1) MAKE A CIRCLE THE CORRECT ASWER ANF JUSTIFIEST

Abruptio placentae is iniciated by:

a)
b)
c)
d)

Hemorrhage
Hemorrhage
Hemorrhage
Hemorrhage

into
into
into
into

uterin cavitat
vagina
the decidual basalis
the uterus and vagina

JUSTIFICATION: The correct answer is A because abruption placentae is

inicaited by hemorrhage into the decidual basalis, for separation, compressin
and ultime destruction of the portion of the placenta adjacent to the separation.

2) UNDERLINE THE CORRECT ANSWER AND JUSTIFIEST

The most common clinical manifestation of the placenta previa is:

1)
2)
3)
4)

a) Painlees Vaginal
b) Bleeding in the firs trimester
c) Abdominal Painless
d) Bleeding in the third trimester
a yc
b y d
a yd
byc
e) JUSTIFICATION: : The correct answer is a y d because The most
common clinical manifestation of the placenta previa is Painlees Vaginal
Bleeding in the third trimester, particularly around the thirty-fourth week.

3) CHOOSE CORRECT: PLACENTA PREVIA

a) Is defined as trophoblastic implantation a the lower uterine segment
b) Is the premature separation of the normally implanted placenta
c) Is iniciated by hemorrhage into the decidual basalis.
d) The amount of vaginal bleeding bears no relation to the degree of placental
separation.
JUSTIFICATION:
The correct answer is A because placenta previa is defined as trophoblastic
implantation on the lower uterine segment that obstructs the presenting
part prior to or during labor.
4) CHOOSE CORRECT ANSWER: ABRUPTIO PLACENTAE:
a) Is the premature separation of the normally implanted placenta.
b) The most common clinical is significant but painless vaginal bleeding in the
third trimester, particularly around the thirty-fourth week.
c) Leopold maneuvers the presenting part is not engaged and the fetus
usually presents in a breech, oblique or transverse lie.

d) The most common diagnostic tool is read time ultrasonography.

JUSTIFICATION:
The correct answer is A because abruption placentae is the premature
separation of the normally implanted placenta.

5) Complete
Hernia is called _______ if the protruding sac of ________can be pushed back
into________ inside the ________
a. Tissue, removed, place, abdomen
b. Abdomen, place, tissue, removed
c. Removed, tissue, place, abdomen
d. Place, abdomen, removed, tissue.
6) Underline the correct answer.
The technical name for the operation that repair a hernia is:
a. Appendectomy
b. Herniorrhaphy
c. Cholecystectomy
Because: Appendectomy is the surgical removal of the vermifon
appendix
Cholecystectomy is a surgical procedure to remove you gallbladder.
Herniorrhaphy is the surgical repair of a hernia

7) Check in the incorrect option which refers the signs and symptoms
of hernias
a. Visible bluges in the scrotum, groin, umbilicus, or abdominal wall.
b. A felling of weakness or pressure in that region.
c. A burning feeling of the bulge.
d. The patient never refer pain
The option d in incorrect because sometimes the pain is presented.

8) Check in the incorrect option which refers the laparoscopic

method.
a. Laparoscope is a long metal tube with a fiberoptic light source and a
telescopic eyepiece which is connected to a TV monitor.
b. The scope is inserted into the abdominal cavity through a three
incisions.
c. The scope is used to view the hernias in the abdominal wall.
d. A general anesthetic is usually wall.
The option b is incorrect because the scope is inserted into the
abdominal cavity through a small incision

9) Choledochotomya it is based on the incision of:

a. Cystic duct
b. Hepatic artery
c. Common bile duct
d. Hepatic duct
The correct answer is c because choledochotomy an incision on the CBD
distal the cystic duct

10)
Which is a contraindication
to choledochotomy
a. Tall morbility
b. Small caliber duct
c. Laparoscopy has failed
d. A small caliber duct less than 6mm in diameter is relative
contraindication to choledochotomy is inserted into the abdominal
cavity through a three incisions.
11)
Underline the correct
answer: the appendectomy is:
a. Removal of the gallbladder
b. Removal of the colon
c. Removal of the appendix
d. Removal of Intestine
Justification: The correct answer is C because an appendicectomy is
the surgical removal of the vermiform appendix.
12)
Underline the correct
answer: Surgical techniques appendix.
a) Open and laparoscopy appendectomy
b) Open Choledochotomy
c) Open choledochotomy
d) Herniorrahaphy convencional
Justification: The correct answer is A because two main surgical
techniques inclusive open and laparoscpic appendectomy.

13)
Underline the correct
answer: WHICH ARE THE AVALAIBLE TECHNIQUES FOR A PATIENT
WHO PRESENTS SEVERE TRAUMAS:
a)
b)
c)
d)

Blood test, Urine test.

Ecography, arteriography
Computed tomography scans, nuclear magnetic resonance
Arterial gasometry, EKG.

Justification: To evaluate a patient who present severe trauma the available

techniques are computed tomography scans and nuclear magnetic resonance.

14)
Underline the correct
answer: WHICH IS THE IMPORTANCE OF OXYGEN TENSION IN
WOUNDED TISSUE:
a)
b)
c)
d)

Retard the wound healing.

Make that the muscle contracts.
Helped in the action mechanism of drugs.
Give oxygen to the cells, and improve healing in burn wounds.

Justification: The oxygen tension is importance to give oxygen to the cells , and
improve healing in burn wounds.

