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Intelligence and Secret Service
Intelligence Agency - is a government agency responsible for the collection,analysis or

exploitation of information and intelligence in support of law
enforcement,nationalsecurity,defense and foreign policy objectives.
Intelligence Officer - is a person employed by an organization to collect,compile and

analyze information which is used to that organization.
Counter Intelligence - refers to effort made by intelligence organizations to prevent

hostile or enemy intelligence organization from successfully gathering and collecting
intelligence against them.
Human Intelligence - category of intelligence derived from information collected and

provided by human sources.
Dead Drop/Dead Letter Box - is a method of espionage trade craft used to pass items
between 2 individuals using a secret location and thus not require to meet directly.
Live Drop - 2 persons meet to exchange items or information.
Dead Drop Spike - is a concealment device used to hide

money,maps,documents,microfilm and other items.
Cut-Out - is a mutually trusted intermediary,method or channel of

communication,facilitating the exchange of information between agents.
Espionage/Spying - involves a government or individual obtaining information that is

considered secret of confidential without the permission of the holder of the information.
Agent Handling - is the management of agents,principal agents and agent networks by

intelligence officers typically known as case officers.
Case Officer - is an intelligence officer who is trained specialist in the management of

agents and agent network.
Agent - acts on behalf of another whether individual,organization or foreign government,

works under the direction of a principal agent or case officer.
Cryptography - is the practice and study of techniques for secure communication in the
presence of third parties called adversaries.
Eaves Dropping - Is the act of secretly listening to the private conversation of others
without their consent.
Propaganda - is a form of communication that is aimed at influencing the attitude of a

community toward some cause or position.
Flip - apprehended criminals who turn informants.
Snitches - jailhouse informants.
Means of Information Gathering
1.Overt
2.Covert
Intelligence Cycle - is the process of developing unrefined data into polished intelligence
for the use of policy makers.
1. Direction - intelligence requirements are
determined by a decision maker to meet his/her
objective.
2. Collection - is the gathering of raw information
based on requirements.
3. Processing - converting the vast amount of
information collected into a form usable by
analyst.
4. Analysis - conversion of raw information into
intelligence. It includes:
(1) integrating
(2) evaluating
(3) analyzing data and preparing intelligence

product.
5. Dissemination - is the distribution of raw or
finished intelligence to the consumer whose needs
initiated the intelligence requirement.
6. Feedback - is received from the decision maker
and revised requirement issued.
Evaluation - systematic determination of merit, worth and significance of something or

someone using criteria against a set of standards.
Collation - is the assembly of written information into a standard order.
Crime Triangle
1. the offender
2. the victim
3. the location
Crime Intelligence - information compiled, analyzed and/or disseminated in an effort to

anticipate, prevent, or monitor criminal activity.
Strategic Intelligence - information concerning existing patterns or emerging trends of

criminal activity designed to assist in criminal apprehension and crime control strategies
for both short and long term investigative tools.
Tactical Intelligence - information regarding a specific criminal event that can be used
immediately by operational units to further a criminal investigation plan tactical
operations and provide for officer safety.
Open Source - refers to any information that can be legitimately obtained e. free on
request, payment of a fee.
Source - the place or person from which information is obtained.
Intelligence Assessment - is the development of forecasts of behavior or recommended

courses of action to the leadership of an organization based on a wide range of available
information sources both overt and covert.
Intelligence Analysis - is the process of taking known information about situations and
entities of strategic, operational, or tactical importance, characterizing the known and
with appropriate statements of probability. the future actions in those situations and by
those entities.
Cryptanalysis - from the Greek word Kryptos-hidden and Analyein-to loosen or to unite - is
the art of defeating cryptographic security systems and gaining access to the contents of
encrypted messages without being given the cryptographic key
Reviewer number 1
1. Knowledge of a possible or actual enemy or area of operations
acquired by the collection,evaluation and interpretation of
military information.
A. Combat intelligence
B. Police Intelligence
C. Military Intelligence
D. Counter intelligence
2. Knowledge of the enemy,weather and the terrain that is used
in the planning and conduct of tactical operations.

B. Police intelligence
C. Military Intelligence
D. Counter-intelligence
3. Activity pertains to all security control measures designed to
ensure the safeguarding of information against espionage,
personnel against subversion and installations or material
against sabotage.
B. Police intelligence
C. Military intelligence
D. Counter intelligence
4. Those which seek to conceal information from the enemy.
A. Passive counter intelligence measures
B. Active counter intelligence measures
C. Strategic intelligence
D. Tactical intelligence
5. Those that actively block the enemy's attempt to gain information
of enemy's effort to engage in sabotage or subversion.
A. Passive counter intelligence measures
B. Active counter intelligence measures
C. Strategic intelligence
D. Tactical intelligence
6. When the source of the information comes from a police
intelligence officer of long experience and extensive background,
the evaluation of reliability of information is labelled.
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
7. When there is no adequate basis estimating the reliability of an
information,the evaluation of the reliability of the information is
labelled.
A. A
B. F
C. E
D. D
8. The current head of the PNP directorate for intelligence is
A. CatalinoCuy
B. CiprianoQuerol Jr.
C. Lina Sarmiento
D. AngelitoPacia
9. Knowledge in raw form is known as
A. Intelligence
B. Information
C. Awareness
D. Cognition
10.The resolving or separating of a thing into its component parts.
A. Analysis
B. Evaluation
C. Collation
D. Collection
Remember the ff: Intelligence and Secret Service

Methods of reporting information
A. Evaluation of reliability of information - indicated by a
letter as follows:
A - completely reliable
B - usually reliable - informant is of known integrity
C - fairly reliable
D - nor usually reliable
E - Unreliable
F - reliability not judge - no adequate basis estimating the
reliability of the source.
B. Evaluation of accuracy of information - indicated by
numerals as follows:
1
2
3
4
5
6
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
C
A
D
A
B
confirmed by other agencies

probably true
possibly true
doubtfully true
improbable
truth can not be judged
6. A
7. B
8. B
9. B
10. A
Intelligence and Secret Service Reviewer 2
1. Ancillary materials that are included in a cover story or deception

operation to help convince the opposition or casual observers that
what they are observing is genuine.
A. Walk-in
B. Warming room
C. Window Observing
D. Window dressing
2. A surveillance team usually assigned to a specific target.
A. Window observer
B. Window dressing
C. Stake-out team
D. Watcher team
3. A location out of the weather where a surveillance team can
go to keep warm and wait for the target.
A. Warming room
B. Rest room
C. Station room
D. Waiting room
4. A defector who declares his intentions by walking into an official
installation, or otherwise making contact with an opposition g
government, and asking for political asylum or volunteering to work
in place. Also known as a volunteer.
A. Enemy traitor
B. Asylum seeker
C. Enemy defector
D. Walk-in
5. The methods developed by intelligence operatives to conduct
their operations.
A. Trade craft
B. Operational technique
C. Trade secret
D. Operational secret
6. It focuses on subject or operations and usually short term.
A. Strategic intelligence
B. Counter intelligence
C. Tactical intelligence
D. Long-term intelligence
7. Concerns with the security of information,personnel,material
and installations.
8. Deals with political,economic,military capabilities and vulnerabilities
of all nations.
9. Tradecraft techniques for placing drops by tossing them while

on the move.
A. Tosses
B. Dropping
C. Throwing
D. Drops
10.A dead drop that will be retrieved if it is not picked up by the
intended recipient after a set time.
A. Picked drop
B. Timed drop
C. Abandoned drop
D. Recovered drop
You may want to read the ff: intelligence and secret service
A. Four Axioms of intelligence
1. Intelligence is crucial to intel security
2. Intelligence is crucial to all types of operations
3. Intelligence is the responsibility of all intelligence agencies
4. Intelligence of the government must be superior
to that of the enemy.
B. Intelligence - product resulting from the collection,evaluation
analysis,integration and the interpretation of all available

information.
- is a processed information.
C. Data + analysis = Intelligence
D. Police intelligence - used in the preparation and execution of
police plans,polices and programs.
Answers: Intelligence and Secret Service
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
D
D
A
D
A
C
C
A
A
B
Reviewer 3
1. Technical air sampler sensors designed to sniff for hostile
substances or parties in a dark tunnel system.
A. Chemical sniffers
B.Tunnel sniffers
C. Dog sniffers
D. Air sniffers
2. A major electronic communications line, usually made up
of a bundle of cables.
A. Cable line
B. Trunk line
C. Telephone line
D. DSL
3. A counter-surveillance ploy in which more than one target car
or target officer is being followed and they suddenly go in
different directions, forcing the surveillance team to make
instant choices about whom to follow.
A. ABC technique
B. Star-burst maneuver
C. AC technique
D. Sudden change maneuver
4. A chemical marking compound developed by the KGB to keep
tabs on the activities of a target officer. Also called METKA.
The compound is made of nitrophenylpentadien (NPPD) and luminol.
A. Spy dust
B. Chemical dust
C. Sulfuric acid
D. Potassium nitrate
5. A ploy designed to deceive the observer into believing that an
operation has gone bad when, in fact, it has been put into
another compartment.
A. Burned
B. Deceiving
C. Spoofing
D. Misleading
6. The special disguise and deception tradecraft techniques developed
under Moscow rules to help the CIA penetrate the KGB's security
perimeter in Moscow.
A. Silver bullet
B. Golden bullet
C. Bronze bullet
D. Titanium bullet
7. Any form of clandestine tradecraft using a system of marks,
signs, or codes for signaling between operatives.
A. Ciphers
B. Signs
C. Signals
D. Code
8. Any tradecraft technique employing invisible messages hidden
in or on innocuous materials. This includes invisible inks and
microdots, among many other variations.
A. Secret writing
B. Secret message
C. Hidden message
D. Hidden writing
9. An apartment, hotel room, or other similar site considered
safe for use by operatives as a base of operations or for a
personal meeting.
A. Meeting place
B. Dead drop
C. Drop
D. Safe house
10.When an operation goes bad and the agent is arrested.
A. Rolled up
B. Rolled down
C. Burned out
D. Burned down
Remember the ff: Intelligence and Secret Service
1. Sun Tzu - The Chinese general who wrote The Art of War
in about 400 b.c.
2. Smoking-bolt operation - A covert snatch operation in which
a special entry team breaks into an enemy installation and
steals a high-security device, like a code machine, leaving
nothing but the "smoking bolts."
3. Information - unprocessed information or raw data.
4. Intelligence information - Information gathered or received
which is of intelligence interests.
5. Intelligence community - It is an integrated and neatly
organized entity composed of units or agencies which have
intelligence interest and responsibilities.
6. Informant - is anyone who can furnish information.

7.Rolling car pickup - A clandestine car pickup executed so
smoothly that the car hardly stops at all and seems to
have kept moving forward.
8. Terms:
1. Wanted list - It is for crime suspects with warrant
of arrest.
2. Watch list - It is for those without warrant of arrest.
3. Target list - It is for organized crime groups.
4. PIR - Priority Intelligence requirement
5. OIR - Other intelligence requirements
6. SOR - Specific order request
9. R.A. 8551 - Placed PNP as support to the AFP in
Counter insurgency operations thru intelligence gathering.
10.The intelligence cycle (PNP Directorate for Intelligence)
1. Directing
2. Collecting
3. Processing
4. Dissemination and use
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
B
B
B
B
C
10. A
6.
7.
8.
9.
A
C
A
D
Fundamentals Of Criminal Investigation Reviewer 1

1. America's most famous private investigator and founder of
Criminal Investigation.
A. Alec Nayhem
B. Allan Pinkerton
C. Thomas Byrnes
D. None of these
2. The first woman detective in the history of criminal investigation.
A. Kathleen Jacob
B. Candy Miles
C. Kate Wayne
D. Pines Hamilton
3. He was known to be the creator of the "bow street runners", a
group of police officers attached to the Bow Street Court, and not
in uniform, performing criminal investigative functions.
A. Henry Fielding
B. John Fielding
C. John Howard
D. Robert Peel
4. The founder and chief organizer of the London Metropolitan Police,
the Scotland Yard, which became famous police organization
in the world.
A. Henry Fielding
B. John Fielding
C. John Howard
D. Robert Peel
5. As a rule, do not touch, alter or remove anything at the crime
scene until the evidence has been processed through notes,
sketches and photographs, with proper measurements.This refers to
A. the golden rule in investigation
B. the number one SOP in investigation
C. the act of note taking
D. the act of crime scene preservation
6. An Englishman who published a handbook for Examining Magistrates
in Munich, Germany and advocated the use of scientific methods
in criminal investigation process.
A. Hans Gross
B. Thomas Byrnes
C. Alphonse Bertillon
D. Francis Galton
7. The SC ruled the illegally obtained evidence is inadmissible in
state criminal prosecutions in the famous case of
A. Miranda vs Arizona
B. Otitvs Jeff
C. Mappvs Ohio
D. MilkeyvsWett
8. The continues accountability of persons handling evidences, and
having responsibility of taking care and preserving the evidences
from the time it was found until brought to court for presentation
is called
A. Chain of events
B. Key events
C. Chain of custody of evidence
D. Chain of command
9. In England, he was a buckle maker then a brothel operator; a
master criminal who became London's most effective criminal
investigator. He was the most famous Thief-Catcher in 1720s.
A. Alexander Macanochie
B. Jonathan Wild
C. Billy Cook
D. John Howard
10. What is the Latin term for criminal intent?
A. Mens Rea
B. Magna Culpa
C. Inflagrante Delicto
D. Mala Vise
Answers:Fundamentals of Criminal Investigation
1. B
2. C
3. A
4. D
5. A
6. A
7. C
8. C
9. B
10.A
Drug Education Definition Of Terms
Acute tolerance
- The development of tolerance within the course of a single exposure to a drug.
Addiction - Implies a very severe form of dependence, one involving an overwhelming compulsion
for the use of a particular drug.
Adulterant - Material used to increase the mass of a controlled substance. Adulterants produce
physiological effects and give the illusion that more controlled substance is present than its actual
content.
Alkaloid - One of a group of nitrogenous organic bases, especially one of vegetable origin, having a
powerful toxic effect on animals and man, such as nicotine, cocaine, strychnine, or morphine.
Amitriptyline - A tricyclic antidepressant drug, found to impair skilled performance and to be
additive with ethanol in its adverse effects.
Amobarbital - A barbiturate derivative used as a sedative or hypnotic; available in ampules for
intravenous or intramuscular injection for the control of seizures.
Amphetamine - A drug that is representative of a class of structurally related compounds known as
phenethylamines. Basis of a group of hallucinogenic,habit-forming drugs that affect the central
nervous system.The sale and use restricted to physicians; trade nameBenzedrine.
Analgesic - Any drugs, such as salicylates, morphine, or opiates used primarily for the relief of pain.
Anaphylaxis - An allergic hypersensitivity reaction of the body to a foreign protein or drug.
Antidepressant - A drug, such as imipramine and tranylcypromine, that relieves depression by
increasing central sympathetic activity.
Antisera - Injecting human serum into various animals, such as the horse, goat,sheep, rabbit, duck,
hen, or guinea pig, can produce antihuman sera.
Antiserum - Any immune serum that contains antibodies active chiefly in destroying a specific
infecting virus or bacterium.
Barbiturate - A derivative of barbituric acid that produces depression of the central nervous
system and consequent sedation.
Benzoylecognine - A cocaine metabolite.
Butabarbital - A short- to intermediate-acting barbiturate derivative.
Butalbital - An occasionally encountered short-acting barbiturate closely related to Talbutal and less
closely to Amobarbital and Secobarbital. Intoxication can result in lethargy, confusion, disorientation,
and ataxia.
Cannabidiol - A constituent of cannabis, which, upon isomerization to a
tetrahydrocannabinol, has some of the physiologic activity of marijuana.
Cannabinol - (C21H26O2) A physiologically inactive phenol formed by spontaneous dehydrogenation
of tetrahydrocannabinol from cannabis.
Cannabis - A genus of tall annual herbs in the family Cannabaccae having erect stems, with 3 to 7
elongated leaflets and pistillate flowers in spikes along the stem. Commonly known as marijuana or
sometimes referred to on the street as grass or pot.
Chronic - Persistent, prolonged, repeated.
Chronic effect - A pathologic process caused by repeated exposures over a period of long duration.
Chronic tolerance - The gradual decrease in degree of effect produced at the same blood
concentration in the course of repeated exposure to that drug.
Cocaine - A colorless to white crystalline powder. Used as a local anesthetic (medicine or dentistry),
usually as the hydrochloride. Also known by street names, such as coke, snow, or freebase.
Codeine - A narcotic alkaloid that is used in medicine and cough syrups; highly toxic and habitforming narcotic.
Concentration - The amount of a substance in a stated unit of a mixture or solution. Common
methods of stating concentration are percent by weight,percent by volume, or weight per unit
volume. Amount of a drug in a unit volume of biological fluid, expressed as weight/volume.
Confirmatory test - Second test by an alternative chemical method for unambiguous identification of
a drug or metabolite.
Crack - Concentrated form of cocaine, which is used in vapor form. It is smoked or inhaled through
crack pipes. It is a highly addictive drug that causes psychotic behavior, which is often violent. Almost
pure form of the drug cocaine hydrochloride, obtained from a shrub native to Bolivia and Peru. It can
cause increased alertness and energy, runny nose, and decreased appetite when snorted, injected, or
smoked.
Cut-off concentration - Concentration of a drug in a specimen or sample used to determine whether
the specimen or sample is considered positive or negative. In some circumstances it is recommended
that the cut-off concentration should be set equal to the limit of detection.
Depressants - Drugs that depress the action of the central nervous system such as phenobarbital,
pentobarbital, and alcohol.
Designer drugs - Drugs that are produced illicitly by means of chemical technology.They can cause
uncontrollable tremors, chills, or sweating and faintness and paranoia when injected or taken in pill
form.
Diazepam - (valium) The second benzodiazepine derivative to have been approved for human usage
has been one of the most frequently prescribed drugs in the United States. It is administered as an
antianxiety agent,muscle relaxant, or anticonvulsant.
Drug - Any natural or synthetic substance that is administered to produce specific physiological or
psychological effects.
Drug abuse - The nonmedicinal use of a drug in a manner that is not socially acceptable.
Drug dependence - The primary hazard of the abusive use of drugs is the likelihood for some
individuals to develop a need or compulsive desire that may occur as a result of a psychological or a
physical craving.
Hallucinogens - Drugs like marijuana, LSD, PSP, and ecstasy that produce changes in mood, thought
and perception.
Hashish - Purified resin prepared from the flowering tops of the female cannabis plant and smoked or
chewed as a narcotic or an intoxicant.
Impramine - The prototype of the tricyclic antidepressant drugs.
Marijuana - Popular name for the dried flowers and leaves of Cannabis sativa.
Meperidine hydrochloride - A fine, white, odorless, crystalline powder; very soluble in water,
soluble in alcohol, and used in medicine as a narcotic.
Methadone hydrochloride - A synthetic narcotic. Used medicinally as a sedative and also useful in
treating heroin addiction.
Methamphetamine - Colorless, volatile liquid; characteristic strong odor and slightly burning taste.
Highly toxic, flammable, as well as a dangerous fire risk. Basis of a group of hallucinogenic, habitforming drugs that affect the central nervous system.
Morphine - White crystalline alkaloid, slightly soluble in water, alcohol, and ether; highly toxic,
narcotic, habit-forming drug.
Mushroom - (Drugs) Umbrella-shaped fungus, some varieties of which contain a drug that can cause
hyperventilation, tremors, and hyperactivity when the fungus is chewed, smoked, or ground and
infused in water and drunk as a tea.
Narcotic - Pharmacologically, any substance that produces narcosis, a stuporous state resembling
sleep, and characterized by loss of sensation. Addictive substance that reduces pain, alters mood and
behavior, and usually induces sleep or stupor.
Opiates - Natural, semi-synthetic, or synthetic substances with morphine-like effects in the body.
They are primarily employed as analgesics and can be considered narcotic in their effects.
Opium - A highly toxic plant alkaloid that is a habit-forming narcotic; one source of opium is
morphine.
Overdose - An excessive dose of medicine or narcotic substance.
Peyote - The common name for the small Mexican cactus, Lophophorawilliamsii,which contains the
hallucinogen, mescaline.
Pharmacodynamics - The study of the relationship of drug concentration to drug effects.
Pharmacokinetics - The study of the time course of the processes (absorption,distribution,
metabolism, and excretion) a drug undergoes in the body.
Pharmacologic - Relating to the study of drugs and their origin, natural properties,and effects on
living organisms.
Phencyclidine (PCP) - Has an anesthetic activity and is manufactured legitimately for use as a
veterinary anesthetic. It has no legitimate use in humans because of its hallucinogenic actions. The
effects on humans
are considered euphoric, but at times depression or anxiety and aggressive behavior are produced.
Common street names are PCP, peace pill,hog, and angel dust.
Picking - Adherence of a drug to the face of the punch used to produce a tablet.Picking creates holes
in the surfaces of pressed tablets, usually near letters such as A or R.
Propoxyphene - A mildly effective narcotic analgesic, somewhat less potent than codeine, that bears
a close structural relationship to methadone.
Qualitative test - A test that determines the presence or absence of specific drugs or metabolites,
proteins, or enzymes in the specimen or sample.
Quinine - Bulky, white, amorphous powder or crystalline alkaloid; very bitter taste; odorless and
levorotatory. Used in medicine as an antimalarial drug.
Secobarbital - A barbiturate derivative of short duration of action; used as either a sedative or
hypnotic.
Solvent - A substance capable of dissolving another substance (solute) to form a uniformly dispersed
mixture (solution) at the molecular or ionic size level.
Stimulants - Drugs that increase the activity of the central nervous system, creating feelings of
confidence and energy. A drug that produces a temporary increase of functional activity or efficiency.
A drug that increases alertness and motor activity and, at the same time, reduces fatigue, allowing
the individual to remain awake for an extended period of time. It can cause weight loss, increased
respiration and heart rate, blurred vision, and anxiety when snorted,injected, smoked, or swallowed in
capsule, tablet, or pill form.
Strychnine - An alkaloid found together with the less active brucine in the seed of Strychnosnuxvomica, a tree indigenous to India. It is a potent central nervous system stimulant and convulsant,
acting by the selective blockage of postsynaptic neuronal inhibition.
Substance abuse - Use of alcohol or drugs that results in adverse effects on the user. Substance
abuse is a major health and social problem in the United States among adolescents.
Tolerance - A state that develops after long-term exposure to a drug. Metabolic tolerance infers a
faster removal and oxidation by the liver. Functional tolerance infers a change in sensitivity of the
organ to the effects of the drug.
Drug Education And Vice Control Reviewer 1
1. The group of drugs that are considered to be mind altering and

gives the general effect of mood distortion are generally called
A. Sedatives
B. Hypnotic
C. Hallucinogens
D. Tranquillizers
2. Drugs like glue, gasoline, kerosene, ether, paint, thinner, etc. are
called:
A. Solvents
B. Deliriants
C. Inhalants
D. All of these
3. Cocaine is a stimulant drug; LSD is a
A. Hallucinogen
B. Narcotic
C. Solvent
D. Depressant
4. What opium preparation is combined with camphor to produce a
household remedy for diarrhea and abdominal pain?

A. Tincture of opium
B. Raw opium
C. Paregoric
D. Granulated opium
5. The group of drugs that when introduced into the system of the
body can produce mental alertness and wakefulness
A. Stimulants
B. Uppers
C. Speeds
D. All of these
6. The hallucinogenic alkaloid from a small Mexican mushroom used
by Mexican Indians to induce nausea and muscular relaxation is
called:
A. Psilocybin
B. STP
C. DMT
D. Ibogaine
7. What do you call the most powerful natural stimulant?
A. Erythroxylon coca
B. Heroin
C. Beta Eucaine
D. Cocaine Hydrochloride
8. What is the most important constituent of opium?

