in blood and day 10 in urine
Q0779:how long is hCG detectable for?
throughout pregnancy
Q0780:pathogenesis of hydatidiform mole?
death of embryo; followed by hyperplastic proliferation of
trophoblast --> vesicular or polycystic mass
Q0781:what % of hydatidiform moles develops into
gestational trophoblastic neoplasia?
3-5%
Q0782:whhat adult cancer is associated with high CEA?;hihg
AFP?
CRC;hepatoma; germ cell tumors
Q0783:another name for RU-486?
mifepristone
Q0784:MOA of RU 486
if implantation of conceptus has occurred; conceptus will be
sloughed off along with endometrium ;it blocks progesterone
receptor
Q0785:when does an embryo have a distinct human
appearance?
by 8 weeks
Q0786:how is cranio-caudal direction controlled?
Hox complex of genes;eaach contains 180 base pairs that
encode 60AA long region that binds to DNA
Q0787:what is gastrulation?
developing 3 germ layers ;--> trilaminar embryonic disk
(endoderm; ectoderm; mesoderm)
Q0788:what is the first indication of gastrulation?
formation of primitive streak within epiblast
Q0789:what do the neuroectoderm and neural crest cells arise
from?
ectoderm
Q0790:what are the different types of mesoderm that arise?
paraxial mesoderm ;intermediate mesoderm;lateral mesoderm
Q0791:what is sacrococcygeal teratoma?
remnant of primitive streak (which usually degenerates and
disappears) ;can contain bone; nerve; and hair because
primitive streak is pluripotent
Q0792:what is chordoma?
remnant of notocord; found either intracranially or in sacral
region ;occurs in men over 50;can be benign or malignant
Q0793:where is the notocord?;what does it do?
mesoderm located between primitive node and prochordal
plate ;induces the formation of the neural tube
Q0794:what are the components of the primitive streak?
primitive groove; pit and node
Q0795:describe migration of epiblast cells
ectoderm ;although; some epiblast cells displace the hypoblast
cells --> endoderm and others tay midline and form mesoderm
Q0796:what is caudal dysplasia?
constellation of syndromes ranging from minor lesions of
lower vert --> complete fusion of lower limbs ;caused by
abnormal gastrulation (migration of mesoderm is disrupted)
Q0797:what are the cranial anomolies associated with caudal
dysplasia?
VATER;vertebral defects;anal atresia;TE fistula;renal
defects;or; VACTERL;VATER + CV defects and upper limb
defects
Q0798:what embryonic event corresponds to 1st missed
menstrual period?
week 3 of embryonic development
Q0799:which period of embryonic development is most
susceptable to teratogens?
embryonic period (3-8 weeks)
Q0800:what are the components of the placenta and where do
they originate from?
maternal component (portion of the endometrium called
decidua basalis) ;fetal component (tertiary chorionic villi;
collectively called the villous chorion)
Q0801:what does the maternal surface of the placenta look
like in the afterbirth?
15-20 cotyledons that make it look cobblestoned;surface is
dark red and oozes blood after birth (from torn maternal BV)
Q0802:what does fetal surface of placenta look like in
afterbirth?
chorionic BV; appearing smooth and shiny b/c of amnion
covering
Q0803:what is velamentous placenta?
occurs when umbilical vessels abnormally travel through
amniochorionic membrane before reaching placenta proper
Q0804:what is vasa previa;potential complication?
if mubilical vesssels cross internal os;one of hte BV could
rupture --> fetus will bleed to death
Q0805:what is placenta previa?
placenta is in lower part of uterus; covering internal os
(instead of posterior superior wall of uterus) ;uterine bv
rupture in later part of pregnancy as uterus dilates ;mother
can bleed to death and fetus will have compromised blood
supply
Q0806:clinical presentation of placenta previa?
bright red vaginal bleeding ;deliver by c-section b/c placenta
blocks cervical opening
Q0807:why does the mom not reject the placenta?
PGE2 inhibits t cells;also; no MHC on sycytiotrophoblast
Q0808:define neurulation
formation and closure of neural tube
Q0809:describe the process of neurulation
notochord induces the overlying ectoderm to differentiate into
neuroectoderm;neural plate folds --> rise of neural tube; open
at anterior and posterior notopores
Q0810:when does anterior notopore close?;posterior?
day 25 (failure --> anencephaly);day 27 (failure --> spina
bifida)
Q0811:what does the anterior notopore become?;posterior?
brain ;spinal cord
Q0812:what is the lamina terminalis
what the anterior notopore becomes after it closes
Q0813:what are the levels of AFP in NTD?
high
Q0814:what are the levels of AFP in Down Syndrome?
loW
Q0815:what does the lumen of hte neural tube become?
the ventricles (in brain) ;central canal (in spinal cord)
Q0816:what does the rostral part of neural tube become
during week 4?
3 primary vesicles (prosencephalon; mesencephalon;
rhomboencephalon)
Q0817:what secondary vesicles form from the
prosencephalon?
telencephalon and diencephalon
Q0818:what secondary vesicles does the mesencephalon
become?
mesencephalon
Q0819:what secondary vesicles does the rhombencephalon
become?
metencephalon;myelencephalon
Q0820:when do the 2ndary vesicles form in ns?