A. Morphine
B. Heroin
C. Codeine
D. Cocaine
9. What drug is known as the "assassins of the youth"?
A. Heroin
B. Cocaine
C. Marijuana
D. Shabu
10. The presence of drug paraphernalia at the drug scene in the form
of syringe and needle, tourniquet, spoon or bottle top "cookies"
and tinfoil packet reveals that the drug being administered are:
A. tablet drugs
B. capsule drugs
C. liquid drugs
D. marijuana leaves
11. 64. From among the following, which is correct?
A. RA 6975, Comprehensive Dangerous Drugs Act of 2002
which took effect on June 7, 2002
B. RA 9165, Comprehensive Dangerous Drugs Act of 2002
which took effect on July 4, 2002
C. RA 6975, Dangerous Drugs Act of 1972, took effect on
March 2, 1972
D. RA 6425, Dangerous Drugs Act of 2002 which took effect on

July 4, 2002
12.The drug that is obtained from the alkaloid of the leaves of the
Erythorxylon coca and the other species of ErthroxlonLinne, or by
synthesis from ecgoine and its derivatives is called:
A. Heroin
B. Sodium Carbonate
C. Codeine
D. Cocaine
13. The presence of the symptom of alcohol intoxication with out
smell of alcoholic breath is a sign that the suspected person is
under the influence of:
A. Amphetamine drug
B. Barbiturates
C. Hallucinogens
D. Narcotics
14. The burning of a small quantity of the suspected substance and
determining the odor or smell having similar to burnt banana leaves
or has a sweetish odor is a field test that can reveal the drug ___.
A. Marijuana
B. Opium
C. Coca leaves
D. Peyote Cactus
15. Bennies and dexies are for amphetamines; red devils and
double trouble are for ___.
A. Demerol
B. Sulfates
C. Barbiturates
D. Deliriants
Answers: Drug Education and Vice Control

1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
C
D
A
C
D
A
D
A
C
C
B
D
B
A
C
Crime Detection Review Questions
1. An extra judicial confession obtained from a suspect is admissible

in a court of law if it was made in the presence of a counsel
of his own choice and must be in
A. the presence of a fiscal
B. the presence of a police investigator
C. writing
D. front of a judge
2. Fiscals and Prosecutors are under the control and supervision
of the
A.National Bureau of Investigation
B. Department of the Interior and Local Government
C. Supreme Court
D.Department of Justice
3.The questioning of a person in a formal and systematic way and is
most often used to question criminal suspects to determine their

probable guilt or innocence.
A. Inquiry
B. Interview
C. polygraph examination
D. interrogation
4.A form of investigation in which the investigator assume a
different and unofficial identity.
A. Tailing
B. Casing
C. Espionage
D. Undercover work
5.A type of surveillance in which extreme precautions and actions
are taken in not losing the subject.
A. loose tail
B. casing
C. pony tail
D. close tail
6.A type of shadowing employed when a general impression of the
subjects habits and associates is required.
A. loose tail
B. casing
C. pony tail
D. close tail
7.A surveillance activity for the purpose of waiting the anticipated
arrival of a suspect or observing his actions from a fixed location.
A. Casing
B. Tailing
C. Stake out
D. Espionage
8.An examination of an individuals person, houses, or effects or a
building, or premises with the purpose of discovering contraband's
or personal properties connected in a crime.
A. Search
B. Raid
C. Investigation
D. Seizure
9.A kind of evidence that tends to prove additional evidence of a
different character to the same point.
A. Corroborative evidence
B. Circumstantial evidence
C. Direct evidence
D. Real evidence
10.The process of bringing together in a logical manner all evidence
collected during the investigation and present it to the
prosecutor.
A. case preparation
B. order maintenance
C. crime prevention
D. public service
11.Ways and means are resorted for the purpose of trapping and
capturing the law breaker during the execution of a criminal act.
A. Instigation
B. Inducement
C.
D.
Buy bust operation

Entrapment
12.A special qualification for an undercover agent.

A. excellent built
B. excellent eyesight
C. excellent looks
D. excellent memory
13.The discreet observation of places, persons and vehicles for the
purpose of obtaining information concerning the identities or
activities of suspects.
A. close observation
B. espionage
C. tailing
D. surveillance
14. The questioning of a person by law enforcement officers after
that person has been taken into custody.
A. preliminary investigation
B. interrogation
C. custodial investigation
D. cross examination
15.As a general rule, a warrant of arrest can be served at
A. day time
B. night time
C. any day and at any time of the day or night
D. weekdays
16.Measures through which police seek to detect crimes, or
attempts to be present when they are committed, through the

use of the undercover agents, electronic devices for wiretapping
or bugging, and stakeouts.
A. preventive measures
B. countermeasures
C. pro-active measures
D. tape measures
17.A police activity directed toward the identification and
apprehension of alleged criminals and the accumulation,
preservation, and presentation of evidence regarding their
alleged crimes.
A. police patrol
B. police intelligence
C. Criminal procedure
D. Criminal investigation
18.An extension or continuation of the preliminary investigation.
A. initial investigation
B.custodial investigation
C.secondary investigation
D.follow-up investigation
19.To obtain admission and confession of guilt is the primary purpose
of
A. Interview
B. Surveillance
C. Investigation
D.Interrogation
20.Such facts and circumstances that would lead a reasonably
discreet and prudent man to believe that an offense has been

committed and that the object sought in connection with the
offense are in the place sought to be searched.
A. prima facie evidence
B. probable cause
C. prejudicial question
D.res ipsa loquitur
21.A search warrant shall be valid for _____ days from its date.
Thereafter, it shall be void.
A. 10
B. 15
C. 30
D. 45
22.It means that a specific crime was committed at a specified time,
date and place, and that the person named in his report
committed the crime.
A. corpus delicti
B. sufficiency of evidence
C. stare decisis
D. parenspatriae
23.Police seek to prevent crime by being present in places where
crimes might be committed and by alerting citizens to refrain from
practices that make them or their property vulnerable.
A. opportunity denial
C. criminal investigation
D. police intelligence
24.A statement of the suspect directly acknowledging his guilt.

A. Admission
B. Confession
C. Deposition
D. Accusation
25.It may be a direct acknowledgement of the truth of the guilty
fact as charge or of some essential part of the commission of the
criminal act itself.
A. Admission
B. Confession
C. Deposition
D. Accusation
26.It may be a self-incriminatory statement by the subject falling
short of an acknowledgement of guilt.
A. Admission
B. Confession
C. Deposition
D. Accusation
27.The simplest type of interview which concerns with the gathering
of information regarding the personal circumstances of a
person who is the subject of investigation.
A. background interview
B. personal interview
C. intimate interview
D. pre-game interview
28.It means method of operation.
A. corpus delicti
B.
C.
D.
parenspatriae
stare decisis
modus operandi
29.It is one which induces the criminal to act and need not be
shown in order to obtain conviction.
A. Intent
B. Motive
C. Opportunity
D. Inducement
30.The three tools in criminal investigation, whereby their
application varies in proportion on their necessity to establish
the guilt of the accused in a criminal case.
A. information, interrogation, instrumentation
B. detection, apprehension, conviction
C. inquiry, observation, conclusion
D. magnifying glass, pencil, tape measure
31.The simple questioning of a person who is cooperating in the
investigation.
A. Interview
B. Inquiry
C. Interrogation
D. Instrumentation
32.It involves a number of persons who might have handled
evidence
between the time of the commission of the alleged
offense and the disposition of the case, should be kept to
a minimum.
A.chain of command
B.chain of custody
C.evidence tracking
D.tracing evidence
33.A kind of evidence which may link the suspect to the crime scene
or offense. Examples are fingerprints, impressions, blood etc.
A. physical evidence
B. associative evidence
C. tracing evidence
D. factual evidence
34.Articles and materials which are found in connection with an
investigation and which help in establishing the identity of the
perpetrator or the circumstances under which the crime was
committed or which in general, assist in the prosecution of the
criminal.
B. documentary evidence
C. tracing evidence
D. testimonial evidence
35.The following are different techniques in interrogation except
one:
A. sympathetic approach
B. emotional appeal
C. financial assistance
D. friendliness
36.This may be applicable to a crime scene which is approximately
circular or oval. The searchers gather at the center and proceed
outward along radii or spokes.
A. strip method
B. wheel method
C. spiral method
D. zone method
37.The area to be searched is divided into quadrants and each
searcher is assigned to one quadrant.
A. strip method
B. wheel method
C. spiral method
D. zone method
38.The searchers follow each other in the path of a crime scene
beginning in the outside and circling around a central point.
A. strip method
B. wheel method
C.spiral method
D.zone method
39.A kind of gathering information whereby a subject is being
followed.
A. Convoy
B. Caravan
C. Tailing
D. Surveillance
40.Another term for tailing.
A.Impersonating
B.Backing
C.Supporting
D.Shadowing
41.A person who gives necessary information to the investigator.

He may give the information openly and even offer to be a
witness or he may inform the investigator surreptitiously and
request to remain anonymous.
A. Witness
B. Expert witness
C. Hostile witness
D. Informant
42.The use of an equipment or tool to listen and record discreetly
conversations of other people.
A. Bugging
B. Dubbing
C. Mimicking
D. Tapping
43.The questioning of persons not suspected of being involved in a
crime,but who knows about the crime or individuals involved in it.
A. Interrogation
B. rumor mongering
C. interview
D. inquiry
44.An objective of criminal investigation.
A. determine the motive
B. identify criminals
C. rehabilitate criminals
D. prevent crimes
45.A term used to describe a transition which occur in the

development of a fire, when, for example, most of all the
combustible surfaces within a room are heated above their
ignition temperature at the same time.
A. Intensity
B. Ignition
C. Flash over
D. Starter
46.A term of the start of the combustion, its detailed process of
a solid is very complicated, since the proportion of different
flammable vapors varies from one material to another and
contact with oxygen must take place before combustion can
begin.
A. Intensity
B. Ignition
C. Flash over
D. Starter
47.The term describes the transfer of heat through a gas or vacuum
in a similar way to that of light.
A. Ignition
B. Convection
C. Radiation
D. Conduction
48.The transfer of heat within a solid material from hotter to
cooler parts.
A. Ignition
B. Convection
C. Radiation
D.
Conduction
49.The greatest concern of the firemen at the fire/crime scene is to

A. interview witnesses
B. view the site of the crime
C. preserve the fire/crime scene
D. opportunity in the fire/crime scene
50.Most malicious fires are set by individuals secretly; it is
either set for revenge or self aggrandizing; or set by psychotic
fire setter, or for sexual gratification.
A. group fire setter
B. arson for profit
C. fire starter
D. solitary fire setter
51.The primary course of action in case of a fire.
A. pack up and flee
B. run for your life
C. call an ambulance
D. raise the alarm
Answer: D
52.The main product of the combustion of carbon. It is not
poisonous but is an asphyxia which lowers the proportion of
oxygen available for breathing.
A. carbon oxide
B. carbon monoxide
C. carbon paper
D. carbon dioxide
Answer: D
53.A normal product of combustion, and is poisonous, especially
when the air supply to the fire is restricted.

A. carbon oxide
B. carbon monoxide
C. carbon paper
D. carbon dioxide
Answer: B
54.The fire resisting property of structural elements and the
behavior of a building material in a fire, it is used to predict
how long it will resist the effect of a fire before it fails.
A. fire resistance
B. fire duration
C. fire proof
D. fire strength
Answer: A
55.A type of fire that is the result of the combustion of certain
metals in finely divided forms; magnesium, potassium, zinc, etc.
A. class A
B. class B
C. class C
D. class D
Answer: D
56.A type of fire which results from burning of wood, paper,
textiles, and other carbonaceous materials.Extinguishment of
this fire is by quenching and cooling.
A. class A
B. class B
C. class C
D. class D
Answer: A
57.The following are components of fire except one:
A. Gas
B.
C.
D.
Fuel
Oxygen
Heat
Answer: A
58.It is observed in structural fires and can be an indicator of

the fire travel and point of origin.
A. Charring
B. Alligatoring
C. V pattern
D. Pour pattern
Answer: A
59.A pattern or network of fine, irregular lines in glass and wood.
A. Crazing
B. Spalling
C. Light bulbs
D. Charring
Answer: A
60.A tool employed by an arsonist to delay the start of the fire
and allow him to establish an alibi.
A. Accelerants
B. delaying tactic
C. timing device
D. stopper
Answer: C
61.It can be readily identified by their distinctive odors, and the
most common examples are gasoline, turpentine and kerosene.
A. Accelerants
B. Trailers
C. timing device
D. Stopper
Answer: A
62.This catalytic combustion device is the most common means

employed to detect flammable vapors.
A. Accelerant
B. Sniffer
C. timing device
D. stopper
Answer: B
63.The irresistible impulse or compulsion to start a fire and
experience gratification and satisfaction from it.
A. fire starter syndrome
B. pyrotechnic disease
C. pyromania
D. pyrophobia
Answer: C
64.It is known as the Fire Code of the Philippines.
A. PD 1108
B. PD 1017
C. PD 1081
D. PD 1185
Answer: D
65.Any material or mixture consisting of a fuel and oxidizer used
to set off explosives.
A. blasting agent
B. blasting cap
C. gun powder
D. explosive primer
Answer: A
66.These are description of materials or compounds that are
easily set on fire except one:
A. Combustible
B.
C.
D.
Corrosive
Flammable
Inflammable
Answer: B
67.Any material having a flash point at or above 37.80 degree

Celsius or 100 degree Fahrenheit.
A. combustible liquid
B. flammable liquid
C. inflammable liquid
D. corrosive liquid
Answer: A
68.Any liquid that causes fire when in contact with organic matter.
B. flammable liquid
D. corrosive liquid
Answer: A
69.An extremely hot luminous bridge formed by the passage of an
electric current across the space between two conductors.
A. electrical arc
B. damper
C. duct system
D. ember
Answer: A
70.The active principle of burning, characterized by the heat
and light combustion.
A. explosion
B. arson
C. combustion
D. fire
Answer: D
71.A type
A.
B.
C.
D.
of fire, of flammable liquid and gasses.

class A
Class B
Class C
Class D
Answer: B
72.A mass movement in a fluid, an example a liquid or a gas where

fluid at one temperature and density moves under the influence
of gravity at different temperatures.
A. Conduction
B. Convection
C. Radiation
D. Combustion
Answer: B
73.The temperature at which a liquid is transformed or converted to
vapor.
A. burning point
B. melting point
C. freezing point
D. boiling point
Answer: B
74.The first action taken by a traffic unit to escape from a
collision course or to avoid hazard.
A. point of no return
B. point of no escape
C. start of evasive action
D. final position
Answer: C
75.The movement of vehicles, and pedestrians in a road or highway.
A. Traffic
B. Flight
C.
D.
Trip
Journey
Answer: A
76.A method of locating a spot in the area by measurements from

two or more reference points.
A. traffic report
B. spot report
C . triangulation
D. accident investigation
Answer: C
77.The force that tends to pull all objects to the center of the
earth.
A. Inertia
B. Friction
C. Energy
D. Gravity
Answer: D
78.Any motor vehicle accident that results in no death, but only
injuries to one or more persons.
A. Fatal
B. Chronic
C. Non fatal
D. Injurious
Answer: B
79.The Traffic and Land Transportation Code of the Philippines
A. RA 7160
B. RA 8551
C. RA 6425
D. RA 4136
Answer: D
80.An occurrence in a sequence of events, which usually produces
unintended injury, death or property damage.

A. traffic incidents
B. traffic accidents
C. traffic hazards
D. traffic events
Answer: B
81.Any motor vehicle accident occurring on a traffic way.
A. non motor vehicle traffic accident
B. non motor vehicle non-traffic accident
C. motor vehicle non-traffic accident
D. motor vehicle traffic accident
Answer: D
82.An order wherein a violator is commanded to appear in court,
but without detaining him.
A. traffic citation
B. traffic request
C. traffic warrant
D. D. traffic violation
Answer: A
83.The first accidental touching of an object collision course
or otherwise avoid a hazard.
A. primary contact
B. secondary contact
C. disengagement
D. initial contact
Answer: D
84.The following are the three Es of Traffic Management and
Operation except one:
A. Engineering
B. Education
C. Enforcement
D. Evaluation
Answer: D
85.The Comprehensive Dangerous Drugs Act of 2002.

A. RA 9870
B. RA 9165
C. RA 1017
D. RA 6195
Answer: B
86.Drugs that produce perceptual alteration, varying emotional
change, thought disruption and ego distortion. They are called
psychedelics.
A. Tranquillizers
B. Hallucinogens
C. Stimulants
D. Depressants
Answer: B
87.Drugs which produce insensibility, stupor, melancholy or
dullness of the mind with delusions.
A. Stimulants
B. Narcotics
C. Depressants
D. Hallucinogens
Answer: B
88.The practice or profession of having sexual intercourse for
money or profit.
A. Gynecology
B. Prostitution
C. White Slavery
D. Sex Trade
Answer: B
89.The scientific name of Indian hemp plant.
A.
B.
C.
D.
cannabis sativa L
Papaversomniforum
deoxyribonucleic acid
methamphetamine HCl
Answer: A
90.The original components of heroin and morphine.

A. Codeine
B. Caffeine
C. Opium
D. Methamphetamine
Answer: C
91.An inter department agency that enforce and carry out the law
against illegal drugs.
A. Philippine Drug Enforcement Agency
B. Bureau of Foods and Drugs
C. Dangerous Drug Board
D. Food and Drug Administration
Answer: A
92.A harmful conduct or habit, the indulgence of which leads to
depravity, wickedness and corruption of the mind and body.
A. Vice
B. Abuse
C. Addiction
D. Virtue
Answer: A
93.The most common form of stimulant.
A. Heroin
B. Codeine
C. Morphine
D. Shabu
Answer: D
94.It is chemically known as methamphetamine hydro chloride.

A. Heroin
B. Codeine
C. Morphine
D. None of these
Answer: D
95.A derivative of opium which is used a cough reliever.
A. Codeine
B. Heroin
C. Morphine
D. Caffeine
Answer: A
96.Any part of the plant of the papaversomniferum, including the
seeds.
A. opium poppy
B. marijuana
C. caffeine components
D. codeine
Answer: A
97.Another term for psychological drug addiction.
A. drug habituation
B. drug net consciousness
C. drug pushing
D. drug dependence
Answer: D
98.Commercially produced drugs that can be legally sold or
dispensed only by a physicians order.
A. illegal drugs
B. prohibited drugs
C. regulated drugs
D. prescription drugs
Answer: D
99.Any chemical substance that by virtue of its chemical nature

alters the structure and functioning of living organism.
A. Alcohol
B. Poison
C. Drug
D. Vice
Answer: C
100.It is, in most cases, the initial step for obtaining information
to determine the origin and cause of fire.
A. Evidence collection
B. laboratory examination of evidence
C. interview witnesses
D. interrogation of suspects
Answer: C
1. C
2. D
3. D
4. D
5. D
6. A
7. C
8. A
9. A
10. A
11. D
12. D
13. D
14. B
26.
27.
28.
29.
30.
31.
32.
33.
34.
35.
36.
37.
38.
39.
A
A
D
B
A
A
A
C
A
C
B
D
C
C
15. C
16. C
17. D
18. D
19. D
20. B
21. A
22. A
23. A
24. B
25. B
40.
41.
42.
43.
44.
45.
46.
47.
48.
49.
50.
B
D
A
C
B
C
B
C
D
C
D
Criminal Jurisprudence Review Questions
1. Berto, with evident premeditation and treachery killed his father.

What was the crime committed?
A. Murder
B. Parricide
C. Homicide
D. Qualified Homicide
Answer: B
2. PO3 Bagsik entered the dwelling of Totoy against the latters will
on suspicion that Bitoy keep unlicensed firearms
in his home. What was the crime committed by PO3 Bagsik?
A. Trespass to Dwelling
B. Violation of Domicile
C. Usurpation Of Authority
D. Forcible Trespassing
Answer: B
3. Charlie and Lea had been married for more than 6 months.They
live together with the children of Lea from her first husband.
Charlie had sexual relation with Jane, the 14 year old daughter of
Lea.Jane loves Charlie very much.What was the crime committed
by Charlie?
A. Simple Seduction
B. Qualified Seduction
C. Consented Abduction
D. Rape
Answer: B
4. Prof. Jose gave a failing grade to one of his students, Lito. When
the two met the following day, Lito slapped
Prof. Jose on the face. What was the crime committed by Lito?
A. Corruption of Public Officials
B. Direct Assault
C. Slight Physical Injuries
D. Grave Coercion
Answer: B
5. A warrant of arrest was issued against Fred for the killing of his
parents. When PO2 Tapang tried to arrest him,Fred gave him 1
million pesos to set him free. PO2 Tapang refrained in arresting
Fred. What was the crime committed by PO2 Tapang?
A. Indirect Bribery
B. Direct Bribery
C. Corruption of Public Officials
D. Qualified Bribery
Answer: D
6. Which of the following is the exemption to the hearsy rule made
under the consciousness of an impending death?
A. Parol Evidence
B. Ante mortem statement
C. Suicide note
D. Dead man statute
Answer: D
7. Factum probans means __.
A. preponderance of evidence
B. ultimate fact
C. evidentiary fact
D. sufficiency of evidence
Answer: C
8. It refers to family history or descent transmitted from one

generation to another.
A. inheritance
B. heritage
C. pedigree
D. culture
Answer: C
9. The authority of the court to take cognizance of the case in the
first instance.
A. Appellate Jurisdiction
B. General Jurisdiction
C. Original Jurisdiction
D. Exclusive Jurisdiction
Answer: C
10.A person designated by the court to assist destitute litigants.
A. Counsel de officio
B. Attorney on record
C. Attorney at law
D. Special counsel
11. Which of the following is not covered by the Rules on Summary
Procedure?
A. Violation of rental laws
B. Violation of traffic laws
C. The penalty is more than six months of imprisonment
Answer: A
D.
The penalty does not exceed six months imprisonment

Answer: C
12. It refers to a territorial unit where the power of the court is to

be exercised.
A. jurisdiction
B. jurisprudence
C. venue
D. bench
Answer: C
13.The Anti-Bouncing Check Law.
A. RA 6425
B. RA 8353
C. BP.22
D. RA 6975
14. The taking of another persons personal property, with intent to
gain, by means of force and intimidation.
A. qualified theft
B. robbery
C. theft
D. malicious mischief
Answer: B
15. Felony committed when a person compels another by means of
force, violence or intimidation to do something against his will,
Answer: C
whether right or wrong.

A. grave threat
B. grave coercion
C. direct assault
D. slander by deed
Answer: B
16. These are persons having no apparent means of subsistence but
have the physical ability to work and neglect to apply himself or
herself to lawful calling.
A. Pimps
B. prostitutes
C. gang members
D. vagrants
Answer: D
17. A medley of discordant voices, a mock serenade of discordant
noises designed to annoy and insult.
A. Tumultuous
B. charivari
C. sedition
D. scandal
Answer: B
18. The unauthorized act of a public officer who compels another
person to change his residence.
A. violation of domicile
B.
C.
D.
arbitrary detention
expulsion
direct assault
Answer: C
19. The deprivation of a private person of the liberty of another

person without legal grounds.
A. illegal detention
B. arbitrary detention
C. forcible abduction
D. forcible detention
Answer: A
20. An offense committed by a married woman through carnal
knowledge with a man not her husband who knows her to be
married, although the marriage can be later declared void.
A. concubinage
B. bigamy
C. adultery
D. immorality
Answer: C
21. Age of
A.
B.
C.
D.
absolute irresponsibility in the commission of a crime.

15-18 years old
18-70 years old
9 years old and below
between 9 and 15 years old
Answer: C
22. Those who, not being principals cooperate in the execution of
the offense by previous or simultaneous acts.
A. Accomplices
B. Suspects
C. principal actors
D. accessories
Answer: A
23. The loss or forfeiture of the right of the government to execute
the final sentence after the lapse of a certaintime fixed by law.
A. prescription of crime
B. prescription of prosecution
C. prescription of judgement
D. prescription of penalty
Answer: D
24. A kind of executive clemency whereby the execution of penalty
is suspended.
A. Pardon
B. commutation
C. amnesty
D. reprieve
Answer: D
25. Infractions of mere rules of convenience designed to secure a
more orderly regulation of the affairs of the society.

A. mala prohibita
B. mala in se
C. private crimes
D. public crimes
Answer: A
26. Felony committed by a public officer who agrees to commit an
act in consideration of a gift and this act is connected with the
discharge of his public duties.
A. qualified bribery
B. direct bribery
C. estafa
D. indirect bribery
Answer: B
27. The willful and corrupt assertion
of falsehood under oath of
affirmation, administered by authority of law on a material matter.
A. libel
B. falsification
C. perjury
D. slander
Answer: C
28. Deliberate planning of act before execution.
A. Treachery
B. evident premeditation
C.
D.
ignominy
cruelty
Answer: B
29. Whenever more than 3 armed malefactors shall have acted

together in the commission of a crime.
A. gang
B. conspiracy
C. band
D. piracy
Answer: C
30. The failure to perform a positive duty which one is bound to.
A. Negligence
B. imprudence
C. omission
D. act
Answer: C
31. Ways and means are employed for the purpose of trapping and
capturing the law breaker in the execution of his criminal plan.
A. Misfeasance
B. entrapment
C. inducement
D. instigation
Answer: B
32. Those where the act committed is a crime but for reasons of
public policy and sentiment there is no penalty imposed.
A. impossible crimes
B. aggravating circumstances
C. absolutory causes
D. Complex Crimes
Answer: C
33. One of
A.
B.
C.
D.
the following is an alternative circumstance.

Insanity
intoxication
passion or obfuscation
evident premeditation
Answer: B
34. If the accused refuse to plead, or make conditional plea of guilty,

what shall be entered for him?
A. a plea of not guilty
B. a plea of guilty
C. a plea of mercy
D. a plea of surrender
Answer: A
35. At what time may the accused move to quash the complaint or
information?
A. at any time before his arrest
B. only after entering his plea
C.
D.
any time before entering his plea

Monday morning
Answer: C
36. The process whereby the accused and the prosecutor in a

criminal case work out a mutually satisfactory
disposition on the case subject to court approval.
A. Arraignment
B. plea bargaining
C. preliminary investigation
D. trial
Answer: B
37. The security given for the release of a person in custody,
furnished by him or a bondsman, conditioned upon his
appearance before any court as required under the conditions
specified by law.
A. Subpoena
B. recognizance
C. bail
D. warrant
Answer: C
38. The examination before a competent tribunal, according to the
laws of the land, of the acts in issue in a case, for the purpose
of determining such issue.
A. Trial
B.
C.
D.
Arraignment
pre-trial
judgment
Answer: A
39. The adjudication by the court that the accused is guilty or is not
guilty of the offense charged, and the imposition of the proper
penalty and
A. trial
B. Pre-trial
C. Arraignment
D. Judgment
Answer: D
40. It is an inquiry or proceeding for the purpose of determining
whether there is sufficient ground to engender a well founded
belief that an offense has been committed and the offender is
probably guilty thereof and should be held for trial.
A. pre-trial
B. arraignment
C. preliminary investigation
D. plea bargaining
Answer: C
41. It is evidence of the same kind and to the same state of facts.
A. secondary evidence
B. prima facie evidence
C.
D.
corroborative evidence
best evidence
Answer: C
42. It is that which, standing alone, unexplained or uncontradicted is

sufficient to maintain the proposition affirmed.
A. secondary evidence
B. prima facie evidence
C. corroborative evidence
D. best evidence
Answer: B
43. A form of evidence supplied by written instruments or derived
from conventional symbols, such as letters, by
which ideas are represented on material substances.
A. documentary evidence
B. testimonial evidence
C. material evidence
D. real evidence
Answer: A
44. When the witness states that he did not see or know the
occurrence of a fact.
A. positive evidence
B. corroborative evidence
C. secondary evidence
D. negative evidence
Answer: D
45. Personal property that can be subjects for search and seizure.
A. used or intended to be used as means in committing an
offense
B. stolen or embezzled and other proceeds or fruits of the
offense
C. subject of the offense
D. all of the above
Answer: D
46. All persons who can perceive and perceiving, can make known
their perception to others.
A. Suspects
B. witnesses
C. victims
D. informers
Answer: B
47. The unlawful destruction or the bringing forth prematurely, of
human fetus before the natural time of birth which results in
death.
A. abortion
B. infanticide
C. murder
D. parricide
Answer: A
48. Felony committed when a person is killed or wounded during the

confusion attendant to a quarrel among several persons not
organized into groups and the parties responsible cannot be
ascertained.
A. alarm and scandal
B. mysterious homicide
C. death under exceptional circumstances
D. tumultuous affray
Answer: D
49. A question which arises in a case the resolution of which is the
logical antecedent of the issue involved in said case and the
cognizance of which pertains to another tribunal.
A. legal question
B. juridical question
D. judicial question
Answer: C
50. The RPC was based on the
A. Spanish penal code
B. English penal code
C. American penal code
D. Japanese penal code
Answer: A
51. An act or omission which is a result of a misapprehension of facts

that is voluntary but not intentional.
A. impossible crime
B. mistake of facts
C. accidental crime
D. complex crime
Answer: B
52. Infanticide is committed by killing a child not more than.
A. 36 hours
B. 24 hours
C. 48 hours
D. 72 hours
Answer: D
53. Ignorance of the law excuses no one from compliance therewith.
A. ignorantialegis non excusat
B. parenspatriae
C. res ipsa loquitur
D. duralexsedlex
Answer: A
54. An act which would be an offense against persons or property if
it was not for the inherent impossibility of its accomplishment.
A. compound crime
B. impossible crime
C. complex crime
D. accidental crime
Answer: B
55. The law which reimposed the death penalty.
A. RA 5425
B. RA 8553
C. RA 7659
D. RA 8551
Answer: C
56. One who is deprived completely of reason or discernment and
freedom of the will at the time of the commission of the crime.
A. discernment
B. insanity
C. epilepsy
D. imbecility
Answer: D
57. The quality by which an act may be subscribed to a person as its
owner or author
A. responsibility
B. duty
C. guilt
D. imputability
Answer: D
58. Something that happen outside the sway of our will, and
although it comes about through some acts of our will,
lies beyond the bound s of humanly foreseeable consequences.
A.
B.
C.
D.
fortuitous event
fate
accident
destiny
Answer: C
59. A sworn written statement charging a person with an

offense,subscribed by the offended party, any peace
officer or other public officer charged with the enforcement of
the law violated.
A. subpoena
B. information
C. complaint
D. writ
Answer: C
60. This right of the accused is founded on the principle of justice
and is intended not to protect the guilty but to prevent as far as
human agencies can the conviction of an innocent person.
A. right to due process of law
B. presumption of innocence
C. right to remain silent
D. right against self-incrimination
Answer: B
61. Known in other countries as the body of principles,
practices,usages and rules of action which are not
recognized in our country.

A. penal laws
B. special laws
C. common laws
D. statutory laws
Answer: C
62. Circumstances wherein there is an absence in the agent of the
crime any of all the conditions that would make
an act voluntary and hence, though there is no criminal liability
there is civil liability.
A. Exempting
B. alternative
C. justifying
D. aggravating
Answer: A
63. Circumstances wherein the acts of the person are in accordance
with the law, and hence, he incurs no criminal and civil liability.
A. exempting
B. alternative
C. justifying
D. aggravating
Answer: C
64. When the offender enjoys and delights in making his victim
suffers slowly and gradually, causing him unnecessary physical
pain in
A.
B.
C.
D.
the consummation of the criminal act.

Ignominy
cruelty
treachery
masochism
Answer: B
65. One, who at the time of his trial for one crime shall have been
previously convicted by final judgment of another crime embraced
in the same title of the Revised Penal Code.
A. Recidivism
B. habitual delinquency
C. reiteracion
D. quasi-recidivism
Answer: A
66. Alevosia means
A. Craft
B. treachery
C. evident premeditation
D. cruelty
Answer: B
67. The law hears before it condemns, proceeds upon inquiry and
render judgment after a fair trial.
A. ex post facto law
B. equal protection of the law
C.
D.
rule of law
due process of law
Answer: D
68. A person if within a period of 10 years from the date of his

release or last conviction of the crime of serious or less serious
physical injuries, robbery, theft, estafa or falsification, he is
found guilty of any of the said crimes a third time or oftener.
A. Recidivist
B. quasi-recidivist
C. habitual delinquent
D. hardened criminal
Answer: C
69. A kind
A.
B.
C.
D.
of evidence which cannot be rebutted or overcome.

Primary
Best
Secondary
Conclusive
Answer: D
70. A kind
A.
B.
C.
D.
of evidence which cannot be rebutted or overcome.

Primary
Best
Secondary
Conclusive
Answer: D
71. These questions suggest to the witness the answers to which an

examining party requires.
A. leading
B. misleading
C. stupid
D. hearsay
Answer: A
72. A method fixed by law for the apprehension and prosecution of
persons alleged to have committed a crime, and
or their punishment in case of conviction
A. Criminal Law
B. Criminal Evidence
C. Criminal Procedure
D. Criminal Jurisprudence
Answer: C
73. The period of prescription of crimes punishable by death.
A. 20 years
B. 15 years
C. 10 years
D. 40 years
Answer: A
74. Persons who take direct part in the execution of a crime.
A. Accomplices
B.
C.
D.
Accessories
Instigators
Principals
Answer: D
75. A crime against honor which is committed by performing any act

which casts dishonor, discredit, or contempt upon another
person.
A. libel
B. slander by deed
C. incriminating innocent person
D. intriguing against honor
Answer: B
76. The improper performance of some act which might lawfully be
done.
A. misfeasance
B. malfeasance
C. nonfeasance
D. dereliction
Answer: B
77. A sworn statement in writing, made upon oath before an
authorized magistrate or officer.
A. subpoena
B. writ
C. warrant
D.
affidavit
Answer: D
78. Any other name which a person publicly applies to himself

without authority of law.
A. alias
B. common name
C. fictitious name
D. screen name
Answer: C
79. A special aggravating circumstance where a person, after having
been convicted by final judgment, shall commit a new felony
before beginning to serve such sentence, or while serving
the same.
A. quasi-recidivism
B. recidivism
C. reiteracion
D. charivari
Answer: A
80. Which
A.
B.
C.
D.
of the following is not a person in authority?

Municipal mayor
Private School Teacher
Police Officer
Municipal Councilor
Answer: C
81. In its general sense, it is the raising of commotions or

disturbances in the State.
A. Sedition
B. Rebellion
C. Treason
D. Coup d etat
Answer: A
82. The length of validity of a search warrant from its date.
A. 30 days
B. 15 days
C. 10 days
D. 60 days
Answer: C
83. The detention of a person without legal grounds by a public
officer or employee.
A. illegal detention
B. arbitrary detention
C. compulsory detention
D. unauthorized detention
Answer: B
84. A breach of allegiance to a government, committed by a person
who owes allegiance to it.
A. treason
B.
C.
D.
espionage
rebellion
coup d etat
Answer: A
85. A building or structure, exclusively used for rest and comfort.

A. sanctuary
B. prison
C. jail
D. dwelling
Answer: D
86. The mental capacity to understand the difference between right
and wrong.
A. treachery
B. premeditation
C. recidivism
D. discernment
Answer: D
87. Conspiracy to commit this felony is punishable under the law.
A. Estafa
B. Murder
C. Rebellion
D. Rape
Answer: C
88. It means that the resulting injury is greater than that which is
intended.
A. Aberratio ictus
B. Error in personae
C. Dura LexSedlex
D. PraeterIntentionem
Answer: D
89. It means mistake in the blow.
A. Aberratio Ictus
B. Error in Personae
C. Dura lexsedlex
D. PraeterIntentionem
Answer: A
90. A stage of execution when all the elements necessary for its
execution and accomplishment are present.
A. Attempted
B. Frustrated
C. Consummated
D. Accomplished
answer:
C
91. An act or omission which is the result of a misapprehension of
facts that is voluntary but not intentional.
A. Absolutory Cause
B. Mistake of facts
C.
D.
Conspiracy
Felony
Answer: B
92. Crimes
A.
B.
C.
D.
that have three stages of execution.

Material
Formal
Seasonal
Continuing
Answer: A
93. Felonies where the acts or omissions of the offender are

malicious.
A. Culpable
B. Intentional
C. Deliberate
D. Inculpable
Answer: B
94. It indicates deficiency of perception.
A. Negligence
B. Diligence
C. Imprudence
D. Inference
Answer: A
95. Acts and omissions punishable by special penal laws.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Offenses
Misdemeanors
Felonies
Ordinances
Answer:
A
96. A character of Criminal Law, making it binding upon all persons
who live or sojourn in the Philippines.
A. General
B. Territorial
C. Prospective
D. Retroactive
Answer: A
97. A legislative act which inflicts punishment without judicial trial.
A. Bill of Attainder
B. Bill of Rights
C. Ex Post Facto Law
D. Penal Law
Answer: A
98. The taking of a person into custody in order that he may be
bound to answer for the commission of an offense.
A. Search
B. Seizure
C. Arrest
D. Detention
Answer: C
99. Pedro stole the cow of Juan. What was the crime committed?
A. Robbery
B. Farm Theft
C. Qualified Theft
D. SimpleTheft
Answer: C
100.Pedro, a 19 year old man had sexual intercourse with her 11 year
old girlfriend without threat, force or intimidation. What was
the crime committed?
A. Child rape
B. Qualified Rape
C. Statutory Rape
D. None of these
Crime Detection Review Questions
1. An extra judicial confession obtained from a suspect is admissible

in a court of law if it was made in the presence of a counsel
of his own choice and must be in
A. the presence of a fiscal
B. the presence of a police investigator
C. writing
D. front of a judge
2. Fiscals and Prosecutors are under the control and supervision
of the
A.National Bureau of Investigation
B. Department of the Interior and Local Government
C. Supreme Court
D.Department of Justice
3.The questioning of a person in a formal and systematic way and is
most often used to question criminal suspects to determine their
probable guilt or innocence.
A. Inquiry
B. Interview
C. polygraph examination
D. interrogation
4.A form of investigation in which the investigator assume a
different and unofficial identity.
A. Tailing
B. Casing
C. Espionage
D. Undercover work
5.A type of surveillance in which extreme precautions and actions
are taken in not losing the subject.

A. loose tail
B. casing
C. pony tail
D. close tail
6.A type of shadowing employed when a general impression of the
subjects habits and associates is required.
A. loose tail
B. casing
C. pony tail
D. close tail
7.A surveillance activity for the purpose of waiting the anticipated
arrival of a suspect or observing his actions from a fixed location.
A. Casing
B. Tailing
C. Stake out
D. Espionage
8.An examination of an individuals person, houses, or effects or a
building, or premises with the purpose of discovering contraband's
or personal properties connected in a crime.
A. Search
B. Raid
C. Investigation
D. Seizure
9.A kind of evidence that tends to prove additional evidence of a
different character to the same point.
A. Corroborative evidence
B.
C.
D.
Circumstantial evidence
Direct evidence
Real evidence
10.The process of bringing together in a logical manner all evidence

collected during the investigation and present it to the
prosecutor.
A. case preparation
C. crime prevention
D. public service
11.Ways and means are resorted for the purpose of trapping and
capturing the law breaker during the execution of a criminal act.
A. Instigation
B. Inducement
C. Buy bust operation
D. Entrapment
12.A special qualification for an undercover agent.
A. excellent built
B. excellent eyesight
C. excellent looks
D. excellent memory
13.The discreet observation of places, persons and vehicles for the
purpose of obtaining information concerning the identities or
activities of suspects.
A. close observation
B. espionage
C. tailing
D.
surveillance
14. The questioning of a person by law enforcement officers after

that person has been taken into custody.
A. preliminary investigation
B. interrogation
C. custodial investigation
D. cross examination
15.As a general rule, a warrant of arrest can be served at
A. day time
B. night time
C. any day and at any time of the day or night
D. weekdays
16.Measures through which police seek to detect crimes, or
attempts to be present when they are committed, through the
use of the undercover agents, electronic devices for wiretapping
or bugging, and stakeouts.
A. preventive measures
B. countermeasures
C. pro-active measures
D. tape measures
17.A police activity directed toward the identification and
apprehension of alleged criminals and the accumulation,
preservation, and presentation of evidence regarding their
alleged crimes.
A. police patrol
B. police intelligence
C. Criminal procedure
D. Criminal investigation
18.An extension or continuation of the preliminary investigation.
A. initial investigation
B.custodial investigation
C.secondary investigation
D.follow-up investigation
19.To obtain admission and confession of guilt is the primary purpose
of
A. Interview
B. Surveillance
C. Investigation
D.Interrogation
20.Such facts and circumstances that would lead a reasonably
discreet and prudent man to believe that an offense has been
committed and that the object sought in connection with the
offense are in the place sought to be searched.
A. prima facie evidence
B. probable cause
D.res ipsa loquitur
21.A search warrant shall be valid for _____ days from its date.
Thereafter, it shall be void.
A. 10
B. 15
C. 30
D. 45
22.It means that a specific crime was committed at a specified time,

date and place, and that the person named in his report
committed the crime.
A. corpus delicti
B. sufficiency of evidence
C. stare decisis
D. parenspatriae
23.Police seek to prevent crime by being present in places where
crimes might be committed and by alerting citizens to refrain from
practices that make them or their property vulnerable.
A. opportunity denial
C. criminal investigation
D. police intelligence
24.A statement of the suspect directly acknowledging his guilt.
A. Admission
B. Confession
C. Deposition
D. Accusation
25.It may be a direct acknowledgement of the truth of the guilty
fact as charge or of some essential part of the commission of the
criminal act itself.
A. Admission
B. Confession
C. Deposition
D. Accusation
26.It may be a self-incriminatory statement by the subject falling
short of an acknowledgement of guilt.

A. Admission
B. Confession
C. Deposition
D. Accusation
27.The simplest type of interview which concerns with the gathering
of information regarding the personal circumstances of a
person who is the subject of investigation.
A. background interview
B. personal interview
C. intimate interview
D. pre-game interview
28.It means method of operation.
A. corpus delicti
B. parenspatriae
C. stare decisis
D. modus operandi
29.It is one which induces the criminal to act and need not be
shown in order to obtain conviction.
A. Intent
B. Motive
C. Opportunity
D. Inducement
30.The three tools in criminal investigation, whereby their
application varies in proportion on their necessity to establish
the guilt of the accused in a criminal case.
A. information, interrogation, instrumentation
B.
C.
D.
detection, apprehension, conviction

inquiry, observation, conclusion
magnifying glass, pencil, tape measure
31.The simple questioning of a person who is cooperating in the

investigation.
A. Interview
B. Inquiry
C. Interrogation
D. Instrumentation
32.It involves a number of persons who might have handled
evidence
between the time of the commission of the alleged
offense and the disposition of the case, should be kept to
a minimum.
A.chain of command
B.chain of custody
C.evidence tracking
D.tracing evidence
33.A kind of evidence which may link the suspect to the crime scene
or offense. Examples are fingerprints, impressions, blood etc.
B. associative evidence
C. tracing evidence
D. factual evidence
34.Articles and materials which are found in connection with an
investigation and which help in establishing the identity of the
perpetrator or the circumstances under which the crime was
committed or which in general, assist in the prosecution of the
criminal.
B. documentary evidence
C. tracing evidence
D. testimonial evidence
35.The following are different techniques in interrogation except
one:
A. sympathetic approach
B. emotional appeal
C. financial assistance
D. friendliness
36.This may be applicable to a crime scene which is approximately
circular or oval. The searchers gather at the center and proceed
outward along radii or spokes.
A. strip method
B. wheel method
C. spiral method
D. zone method
37.The area to be searched is divided into quadrants and each
searcher is assigned to one quadrant.
A. strip method
B. wheel method
C. spiral method
D. zone method
38.The searchers follow each other in the path of a crime scene
beginning in the outside and circling around a central point.
A. strip method
B. wheel method
C.spiral method
D.zone method
39.A kind of gathering information whereby a subject is being
followed.
A. Convoy
B. Caravan
C. Tailing
D. Surveillance
40.Another term for tailing.
A.Impersonating
B.Backing
C.Supporting
D.Shadowing
41.A person who gives necessary information to the investigator.
He may give the information openly and even offer to be a
witness or he may inform the investigator surreptitiously and
request to remain anonymous.
A. Witness
B. Expert witness
C. Hostile witness
D. Informant
42.The use of an equipment or tool to listen and record discreetly
conversations of other people.
A. Bugging
B. Dubbing
C. Mimicking
D. Tapping
43.The questioning of persons not suspected of being involved in a
crime,but who knows about the crime or individuals involved in it.
A. Interrogation
B. rumor mongering
C. interview
D. inquiry
44.An objective of criminal investigation.
A. determine the motive
B. identify criminals
C. rehabilitate criminals
D. prevent crimes
45.A term used to describe a transition which occur in the
development of a fire, when, for example, most of all the
combustible surfaces within a room are heated above their
ignition temperature at the same time.
A. Intensity
B. Ignition
C. Flash over
D. Starter
46.A term of the start of the combustion, its detailed process of
a solid is very complicated, since the proportion of different
flammable vapors varies from one material to another and
contact with oxygen must take place before combustion can
begin.
A. Intensity
B.
C.
D.
Ignition
Flash over
Starter
47.The term describes the transfer of heat through a gas or vacuum

in a similar way to that of light.
A. Ignition
B. Convection
C. Radiation
D. Conduction
48.The transfer of heat within a solid material from hotter to
cooler parts.
A. Ignition
B. Convection
C. Radiation
D. Conduction
49.The greatest concern of the firemen at the fire/crime scene is to
A. interview witnesses
B. view the site of the crime
C. preserve the fire/crime scene
D. opportunity in the fire/crime scene
50.Most malicious fires are set by individuals secretly; it is
either set for revenge or self aggrandizing; or set by psychotic
fire setter, or for sexual gratification.
A. group fire setter
B. arson for profit
C. fire starter
D. solitary fire setter
51.The primary course of action in case of a fire.

A. pack up and flee
B. run for your life
C. call an ambulance
D. raise the alarm
Answer: D
52.The main product of the combustion of carbon. It is not
poisonous but is an asphyxia which lowers the proportion of
oxygen available for breathing.
A. carbon oxide
B. carbon monoxide
C. carbon paper
D. carbon dioxide
Answer: D
53.A normal product of combustion, and is poisonous, especially
when the air supply to the fire is restricted.
A. carbon oxide
B. carbon monoxide
C. carbon paper
D. carbon dioxide
Answer: B
54.The fire resisting property of structural elements and the
behavior of a building material in a fire, it is used to predict
how long it will resist the effect of a fire before it fails.
A. fire resistance
B. fire duration
C. fire proof
D. fire strength
Answer: A
55.A type of fire that is the result of the combustion of certain
metals
A.
B.
C.
D.
in finely divided forms; magnesium, potassium, zinc, etc.

class A
class B
class C
class D
Answer: D
56.A type of fire which results from burning of wood, paper,

textiles, and other carbonaceous materials.Extinguishment of
this fire is by quenching and cooling.
A. class A
B. class B
C. class C
D. class D
Answer: A
57.The following are components of fire except one:
A. Gas
B. Fuel
C. Oxygen
D. Heat
Answer: A
58.It is observed in structural fires and can be an indicator of
the fire travel and point of origin.
A. Charring
B. Alligatoring
C. V pattern
D. Pour pattern
Answer: A
59.A pattern or network of fine, irregular lines in glass and wood.
A. Crazing
B. Spalling
C. Light bulbs
D.
Charring
Answer: A
60.A tool employed by an arsonist to delay the start of the fire

and allow him to establish an alibi.
A. Accelerants
B. delaying tactic
C. timing device
D. stopper
Answer: C
61.It can be readily identified by their distinctive odors, and the
most common examples are gasoline, turpentine and kerosene.
A. Accelerants
B. Trailers
C. timing device
D. Stopper
Answer: A
62.This catalytic combustion device is the most common means
employed to detect flammable vapors.
A. Accelerant
B. Sniffer
C. timing device
D. stopper
Answer: B
63.The irresistible impulse or compulsion to start a fire and
experience gratification and satisfaction from it.
A. fire starter syndrome
B. pyrotechnic disease
C. pyromania
D. pyrophobia
Answer: C
64.It is known as the Fire Code of the Philippines.