6 wks
Q0821:types of glioblasts
CROATE;choroid plexus cells;radial glial
cells;oligodendrocytes;astrocytes;tanycytes;ependymocytes
Q0822:what do the choroid plexus cells do?
make CSF;bound together by tight junctions (= blood-CSF
barrier)
Q0823:what do radial glial cells do?
stain + for GFAP;guide migrating neuroblasts
Q0824:what do oligodendrocytes do?
they make myelin for the neurons in the CNS
Q0825:what do astrocytes do?
+ GFAP ;surround capillaries with vascular feet;physical
support;maintain BBB
Q0826:what do tanycytes do?
located in wall of 3rd ventricle ;transport substances from
CSF to hypophyseal system
Q0827:what do ependymocytes do?
they line the ventricles and central canal
Q0828:what does the telencephalon develop into in adult?
cerebral hemispheres;caudate;putamen ;amygdaloid ;claustrum
;lamina terminalis ;olfactory bulbs;hippocampus
Q0829:what does the diencephalon develop into in adult?
epithalamus;subthalamus;thalamus;hypothalamus;mamillary
bodies;neurohypophysis;pineal gland ;globus
pallidus;retina;iris;ciliary body ;CN II ;optic chiasm ;optic
tract
Q0830:what does the mesencephalon develop into in adult?
midbrain
Q0831:what does the metencephalon develop into in adult?
pons;cerebellum
Q0832:what does the myelenceohalon develop into in adult?
medulla
Q0833:what forms the filum terminale
extension of pia mater
Q0834:what/where is the cauda equina
collection of dorsal and ventral nerve roots that descend below
the conus medularis
Q0835:what does the filum terminale do?
anchors teh spinal cord to the coccyx
Q0836:what is rathke's pouch?;what does it develop into?
evagination of ectoderm lining the roof of the primitive
mouth;develops into the adenohypophysis
Q0837:what does the neurohypophysis develop from?
evagination of neuroectoderm from diencephalon (specifically
from hyothalamus)
Q0838:where do the preganglionic sympathetic and
parasympathetic arise from?
neuroectroderm (from basal plate of neural tube)
Q0839:where do the postganglionic sympathetic and
parasympathetic neurons arise from?
neural crest cells
Q0840:what are the CN that are parasympathetic/
III; VII; IX; X
Q0841:what is spina bifida with rachischisis?
failure for the posterior notocord to fuse at all;open neural
tube lying on the surface of the back;--> paralysis from level
of defect; caudally
Q0842:what is meningocele?
protrusion of meninges through skull defect
Q0843:what is meningoencephalocele?
meninges and brain protrude through defect in skull
Q0844:what is meningohydroencephalocele?
meninges; brain and CSF protrud through defect in skull
Q0845:what is arnold-chiari malformation?
protrusion of cerebellar tonsils and medulla oblongata through
foramen magnum;--> compression of CN IX; X; XII
Q0846:presentation of arnold-chiari malformation?
stridor;dysphagia ;diminished gag reflex;apnea;vocal cord
paralysis;spastic dysphonnia
Q0847:what is associated with arnold-chiari malformation?
thoracolumbar meningomyelocele;platybasia (bone
malformation of base of skull) ;malformation of
occipitovertebral joint;hydrocephalus
Q0848:what causes the hydrocephalus seen in arnold-chiari
malformation
50% from aqueductal stenosis
Q0849:what are the 2 types of noncommunicating
hydrocephalus?
congenital aqueductal stenosis;dandy-walker syndrome
Q0850:what causes congenital aqueductal stenosis?
x linked trait;cmv;toxo
Q0851:what causes dandy walker syndrome?;what is seen
atresia of foramina of lushe; magendie; or monro ;dilation of
4th ventricle ;agenesis of cerebellar vermis ;occipital
meningocele;agenesis of splenium of corpus callosum
Q0852:what is holoprosencephaly?
prosencephalon fails to cleave down midline such that
telencephalon contains singule ventricular cavity
Q0853:what is another name for holoprosencephaly/
arhinencephaly
Q0854:what causes holoprosencephaly
can be seen in patau syndrome ;FAS
Q0855:sx of tethered spinal cord
weakness and sensory deficits in lower extremity;neurogenic
bladder
Q0856:what can be associated with tethered spinal cord
lipomatous tumors ;lipomyelomeningocele
Q0857:is the alar plate sensory or motor?
sensory
Q0858:what is the first sign in embryo of formation of
respiratory system?
respiratory diverticulum in ventral wall of foregut
Q0859:what is the lung bud?
forms from the distal end of respiratory diverticulum; which
divides into 2 bronchial buds
Q0860:what forms from the bronchial buds?
primary; secondary; and tertiary bronchi
Q0861:what happens to the respiratory diverticulum?
initially is an open communication with the foregut; but
becomes obliterated by teh formation of the
tracheoesophageal septum
Q0862:clinical presentation of tracheoesophageal fistula
excessive salivation ;gagging and cyanosis following having
milk;abdominal distention ;reflux of gastric contents -->
pneumonitis
Q0863:Describe formation of bronchi
in week 5: bronchial buds enlarge --> primary bronchi -->
subdivide into secondary bronchi --> subdivide into teritary
bronchi
Q0864:how many tertiary bronchi are on R? L?