A. PD 1108
B. PD 1017
C. PD 1081
D. PD 1185
Answer: D
65.Any material or mixture consisting of a fuel and oxidizer used
to set off explosives.
A. blasting agent
B. blasting cap
C. gun powder
D. explosive primer
Answer: A
66.These are description of materials or compounds that are
easily set on fire except one:
A. Combustible
B. Corrosive
C. Flammable
D. Inflammable
Answer: B
67.Any material having a flash point at or above 37.80 degree
Celsius or 100 degree Fahrenheit.
B. flammable liquid
D. corrosive liquid
Answer: A
68.Any liquid that causes fire when in contact with organic matter.
B. flammable liquid
D.
corrosive liquid
Answer: A
69.An extremely hot luminous bridge formed by the passage of an

electric current across the space between two conductors.
A. electrical arc
B. damper
C. duct system
D. ember
Answer: A
70.The active principle of burning, characterized by the heat
and light combustion.
A. explosion
B. arson
C. combustion
D. fire
Answer: D
71.A type
A.
B.
C.
D.
of fire, of flammable liquid and gasses.

class A
Class B
Class C
Class D
Answer: B
72.A mass movement in a fluid, an example a liquid or a gas where

fluid at one temperature and density moves under the influence
of gravity at different temperatures.
A. Conduction
B. Convection
C. Radiation
D. Combustion
Answer: B
73.The temperature at which a liquid is transformed or converted to
vapor.
A. burning point
B. melting point
C. freezing point
D. boiling point
Answer: B
74.The first action taken by a traffic unit to escape from a

collision course or to avoid hazard.
A. point of no return
B. point of no escape
C. start of evasive action
D. final position
Answer: C
75.The movement of vehicles, and pedestrians in a road or highway.
A. Traffic
B. Flight
C. Trip
D. Journey
Answer: A
76.A method of locating a spot in the area by measurements from
two or more reference points.
A. traffic report
B. spot report
C . triangulation
D. accident investigation
Answer: C
77.The force that tends to pull all objects to the center of the
earth.
A. Inertia
B. Friction
C. Energy
D.
Gravity
Answer: D
78.Any motor vehicle accident that results in no death, but only

injuries to one or more persons.
A. Fatal
B. Chronic
C. Non fatal
D. Injurious
Answer: B
79.The Traffic and Land Transportation Code of the Philippines
A. RA 7160
B. RA 8551
C. RA 6425
D. RA 4136
Answer: D
80.An occurrence in a sequence of events, which usually produces
unintended injury, death or property damage.
A. traffic incidents
B. traffic accidents
C. traffic hazards
D. traffic events
Answer: B
81.Any motor vehicle accident occurring on a traffic way.
A. non motor vehicle traffic accident
B. non motor vehicle non-traffic accident
C. motor vehicle non-traffic accident
D. motor vehicle traffic accident
Answer: D
82.An order wherein a violator is commanded to appear in court,
but without detaining him.
A. traffic citation
B. traffic request
C. traffic warrant
D. D. traffic violation
Answer: A
83.The first accidental touching of an object collision course

or otherwise avoid a hazard.
A. primary contact
B. secondary contact
C. disengagement
D. initial contact
Answer: D
84.The following are the three Es of Traffic Management and
Operation except one:
A. Engineering
B. Education
C. Enforcement
D. Evaluation
Answer: D
85.The Comprehensive Dangerous Drugs Act of 2002.
A. RA 9870
B. RA 9165
C. RA 1017
D. RA 6195
Answer: B
86.Drugs that produce perceptual alteration, varying emotional
change, thought disruption and ego distortion. They are called
psychedelics.
A. Tranquillizers
B. Hallucinogens
C. Stimulants
D. Depressants
Answer: B
87.Drugs which produce insensibility, stupor, melancholy or

dullness of the mind with delusions.
A. Stimulants
B. Narcotics
C. Depressants
D. Hallucinogens
Answer: B
88.The practice or profession of having sexual intercourse for
money or profit.
A. Gynecology
B. Prostitution
C. White Slavery
D. Sex Trade
Answer: B
89.The scientific name of Indian hemp plant.
A. cannabis sativa L
B. Papaversomniforum
C. deoxyribonucleic acid
D. methamphetamine HCl
Answer: A
90.The original components of heroin and morphine.
A. Codeine
B. Caffeine
C. Opium
D. Methamphetamine
Answer: C
91.An inter department agency that enforce and carry out the law
against illegal drugs.
A. Philippine Drug Enforcement Agency
B. Bureau of Foods and Drugs
C.
D.
Dangerous Drug Board

Food and Drug Administration
Answer: A
92.A harmful conduct or habit, the indulgence of which leads to

depravity, wickedness and corruption of the mind and body.
A. Vice
B. Abuse
C. Addiction
D. Virtue
Answer: A
93.The most common form of stimulant.
A. Heroin
B. Codeine
C. Morphine
D. Shabu
Answer: D
94.It is chemically known as methamphetamine hydro chloride.

A. Heroin
B. Codeine
C. Morphine
D. None of these
Answer: D
95.A derivative of opium which is used a cough reliever.
A. Codeine
B. Heroin
C. Morphine
D. Caffeine
Answer: A
96.Any part of the plant of the papaversomniferum, including the
seeds.
A. opium poppy
B.
C.
D.
marijuana
caffeine components
codeine
Answer: A
97.Another term for psychological drug addiction.

A. drug habituation
B. drug net consciousness
C. drug pushing
D. drug dependence
Answer: D
98.Commercially produced drugs that can be legally sold or
dispensed only by a physicians order.
A. illegal drugs
B. prohibited drugs
C. regulated drugs
D. prescription drugs
Answer: D
99.Any chemical substance that by virtue of its chemical nature
alters the structure and functioning of living organism.
A. Alcohol
B. Poison
C. Drug
D. Vice
Answer: C
100.It is, in most cases, the initial step for obtaining information
to determine the origin and cause of fire.
A. Evidence collection
B. laboratory examination of evidence
C. interview witnesses
D. interrogation of suspects
Answer: C
1. C
2. D
3. D
4. D
5. D
6. A
7. C
8. A
9. A
10. A
11. D
12. D
13. D
14. B
15. C
16. C
17. D
18. D
19. D
20. B
21. A
22. A
23. A
24. B
25. B
26.
27.
28.
29.
30.
31.
32.
33.
34.
35.
36.
37.
38.
39.
40.
41.
42.
43.
44.
45.
46.
47.
48.
49.
50.
A
A
D
B
A
A
A
C
A
C
B
D
C
C
B
D
A
C
B
C
B
C
D
C
D
Law Enforcement Administration Review Questions
1. The amount and nature of the demands of the police service

A.Clientele
B.Purpose
C.Time
D. Process
Answer: C
2. The PNP has a program which ensures the deployment of
policemen in busy and crime prone areas. This is called
A. patrol deployment program
B. roving patrol program
C. patrol and visibility program
D.
police patrol program
Answer: C
3. All regional appointments of commissioned officers commence

with the rank of:
A. Senior Police Officer I
B. Inspector
C. Police Officer III
D. Senior Inspector
Answer: B
4. In busy and thickly populated commercial streets like those
in Divisoria, police patrol is very necessary. Since there
are several types of patrol, which of the following will you
recommend:
A. Horse patrol
B. Mobile patrol
C. Foot patrol
D. Helicopter patrol
Answer: C
5. It is the product resulting from the collection, evaluation,
analysis, and interpretation of all available information which
concerns one or more aspects of criminal activity and which is
immediately or potentially significant to police planning.
A. Investigation
B. Information
C. Data
D. intelligence
Answer: D
6. These are work programs of line divisions which related to
the nature and extent of the workload and the availability

of resources.
A. administrative plan
B. operational plan
C. strategic plan
D. tactical plan
Answer: B
7. It is the premier educational institution for the police,
fire and jail personnel.
A. Philippine Military Academy
B. Development Academy of the Philippines
C. Philippine College of Criminology
D. Philippine Public Safety College
Answer: D
8. A crew
A.
B.
C.
D.
which is assigned to a mobile car usually consist of

a driver and intelligence agent
a driver and traffic man
a driver and a recorder
a driver, recorder and supervisor
Answer: D
9. An industrial complex must establish its first line of

physical defense. It must have
A. the building itself
B. perimeter barriers
C. communication barriers
D. window barriers
Answer:B
10. All of the following are members of the Peoples Law
Enforcement Board (PLEB), EXCEPT:

A. Three (3) members chosen by the Peace and Order
Council from among the respected members of the
community.
B. Any barangay Captain of the city/municipality
concerned chosen by the association of the
Barangay Captains.
C. Any member of the Sangguniang
Panglungsod/Pambayan
D. A bar member chosen by the Integrated bar of the
Philippines (IBP)
Answer: D
11. It is the circumspect inspection of a place to determine its
suitability for a particular operational purpose.
A. Inspection
B. Surveillance
C. Survey
D. Casing
Answer: C
12. In the civil service system, merit and fitness are the primary
considerations in the
A. two-party system
B. evaluation system
C. promotional system
D. spoils system
Answer: C
13. In the de-briefing, the intelligence agent is asked to discuss
which of the following:

A. his educational profile and schools attended
B. his personal circumstances such as his age, religious
affiliation, address, etc.
C. his political inclination and/or party affiliation
D. his observations and experiences in the intelligence
Answer: D
14. It is a natural or man-made structure or physical device which
is capable of restricting, determine, or delaying illegal access to
an installation.
A. alarm
B. wall
C. barrier
D. hazard
Answer: C
15. What form of intelligence is involved when information is
obtained without the knowledge of the person against whom
the information or documents may be used, or if the
information is clandestinely acquired?
A. covert
B. overt
C. active
D. underground
Answer: A
16. The provincial Governor shall choose the provincial Director
from a list of ___________ eligible recommended by the
Regional Director, preferable from the same province, city,

municipality.
A. three (3)
B. five (5)
C. four (4)
D. Two (2)
Answer: A
17. Republic Act 6975 provides that on the average nationwide,
the manning levels of the PNP shall be approximately in
accordance with a police-to-population ratio of:
A. one (1) policeman for every seven hundred (700)
inhabitants.
B. one (1) policeman for every one thousand five hundred
(1,500) C.inhabitants.
C. one (1) policeman for every five hundred (500)
inhabitants.
D. one (1) policeman for every one thousand (1,000)
inhabitants.
Answer: C
18. In disaster control operations, there is a need to establish a
______where telephones or any means of communication
shall
A.ensure open lines of communication.
B.command post
C.operations center
D.field room
Answer:B
19. Registration of a security agency must be done at the______.

A.Securities and Exchange Commission
B.National Police Commission
C.Department of National Defense
D.PNP Criminal Investigation Group
Answer:D
20. The cheapest form of police patrol.
A. Bicycle Patrol
B. Foot Patrol
C. Motorcycle Patrol
D. Helicopter Patrol
Answer: B
21. The budget is a _________________ in terms of expenditure
requirements.
A.tactical plan
B.financial plan
C.work plan
D.control plan
Answer: B
22. The term used for the object of surveillance is a subject while
the investigator conducting the surveillance is:
A.rabbit
B.surveillant
C.traffic enforcement
D.patrol
Answer: A
23. It is a police function which serves as the backbone of the
police service. In all types of police stations, there is a specific
unit assigned to undertake this function in view of its

importance.
A.vice control
B.criminal investigation
C.traffic management
D.patrol
Answer: D
24. It is the weakest link in security chain.
A.managers
B.Barriers
C.Personnel
D.inspections
Answer:
25. Which of the following is considered as the most important

factor in formulating an effective patrol strategy?
A.training of station commander
B.adequacy of resources of the police station
C.rank of the patrol commander
D.salary rates of police personnel
Answer: B
26. Who among the following have summary disciplinary powers
over errant police members?
A.District Director
B.Provincial Director
C.Chief of Police
D.Chief, PNP
Answer: D
27. You are the Patrol Supervisor for the morning shift. You dont
have enough men to cover all the patrol beats. Which of the
following will you implement?
A. assign roving mobile patrol with no foot patrol
B. assign mobile patrols only in strategic places
C. maintain your patrolmen at the station and just wait
for calls for police assistance
D. assign foot patrol in congested and busy patrol beats
but assign a roving mobile patrol to cover beats which
are not covered by foot patrol
Answer: B
28. The father of organized military espionage was:
A. Akbar
B. Alexander the Great
C. Genghis Khan
D. Frederick the Great
Answer: B
29. Which of the following is the most common reason why informer
can give information to the police?
A.wants to be known to the policeman
B.monetary reward
C.as a good citizen
D.revenge
Answer: B
30. To improve delegation, the following must be done, EXCEPT:
A. establish objectives and standards
B. count the number of supervisor
C.
D.
require completed work

define authority and responsibility
Answer: C
31. What administrative support unit conducts identification and

evaluation of physical evidences related to crimes, with
emphasis on their medical, chemical, biological and physical
nature.
A. Logistics Service
B. Crime Laboratory
C. Communication and Electronic service
D. Finance Center
Answer: B
32. Those who are charged with the actual fulfillment of the
agencys mission are ________.
A. staff
B. supervision
C. management
D. line
Answer: D
33. When the subject identifies or obtains knowledge that the
investigation is conducting surveillance on him, the latter is:
A. cut out
B. sold out
C. burnt out
D. get out
Answer: C
34. Small alley like those in the squatters area of Tondo can be
best penetrated by the police through:

A. foot patrol
B. mobile patrol
C. highway patrol
D. helicopter patrol
Answer: A
35. Some of the instructions in foot surveillance are the following,

EXCEPT
A. stop quickly, look behind
B. drop paper, never mind what happens to the paper
C. window shop, watch reflection
D. retrace steps
Answer: B
36. On many occasions, the bulk of the most valuable information
comes from:
A. business world
B. newspaper clippings
C. an underworld informant
D. communications media
Answer: B
37. Highly qualified police applicants such as engineers, nurses and
graduates of forensic sciences can enter the police service as
officers through:
A. regular promotion
B. commissionship
C. lateral entry
D. attrition
Answer: C
38. Police Inspector Juan Dela Cruz is the Chief of Police of a

municipality. He wants his subordinates to be drawn closer to
the people in the different barangays. He should adopt which
of the following projects?
A. COPS on the blocks
B. OplanBakal
C. OplanSandugo
D. ComplanPagbabago
Answer: A
39. What should be undertaken by a Security Officer before he can
prepare a comprehensive security program for his industrial
plan?
A. security conference
B. security check
C. security survey
D. security education
Answer: C
40. This patrol method utilizes disguise, deception and lying in wait
rather than upon high-visibility patrol techniques.
A. low-visibility patrol
B. directed deterrent patrol
C. decoy patrol
D. high-visibility patrol
Answer: A
41. It enforces all traffic laws and regulations to ensure the safety
of motorists and pedestrians and attain an orderly traffic.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Civil Relations Unit

Traffic Operations Center
Traffic Management Command
Aviation Security Command
Answer: C
42. A method of collecting information wherein the investigator

merely uses his different senses.
A. observation
B. casing
C. research
D. interrogation
Answer: A
43. In stationary surveillance, the following must be observed,
EXCEPT
A. never meet subject face to face
B. avoid eye contact
C. recognize fellow agent
D. if burnt out, drop subject
Answer: C
44. Pedro is a thief who is eying at the handbag of Maria. PO1
Santos Reyes is standing a few meters from Maria.The thiefs
desire to steal is not diminished by the presence of the police
officer but the _______________ for successful theft is.
A. ambition
B. feeling
C. intention
D. opportunity
Answer: A
45. Graduates of the Philippine National Police Academy (PNPA) are

automatically appointed to the rank of:
A. Senior Superintendent
B. Inspector
C. Senior Police Officer 1
D. Superintendent
Answer: C
46. PNP in-service training programs are under the responsibility of
the:
A. PNP Directorate for Plans
B. PNP Directorate for Human Resource and Doctrine
Development
C. PNP Directorate for Personnel and Records
Management
D. PNP Directorate for Comptrollership
Answer: C
47. One way of extending the power of police observation is to get
information from persons within the vicinity.In the police work,
this is called:
A. data gathering
B. field inquiry
C. interrogation
D. interview
Answer: B
48. Dogs have an acute sense of _______________ thus, their
utilization in tracking down lost persons or illegal drugs.
A.
B.
C.
D.
smell
hearing
eating
drinking
Answer: A
49. Intelligence on _________________ makes heavy use of

geographic information because law enforcement officials must
know exact locations to interdict the flow of drugs.
A. Logistics
B. Human Cargo Trafficking
C. Narcotics Trafficking
D. Economic resources
Answer: C
50. Which of the following is most ideally suited to evacuation and
search-and-rescue duties?
A. motorcycle
B. helicopter
C. patrol car
D. bicycle
Answer: B
51. A method of collection of information wherein the investigator
tails or follows the person or vehicle.
A. research
B. undercover operation
C. casing
D. surveillance
Answer: C
52. This is a person who does detective work for hire, reward or
commission, other than members of the AFP, BJMP, provincial
guards, PNP or any law enforcement agency of the
government.
A. Secret Agent
B. Tiktik
C. Private detective
D. Undercover
Answer: C
53. The uprightness in character, soundness of moral principles,
honesty and freedom from moral delinquencies is referred to as
A. integrity
B. loyalty
C. discretion
D. moral
Answer: A
54. Going east while foot patrolling and turning right after reaching
the end of your beat and turning right after reaching the other
end of the road and again turning right until you completed
the cycle by reaching back to your origin of patrolling.What
patrol pattern have you applied?
A. clockwise
B. straightway
C. counter clockwise
D. free-wheeling
Answer: A
55. Which theory of patrol state that police visibility increases the
opportunity to apprehend criminals by soothing them and letting

them believe that their crimes will not be detected?
A. low profile theory
B. high visibility
C. theory of omnipresence
D. team policing
Answer: A
56. Without air force capability, patrol operation that covers large
park areas, grassy fields or wooded areas requires the use of
A. bike patrol
B. horse patrol
C. marine patrol
D. helicopter patrol
Answer: B
57. Which
A.
B.
C.
D.
of the following refers to the long range planning?

Intermediate
Strategic
Medium
short
Answer: B
58. The operational plan which is designed to meteveryday or

year round needs is called
A. meeting unusual needs
B. extra office
C. regular operating programs
D. special operating programs
Answer: C
59. Which
A.
B.
C.
D.
of the following is the oldest type of patrol?

horse
foot
canine
police
Answer: B
60. The act of expelling a squatter by the legal process is called:

A. demolition
B. squadron
C. eviction
D. tear down
Answer: C
61. Which
A.
B.
C.
D.
of the following is not a commissioned officer?

Inspector
senior superintendent
asst. chief
chief superintend
Answer: C
62. Which of the following words has the same meaning as the
word credibility?
A. ability
B. capacity
C. believability
D. vulnerability
Answer: C
63. Which of the following best defines the word self-reliant?
A. observation
B.
C.
D.
64. All but
A.
B.
C.
D.
crime prevention
called for service
criminal apprehension
Answer: C
one are the primarily line operation in police organization

patrol
records
investigation
traffic
Answer: C
65. Criminals can hear the sound of the helicopter coming and so
element of surprise is lost which is one of the ________
of air patrol:
A. advantages
B. features
C. disadvantages
D. import
Answer: C
66. What is the patrol used to locate prowlers, burglars hiding in
large buildings or stores, and the control of unruly crowds and
riots?
A. foot
B. horse
C. bicycle
D. dog
.
Answer: D
67. Which of the following laws established the Police Organization
under
A.
B.
C.
D.
68. Who is
A.
B.
C.
D.
69. Which
A.
B.
C.
D.
the DILG?
R.A.
5487
R.A. 8551
R.A. 1174
R.A. 6975
Answer: D
the most important officer in the police organization?

investigator
patrol officer
traffic officer
The Chief of Police
Answer: B
of the following is the oldest warning device?
trumpet
horn
radio
siren
Answer: A
70. What type of cover uses actual or true background?

A. artificial
B. multiple cover
C. natural
D. cover within a cover
Answer: C
71. What is the principle of organization suggesting that
communication should ordinarily go upward and downward
through establish channels in the hierarchy?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Chain of Command
Span of Control
Unity of Command
Delegation of Authority
Answer: A
72. What is the optional retirement for officers and new officers of
the police service?
A. 15 years
B. 25 years
C. 30 years
D. 20 years
Answer: D
73. Governors and mayors, upon having been elected and having
qualified as such,are automatically deputized as representatives
of the
A. NAPOLCOM
B. DND
C. PLEB
D. none of these
Answer: A
74. It is constitutionally and legally mandated to administer and
control the Philippine National Police.
A. DILG
B. DND
C. NAPOLCOM
D. DFA
Answer: C
75. It is the central receiving entity for any citizens complaint

against the members and officers of the PNP.
A. DILG
B. NAPOLCOM
C. PLEB
D. IAS
Answer: C
76. When we say that a commander is directly responsible for any
act or omission of his subordinates in relation to the
performance of their official duties, we are referring to:
A. chain of command
B. delegation of responsibility
C. Command responsibility
D. span of control
Answer: C
77. A police strategy which aims to directly involve members of the
community in the maintenance of peace and order by police
officers.
A. Integrated Police System
B. Comparative Police System
C. Police Visibility
D. Community Oriented Policing System (COPS)
Answer: D
78. No person in an organization can do all the tasks necessary for
accomplishing group objective. Also, no one should exercise all
the authority for making decisions.This refers to
A.
B.
C.
D.
chain of command
command responsibility
unity of command
delegation of authority
Answer: D
79. Under RA 6975, a police officer is entitled to a longevity pay

equivalent to how many percent (%) of his monthly basic salary
for every five years of service, to be reckoned from the date of
his original appointment in the police, fire, jail or other allied
services?
A. 2 percent
B. 5 percent
C. 10 percent
D. 15 percent
Answer: C
80. This term refers to the period when a police officer is actively
engaged in the performance of his duty.
A. off duty
B. off limits
C. on call
D. on duty
Answer: D
81. The act of temporarily denying an officer the privilege of
performing his police duties in consequence of an offense and
violation of rules and regulations.
A. dismissal
B. restriction
C.
D.
suspension
reprimand
Answer: C
82. The credential extended by the Civil Service

Commission/National Police Commission for the purpose of
conferring status for permanent appointment in the police
service.
A. police credibility
B. police visibility
C. Criminology Board Examination
D. police patrol examination
E. police eligibility
Answer: E
83. In the history of our police force, who was the first Director
General of the Philippine National Police (PNP)?
A. Gen. Cesar Nazareno
B. Gen. Raul Imperial
C. Gen. Umberto Rodriquez
D. Gen. Recaredo Sarmiento
Answer: A
84. The premier educational institution for the training, human
resource development and continuing education of all the
personnel of BJMP, BFP and PNP.
A. PNPA
B. PCCR
C. PNTC
D. PPSC
Answer: D
85. Under the law,the city/municipal jail warden should have a rank
of __.
A. Inspector
B. Chef Inspector
C. Senior Inspector
D. Superintendent
Answer: C
86. The required rank for the Chief of Jail Bureau.
A. Chief Superintendent
B. Director General
C. Director
D. Deputy Director General
Answer: C
87. It exercise supervision and control over the provincial jails.

A. BJMP
B. Bureau of Prisons
C. Department of Justice
D. Provincial Government
Answer: D
88. The required rank for the head of the Fire Bureau.
A. Chief Superintendent
B. Director General
C. Director
D. Deputy Director General
Answer: C
89. It exercise supervision and control over all city and municipal
jails.
A.
B.
C.
D.
BJMP
Bureau of Prisons
Department of Justice
Local Government
Answer: A
90. The annual reservation percentage quota for women in the

PNP
A. 25%
B. 5%
C. 10%
D. 20%
Answer: C
91. Which of the following administers and attends to cases
involving crimes against chastity?
A. CIDG
B. DSWD
C. Womens Desk
D. Homicide Division
Answer:
92. They are automatically deputized as NAPOLCOM

representatives to exercise supervision and control over PNP
units.
A. Chief of Police
B. Judges
C. Local Government Executives
D. Fiscals
Answer: C
93. They have the authority to recommend to the Provincial

Director the transfer, reassignment of PNP members outside
of their town residences.
A. Regional Directors
B. Priests
C. Chiefs of Police
D. Mayors
Answer: D
94. The head of a local peace and order council is the __.
A. judge
B. chief of police
C. mayor
D. governor
Answer: C
95. The utilization of units or elements, of the PNP for the
purpose of protection of lives and properties, enforcement of
laws and maintenance of peace and order.
A. employment
B. deployment
C. assignment
D. designation
Answer: A
96. The orderly and organized physical movement of elements or
units of the PNP.
A. employment
B. deployment
C.
D.
assignment
designation
Answer: B
97. One of the following exercises control and supervision over the
PNP units during elections.
A. NBI
B. Ombusdman
C. COMELEC
D. DILG
Answer: C
98. The number of eligible for which the Regional Director may
recommend for Provincial Director to the governor is __.
A. 2
B. 3
C. 5
D. 4
Answer: B
99. Who is the current Chief of the PNP?
A. NicanorBartome
B. NicanorBartomeo
C. Nick Bartolome
D. NicanorBartolome
Answer: C
100. The current PNP deputy director General for Administration is

A. Arturo Cacdac Jr.
B. Emilito Sarmiento
C. Rommel Heredia
D.
Alexander Roldan
Answer: A
101. Registration of a security agency as a corporation must be

processed at what particular government agency.
A. PNP SAGSD
B. NAPOLCOM
C. DND
D. SEC
Answer: D
102. Minimum age requirement for security manager or operator of
a security agency.
A. 25 years old
B. 30 years old
C. 35 years old
D. 40 years old
Answer: A
103. He exercises the power to revoke for cause licenses issued to
security guards.
A. Chief PNP
B. DILG Usec
C. NAPOLCOM chairman
D. DILG Secretary
Answer: A
104. Refers to a natural or man made structure which is capable of
delaying illegal access to facility.
A. Wall
B. Fence
C. Barriers
D. Beach fronts
Answer: C
105. It refers to means and ways that personnel and employees

making them security conscious.
A. Security Promotion
B. Security Education
C. Security Investigation
D. Security Seminar
Answer: B
106. Industrial management must establish the first line of physical
defense,it refers to
A. Perimeter barriers
B. The building itself
C. Door,Locks,Window barriers
D. Entry points where security guards are located
Answer: A
107. Physical security is a system of barriers placed between the
potential intruder and the object matter to be protected.As
criminologists,this is simply a denial of
A. Opportunity to commit the offense
B. Opportunity to the object of protection
C. Access to the object of protection
D. Criminal instinct to surface in the potential offender Answer: C
108. Weakest link in the security chain.
A. Security Guards
B. Manager
C. Barriers
D. Personnel
Answer: D
109. Perimeter barriers,protective lighting and ______ system are

known in industrial security as physical security.
A. Guarding
B. Reporting
C. Relieving
D. Accounting
Answer: A
110. This is an additional outward inclined fixed structure usually
barbed wires placed above a vertical fence to increase
physical protection from intruders of a certain area,this is
known as
A. Cellar Guard
B. Tower Guard
C. Top Guard
D. Top Tower
Answer: C
111. The exterior and interior parallel area near the perimeter
barrier of an industrial compound to afford better observation
and patrol movement is known as
A. Protective zone
B. Clear zone
C. Twilight zone
D. Patrol lane zone
Answer: B
112. Protective guarding in a compound can be done by the use of

electronic hardware,human guards and even animals.In
England,an owner to protect his compound used this and they
are not only effective but also the cheapest to maintain.This
man is using
A. Doberman
B. Tame Tigers
C. Geese
D. Duck
Answer: C
113. The government agency that issues licenses for private and
government security guard is
A. PNP SOSIA
B. Mayors office
C. PNP FEO
D. PNP SAGSD
Answer: D
114. If access is limited only to unauthorized personnel,this
particular place is referred to as
A. Compromise area
B. Restricted area
C. Danger area
D. Exclusive area
Answer: B
115. First measure undertaking before a comprehensive security
program for an industrial plan could be developed.
A. Security education
B. Security check
C. Security survey
D. Security Inspection
Answer: C
116. A security of a plant or industrial fim is also known by other

terms except
A. Robbery evaluation
B. Vulnerability
C. Risk Assessment
D. Security Audit
Answer: B
117. Today there are 3 categories of security guards belonging to
the blue army.
A. Government security guards
B. Company guards
C. Agency guards
D. Body guards
Answer: D
118. Whether to put up its own security guard organic to the firm
or hire contractual agency guards have their individual merits
and disadvantages.To determine which type of guarding
system an industrial firm will require management must consult
A. A security consultant not connected to or owning a
security agency
B. A military intelligence officer
C. A police officer
D. A security agency owner
Answer: A
119. As a security officer,youcan not prevent nor protect natural

hazards like storm,earthquakes,floods and the like.In order to
reduce the disastrous effects of these natural hazards you
will
A. Call PAGASA and inquire when the next storm is coming
B. Alert your guards when hazards occur
C. Not take any concern of such hazards
D. Prepare a disaster or emergency plan
for these hazards for the firm
Answer: D
120. Practical exercise or test of a plan or activity to determine its
effectiveness is called
A. Sham drill
B. Fire drill
C. Dry run
D. Evacuation plan
Answer: C
121. The main reason for a personnel security investigation is
A. To weed out undesirable employees
B. To check loyalty of employees to the organization
C. To determine the character and reputation of certain
employees secretly tagged as risks.
D. Preclude assignment to sensitive positions for those
who are security risks.
Answer: D
122. In an industrial firm there is a need for document security.As
security officer,you can advice management on this aspect

although this is not totally your assigned work.Document
security is not a protection of vital records from
A. Authorized handlers
B. Theft or loss
C. Compromise or destruction
D. Unauthorized access
Answer: A
123. As a security chief of an industrial firm,inventory shows that
pilferage is rampant in the warehouses.What will be your
choice of action
A. To resign if you have failed your job
B. Deploy intelligence men in pilferage prone areas to
catch the culprit
C. Prepare your protective plans and confer with
management for their immediate implementation
D. Tighten checking at exists of vehicles of the
compound/complex
Answer: B
124. There are many types of electronic and electric protective
devices available for security buildings,storehouses and
compounds.One of the ff: is true
A. Electronics/electrical devices provide total protection
for the place to be safeguarded
B. Types of alarms needed can best be given by the
dealers of said devices
C. Each building or compound requires particular

electronic/electrical protective devices
D. Electronic/electrical devices eliminate human guards
Answer: C
125. The management of keys used in plant office or business
organization to prevent unauthorized access is referred to as
A. Security key control
B. Lock control
C. key control
D. Key management
Answer: C
126. It is defined as system of barriers placed between the matters
protected and the potential intruder
A. Computer security
B. Personnel security
C. Document security
D. Physical security
Answer: D
127. This type of alarm system utilizes a station located outside
the compound
A. Auxiliary system
B. Proprietary system
C. Central alarm system
D. Local alarm system
Answer: C
128. It is installed as part of the building which holds up to 10,000
cubic meters of essential items.At least 12 ft. in height with

enough ventilation and fire proof of at least one hour.
A. Protective cabinet
B. File room
C. Vault
D. Safe
Answer: B
129. It is the susceptibility of a plant or establishment to
damage,loss or disruption of operations due to various
hazards.
A. Risk analysis
B. Risk assessment
C. Relative vulnerability
D. Relative criticality
Answer: C
130. It refers to the importance of the establishment with
reference to the national economy and security.
A. Risk analysis
B. Relative vulnerability
C. Risk assessment
D. Relative criticality
Answer: D
131. The association of all licensed security agencies operators
A. POAPAD
B. PADPAO
C. PODPAO
D. PAOPAD
Answer: B
132.Who among below can own or operate security agency?

A. A Filipino citizen
B. Anyone provided he knows the job
C. An alien but living in the Philippines
D. All of them
Answer: A
133. A licensed issued to operate security agency or company
forces.
A. Business license
B. License to engage in business
C. License to operate
D. All of them
Answer: C
134. R.A. No. 5487 governs the operation of
A. Private detective
B. Company security
C. Private security forces/agencies
D. All of them
Answer: D
135. A fact-finding prove to determine a plant adequacy and

deficiency all aspects of security with the corresponding
recommendation.
A. Security audit
B. Security survey
C. Security inquiry
D. Security operations
Answer: B
136. Barrier which includes but not limited to wall,fences,grill etc.

A. Structural barriers
B. Man made barriers
C. Physicalo barriers
D. Natural barriers
Answer: B
137. One who steals due to his inability to resist the unexpected
opportunity and has little fear of detection.
A. Systematic
B. Outsider
C. Casual
D. Insider
Answer: C
138. A barrier which includes but not limited to mountains, cliffs,
ravines, cliffs, etc.
A. Energy
B. Human
C. Natural
D. Animals
Answer: C
139. Issued by the security guard for personnel to be admitted to
the company.
A. Duress code
B. Pass system
C. ID
D. Access list
Answer: B
140. In a close-in security formations, a one man security covers

A. 360 degrees
B. 180 degrees
C. 45 degrees
D. 90 degrees
Answer: A
141. A mechanical device of supplying water which can be manual
or motor driven.
A. Stand pipe
B. Fire extinguisher
C. Fire hydrant
D. Fire pump
Answer: A
142.Intrusion alarm devices are designed to ______ and not
prevent criminals from trespassing and should be used normally
as an independent adjunct and not a replacement of the
human guard forces.
A. Detect
B. Deterred
C. Provide
D. Impeded
Answer: A
143. An authenticated list of personnel given to security allowing
entry to compound or installation or part thereof.
A. Pass system
B. ID
C. Access list
D. Duress code
Answer: C
144. The act or condition affecting the safe operation of the

facility caused by human action,accidental or intentional.It
includes sabotage,espionage,pilferage and
theft,disloyalty,disaffection and subversive activities.
A. Electronic hazard
B. natural hazard
C. Artificial hazard
D. Human hazard
Answer: D
145. Example of the Security Communication system.
A. Telephone
B. Paging system
C. Radio
D. All of them
Answer: D
146. The revised rules and regulations governing the organization
and operation of private detective and private security
agencies and company security forces throughout the
country.
A. Private security law
B. International law
C. Private law
D. Security law
Answer: A
147. A metallic container used for the safekeeping of documents

or small items in an office or installation.
A. Steel cabinet
B. Drawer
C. Basket
D. Safe
Answer: D
148. A heavily constructed fire and burglar resistant container
usually a part of the building structure used to keep and
protect cash,document and negotiable instruments.
A. Basket
B. Vault
C. Steel cabinet
D. Concrete coffin
Answer: B
149. Steal or plastic pipes located in the building from the lowest
to the top floor with water under pressure for use in case of
fire.
A. Lowering pipe
B. Wet pipe
C. Top pipe
D. Stand pipe
Answer: D
150. Who among below are exempted from pre-licensing training?
A. AFP and PNP retirees
B. Graduate of ROTC basic or advance
C. AFP and PNP veterans
D. All of the above
Answer: D
151. Tenure of security personnel is based on

A. Can be extended by the client
B. The service contract between the agency and the
client
C. Labor only contracting between the agency and the
guard
D. Tenure provided by the labor code
Answer: B
152. Before private security agencies render security services to
its clients,there must be a contract that must bind them,it is
called
A. Contract service
B. Service contract
C. Security contract
D. Security service contract
Answer: D
153. Which below is a qualification for the operator or manager of
security agency.
A. Commissioned officer of AFP or PNP,inactive or retirees
B. At least 25 years of age
C. Filipino citizen
D. All of them
Answer: D
154. A security force maintained and operated by any private
company for its own security requirements only.
A. Insular security force

B. Company security force
C. Government security unit
D. Private security unit
Answer: B
155. A person who offers or renders personal services to watch or

secure a residence or business establishment or both is
A. Watchman
B. Security guard
C. B only
D. B and A
Answer: D
156. Include all the security measures designed to prevent
unsuitable individuals or persons of doubtful loyalty to the
government from gaining access to classified matter or to any
security facility and to prevent appointment or retention as
employees of such individuals.
A. Security personnel
B. Employee security
C. Personnel security
D. Both A and C
Answer: C
157. It is an inquiry into the character,reputation,discretion and
loyalty of individual in order to determine a persons suitability
to be given security clearance.
A. BI
B. LAC
C. NAC
D. PSI
Answer: D
158. Consist of the investigation of the background of an individual

but limited only to some of the circumstances of his personal
life which are deemed pertinent to the investigation.
A. PSI
B. PBI
C. CBI
D. BI
Answer: B
159. A thorough and complete investigation of all or some of the
circumstances or aspect of a persons life is conducted.
A. PSI
B. PBI
C. CBI
D. BI
Answer: D
160. Among the following,which is the least expensive and least
secure personnel control identification system?
A. Multiple pass system
B. Group pass and badge system
C. Spot magnetized identification pass
D. Single pass or badge system
Answer: D
161. Factors considered in background investigation except:
A. Integrity
B. Character
C. Personal prestige
D. Loyalty
162. Motives that cause people to be disloyal
A. Character
B. Revenge
C. Moral
D. Reputation
Answer: C
Answer: B
163. Weakness that makes people susceptible to pressure

A. Jealousy
B. Weakness of character
C. Close relative in foreign land
D. All of them
Answer: D
164. A security unit maintained and operated by any government
entity.
D. Private security agency
Answer: C
165. Cosnsist of the investigation of the background of a person
particularly all the circumstances of his personal life
A. PSI
B. PBI
C. CBI
D. BI
Answer: C
166. Any person,association,partnership,firm or private

corporation,who contracts recruits,trains,furnishes or post
any security guards to do its functions.
D. Private security agency
Answer: D
167. Shall be responsible to the detachment commander as far as
his shift is concerned.
A. Officer in charge
B. Shift in charge
C. Security guard on duty
D. Assistant detachment commander
Answer: B
168. Before a security guard can practice his profession,he shall
possess a valid security license,What is this license?
A. Firearm license
B. License to operate
C. Drivers license
D. Security guard license
Answer: D
169. How many firearms issued for every two guards employed by
the security agency is allowed by law?
A. 4
B. 3
C. 2
D. 1
Answer: D
170. Firearms of security agency should be covered with firearms

license issued by the PNP through its Firearm Explosive
Division under the civil security group renewable every
A. 4 years
B. 3 years
C. 2 years
D. 1 year
Answer: D
171. The aspect of security which involves the application of
security measures For the protection and safeguarding of
classified information
A. Top secret
B. Information security
C. Personnel security
D. Documents security
Answer: D
172. Refers to assigned information by one of the four classification
categories
A. Reclassify
B. Classified
C. Declassify
D. Security clearance
Answer: B
173. Refers to the administrative determination that an individual is

eligible for access to classified matter.
A. Reclassify
B. Classified
C. Declassify
D. Security clearance
Answer: D
174. Means loss of security which results from an unauthorized
persons obtaining knowledge of classified matter.
A. Vulnerability
B. Criticality
C. probability
D. Compromise
Answer: D
175. These are information and material,the unauthorized disclosure
of which would cause exceptional grave damage to the
nation,politically,economically or from a security aspect,this
category is reserved for the nations closest secret and is to
be used with great reserve.
A. Restricted matters
B. Secret matters
C. Confidential matters
D. Top secret matters
Answer: D
176. These information and material,the authorized disclosure of
which would endanger national security,cause serious injury to
the interest or prestige of the nation or of any governmental

activity or would be of great advantage to a foreign nation.
B. Secret matters
Answer: B
177. These information and material,the unauthorized disclosure of
which while not endangering the national security would be
prejudicial to the interest or prestige of the nation or any
government activity or would cause administrative
embarrassment or unwarranted injury to an individual or
would be of the advantage to a foreign nation.
B. Secret matters
Answer: C
178. It is information that in some special way relates to the status
or activities of the possessor and over which the possessor
asserts ownership.
A. Transmission security
B. Trade secret
C. Patents
D. Proprietary information
Answer: D
179. It maybe a formula for a chemical compound,a process of
manufacturing,treating or preserving materials,a pattern for

machine or device or a list of customers.
B. Trade secret
C. Patents
D. Proprietary information
Answer: B
180. It is the protection resulting from the application of various
measures which prevent or delay the enemy or unauthorized
persons in gaining information through communication.
B. Cryptographic security
C. Communication security
D. All of the above
Answer: C
181. That component of communication security which results from
the provisions of technically sound crypto system and their
proper use.
B. Cryptographic security
C. Communication security
D. All of the above
Answer: B
182. A system which uses words as the smallest element.
A. Transposition system
B. Code
C. Concealment
D. Cipher
Answer: B
183. A system that manipulate 1,2 or 3 characters at a time.

A. Transposition system
B. Code
C. Concealment
D. Cipher
Answer: D
184. It is the potential damage or loss of an asset.
A. Adversary
B. Risk
C. Security hazard
D. Criticality
Answer: B
185. It is the impact of a loss as measured in financial terms.
A. Adversary
B. Risk
C. Security hazard
D. Criticality
Answer: D
186. Eliminating or removing the risk totally from the
business,government or industrial environment for which the
risk manager has responsibility.
A. Risk self-assumption
B. Risk spreading
C. Risk avoidance
D. Risk avoidance
Answer: C
187. It is an act of spying.

A. Saboteur
B. Espionage
C. pilferer
D. Sabotage
Answer: B
188. It is one of the most annoying and common human hazards

which security has to deal with.
A. Casual pilferage
B. Systematic pilferage
C. Pilferage
D. None of the above
Answer: C
189. One who steals with pre conceived plans and takes always
any or all types of items or supplies for economic gain.
A. Casual pilferage
B. Systematic pilferage
C. Pilferage
Answer: B
190. What date is the Republic Act No. 5487 or the private security
agency law passed?
A. June 13, 1999
B. June 13, 1969
C. June 7, 2009
D. June 31, 1969
Answer: B
191. A natural hazards or acts of god.

A. Calamity
B. Phenomenon
C. Disaster
D. Force majeure
Answer: D
192. A restricted area where visitors are limited in movement and

are usually escorted.
A. Exclusive area
B. Limited area
C. Restricted area
D. Protected area
Answer: B
193. A structure placed above a vertical fence to increase
protection from intruder.
A. Guard house
B. Clear zone
C. Tower guard
D. Top guard
Answer: D
194.A conference similar to entrance conference,this is only done
after the completion of security survey.
A. Entrance conference
B. Briefing
C. Debriefing
D. Exit conference
Answer: D
195. It is the lost that would be sustained if a given target or

combination of target where totally removed,destroyed or
both.
A. Risk reduction
B. Probable maximum loss
C. Risk transfer
D. Possible maximum loss
Answer: D
196. Refers to the amount of loss a target would be likely to
sustain through theft and robbery.
A. Risk reduction
B. Probable maximum loss
C. Risk transfer
D. Possible maximum loss
Answer: B
197. A term used in England for lock pickers,safe crackers and
penetrators of restricted rooms or area.
A. Superman
B. Peterpan
C. Batman
D. Peterman
Answer: D
198. The badge or pass coded for authorization to enter specific

areas is issued to an employee who keeps it in his possession
until his authorization terminates.
A. Pass system
B. Pass exchange system
C. Single pass system
D. Multi pass system
Answer: C
199. Company owned alarm system with a unit in the nearest police
station so that in case of need, direct call is possible.
A. Auxiliary alarm
C. Local alarm system
D. Central station station system
Answer: A
200. The system consists of ringing up a visual or audible alarm
system near the object to be protected.
A. Auxiliary alarm
C. Local alarm system
D. Central station system
Answer: C
Sociology of Crimes Review Questions
1. An old woman approached PO3 Gomez asking the police officer to

run after an unidentified young man who allegedly snatched her
declined claiming that the man was
already a block away from them and besides the police officer
alleged that he is rushing home for an urgent matter. The
officers refusal to help the old woman is an example of
A. nonfeasance
B. malfeasance
C. misfeasance
D. misconduct
Answer: A
2. When the accused is found not guilty of the charges presented
before the court, he is
A. convicted
B. suspended
C. acquitted
D. absuelto
Answer: C
3. Guilty by act means
A. Actus Reus
B. ActusNumbus
C. Giltusreus
D. Rea mensa
mobile phone. PO3 Gomez
Answer: A
4. If physiological or psychological dependence on some agent are
obviously detected from a person, he is in the state of
A. dependency or addiction
B. comatose
C. insanity
D. metamorphosis
Answer: A
5. Which of the following is described as the threatening behaviors,
either verbal or physical, directed at others
A. Abnormality
B. Dependency
C. Aggression
D. Violence
Answer: C
6. What aggressive behavior includes repeated noncompliance to a
direct command, verbal abuse-name calling, verbal abuse-threat,
and physical abuse?
A. Interactive
B. Isolated
C. Covert
D. Overt
Answer: A
7. What aggressive behavior includes cursing/swearing, intentional

destruction of property, and self destructive behaviors?
A. Isolated
B. Covert
C. Interactive
D . Overt
Answer: A
8. What aggressive behavior includes the emotional and cognitive
components of aggression such as anger and hostility?
A. Covert
B. Dynamic
C. Interactive
D. Directive
Answer: A
9. When there is an apparent, intentional, and physically aggressive
act irrespective of severity against another person, there is
A. Battering
B. Assault
C. Chaos
D. Crisis
Answer: B
10.What kind of assault committed when it includes kicking,
punching,deliberately throwing an object and drawing a lethal
weapon against someone?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Mental
Physical
Sexual
Verbal
Answer: B
11.Allege
A.
B.
C.
D.
means
Assert or make an accusation
remove from its position
direct an act from doing
intentional mutilation
Answer: A
12.What do you call measures other than judicial proceedings used

to deal with a young person alleged to have committed an
offense?
A. Rehabilitation
B. Alternative measures
C. Individual response against bad behavior
D. Extra judicial proceedings
Answer: B
13.What do we call the psychological, emotional and behavioral
reactions and deficits of women victims and their inability to
respond effectively to repeated physical and psychological
violence?
A. Woman Menopausal Syndrome
B. Battered Woman Syndrome
C. Violence against women
D.
M'Naghten Rule
Answer: B
14.What is the theory that tumors and seizures have been

associated with aggression and violent behavior?
A. Brain lesion theory
B. Conspiracy theory
C. Neurotic Mind theory
D. Dementia praecox
Answer: A
15.A term used to describe a clinical condition in young children who
have received non-accidental, inexcusable violence or injury,
ranging from minimal to severe or fatal trauma, at the hand of
an adult in a position of trust, generally a parent or guardian
A. Battered Child Syndrome
B. Incapacitated Child Syndrome
C. Abuse Trauma Syndrome
D. None of these
Answer: A
16.When we say capital offense, it means:
A. a very serious crime, for which the death penalty is
imposed
B. the highest penalty for selected offenses
C. total punishment of offender by incarceration
D. all of the above
Answer: A
17.At trial, the authenticity of an item as evidence is crucial,
whether it be a physical object like a bullet, a medical record or a
photograph. The item cannot be offered in court without a

testimonial sponsor who can vouch for its unaltered authenticity
to the court and the jury. To validate an items unaltered
authenticity, a record must be kept of each and every time the
item changes hands. This refers to
A. Records management
B. Presentation of evidence in court
C. Chain of custody
D. Laboratory analysis of items
Answer: A
18.The negligent treatment or maltreatment of a child by a parent or
caretaker under circumstances indicating harm or threatened
harm to the child's health or welfare is known as
A. Child Abuse
B. Child Neglect
C. Child Dilemma
D. Child in conflict with the law
Answer: C
19.The exchange of sexual favors for money or other material goods
without any emotional involvement involving a person under the
age of 18 years is called
A. Child prostitution
B. Child trafficking
C. Both A and B are correct
D. Both A and B are wrong
Answer: A
20.An abuse that is kept secret for a purpose, concealed, or
underhanded is called
A. Clandestine abuse
B. Clinical abuse
C. Overt abuse
D. Abuse of authority
Answer: A
21.A false belief based on an incorrect inference about external

reality and firmly sustained despite clear evidence to the
contrary, and which is not related to cultural or religious beliefs
A. False alarm
B. Wrong perception
C. Incoherence
D. Delusion
Answer: D
22.Which
which
A.
B.
C.
D.
of the following is an act committed by a juvenile for

an adult could be prosecuted in a criminal court?
Adult offense
Status offense
Delinquency offense
Children in conflict with the law
Answer: C
23.Anything that has been used, left, removed, altered or

contaminated during the commission of a crime by either the
suspect or victim is part of
A. Evidence
B. Modus operandi
C. Recidivism
D.
Preservation of crime scene
Answer: A
24.Generally, putting to death a person, as a legal penalty, is called

A. Infliction
B. Execution
C. Murder
D. Capital punishment
Answer: B
25.Among the following, what is the form of abuse where the use of
the victim is for selfish purposes and or financial gain?
A. Verbal Abuse
B. Exploitation
C. Racketeering
D. Khotongism
Answer: C
26.The most common legal grounds for termination of parental rights,
also a form of child abuse in most states. Sporadic visits, a few
phone calls, or birthday cards are not sufficient to maintain
parental rights.
A. Exploitation
B. Abuse
C. Neglect
D. Abandonment
Answer: D
27.Which of the following is defined as acts or omissions by a legal
caretaker that encompasses a broad range of acts, and usually
requires proof of intent.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Abuse
Exploitation
Neglect
Abandonment
Answer: A
28.The phase of a delinquency hearing similar to a "trial" in adult

criminal court,except that juveniles have no right to a jury trial, a
public trial, or bail.
A. Acquittal
B. Conviction
C. Adjudication
D. Entertainment
Answer: C
29.Any of the processes involving enforcement of care, custody, or
support orders by an executive agency rather than by courts or
judges.
A. Criminal procedure
B. Administrative procedure
C. Summary procedure
D. Trial
Answer: B
30.A legal relationship between two people not biologically related,
usually terminating the rights of biological parents, and usually
with a trial "live-in" period. Once it is finalized, the records are
sealed and only the most compelling interests will enable
disclosure of documents.
A. Adoption
B.
C.
D.
Foster parenting
Common law relationship
Brotherhood
Answer: A
31.What is the legal doctrine establishing court as determiner of best

environment for raising child which is an alternative to the Parens
Patriae Doctrine?
A. Rights of Society
B. Miranda Doctrine
C. Best interest of the Child Rule
D. Parental Obligation
Answer: C
32.What was the case that allowed second prosecution in adult
court for conviction in juvenile court which was based on idea
that first conviction was a "civil" matter?
A. Case Law
B. Breed v. Jones
C. Miranda v. Arizona
D. Matt v. Jeff
Answer: B
33.The Law established by the history of judicial decisions in cases
decided by judges, as opposed to common law which is
developed from the history of judicial decisions and social
customs.
A. Case Law
B. Breed v. Jones
C. Miranda v. Arizona
D.
Matt v. Jeff
Answer: A
34.The filing of legal papers by a child welfare agency when its

investigation has turned up evidence of child abuse. This is a
civil,rather than criminal, charge designed to take preventive
action, like appointment of a guardian for at-risk children before
abuse occurs.
A. Child prosecution
B. Child protection action
C. ParensPatriae
D. Preliminary investigation
Answer: B
35.The act of being responsible for enforcing child support
obligations is known as
A. Childs care
B. Parental Guidance
C. Child at risk
D. Child support
Answer: D
36.A court order for placement in a secure facility, separate from
adults, for the rehabilitation of a juvenile delinquent.
A. Summon
B. Subpoena
C. Custodial confinement
D. Rehabilitation order
Answer: C
37.___ is anyone under the care of someone else. A child ceases to
be a dependent when they reach the age of emancipation.