10;8-9
Q0865:where do the developing bronchi go as they expand?
into the primitive pleural cavity
Q0866:what type of mesoderm covers the visceral
pleura?;what type of mesoderm covers the parietal pleura?
visceral mesoderm ;somatic mesoderm
Q0867:what is congenital neonatal emphysema?
collapsed bronchi d/t failure of bronchial cartilage to develop
Q0868:diagnostic features of congenital bronchial cysts? (aka
bronchiectasis)
see honeycombing on xray if there are multiple cysts filled
with fluid/air
Q0869:what is the cause for pulmonary agenesis
failure of bronchial buds to develop
Q0870:what are the causes for pulmonary hypoplasia
renal agenesis (potter's syndrome; oligohydramnios increases
pressure on fetal thorax) ;congenital diaphragmatic hernia
(compresses developing lung)
Q0871:what are the phases (and time-frames)of lung
development?
glandular phase (5-17 weeks) ;canalicular phase (17-25 weeks)
;terminal sac phase (25 weeks - birth);alveolar phase (birth - 8
yrs)
Q0872:what is the histo appearance of lung tissue in the
glandular phase?
gland like;capillaries poorly developed; not in contact with the
lung tissue
Q0873:what type of epithelium is the tissue in the glandular
period made from?
simple cuboidal
canalicular phase?
respiratory ronchioles adn terminal sacs form ;vascularization
increases and surrounds the respiratory bronchioles and
terminal sacs (but still not in contact with the lung tissue)
terminal sac period?
capillaries make contact with type I pneumocytes -->
respiration and establishes blood-air barrier
Q0876:what is the exact mechanism behind hyaline membrane
disease?
repeated gasping inhalations --> damage to alveolar ining
Q0877:what are the 3 primitive forms of the kidney
pronephros;mesonephros;metanephros
Q0878:what happens to the pronephros
it completely regresses
Q0879:what happens to the mesonephros
completely regresses; except for the wolffian duct
Q0880:what happens to the metanephros
becomes the adult kidney
Q0881:what are the 2 components of the metanephros
ureteric bud ;metanephric mesoderm
Q0882:what does the ureteric bud become in the adult
minor and major calyces ;renal pelvis;collecting ducts;ureter
Q0883:what does the metanephric mesoderm become in the
adult
glomerulus ;proximal tubule;loop of henle;distal
tubule;connecting tubule (connects distal tubule to collecting
duct)
Q0884:where is the fetal metanephros located?;where is the
adult kidney loctated?;what accounts for the change in
location of the kidneys?
sacral region;T12-L3;disproportionate growht of the embryo
caudal to the metanephros; during this time the kidneys also
rotate medially by 90 degrees
Q0885:where does the urinary bladder develop?
upper end of hte UG sinus; which is continuous with the
allantois
Q0886:what does the allantois become
it degenerates and becomes the median umbilical ligament (aka
urachus)
Q0887:how is the trigone of the bladder formed?
it gets incorportatd into the mesonephric duct into posterior
wall of UG sinus
Q0888:describe the formation of the adrenal cortex
forms from 2 episodes of mesoderm proliferation (1st forms
fetal cortex which regresses by 2nd postnatal month; 2nd
forms adult cortex);ZG and ZF are present at birth; ZR
develops by 3 years of age
Q0889:describe formation of the adrenal medulla
neural crest cells aggregate at medial aspect of fetal cortex and
eventaully become surrounded by fetal cortex ;the neural crest
cells then differentiate into chromaffin cells
Q0890:potter's syndrome
bilateral renal agenesis --> oligohydramnios --> compression
of fetus ;incompatible with life unless htere is a kidney donor
;-> pulmonary hypoplasia b/c amniotic fluid is needed for
alveolar development
Q0891:horseshoe kidney
inferior poles of both kidneys fuse;during ascent; it gets
trapped behind the IMA
Q0892:urachal fistula
allantois persists --> direct connection between urinary
bladder and umbilicus;urine drains from umbilicus
Q0893:histology of wilms' tumor
most common primary renal tumor of childhood ;contains 3
different histologies (stroma; mblastemal area of tightly
packed embryonic cells; tubular area)
Q0894:polycystic kidney dz
loop of Henle dilates --> cysts that compromise kidney fxn
;also have cysts in liver; pancreas; lung
Q0895:neuroblastoma;histology
primitive neuroblasts of neural crest origin; occurring in
children ;in extra-adrenal sites 60% of time and n adrenal gland
40% of time ;arranged in Homer-Wright pseudorosettes
Q0896:lab values of neuroblastoma
increased VMA and metanephrine levels ;mets widely!

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