A. Delinquent
B. Dependent
C. Independent
D. Recognizance
Answer: B
38.It a phase of delinquency proceeding similar to "sentencing"
phase of adult trial. The judge must consider alternative,
innovative, and individualized sentences rather than imposing
standard sentences.
A. Preliminary investigation
B. Judgment
C. Disposition
D. Probationary period
Answer: C
39.The independence of a minor from his or her parents before
reaching age of majority is known as
A. Enlightenment
B. Recognizance
C. Emancipation
D. Freedom from parental obligation
Answer: C
40.A clause requiring government to treat similarly situated people
the same or have good reason for treating them differently.
Compelling reasons are considered to exist for treating children
differently.
A. Bill of Rights
B.
C.
D.
Equal Protection
ParensPatriae
Diversion
Answer: B
41.What is the legal doctrine preventing unemancipated children

from suing their parents?
A. ParensPatriae Doctrine
B. Equal Protection
C. Family Immunity Doctrine
D. Poisonous Tree Doctrine
Answer: C
42.What is the legal doctrine holding parents liable for injuries caused
by a child's negligent driving or other actions?
A. Family Purpose Doctrine
B. Family Immunity Doctrine
C. ParensPatriae Doctrine
Answer: A
43.Guardian ad litem means:
A. For the Proceeding"
B. Protection of child by the law
C. Guardians of the little children
D. Legal authority
Answer: A
44.A court order giving an individual or organization legal authority

over a child. A guardian of the person is usually an individual and
the child is called a ward. A guardian of the estate is usually an
organization, like a bank, which manages the property and assets

of a child's inheritance. Guardians are usually compensated for
their services.
A. Guardianship
B. Order of Authority
C. In Loco Parentis
D. ParensPatriae
Answer: A
45.Teachers, administrators, and babysitters who are viewed as
having some temporary parental rights & obligations are
considered
A. Guardianship
C. In Loco Parentis
D. ParensPatriae
Answer: C
46.What is the legal doctrine establishing "parental" role of state
over welfare of its citizens, especially its children?
A. Guardianship
C. In Loco Parentis
D. ParensPatriae
Answer: D
47.The emergency, temporary custody by a child welfare agency,
police agency, or hospital for reasons of immanent danger to the
child is called
A. Preventive detention
B.
C.
D.
Diversion
Witness protection program
Protective custody
Answer: D
48.What is the legal doctrine granting custody to the parent whom

the child feels the greatest emotional attachment to?
A. Psychological Parent
B. Maternity
C. Paternity
D. Parental Selection
Answer: A
49.A disposition requiring a defendant to pay damages to a victim.
The law prohibits making it a condition of receiving probation.
Poor families cannot be deprived of probation simply because
they are too poor to afford it.
A. Bond
B. Surety
C. Restitution
D. Protection money
Answer: C
50.An activity illegal when engaged in by a minor, but not when done
by an adult. Examples include truancy, curfew, running away, or
habitually disobeying parents.
A. Adult Offenses
B. Minor Offenses
C. Status Offenses
D. Stubbornness
Answer: C
51.A spouse of a biological parent who has no legal rights or duties

to the child other than those which have been voluntarily
accepted.
A. Maternity
B. Paternity
C. Stepparent
D. Foster parent
Answer: C
52.A parent who provided an egg, sperm, or uterus with an intent of
giving the child up for adoption to specific parties.
A. None of these
B. Stepparent
C. Foster Parent
D. Surrogate Parent
Answer: D
53.What is the legal doctrine that unless the mother is "unfit", very
young children should be placed in custody with their mother
following a divorce?
A. Tender Years Doctrine
B. Psychological Parent Doctrine
C. Unwed Mothers Doctrine
D. Illegitimacy
Answer: A
54.What is declared of a temporary or permanent termination of
parental rights in the best interest of the child usually for
reasons of abandonment, abuse, or neglect, but also including
mental
A.
B.
C.
D.
illness, addiction, or criminal record?

Unfit Parent
Psychological Incapacitation
Mental Disturbance
Child at risk
Answer: B
55.It refers to the security given for the release of the person in
custody of the law, furnished by him/her or a bondsman, to
guarantee his/her appearance before any court.
A. Surety
B. Money order
C. Conditions
D. None of these
Answer: D
56.It refers to the totality of the circumstances and conditions most
congenial to the survival, protection and feelings of security of
the child and most encouraging to the childs physical,
psychological and emotional development.
A. Best interest of the child
B. Rights
C. Obligations
D. Childs role
Answer: A
57.Children who are vulnerable to and at the risk of committing
criminal offenses because of personal, family and social
circumstances are considered
A. Abused Children
B.
C.
D.
Neglected Children
Children at risk
Answer: D
58.A child who is alleged as, accused of, or adjudged as, having
committed an offense under Philippine laws is considered
A. Child at risk
B. Child in conflict with the law
C. Minor offense
D. Juvenile offender
Answer: B
59.The apprehension or taking into custody of a child in conflict with
the law by law enforcement officers or private citizens is termed
as:
A. Arrest
B. Initial contact
C. Child custody
D. All of the above
Answer: B
60.The series of activities designed to address issues that caused
the child to commit an offense. It may take the form of an
individualized treatment program, which may include counseling,
skills training, education, and other activities that will enhance
his/her psychological, emotional and psycho-social well-being is
called
A. reformation guide
B. intervention
C.
D.
diversion
welfare procedures
Answer: B
61.An undertaking in lieu of a bond assumed by a parent or

custodian who shall be responsible for the appearance in court of
the child in conflict with the law, when required is known as
A. Status offense
B. None of these
C. Recognizance
D. Bail
Answer: C
62.What is the type of offense committed where there is no private
offended party involved?
A. Status offense
B. Victimless crime
C. Minor crime
D. None of these
Answer: B
63.What is the doctrine that requires a process of resolving conflicts
with the maximum involvement of the victim, the offender and
the community?
A. Proactive justice
B. Restorative justice
C. Reactive justice
D. All of the above
Answer: B
64.One of the following is an act constituting exploitation and sex
abuse
A.
B.
C.
D.
among children in exchange of any form of incentive.

Child trafficking
Child abuse
Child prostitution
Child racketeering
Answer: C
65.Centuries ago, criminal behavior was believed to be the result of

evil spirits and demons.Guilt and innocence were established by a
variety of procedures that presumably called forth the
supernatural allies of the accused. The accused were innocent if
they could survive an ordeal, they were guilty if they died at the
stake or if omens were associated with them. In the 18th
century,this spiritual determination began to give way to:
A. The belief that there is no such thing as bad spirits
B. The belief that humans are rational creatures with free
will,who seek happiness and pleasure and avoid pain
C. The belief that man is a demon and devil
D. The belief that man is evolved from the animal ape.
Answer: B
66.Among the following classical thoughts in Criminology is not
correct:
A. The Classical school of Criminology is spearheaded by
Bentham and Beccaria.
B. The Classical School of Criminology is an advocate of
punishment as a deterrent to crime.
C. The Classical School of Criminology argues that criminals
D.
were primitive creatures, incapable of living normally in

society.
The Classical School of Criminology also argued that
nature has placed mankind under the governance of two
sovereign masters, pain and pleasure.
Answer: C
67.What school of thought in Criminology challenges the proposition

that man has absolute free will to choose between good and evil
and states that it is not absolute as presumed to be because
free will can be diminished by pathology, mental disorders and
other conditions that may instigate personal responsibility?
A. Neo-classical School of Criminology
B. Positivism
C. Hedonistic Calculus
D. Radical Criminology
Answer: A
68.The Classical School of thoughts in Criminology is based on the
principle of free will. The positivist thoughts on the other hand is
focused on the principle of:
A. Darwinism
B. Determinism
C. Cognitive Functioning
D. Conceptual Thinking
Answer: B
69.The Differential Association Theory provides a good illustration of
a social learning approach perspective in Criminology Criminal

behavior according to this theory is:
A. A result of an emotional disturbance
B. An inmate quality of goodness or badness
C. Learned and not inherited
D. An excess of wisdom
Answer: C
70.What perspective in Criminology probes the situational or
environmental action and examines the underlying conditions with
in the environment that may encourage criminal behavior?
A. Psychiatric Criminology
B. Psychological Criminology
C. Sociological Criminology
D. Criminal Anthropology
Answer: C
71.In the past, psychologist assumed that they could best
understand human behavior by searching for a stable, consistent
personality dispositions or traits that exert orderly generalized
effects on behavior. Which among the following theory on
Criminal Behavior is not consistent with the previous statement?
A.Psychoanalytical Theory
B.Strain Theory
C.Behavioral descriptions
D.Psychological Determination
Answer: B
72.Based on the Lombrosos works, he classified criminals as: the
born criminal, the habitual, the passionate and the criminoloid.
Which of the following statements describe a criminoloid?

A. the morally insane and hysteric criminal
B. the impulsive and cruel criminal
C. the weak natures susceptible to bad examples
D. the primitive and atavist
Answer: C
73.Some criminology theorists have linked physical characteristics
with personality. Among these theories is William Sheldons
Somatotyping theory. He classified body physique into three
categories as the endomorphic, the mesomorphic and the
ectomorphic body. Of the following statements, which
appropriately describes the mesomorphic?
A. the twin and fragile with withdrawn behavior
B. the muscular and hard physique
C. the attractive and beautifully shaped
D. the fat and soft body type
Answer: B
74.According to Hans Eyesenck, in his study about the behavioral
character and incidence to crime, the typical extravert is one
who is:
A. sociable, impulsive, optimistic and has high needs for
excitement
B. reserved, quiet and cautious
C. undersized, short and untidy
D. over sized, heavy and firm
Answer: A
75.To explain human behavior, social learning theorists place great
emphasis on cognitive variables. Social learning reflects the

theorys strong assumption that we learn primarily by observing
and listening to people around usA. the social environment
B. the stimulus that elicit response
C. the mental state and brain-mediation processes.
D. the reinforcements for behavior
Answer: A
76.In the study of juvenile delinquency, which of the following
projects paved the way for a reassessment of existing
treatment and prevention programs for delinquents?
A. Chicago Area Project of 1930
B. Illinois Legislature
C. Boston Child Guidance Clinic
D. Presidents Commission on Law Enforcement in the
U.S.
Answer: A
77.One family background predictors in juvenile delinquency is
broken home. The term broken home is ambiguous but can be
characterized by:
A. Inadequate type of family structure
B. Anti-social type of family structure
C. Discordant or disturbed family structure
D. Disrupted or incomplete family structure Answer: D
78.Parental discipline appears relation to delinquency. Harsh
discipline in the home may result in more delinquencies than

consistent and reasoning forms of discipline. Aside from this,
screaming at the child, calling the child insulting names,
excessive criticizing or generally ignoring the child is also
contributory to delinquency. These actions simply refers to:
A. Physical Abuse
B. Emotional abuse
C. Unfair parent
D. Parental neglect
Answer: B
79.When a person is seen to show indiscriminate giggling or crying,
emotional flatness, the voice is monotonous, the face immobile
and expressionless and manifest highly bizarre and add behavior
then appropriately he is:
A. suffering from neurotic behavior
B. suffering from psychopathic behavior
C. suffering from schizophrenia or psychotic behavior
D. suffering from sexual dysfunctions Answer: C
80.It is a popular notion that the brutal, violent and apparently
senseless crime is usually committed by someone who is mentally
ill or sick. Or if not sick, then the person is an animal. The kind of
alternate explanation is an influence of the:
A. Positivist theory of Criminology
B. Classical theory of Criminology
C. Neoclassical theory of Criminology
D. Differential Association theory of Criminology Answer: A
81.Which of the following is not a symptom of dyssocial behavior?

A. Failure to conform to social norms.
B. Consistent irresponsibility, as reflected in a poor work
history
C. Lack of guilt for wrongdoings.
D. Episode of schizophrenia like illogical thinking Answer: D
82.A Scottish woodcutter was accused of killing a man he believed
to be Prime Minister for thought that he was persecuted by the
Tories and their leader, Robert Peel, however turned out to be
another person. The court believed he was so mentally deranged
that it would be inhuman to convict him since it was clear he
was not in control of his faculties.This case became known as:
A. the Mnaghten Rule
B. the Durham Rule
C. the Brawner Rule
D. the Irrational Mind Rule
Answer: A
83.One day we maybe cool and withdrawn and the next day, warm
and sociable. This condition may fall into the disorder known as:
A. Bipolar disorder
B. Schizophrenia
C. Psychopathic behavior
D. Amnesia
Answer: A
84.A bank robber who kills some individual with in the bank, flees
with hostages, and kills a number of people while in flight diving a

chase would be an example of:
A. Serial Murder
B. Spree Murder
C. Mass Murder
D. Multiple Murder
Answer: A
85.Pedro engaged in a multiple means of torture, using psychological
torment combined with physical methods to lighten his sexual
arousal is suffering from:
A. Sexual Pyromania
B. Sexual Sadism
C. Sexual Torture
D. Masochism
Answer: B
86.There are many pathways to delinquency and a variety of family
circumstances contribute to negative behavior in children. Which
of the following developmental pathways to delinquency begins
with stubborn behavior, then defiant behavior, and developing
later into avoidance of authority figures like truancy, running
away, staying out late, etc.?
A. Authority conflict pathways
B. Covert pathway
C. Overt pathway
D. None of these
Answer: A
87.Which of the following refers to juveniles who have doliincapax?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Children aging from 7 to 12 years

Children above 9 that below 15 years old
Children at puberty age
Answer: B
88.Recent research and legal literature suggest that a useful away

of classifying juvenile crime is to distinguish between serious and
non-serious acts and between serious and non-serious offenders.
Among the following, which is not considered a serious juvenile
act?
A. Forcible sexual intercourse
B. Larceny
C. Homicide
D. Vagrancy
Answer: D
89.The best PCR a police officer can do to the community is
A. harass the people
B. perform his job well
C. dress well
D. always present in the office
Answer: B
90.Which of the following is the basic political unit of the Filipino
nation that implements the policies of the national and local
government?
A. family
B. society
C. community
D.
barangay
Answer: A
91.In crisis management, the teams under the support unit are under
the control of the ground commander. Which is responsible for
the collection and processing of all information needed by the on
scene commander?
A. Security element
B. Support unit
C. Negotiation unit
D. Intelligence team
Answer: D
92.What is known to be the oldest but commonly used terrorist
tactic where target are often police, military officials or political
features?
A. Hijacking
B. Assassination
C. Ambush
D. Kidnap for Ransom
Answer: B
93.The one who makes complete estimate of the crisis situation and
plans his courses of actions upon arrival at the incident area
while negotiation is in progress is the
A. Chief Negotiator
B. Tactical Commander
C. Fire fighting team
D. Support Unit Commander
Answer: B
94.A comprehensive plan which delineates responsibilities and

specific action to be taken when a bomb incident or bomb threat
occurs is called
A. Floor plan
B. Bomb threat plan
C. Drill
D. Contingency plan
Answer: B
95.What do you call the phenomenon where a hostage begins to
identify his captor and give his sympathy to his own hostage
taker?
A. Holmshock syndrome
B. Traumatic syndrome
C. Withdrawal syndrome
D. none of these
Answer: D
96.Among the following, which is most contagious on human
emotion?
A. Fear
B. Panic
C. Worry
D. Dementia Praecox
Answer: A
97.In Stockholm syndrome, some of the causes why a hostage
becomes cooperative with the hostage taker is due to
A. selfishness
B. personal grudge
C.
D.
personal affection
personal interest
Answer: C
98.The stage of advance planning, organization and coordination

and control in response to an anticipated future crisis occurrence
is called
A. Proactive Crisis Management
B. Reactive Crisis Management
C. Performance Stage
D. Reaction Phase
Answer: A
99.What stage is the performance of the crisis management plan
when a crisis situation occurs?
A. Pro-active Phase
B. Reactive Phase
C. Prediction
D. None of these
Answer: B
100.What model of insurgency does the New Peoples Army in the
Philippines is employing?
A. Communist Model
B. Socialist Model
C. Democratic Model
D. None of these
Answer: A
Criminalistic 1
1. There is freehand invitation and is considered as the most skilful

class of forgery
A. simulated or copied forgery
B. simple forgery
C. traced forgery
D. carbon tracing
2. Condensed and compact set of authentic specimen which is
adequate and proper, should contain a cross section
of the material from known sources.
A. disguised document
B. questioned document
C. standard document
D. requested document
3. Specimens of hand writing or of typescript which is of known
origin.
A. Letters
B. Samples
C. Exemplars
D. Documents
4. A document which is being questioned because of its origin, its
contents or the circumstances or the stories of its production.
A. disputed document
B. standard document
C. requested document
D. questioned document
5. The art of beautiful writing is known as

A. Drafting
B. Calligraphy
C. Art appreciation
D. Gothic
6. Any written instrument by which a right or obligation is
established.
A. Certificate
B. Subpoena
C. Warrant
D. Document
7. A type of fingerprint pattern in which the slope or downward flow
of the innermost sufficient recurve is towards the thumb of radius
A. ulnar loop
B. tented arch
C. accidental whorl
D. radial loop
8. The forking or dividing of one line to two or more branches.
A. Ridge
B. Island
C. Delta
D. Bifurcation
9. The point on a ridge at or in front of and nearest the center of
the divergence of the type lines.
A. Divergence
B. Island
C. Delta
bone of the hand of origin.
D.
Bifurcation
10.The following are considerations used for the identification

loop except one:
A. Delta
B. Core
C. a sufficient recurve
D. a ridge count across a looping bridge
of a
11.The process of recording fingerprint through the use of fingerprint

ink.
A. Pathology
B. Fingerprinting
C. Dactyloscopy
D. Printing press
12.The fingerprint method of identification.
A. Pathology
B. Fingerprinting
C. Dactyloscopy
D. Printing press
13.Two lines that run parallel or nearly parallel, diverge and surround
A. Ridges
B. Delta
C. Type line
D. Bifurcation
14.A part of the whorl or loop in which appear the cores, deltas and
ridges.
A. type line
the pattern area.
B.
C.
D.
bifurcation
pattern area
furrow
15.Fingerprints left on various surfaces at the crime scene which are

not clearly visible.
A. plane impressions
B. visible fingerprints
C. rolled impressions
D. latent fingerprints
16.The impressions left by the patterns of ridges and depressions on
various surfaces.
A. kiss marks
B. finger rolls
C. thumb marks
D. fingerprints
17.Which among the following is not considered as a basic fingerprint
A. Arch
B. Accidental
C. Loop
D. Whorl
18.The minimum identical characteristics to justify the identity
between two points.
A. Eighteen
B. Fifteen
C. Twelve
D. Nine
pattern?
19.A fingerprint pattern in which the ridges form a sequence of

spirals around core axes.
A. whorl
B. double loop
C. central pocket loop
D. accidental
20.A fingerprint pattern which one or more ridges enter on either side
of the impression by a recurve, and terminate on the same side
where the ridge has entered.
A. Loop
B. radial loop
C. ulnar loop
D. tented arch
21.A person allowed who gives his/her opinion or conclusion on a
given scientific evidence is considered
A. interrogator
B. expert witness
C. prosecutor
D. judge
22.The application of scientific knowledge and techniques in the
detection of crime and apprehension of criminals.
A. Law Enforcement Administration
B. Forensic Administration
C. Criminal Psychology
D. Criminalistics
23.Lens that is characterized by a thicker center and thinner sides.
A. concave lens
B.
C.
D.
convex lens
negative lens
positive lens
24.The normal developing time of a paper or film.

A. 30-60 minutes
B. 20-30 minutes
C. 5-10 minutes
D. 1- 2 minutes
25.This part of a camera is used to allow light to enter the lens for
a predetermined time interval.
A. holder of sensitized material
B. view finder
C. shutter
D. view finder
26.A lens with a focal length of less than the diagonal of its negative
material.
A. telephoto lens
B. long lens
C. normal lens
D. wide angle lens
27.Chemical used as an accelerator in a developer solution.
A. Potassium Bromide
B. Sodium Carbonate
C. Sodium Sulfite
D. Hydroquinone
28.A part of a camera used in focusing the light from the subject
A.
B.
C.
D.
view finder
lens
shutter
light tight box
29.A component of the polygraph instrument which records the

breathing of the subject.
A. Cardiosphygmograph
B. Pneumograph
C. Galvanograph
D. Kymograph
30.A component of the polygraph instrument which records the
blood pressure and the pulse rate of the subject.
B. Pneumograph
C. Galvanograph
D. Kymograph
31.A component of the polygraph instrument which is a motor that
drives or pulls the chart paper under the recording pen
simultaneously at the rate of 6 or 12 inches per minute.
B. Pneumograph
C. Galvanograph
D. Kymograph
32.The following are specific rules to be followed in the formulation of
the questions in a polygraph test except one.
A. Questions must be clear and phrased in a language the
subject can easily understand.
B.
C.
D.
Questions must be answerable by yes or no.

Questions must be as short as possible.
Questions must all be in the form of accusations
33. In polygraph examination, the term examination means a

detection of
A. Forgery
B. Emotion
C. the mind
D. deception
34. It refers to an emotional response to a specific danger, which
appears to go beyond a persons defensive power.
A. Fear
B. Stimuli
C. Response
D. Reaction
35. The primary purpose of pre-test interview.
A. Prepare subject for polygraph test
B. Obtain confession
C. Make the subject calm
D. Explain the polygraph test procedures
36. The deviation from normal tracing of the subject in the relevant
question.
A. positive response
B. specific response
C. normal response
D. reaction
37. The study of the effect of the impact of a projectile on the

target.
A. Terminal Ballistics
B. Internal Ballistics
C. External Ballistics
D. Forensic Ballistics
38. The unstable rotating motion of the bullet is called
A. Trajectory
B. Yaw
C. Velocity
D. Gyroscopic action
39. The part of the mechanism of a firearm that withdraws the shell
or cartridge from the chamber.
A. Extractor
B. Ejector
C. Striker
D. Trigger
40. The pattern or curved path of the bullet in flight.
A. Yaw
B. Range
C. Velocity
D. Trajectory
41. This refers to the deflection of the bullet from its normal path
after striking a resistant surface.
A. Misfire
B. Mushroom
C. Ricochet
D.
42. A type
A.
B.
C.
D.
Key hole shot

of primer with two vents or flash holes.
Bordan primer
Berdan Primer
Baterry Primer
Boxer Primer
43. This refers to the helical grooves cut in the interior surface of
the bore.
A. swaging
B. ogive
C. rifling
D. breaching
44. It refers to the unstable rotating motion of the bullet.
A. Trajectory
B. Yaw
C. Velocity
D. Gyproscopic action
45. It is the measurement of the bore diameter from land to land.
A. Calibre
B. Mean diameter
C. Gauge
D. Rifling
46. He is known as the Father of Ballistics.
A. Hans Gross
B. Charles Waite
C. Albert Osborne
D.
Calvin Goddard
47. A document in which some issues have been raised or is under

scrutiny.
A. Void Document
B. Illegal Document
C. Forged Document
D. Questioned Document
48. The following are characteristics of forgery except one:
A. Presence of Natural Variation
B. Multiple Pen Lifts
C. Show bad quality of ink lines
D. Patchwork Appearance
49. Standards which are prepared upon the request of the
investigator and for the purpose of comparison with the
questioned document.
A. relative standards
B. collected standards
C. extended standards
D. requested standards
50. Any stroke which goes back over another writing stroke.
A. natural variation
B. rhythm
C. retracing
A. shading
51. The name of a person written by him/her in a document as a sign
of acknowledgement.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Opinion
Document
Signature
Handwriting
Answer: C
52. A kind of document which is executed by a private person

without the intervention of a notary public, or of
competent public official, by which some disposition of
agreement is proved.
A. commercial document
B. official document
C. public document
D. private document
Answer: D
53. An instrument that can be legally used in comparison with a
questioned document, its origin is known and can be proven.
A. simulated document
B. forged document
C. standard document
D. compared document
Answer: C
54. The process of making out what is illegible or what has been
effaced.
A. Comparison
B. Collation
C. Obliteration
D. Decipherment
Answer: D
55. A document which contains some changes either as an
addition or deletion.
A. inserted document
B.
C.
D.
altered document
disputed document
obliterated document
Answer: B
56. A kind of erasure by using a rubber eraser, sharp knife, razor

blade or picking instrument.
A. mechanical erasure
B. electronic erasure
C. magnetic erasure
D. chemical erasure
Answer: A
57. It is the periodic increase in pressure, characterized by widening
A. Shading
B. pen lift
C. pen emphasis
D. pen pressure
Answer: D
58. A kind of document executed by a person in authority and by
private parties but notarized by competent officials.
A. private document
B. commercial document
C. public document
D. official document
Answer: C
59. The detection and identification of poisons.
A. Bacteriology
B. Posology
C. Toxicology
D. Chemistry
Answer: C
60. The specimen that is preferably used in the determination of
of the ink stroke.
abused drugs in the body.

A. blood
B. saliva
C. body fluid
D. urine
Answer: D
61. A forensic chemist is tasked to examine the chemical nature and

except one:
A. Fingerprint
B. Explosives
C. Blood
D. Body fluids
Answer: A
62. Who qualifies a forensic chemist as expert?
A. defense lawyer
B. judge
C. prosecutor
D. the chemist himself/herself
Answer: B
63. Methamphetamine hydrochloride is commonly known as

A. Coke
B. LSD
C. Heroin
D. shabu
Answer: D
64. An area surrounding the place where the crime occurred.
A. crime scene
B. police line
C. area of operation
D. area of responsibility
Answer: A
composition of the following
65. The body of the crime.

A. Evidence
B. body of the victim
C. criminology
D. corpus delicti
66. One of
A.
B.
C.
D.
Answer: D
the following is a derivative of the opium poppy.

Demerol
Caffeine
Morphine
nicotine
Answer: C
67. Number restoration is necessary in determining whether there is

tampering of serial number in
A. Typewriter
B. Firearm
C. Prisoners
D. Bank notes
Answer: B
68. In forensic examination, a tip of the hair is examined to
determine if it was
A. Bend
B. Folded
C. Stretched
D. Cut
Answer: D
69. All of the following are accurate tests for the presence of alcohol
one:
A. Saliva test
B. Harger Breath Test
C. Fecal test
in the human body except
D.
Blood test
Answer: C
70. The application of chemical principles and processes in the

examination of evidence.
A. Forensic Medicine
B. Forensic Evidence
C. Criminalistics
D. Forensic Chemistry
Answer: D
71. Volatile
A.
B.
C.
D.
poisons may be isolated by means of this process.

Dialysis
Dilution
Distillation
Extraction
Answer: C
72. The process in reproducing physical evidence by plaster moulds.

A. Casting
B. Cementing
C. Moulage
D. Sticking
Answer: C
73. The test used to determine the presence of semen particularly
in stained clothing.
A. Florence Test
B. Barberios Test
C. Microscopic Test
D. Ultra-Violet Test
Answer: A
74. The test used to determine the presence of blood in stained
material.
A. Florence Test
B.
C.
D.
Barberios Test
Takayama Test
Phenolphtalein Test
75. It is the major component of a glass.

A. Lime
B. Soda
C. Silica
D. Gel
Answer: C
Answer: C
76. Poisons which produce stupor and less feeling.

A. Narcotics
B. Irritants
C. Depressants
D. Stimulants
Answer: A
77. A supercooled liquid which possess high viscosity and rigidity.
A. dry ice
B. cartridge case
C. gel
D. glass
Answer: D
78. The study and identification of body fluids.
A. Pharmacology
B. Serology
C. Posology
D. Immunology
Answer: B
79. The test to determine whether blood is of human origin or not.

A. Blood typing
B. Precipitin Test
C.
D.
Confirmatory Test
Preliminary Test
80. The circulating tissue of the body.

A. Blood
B. Cells
C. Muscles
D. Liver
Answer: B
Answer: A
81. The complete, continuous, persistent cessation of respiration,

circulation and almost all brain function of an organism.
A. Apparent death
B. Molecular death
C. Cellular Death
D. Somatic death
Answer: D
82. The approximate time for the completion of one case for DNA
Testing.
A. minimum of eight weeks
B. minimum of six weeks
C. minimum of four weeks
D. minimum of two weeks
Answer: C
83. DNA stands for
A. Deonatural Acid
B. Deoxyribonucleic Acid
C. Denaturalized Acid
D. Deoxy Nucleic Acid
Answer: B
84. The Geneticist from Great Britain who pioneered DNA testing and
A. Alec Jeffries
fingerprinting.
B.
C.
D.
Lowell C. Van Berkom

William Reynolds
Henry Van Dyke
Answer: A
85. The cause of death of a person who immediately died because of

lack of oxygen for around 3 to five minutes.
A. Stroke
B. Asphyxia
C. Stupor
D. Exhaustion
Answer: B
86. The most serious burn involving skin, nerves, muscles and bones,
causing death due to loss of fluids and electrolytes in
the body and massive infection.
A. First Degree Burn
B. Second Degree Burn
C. Third Degree Burn
D. Sunburn
Answer: C
87. A discoloration of the body after death when the blood tends to
pool in the blood vessels of the most dependent portions
of the body and starts 20 to 30 minutes after death and is
completed by 12 hours.
A. livor mortis
B. primary flaccidity
C. maceration
D. rigor mortis
Answer: A
88. A wound which if inflicted in the body so serious that it will
endanger ones life.
A. mortal wound
B.
C.
D.
trauma
coup injury
superficial wound
Answer: A
89. A wound produced by a blunt instrument such as club and stone.

A. incised wound
B. hack wound
C. lacerated wound
D. punctured wound
Answer: C
90. A displacement of the articular surface of the bone without
external wounds.
A. Hematoma
B. Fracture
C. Sprain
D. Dislocation
Answer: D
91. A condition of exposure to cold temperature of certain parts of
the body which produces mechanical disruption of cell structure
characterized by cold stiffening and diminished body.
A. immersion foot
B. trench foot
C. frostbite
D. gangrene
Answer: C
92. A condition of women who have had one or more sexual
experience but not had conceived a child.
A. virgo-intacts
B. demi-virginity
C. moral virginity
D. physical virginity
Answer: A
93. Fixed discoloration of the blood clothed inside the blood vessels
or has diffused to different parts of the body.
A. hypostatic lividity
B. diffusion lividity
C. hyper lividity
D. rigor mortis
Answer: B
94. Things used by a person in the commission of a crime, or objects
left in a crime scene which are the subjects of criminalistics.
A. testimonial evidence
B. hearsay evidence
C. circumstantial evidence
D. physical evidence
Answer: D
95. The science dealing with the motion of a projectile and the
conditions governing that motion.
A. Ballistics
B. Forensic Ballistics
C. Terminal Ballistics
D. External Ballistics
Answer: A
96. The application of medical knowledge in the solution of crimes.
A. Forensic Science
B. Forensic Chemistry
C. Forensic Ballistics
D. Forensic Medicine
Answer: D
97. The science or art of obtaining images in scientific materials by
the action of electro magnetic radiation rays.
A. Polygraphy
B.
C.
D.
Dactyloscopy
Photography
Chemistry
Answer: C
98. Instrument used in the measurement of temperature.

A. Endometer
B. Barometer
C. Thermometer
D. ananometer
Answer: C
99. The scientific detection of deception.
A. Polygraphy
B. Dactyloscopy
C. Toxicology
D. Chemistry
Answer: A
100. The test conducted to determine the presence of gunpowder

residue in the hands of a suspect.
A. diphenylamine test
B. ultra violet test
C. paraffin test
D. Simons Test
Answer: C
Answers: Criminalistics Review Questions

1. A
26. A
2. C
27. B
3. C
28. B
4. D
29. B
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
21.
22.
23.
24.
25.
B
D
D
D
C
B
B
C
C
C
D
D
B
D
A
C
B
D
A
C
C
30.
31.
32.
33.
34.
35.
36.
37.
38.
39.
40.
41.
42.
43.
44.
45.
46.
47.
48.
49.
50.
A
D
D
D
A
A
A
A
B
B
D
C
D
D
B
A
D
D
A
D
C
Criminalistics Review Questions 2
1. The following are types of medical evidence, except:

A. Photographic evidence
B. Experimental evidence
C. Testimonial evidence
D. Autoptic evidence
2. The art of identification by comparison of fingerprint is called:
A. Dactylography
B. All of the these
C. Dactyloscopy
D. Palmistry
3. Some scientific methods of identification are the following, except:
A. Fingerprinting
B. Handwriting
C. Dental identification
D. Identification by close friends and relatives
4. The greater the number of points of similarities and dissimilarities of
two persons compared, the greater the probability for the
conclusion to be correct is found in the
A. Law of Municipality of Evidence in Identification
B. All of the these
C. Identification by Comparison and Exclusion
D. Law of Super Imposition
5. In the strict sense of the word, Forensic Medicine means
A. application of medicine to legal cases
B. application of medical science to elucidate legal problems
C. knowledge of law in relation to practice of medicine
D. none of the above
E.
all of the above
6. The different test to determine peripheral circulation are the

following, except
A. Magnus test
B. Diaphanous test
C. I cards test
D. Winslows test
7. The following officials of the Philippine Government are authorized to
conduct death investigation, except A. Public Prosecutor
B. Judges of the regional trial court
C. Director PNP
D. SOCO team
8. The following statements are important in death determination.
Which is not valid?.
A. Civil personality of a natural person is extinguished by
death
B. Civil property of a person is transmitted to the heirs, if
not, to the government
C. The death of the partner is one of the causes of
dissolution of partnership agreement
D. The criminal liability of a person is extinguished by death
9. The following are kinds of death, which one is not?
A. Somatic or Clinical Death
B. State of Suspended Animation
C. Cellular or Molecular Death
D. Regulated Death
10. Of the following kinds of death, which one is relevant to Organ

Transportation?
A. Somatic or clinical Death
B. State of Suspended Animation
C. Molecular Death
D. Cellular Death
11. To find out the truth is an essential requirement for the
administration of Justice. Which of the following is the commonly
used method of deception detection?
A. Lie detection method
B. Hypnotism
C. Use of drugs
D. Confession
12. In molecular or cellular death, death of individual cells is with in
A. 3-6 minutes
B. 3-6 hours
C. 20-30 minutes
D. 20-30 hours
13. Post-mortem lividity has the following mechanisms:
A. Hypostatic pressure
B. Diffusion
C. Gravitational pressure
D. All of the above
14. Hanging is asphyxia due to the constriction of the neck as a result
of suspension in which the weight of the body pulls upon the
ligature.What differentiates it from strangulation by a ligature
therefore is:
A. The factor of suspension
B. Hanging raises a presumption of suicide
C. Strangulation is usually homicidal
D. All of the above
E. None of the above
15. Distinctions between ante-mortem from post-mortem clot are the
following. Which one is not valid?
A. Ante-mortem clot is firm in consistency
B. Clot is homogenous in construction so it cannot be
stripped into layers
C. Clot with varied colors
D. Surface of the blood vessels are raw after the clots are
removed
16. Post-mortem lividitymaybe due to any of the following, except:
A. Hypostasis
B. Autolysis
C. Diffusion
D. Suggillation
17. Comprehensive study of dead body, performed by a trained
Physician, to determine the cause of death:
A. Autopsy
B. Biophsis
C. Dissection
D. Physicians
18. Articles and materials found in the crime scene:
A. Physical evidence
B.
C.
D.
Associative evidence
Evidence
Tracing evidence
19. Circumscribed extravation of blood or subcutaneous tissue or

underneath the mucous membrane.
A. Contusion
B. Petechia
C. Abrasion
D. All of them
20. Among the following, which has the greatest value in scientific
examination/identification?
A. Dental examination
B. Fingerprinting
C. Photography
D. Pictures Parle
21. One is
A.
B.
C.
D.
a condition that can approximate the time of death.

Cadaver
Magnus test
Rigor mortis
None of these
22. The means sanctioned by the law, of ascertaining the judicial

power/proceeding, the truth respecting the matter of fact.
A. Polygraph
B. Evidence
C. Lie detector
D. All of these
23. Determination of individuality of a person or thing:

A. Description
B. Perception
C. Identification
D. All of these
24. Types
A.
B.
C.
D.
of fingerprint patters, except:

Arches
Ordinary
Loop
Whorl
25. It is any unusual pattern of sexual behavior including habitual,

preference and completing need for sexual gratification by any
means except sexual intercourse which results to bodily
excitement
A. Virginity
B. Sexual intercourse
C. Prostitution
D. Sexual deviation
26. An open wound produced by a sharp-pointed instrument and is
characterized by a small opening of the wound.
A. Gunshot wound
B. Stab wound
C. Shrapnel wound
D. Punctured wound
Answer: D
27. A physical injury wherein the offended victim is incapacitated for
work or requires medical assistance for 10 days or more but not
A. Slight physical injury
B.
C.
D.
Mutilation
Serious physical injury
less serious physical injury
Answer: D
28. It is the type of burn due to gamma rays and which is difficult to
remedy:
A. Thermal burn
B. Electric burn
C. Chemical burn
D. Radiation burn
Answer: D
29. The metal tube through which the bullet is fired is called
A. Bore
B. Barrel
C. Baretta
D. Bromet
Answer: B
30. The old form of gunpowder invented over a thousand years ago
and consisting of nitrate, charcoal, and sulfur.
A. Chinese Powder
B. Black Powder
C. Gray Powder
D. All of these
Answer: B
31. The inside of the barrel is generally termed as
A. Bore
B. Barrel
C. Rifling
D. Primer
Answer: A
32. The portion of the gun which is held or shouldered is called
A.
B.
C.
D.
Buckle
Buttstock
Handle
End joint
Answer: B
33. In a gun, the portion of the "action" that holds the cartridge ready
for firing is called
A. Gas tube
B. Chamber
C. Double-action
D. Trigger
Answer: B
34. A metal rod or plate that strikes the cartridge primer to detonate
the powder.
A. Spring
B. Trigger guard
C. Hammer
D. Revolver
Answer: C
35. This is a device for storing cartridges in a repeating firearm for
loading into the chamber. Also referred to as a "clip".
A. Clipper
B. Holder
C. Pin or pinhead
D. None of these
Answer: D
36. A device that fits over the muzzle of the barrel to muffle the
sound of a gunshot. Most work by baffling the escape of gases.
A. Buffer
B. Silencer
C. Magazine
D.
Hanger
Answer: B
37. Under the management of Lt. Darby during the American

occupation in the Philippines, a modern and complete fingerprint
file has been established for the Philippine commonwealth. In 1937,
the first Filipino fingerprint technician employed by the Phil.
Constabulary was
A. Mr. Generoso Reyes
B. Mr. Amado Delos Santos
C. Mr. Calixto Solis
D. None of these
Answer: A
38. The first leading judicial decision in the Philippine jurisprudence on
the science of fingerprinting was the case of
A. People vs Medina
B. People vs Pineda
C. People vs Amador
D. People vs. Rosas
Answer: A
39. What is the intermediate and the thickest layer of the hair and is
composed of elongated, spindle-shaped fibrils which cohere? They
contain pigment granules in varying proportion depending on the
type of hair.
A. Medulla
B. Cortex
C. Core
D. Cuticle
Answer: B
40. Who was the noted British Examiner of questioned documents said
that an intelligent police investigator can detect almost 75% of all
forgeries by careful inspection of a document with simple
magnifiers and measuring tools?

A. Dr. Arthur Stoll
B. Dr. Aristotle Curt
C. Dr. William Harrison
D. Dr. Benjamin Jones
Answer: C
41. In police photography studies, what are called the thin, gelatinous,
light-sensitive coatings on film that react chemically to capture
the color and shadings of a scene?
A. Films
B. Emulsions
C. Chemical Coatings
D. None of these
Answer: B
42. A medium that divert or absorb light, but does not allow lights to
pass though, they absorb most of the light while reflecting some of
it is called
A. Opaque object
B. Convection
C. Visible light
D. Prisms
Answer: A
43. In the practice of polygraphy, what do you call questions
unrelated to the matter under investigation but are of similar
nature although less serious as compared to those relevant
questions under investigation?
A. Irrelevant questions
B. Relevant questions
C. Control questions
D. Interrogative questions
Answer: C
44. What test is given if a subject of interrogation is not yet informed

of the details of the offense for which he is being interrogated by
the investigation, or by other persons or from other sources like
the print media?
A. Peak of Tension test
B. Control test
C. IQ Test
D. Guilt Complex Test
Answer: A
45. In fingerprinting, the space between shoulders of a loop, free of
any appendage, and a butting at right angle.
A. Complete curve
B. Sufficient Recurve
C. Straight arrow
D. Core
Answer: B
46. The term use to refer to a single recurving ridge enclosing one or
more rods or bars of a fingerprint.
A. None of these
B. Envelope
C. Furrows
D. Bifurcation
Answer: B
47. These are depressions or canals between the ridges of a
fingerprint which maybe compared with the low area in a tire
tread.
A. None of these
B. Envelope
C. Furrows
D. Bifurcation
Answer: C
48. In the study of questioned documents, what do you call the

quality of paper that does not allow light to pass through or which
prevents dark objects from being seen through the paper?
A. Opacity
B. Watermarks
C. Skid marks
D. Invisibility
Answer: A
49. What is the oldest ink material known?
A. Ball point pen ink
B. Chinese Ink
C. Aniline Ink
D. White Ink
Answer: B
50. It is the art of extracting and working on metals by the application

of chemical and physical knowledge.
A. Cryptography
B. Metallurgy
C. Casting
D. Matalisky
Answer: B
51. The branch of geology that deals with the systematic
classification and identification of rocks, rock forming minerals and
soil.Also includes study of dust, dirt, safe insulation, ceramics and
other such materials, both natural and artificial.
A. Petrography
B. Serology
C. Anthropology
D. Ecology
Answer: A
52. In a fire, the presence of reddish brown smoke indicates
A.
B.
C.
D.
Nitrocellulose
Sulfuric acid
Nitric acid
All of these
Answer: D
53. The bending of light around an object gives rise to the

phenomenon called
A. attraction
B. diffraction
C. light curve
D. light fingerprint
Answer: B
54. Under the law of reflection, The angle of reflection depends upon
the angle of the light striking the material, which is referred to as
the
A. angle of incidence
B. angle of biometry
C. angle of light
D. none of these
Answer: A
55. In ballistics, what is the pressure generated within the chamber
erroneously called breeched pressure?
A. Chamber Pressure
B. Barrel Pressure
C. Gunpowder
D. None of these
Answer: A
56. The ratio of the weight of the powder charge to the weight of the
projectile is called
A. Power to speed ratio
B. Charge weight to bullet weight ratio
C.
D.
Firing pin stroke ratio

All of these
Answer: B
57. Chemical rearrangement of molecules into gas instead of solids to

cause the high explosives to exert full power of shock. The speed
varies in different explosive but in some it is as high as 7000 yards
in a second. This refers to
A. Energy
B. Gas
C. Detonation
D. Gun powder
Answer: C
58. What occurs when a cartridge fails to explode on time or delayed
in firing?
A. Knocking Power
B. Hang fire
C. Recoil
D. None of these
Answer: B
59. In China, fingerprint is called ___. It was valued for purposes of
identification since time immemorial as found on a Chinese clay
seal made not later than the 3rd Century B.C.
A. Hua Chi
B. MahWhang
C. Wong Cho
D. TiangHin
Answer: A
60. Who has given the fame title as Father of Dactyloscopy?
A. Johannes Purkinje
B. Leonard Keeler
C. Charles Darwin
D.
Sir Francis Galton
Answer: A
61. In Hoogly, district of Bengal, India, he used fingerprints to prevent

fraudulent collection of army pay account and for identification of
other documents. He was known as the Father of Chiroscopy.
A. William Herschel
B. Francis Galton
C. Gilbert Thompson
D. Alphonse Bertillon
Answer: A
62. A noted British anthropologist who began observation which led to
the publication in 1882 of his book Fingerprints. That
established the individuality of classifying fingerprint patterns.
A. Francis Galton
B. Gilbert Thompson
C. Wayne Kate
D. Alphonse Bertillon
Answer: A
63. The notorious gangster and a police character, who attempted to
erase his fingerprints by burning them with acid but as time went
by the ridges were again restored to their natural feature.
A. John Fielding
B. Johanes Curie
C. John Dellinger
D. Billy the Kid
Answer: C
64. What is the science of palm print identification?
A. Chiroscopy
B. Poroscopy
C. Podoscopy
D. Astrology
Answer: B
65. A single ridge which splits into two ridges forming a Y shape
formation or structure is commonly known as
A. Diverging ridges
B. Bifurcating ridges
C. Loop
D. Delta
Answer: B
66. Symbolized by letter W in the fingerprint classification. It is a
fingerprint pattern which there are two deltas and in which at
least one ridge makes a turn through one complete circuit.
A. Plain whorl
B. Central pocket loop whorl
C. Accidental loop
D. Ulnar loop
Answer: A
67. Father
A.
B.
C.
D.
of Criminalistics.
Dr. Hans Gross
Dr. Cesare Lombroso
Dr. John Reid
Dr. John Larson
68. Which
A.
B.
C.
D.
evidence offers least resistance to decomposition?

Semen
Urine
Hair
Blood
Answer: C
Answer: A
69. One in which the facts appearing therein may not be true, and are
contested either in whole or part with respect to its authenticity,
identity, or origin.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Questioned document
Illegal document
Falsified document
Disputed facts
Answer: A
70. Are condensed and compact set of authentic specimens which,

if adequate and proper, should contain a cross section of the
material from a known source for questioned document
examination.
A. Basis products
B. Standards
C. Handwriting
D. Signatures
Answer: B
71. A term used by some document examiners and attorneys to
characterize known material.
A. Basis
B. Exemplar
C. Xerox copies
D. Reproduced
Answer: B
72. When a document is issued and notarized by a notary public or
competent public official with solemnities required by law, it is
called
A. Official document
B. Public document
C. Commercial document
D. Private Document
Answer: B
73. What is known as the blotting out or shearing over the writing to
make the original invisible to as an addition?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Obliteration
Obscuration
Forged
None of these
Answer: A
74. In legal language, it refers to the document examiner's conclusion.

In Court, he may not only express it but demonstrates the
reasons for arriving at his conclusion.
A. Remarks
B. Testimony
C. Opinion
D. Reasoning
Answer: C
75. In this kind of document examination, the document is viewed with
the source of illumination behind it and the light passing through
the paper.Documents are subjected to this type of examination to
determine the presence of erasures, matching of serrations and
some other types of alterations.
A. Microscopic examination
B. Ultra violet examination
C. Photographic examination
D. Transmitted light examination
Answer: D
76. Ultraviolet radiation is invisible and occurs in the wave lengths just
below the visible blue-violet end of the spectrum (rainbow). These
visible rays react on some substances so that visible light is
reflected, a phenomenon known as
A. Prism
B. Fluorescence
C. Infrared
D. Radiation
Answer: B
77. It is the result of a very complicated series of facts, being used as

whole, combination of certain forms of visible mental and muscular
habits acquired by long, continued painstaking effort.Some
defined it as visible speech.
A. Typewriting
B. Money Bills
C. Handwriting
D. All of these
Answer: C
78. In document examination, what is the relation of parts of the
whole of writing or line of individual letters in words to the
baseline?
A. Proportion
B. Alignment
C. Lining
D. Letter forms
Answer: B
79. Any property or mark which distinguishes and in document
examination commonly called to as the identifying details si called
A. Standard
B. Characteristics
C. Attribute
D. Form
Answer: B
80. The act of setting two or more items side by side to weigh their
identifying qualities; it refers not only a visual but also the mental
act in which the element of one item are related to the
counterparts of the other.
A. Collation
B. Analysis
C.
D.
81. In the
writer
A.
B.
C.
D.
Comparison
Recording
Answer: C
study handwriting, the movement of the pen toward the

is called
Downstroke
Backstroke
Sidestroke
None of these
Answer: A
82. It is a signature, signed at a particular time and place, under

particular conditions, while the signer was at particular age, in a
particular physical and mental condition, using particular
implements, and with a particular reason and purpose for recording
his name.
A. Fraudulent Signature
B. Freehand forged signature
C. Guided Signature
D. Evidential Signature
Answer: D
83. It is the crime of making, circulating or uttering false coins and
banknotes. Literally, it means to make a copy of; or imitate; to
make a spurious semblance of, as money or stamps, with the
intent to deceive or defraud.
A. Counterfeiting
B. Falsification
C. Forgery
D. Fake money bills
Answer: A
84. A fluid or viscous marking material used for writing or printing.
A. Pen
B.
C.
D.
Ink
Coal
Chalk
Answer: B
85. In 1884, who was this insurance agent in New York who patented
the first practical fountain pen containing its own ink reservoir
A. Lewis Waterman
B. John Loud
C. Peter Reynolds
D. Henry Ball
Answer: A
86. What do you calle the type of instrument used in measuring pitch
of rifling firearms
A. Pinometer
B. Helixometer
C. Thermometer
D. Caliper
Answer: B
87. This valuable instrument is specially designed to permit the
firearms examiner to determine the similarity and dissimilarity
between two fired bullets or two fired shells, by simultaneously
observing their magnified image in a single microscopic field.
A. Magnetic field device
B. Compound microscope
C. Bullet comparison microscope
D. Photographic microscope
Answer:C
88. Consist of a wooden box, 12 x12x 96, with a hinged to cover
and with one end open. This long box is filled with ordinary cotton
and separated into sections by cardboard petitions use in
ballistics.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Firing point box

Bullet recovery box
Slug collection box
All of these
Answer: B
89. Photographic films maybe classified according to their forms and

types. What are the films that are sensitive to radiation?
A. Chrome Films
B. X-Ray Films
C. B&W Films
D. Colored Films
Answer: B
90. Which film is suitable for general use in the preparation of black
and white photography because it produces the most natural
recording of colors?
A. Panchromatic film
B. Chrome Films
C. X-Ray Films
D. Color Films
Answer: A
91. One film maybe rated ISO 100, and another film ISO- 200. This
means that the 200 films are twice as fast (twice more sensitive
to light) than the ISO-100 film. This statement is
A. true
B. false
C. partly true
D. partly false
Answer: A
92. Among the following speed of film, which has the fastest speed?
A. ISO 25
B. ISO 100 to ISO 200
C.
D.
ISO 400
ISO 1000 and up
Answer: D
93. Chromatic aberration is the failure of different colored light rays to

focus after passing through a lens, focusing of light of different
colors at different points resulting in a blurred image.
A. Astigmatism
B. Bended light
C. Chromatic aberration
D. Pragmatic rays
Answer: C
94. What is the defect in which the light coming from an off-axis
object point is spread along the direction of the optic axis? If the
object is a vertical line, the cross section of the refracted beam at
distances from the lens is an ellipse that
collapses first into a horizontal line, spreads out again, and later
becomes a vertical line.
A. Astigmatism
B. Bended light
C. Chromatic aberration
D. Pragmatic rays
Answer: A
95. Depth of field is the range in front of and behind a sharply focused
subject in which details also look sharp in the final photographic
image.
A. Focus
B. Depth of field
C. Camera trick
D. Aperture
Answer: B
96. In photography, what determines how effectively a moving object
successively greater
can be stopped, that is, how sharply it can be reproduced without

blurring, or streaking in the final image?
A. Focus
B. Shutter speed
C. Aperture
D. Lens
Answer: B
97. What makes a bullet spin? Without spin, a bullet would not stay
pointed forward in flight, but would tumble over and over. The
spinning motion increases the accuracy of a bullet.
A. Bore
B. Gunpowder
C. Rifling
D. Shell
Answer: C
98. What component of the polygraph machine records the changes in
the breathing of the subject?
A. Pneumograph
B. Cardiograph
C. Galvanograph
D. Kymograph
Answer: A
99. In fingerprinting, it refers to the process of counting the
intervening ridges that touch or cross an imaginary line drawn
between the core and the delta.
A. Ridge counting
B. Ridge tracing
C. Delta tracing
D. All of these
Answer: A
100.For many years the most commonly used preliminary test for blood
A.
B.
C.
D.
Plasma count
Serum test
Benzidine test
Barberios test
Answers:Criminalistics
1. B
2. C
3. D
4. A
5. B
6. C
7. B
8. B
9. D
10. A
11. A
12. A
13. D
14. E
15. C
16. B
17. A
18. A
19. A
20. B
Answer: C
21.
22.
23.
24.
25.
C
B
C
B
D
Traffic Operation and Accident Investigation

Traffic - may consist of pedestrians, ridden or herded animals, vehicles, street cars and other
conveyances either singly or together while using the public way for purposes of travel.
Traffic laws - laws which govern traffic and regulate vehicles.
Traffic signs/road signs - are signs erected at the side of the roads to provide information to road
users.
Rules of the road - are the laws and the informal rules that may have developed overtime to
facilitate the orderly and timely flow of traffic.
Right of way - is a strip of land that is granted, through an easement or other mechanism
for transportation purposes such as for a trail, driveway, rail line or highway.
- the legal right, established by usage or grant, to pass along a specific route through
property belonging to another.
Traffic signal/Traffic light - a visual signal to control the flow oftraffic at intersections.
Highway - any public road. A main road especially one connecting major town or cities.
Speed limit - define the maximum, minimum or no speed limit and are normally indicated using
a traffic sign.
Hit and run - is the act of causing a traffic accident and failing to stop and identify oneself
afterwards.
Traffic accident - occurs when a vehicle collides with another vehicle, pedestrian, animal, road
debris or other statutory obstruction such as tree or utility pole.
Mary Ward - worlds first road traffic death including a motor vehicle, is alleged to have occurred on
august 31, 1869, when she fell out of her cousins steam car and was run over it.
Causes of traffic accidents
1. Human factors - ex. driver behavior, visual and auditory acuity, intoxication,decision
making ability and reaction speed.
2. Motor vehicle speed.
3. Driver impairment - factors that prevent the driver at their normal level of skill. Common
impairment include, 1) alcohol use 2) physical impairment - ex. poor eyesight 3) youth - teens
and early twenty aged drivers have the highest incidence of bothaccidents and fatalities among
all driving age group. 4) old age 5) sleep deprivation/fatigue 6) drug use - including prescription
drug.
4. Road design
5. Vehicle design and maintenance
seat belts - wearing seat belts reduces the risk of death by two thirds.
maintenance - a well designed and maintained vehicle with good breaks, tires and well adjusted
suspension will be more controllable in an emergency and better equipped to avoid collision.
center of gravity - roll overs have become common due to increased popularity of taller SUV and
minivans which have a higher center of gravity than standard passenger car.
motorcycles - have little protection.
Skid mark - is the mark a tire makes when a vehicle wheel stopsrolling and slides or spins on the
surface of the road.
skid marks are caused by rubbers deposited on the road.
one form of trace evidence, when their size and shape can reveal much about the vehicle speed
and forces of acceleration or deceleration.
the length of the skid mark is closely related to the vehicle speed at the instant of breaking,
measuring the marks yields an estimate of original speed.
Locard exchange principle - was postulated by EdmongLocard in the 20th century which states
that with contact between two items, there will be an exchange. Every contact leaves a trace.
Everywhere you go, you take something with you and you leave something behind.
Skid mark are divided into:
1. acceleration marks - created on acceleration if the engine provides more power that the tire
can transmit.
2. braking marks - if the brakes "lock-up" and cause the tire to slide.
3. yaw marks - if the tire slide sideways.
RA 4136 - Land Transportation and Traffic code of the Philippines.
Coefficient of Friction - is a dimensionless scalar value which describes the ratio of the force of
friction between two bodies and the force pressing them together.
Rail Adhesion - grip wheels of a train have on the rails.
Split Friction - dangerous condition arising due to varying friction on either side of a car.
Road Texture - affects the interaction of tires and the driving surface.
Profilograph - devised used to measure pavement surface roughness.
Tribometer - an instrument that measures friction on a surface.
Traffic Waves - "stop waves" "traffic Shocks" - are traveling disturbances in the distribution of cars
on a highway.
Traffic Flow - the total number of vehicles passing a given point in a given time. Traffic flow is
expressed as vehicle per hour.
Traffic Congestion - "traffic jam" - is a condition on roads, streets or highways that occurs as use
increases.
Characteristics of Traffic Congestion
1. Slow speed of vehicles
2. Longer travel time

3. Increased vehicle queuing
Classical Theories of Traffic Flow
1. Free flow
2. Congested traffic
Three-Phase Traffic Theory - is an alternative theory of traffic flow developed by Boris
Kerner between 1996 and 2002.
1. Free flow
2. Synchronized flow
3. Wide moving jam
Pedestrian - is a person traveling on foot whether walking or running.
Gridlock - a traffic jam so bad that no movement is possible.
China - (Beijing-Zhangjiakou province) - is considered the worlds worst traffic jam ever
as traffic congestion stretched more than 100 kilometers including 11 days of gridlock.
Brazil - (Sao Paolo) - has the worlds worst daily traffic jams.
France - (A6 Auto-route) - between Paris and Lyon was considered the worlds longest traffic jam.
Traffic Operation And Accident Investigation Reviewer 1
1. In arresting the traffic violator or when it involved arrest due to

traffic violation, the following procedures are followed except:
A. bring the suspended person before the court
B. detention of the arrested person may take place
C. arrest can be effected even without a warrant
D. impose the probable penalty that might be imposed
2. A person can escape from the scene of the accident on
one of the following ground:
A. offense committed is serious
B. bringing the person to your custody
C. bring the suspect before the court to answer a charge of
violation
D. if the person is under the imminent danger
3. In the examination of the scene of accident, which of the following
evidence will show how the accident happened?
A. hole on the road pavement
B. the driver under the influence of liquor
C. point of impact
D. vehicle has break failure
4. The basic principle behind selective enforcement in traffic control is
A. selection of geographical areas for strict enforcement
B. concentration of enforcement activities at peak traffic hours
C. a shifting emphasis on different types of violations
D. a warning rather than a citation will act as preventive
measure for future violation

5. The general principle of traffic accident investigation is to
A. consider road conditions as limiting conditions rather than
as causes KVB
B. consider violation as primary causes and any other factors
as secondary causes
C. regard any unfavorable factor existing immediately prior to
the accident as a cause
D. look for the "key event" that cause the accident
6. It is customary for the police to keep records of lost or stolen
automobile license plates. The best reason for this practice is to
A. permit the promote issuance of new plate
B. prevent cards from being stolen
C. keep record of all outstanding license plate in use
D. detain any person found using or attempting to use any of
these plates.
7. One of the following statements that best indicates the main
purpose of traffic law enforcement is
A. reduce traffic by punishing violators of traffic rules
B. keep traffic moving at a steady rate to avoid bottlenecks
C. control the speed limited in densely populated areas
D. prevent traffic accidents and expedite the flow of traffic
8. The traffic accident investigator is chiefly concerned with
accidents that involves one or both of the elements namely

A. motor vehicles and traffic way
B. motor vehicle and victim
C. victim and traffic way
D. victim and traffic unit
9. With respect to minor traffic violations, the traffic police officers
should be guided foremost by the consideration that
A. some traffic violation are intended
B. the aim is to discourage violations
C. same traffic violations are caused by negligence
D. violations must be punished
10. A number representing the resistance to sliding of two surfaces
in contract is known as:
A. coefficient of friction
B. traffic jam
C. attribute
D. contract damage
11. The first action taken by a traffic unit to escape from collision
course or otherwise avoid a hazard
A. state of evasive action
B. point of possible perception
C. point of no escape
D. final position
12. Any motor vehicle accident that result in injuries other than fatal
to one or more persons.

A. non-fatal injury accident
B. fatal accident
C. traffic law enforcer
D. property damage accident
13. Which of the following types of accident is most decreased
by the installation of traffic light?
A. Cross traffic accidents
B. Misunderstanding between motorist and traffic officers
C. Accidents of confusion
D. Accidents of decision of right of way
14. A certain intersection, for several reasons, has more traffic
accidents than any other part in the area. The Police unit
assignment to the area should.
A. Park near the intersection, in plain view, and wait for violators.
B. Park your motorcycle at the center of intersection to
caution motorist
C. Park near the intersection, more or less hidden from view
D. Cruise all the assigned area but give extra attention to
the intersection
15. Every device which is self-propelled and every vehicle which
is propelled by electric power obtained from overhead trolley
wires, but not operated upon rails.
A. Skating
B. Bicycle
C. Tricycle
D. Motor vehicles
16. The main reason why both traffic officers and signal lights
are used on some intersection is that
A. motorist are discourage from "jumping signals"
B. traffic can be kept moving at a faster rate
C. greater safety to pedestrians and motorist is effected
D. an officer can stop and start as necessity demands
17. All lines, patterns, words, colors or other gadgets EXCEPT
signs set into the surface or applied upon or attached to the
pavement or curbing officially place for the purpose of regulating
traffic is called _____
A. warning signs
B. traffic management
C. traffic engineering
D. pavement marking
18. Prohibitive traffic signs and restrictive traffic signs shall have
A. blue background and white symbols
B. a red background and white symbols and black border
C. white background with black symbols and red border
D. green background with white and black symbols
19. Motor vehicle propelled by an internal combustion engine
shall be equipped with a ____ as said motor vehicle passes

through a street of any city, municipality or thickly populated
district or barrio.
A. wiper
B. light
C. muffler
D. windshield
20. A traffic police officer stationed the route of a parade has been
ordered by his superior to allow no cars to cross the route.
While the parade is in progress, an ambulance driver on an
emergency run attempts to drive his ambulance across the
route while the parade is passing. Under these circumstances
the traffic police officer should.
A. ask the driver to wait until the traffic police officer contact
his superior and obtains decisions
B. stop the parade long enough to permit the ambulance to
cross the street
C. hold up the ambulance in accordance with the superior's order
D. direct the ambulance driver to the shortest detour which
will add at least then minutes to run
Answers:Traffic Operation and Accident Investigation
1.
2.
3.
D
D
C
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
A
D
D
D
A
C
A
A
B
D
D
D
D
D
D
C
B
Traffic Operation Definition of Terms
Abrasion
- a condition manifested in pavement markings by gradual surface erosion, thinning, and
disappearance of the film due to wind, water, sand, and vehicle tire wear.
Acceleration - a rate of change of speed resulting in an increase in travel speed.

Acceleration lane - a speed change lane for the purpose of enabling vehicle entering a roadway to
increase its speed to a rate at which it can safely merge with through traffic, providing the necessary
merging distance, and giving the main road traffic the necessary time to make appropriate
adjustment.
Acceleration marks - marks that are just opposite the skid marks.The tires are being rotated by the
axle and when done fast enough, the outside of the tire, the thread, takes time to catch up to the rest
ofthe tire, which is being held by the coefficient of friction between the tires and the road
surface.Therefore, the acceleration marks are heavyat the beginning and lighten up as the tire thread
catches.
Access - a way of entering or traveling towards a location.
Actuation - the operation of a detector in registering the presence or passage of a vehicle or
pedestrian.
Advance warning area - the first component of a work zone, upstream of the approach area, used
to alert drivers to road work ahead.
Advisory maximum speed - an advisory speed posted when the roadway geometries result in a
maximum safe speed which is 20 km/hr or more below the operating speed and is 10 km/hr or more
below the regulatory speed limit.
Advisory speed - the speed, determined to the nearest 5 km/hr at which traffic may safely negotiate
a potential hazard under favorable driving conditions.
A.I.D. - automatic incident detection.
Anti lock breaking system - (ABS) breaking system designed to break to break the vehicle in the
most effective manner, without locking upthe tires and causing the tires to go into a skid.This system
is used differently than standard breaks when breaking in an emergency situation.Thebreak pedal is
stepped on and held in place while the electronic system takes over and modulates or applies
the brakes until the wheels want to lock up and then releases and breaks again.
Base drawing - The scale drawing made of the accident scene that shows all the landmarks and
detail to set the scene. It generally does not contain any measurements or any points of impact (POI)
or points of rest (POR)
Bottleneck - a highway section with reduced capacity that experiences operational problems such as
congestion.
Boulevard - an improved strip of land between the roadway and the sidewalk or between two
opposing roadways.
Bull nose - the area or point of divergence between two diverging roadways such as between free
way mainline lanes and an exit ramps.
Bumper fracture - fractures that typically occur due to the impact of a vehicle on the calves of a
decedent with fractures of the tibia or fibula.They may be unilateral or lateral.
Call box - a telephone pr other communications device located a given locations along the side of the
freeway.Motorists can request various services such as police, fire, or ambulance by pressing certain
buttons or using voice communications.
Carbon dioxide - a molecule consisting of one atom of carbon and two atoms of oxygen,which is a
major combustion product of the burning of organic materials.Carbon dioxide is the result of
complete combustion of carbon.
Carbon monoxide - a colorless, odorless, very toxic gas formed by burning carbon or organic fuels.A
gaseous molecule having the formula CO, which is the product of incomplete combustion of organic
materials.
Carpool - an arrangement in which a group of people share the use and possibly the cost of a car in
traveling to and from pre-arrange destinations together.
Causeway - a bridge or raised way constructed over marshy land or water.It may be either an earth
fill or bridge type structure.
Center lane facility - a reserved lane at or near the center of the roadway.
Chemical etching - a form of texturing a mold utilizing an acid bath that erodes selective portion of
the metal, leaving a resulting texture or pattern.
Chicane - a series of curb extensions on alternating sides of a roadway, which narrow a roadway and
requires vehicle to meander to travel through the chicane. Typically, a series of three curb extensions
is used.
Chop shop - a location, often an automobile repair shop or salvage yard, where a stolen car is
stripped of its parts (radio,doors,engine,etc) the remains are cut up and sold for scrap metal.
Citation - a ticket issued by an officer deputized by the LTO for violating traffic laws.
Collision - an incident resulting in property damage, personal injury or death, and involving the loss
of control and/or the striking of one or more vehicles with another vehicle, person, an animal, or an
inanimate object.
Collision,primary - the impact between and another vehicle or a vehicle and a fixed object.
Collision,secondary - the impact between the occupant
Collision,tertiary - the impact between the occupant and the restraint system.
Corrosion - the degradation of metals or alloys due to reaction with the environment.The corrosive
action on the metals or alloys is accelerated by acids, bases, or heat.

Crosswalk - (pedestrian crossing) is a designated point on a road at which some means are
employed to assists pedestrians wishing to cross.
Curb - a vertical or sloping member along the edge of the roadway clearly defining the roadway edge.
Declination - the difference between true north as shown on a topographic map and magnetic north
as indicated by the magnetic needle on a compass.
Drag factor - comes from the tool used to determine the value of the coefficient of friction of the
road surface.A portion of a concrete-weighted tire is pulled or dragged along the roadbed by a "fish
scale"The investigator reads the scale and and divides by the weight of the tire to determine the
coefficient of friction.It is called dragged factor because it is determined by dragging the tire.
Driveway - every entrance or exit used by vehicular traffic to or from lands or buildings abutting a
highway.
DUI - driving under the influence.
DWI -driving while intoxicated.
Dyslexia - a disturbance to the ability to read.
Efface - to rub out, to strike, scratch out, or to erase.
First responder - the initial responding law enforcement officer or other public safety official or
service provider arriving at the scene prior to the arrival of the investigator in charge.
Footbridge - (pedestrian bridge) is a bridge designed for pedestrians and in some cases cyclists,
animal traffic rather than vehicular traffic.
Footpath - is a path along the side of the road.
Gross weight - the weight of the vehicle without load plus the weight of any load thereon.
Intersection - is a road junction where two or more roads either meet or cross at grade.(same
level)An intersection maybe 3 way, T-junction, fork, 4 way, cross roads, 5 way or more.
Laned roadway - a roadway is which is divided into two or more clearly marked lanes for
vehicular traffic.
Longitudinal axis - the long axis of the vehicle that runs from the front (hood) to the rear (trunk) of
the vehicle.
Metallic paint - paint used for covering metal surfaces, the pigment is usually iron oxide.
Meter - the basic unit of length in the metric system.
Motor vehicle - (road vehicle) is a self propelled wheeled vehicle that does not operate on rails such
as trains or trolleys.
Overhang - that potion of a transport vehicle which extends beyond the front or rear bumper.
Pavement - (road surface) is the durable surface material laid down on an area intended to sustain
vehicular or foot traffic such as road or walkway.
Pedestrian - is a person traveling on foot, whether walking or running.
Prying tool - a tool that can be used to forcibly open a locked door/cover by applying leverage to
the door/cover at one of its edges.
R.A.4136 - Land transportation and traffic code.
Refuge island - (pedestrian island) is a small section of pavement or sidewalk completely
surrounded by asphalt or other road materials where pedestrian can stop before finishing crossing the
road.
Right of way - the right of one vehicle or pedestrian to proceed in a lawful manner in preference to
another vehicle or pedestrian approaching under such circumstances of direction, speed, and
proximity as to give rise to danger of collision unless one grants precedence to the other.
Road - is a thoroughfare, route, or way on land between two places which typically has been paved
or otherwise improved to allow travel by some conveyance, including a horse, cart, or motor vehicle.
Roadway - consists of a width of road on which a vehicle is not restricted by any physical barriers or
separation to move laterally.
Road junction - is a location where vehicular traffic going in different directions can proceed in a
controlled manner designed to minimizeaccidents.
Runabout - is type of circular intersection or junction in which road traffic is slowed and flows almost
continuously in one direction around a central island to several exits into the various intersecting
roads.
Skid marks - marks left on the road surface when the tire stops rotating, locks up and skids.
Speed limit - the maximum speed at which a vehicle may legally travel on a particular stretch of
road.
Stellar pattern - A bulls-eye-type fracture of the windshield when struck by a human or
anthropomorphic head during a collision. Damage occurs in the form of a circular pattern, with cracks
radiating from the center.
Stile - is a structure which provides people a passage through or over a fence or boundary via steps,
ladder, or narrow gaps.
Submarining - action of the occupant sliding forward underneath the lap belt portion of the restraint
system, with the lap belt webbing resting above the pelvic girdle.
Tint - a color that has been made lighter by the addition of white.
Tire impression - when a tire contacts a surface, it results in the transfer of the class characteristics
of design and size and possibly of wear and individual characteristics of the tire.
Tire patch - that portion of the tire that rest on the road surface.It is oval shaped and has its longest
axis along the normal direction of travel of the vehicle.When a vehicle is sliding sideways, the tire
marks left on the road gets almost twice as wide as the tires turn sideways and the short axis is in the
direction of travel that makes the tire marks.
Tire thread - part of a tire that contacts the road surface and contains a design.
Traffic - may consists of pedestrians,ridden or herded animals,vehicles, streetcars, and other
conveyances, either singly or together, while using the public way for purposes of travel.
Traffic circle - is a type of intersection that has a generally circular central island.
Traffic collision - (traffic accident) occurs when a vehicle collides with another vehicle, pedestrian,
animal, road debris, or other stationary obstruction such as a tree or utility pole.
Traffic engineering - is a branch of civil engineering that use engineering techniques to achieve the
safe and efficient movement of people and goods on roadways.
Traffic light - (traffic signal) are signalling devices positioned at road intersections, pedestrian
crossings, and other locations to control competing flows of traffic.
Traffic signs - (road signs) are signs erected at the side of roads to provide information to road
users.
Trails - (byway) is a path with a rough beaten or dirt/stone surface used for travel.
Tumblehome - The curvature of a vehicle body inward toward the roof. This gives the vehicle a
rounder look from the front and decreases aerodynamic drag.
VIN - vehicle identification number, the serial number that the car's manufacturer stamps on several
motor vehicle parts (many of which are inaccessible) for the purpose of tracing and identifying car
ownership.
Vulcanization - a irreversible process in which a rubber compound is heated under pressure

resulting in a chemical change in its structure.
Walkway - is a composite or umbrella term for all engineered surfaces or structures which support
the use of trails.

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Intelligence and Secret Service

Intelligence Agency - is a government agency responsible for the collection,analysis or

Intelligence Officer - is a person employed by an organization to collect,compile and

Counter Intelligence - refers to effort made by intelligence organizations to prevent

Human Intelligence - category of intelligence derived from information collected and

Live Drop - 2 persons meet to exchange items or information.

Dead Drop Spike - is a concealment device used to hide

Cut-Out - is a mutually trusted intermediary,method or channel of

Espionage/Spying - involves a government or individual obtaining information that is

Agent Handling - is the management of agents,principal agents and agent networks by

Case Officer - is an intelligence officer who is trained specialist in the management of

Agent - acts on behalf of another whether individual,organization or foreign government,

Propaganda - is a form of communication that is aimed at influencing the attitude of a

Flip - apprehended criminals who turn informants.

Snitches - jailhouse informants.

Means of Information Gathering

(3) analyzing data and preparing intelligence

Evaluation - systematic determination of merit, worth and significance of something or

Collation - is the assembly of written information into a standard order.

Crime Intelligence - information compiled, analyzed and/or disseminated in an effort to

Strategic Intelligence - information concerning existing patterns or emerging trends of

Source - the place or person from which information is obtained.

Intelligence Assessment - is the development of forecasts of behavior or recommended

in the planning and conduct of tactical operations.

Remember the ff: Intelligence and Secret Service

confirmed by other agencies

Intelligence and Secret Service Reviewer 2

1. Ancillary materials that are included in a cover story or deception

9. Tradecraft techniques for placing drops by tossing them while

analysis,integration and the interpretation of all available

6. Informant - is anyone who can furnish information.

Fundamentals Of Criminal Investigation Reviewer 1

Answers:Fundamentals of Criminal Investigation

Drug Education Definition Of Terms

Drug Education And Vice Control Reviewer 1

1. The group of drugs that are considered to be mind altering and

household remedy for diarrhea and abdominal pain?

8. What is the most important constituent of opium?

D. RA 6425, Dangerous Drugs Act of 2002 which took effect on

Answers: Drug Education and Vice Control

Crime Detection Review Questions

1. An extra judicial confession obtained from a suspect is admissible

most often used to question criminal suspects to determine their

Buy bust operation

12.A special qualification for an undercover agent.

attempts to be present when they are committed, through the

discreet and prudent man to believe that an offense has been

24.A statement of the suspect directly acknowledging his guilt.

41.A person who gives necessary information to the investigator.

45.A term used to describe a transition which occur in the

49.The greatest concern of the firemen at the fire/crime scene is to

when the air supply to the fire is restricted.

58.It is observed in structural fires and can be an indicator of

62.This catalytic combustion device is the most common means

67.Any material having a flash point at or above 37.80 degree

of fire, of flammable liquid and gasses.

72.A mass movement in a fluid, an example a liquid or a gas where

76.A method of locating a spot in the area by measurements from

unintended injury, death or property damage.

85.The Comprehensive Dangerous Drugs Act of 2002.

90.The original components of heroin and morphine.

94.It is chemically known as methamphetamine hydro chloride.

99.Any chemical substance that by virtue of its chemical nature