15)
Underline the correct
answer: AMPHOTERICIN B IS THE TREATMENT FOR :
a)
b)
c)
d)

Staphylocuccus aureus infections

Sepsis and SIRS.
Pseudomona infections, candida infection.
Mycosis and viral infections.

Justification: The Amphotericin B is used for the treatment of the candida

infections and for pseudomona infections.

16)
Underline the correct
answer: THE RISK OF SUBSEQUENT SEPSIS IS INCREASED FOR:
a)
b)
c)
d)

Pseudomona infections
Removal of a traumatized spleen
Unexperience of surgeons
Removal of the kidney

Justification: The risk of subsequent sepsis definitely in just about all age groups
by removal of a traumatized spleen.

17)
Underline the correct
answer: THE SUSTANCE THAT WAS REPORTED IN 1984 INJ SEVERAL
BURNED PATIENTS IS:

a) Vasopresin
b) ADH
c) Oxytocin
d) Gonadotropin
Justification: The vasopresin is the sustance that was reported in 1984vin
several burned patients.

18)
Underline the correct
answer: THE DRUGS USED IN THE BURNS PATIENTS ARE :
a)
b)
c)
d)

AAS- Gentamicin
Vitamin C- Cyclosporine
Gentamicin- Amphotericin B
Tobramycin Gentamicin

Justification: The use of tobramycin and gentamicin is approved in several

burned patients.

19)
Underline the correct
answer: THE DRUG THAT HAS BEEN APRROVED BY THED FOOD AND
DRUG ADMINISTRATION AND IS BEING USED IN MOST TRANSPLANT
CENTERS IN UNITED STATES:
a)
b)
c)
d)

Aspirine
Amphotericin B
Cyclosporine
Insuline

Justification: The cyclosporine has been approved by the food and drug
administration and is being used in most transplant centers in United States.

20)
Underline the correct
answer: THE KIDNEYS TRANSPLANTATION INCREASED IN 1983
AROUND OF:
a)
b)
c)
d)

7
5
6
4

per
per
per
per

year
year
year
year

Justification: The kidneys transplantation increased in 1983 around at 5 per

year.

21) What causes general anesthesia?

a) Alertness in the consciousness.
b) A depression of consciousness sufficient to allow a given noxious stimulus to
be applied to is completion.
c) A transient loss of consciousness for some minutes.
d) A hipoactivity in consciousness stimulus to be applied to its completion.
Analysis: The correct option is b because the general anesthesia causes a
depression of consciousness sufficient to allow a given noxious stimulus to be
applied to its completion.

22) Mark the incorrect option about the method inhalation induction
used in anesthesia.
a) Infants and children less then about 7 years old.
b) Patients with a tracheostomy or indwelling endotracheal tube.
c) Patients whose a breathing is normal and no airway obstruction.
d) Patients in whom respiratory depression or obstruction during induction
provides major risk.
Analysis: The incorrect option is c because is a patient with breathing normal
and no present airway obstruction, in this case can put for intravenous induction,
because not altered ventilation.
23) Termination of action of intravenously administered drugs depends
of:
a. metabolism in plasma or in the heart
b. metabolism in blood or in the brain
c. metabolism in plasma or in the liver
d. metabolism in blood or in the Cindy
Analysis: The correct answer is c because the termination of me action of
intravenously administered drugs depend of metabolism in plasma or in the live

24) Chooses the incorrect action of thiopental drug in anesthesia:

a. ultimate remise from the body involves both liver and kidneys

b. cardiac output lessens while systemic vascular resistance increase decrease

or does not change
c. these drugs are direct respiratory depressant and may be expected to cause
transient apnea Initially
d. light barbiturate anesthesia is associated with a tendency toward vasospasm.
Analysis: The incorrect answer is because
Light barbiturate anesthesia is associated with a tendency toward larygospasm

25)

In the central neural block: What is the most used anesthesia?

A. Spinal anesthesia
B. Caudal anesthesia
C. Lumbar epidural anesthesia
D. Proximal anesthesia
Analysis: the correct answer is c because this is anesthetic useful procedure for
surgery and for obstetrical procedures including cesarean

26)
In the nerves like: femoral and brachial plexus. What anesthetic
procedure would you use?
A. Central neural block
B. Caudal anesthesia
C. Peripheral nerve block
D. Spinal anesthesia
Analysis: the correct answer is c because the femoral nerve and brachial plexus
are considered peripheral nerves that required local anesthetics

27) How much oxygen must have the patient during the preparation for
the induction of anesthesic.
a. 48%
b. 60%
c. 15%
d. 100%
Analysis: The corred answer is d because when a patient is prepared have a
surgery . He/She should breathe 100% oxygen by a mask

28) The time that the patient has do eat before do the induction for
anesthetics may be:
a)
b)
c)
d)

18 hours after of induction

6 hours before of induction
8 hours before of induction
24 hours after of induction

Analysis: The corred answer is a because when the patient has less than 8 hours
prior to induction it is at particular risk for aspiration

29) Complete: PLACENTA PREVIA

The placenta previa is defined as TROPHOBLASTIC implantation on LOWER
uterine SEGMENT that obstructs the presenting part prior to or during
LABOR.
JUSTIFICATION
The correct answer is (d) because the placenta previa is defined as
TROPHOBLASTIC implantation on LOWER uterine SEGMENT that obstructs the
presenting part prior to or during LABOR.

30) what are the diagnostic techniques of placenta previa?

1.
2.
3.
4.
5.

USG
Amniography
Soft tissue X-ray
Arteriography
Termography

Justification:
The diagnostic techniques for placenta previa are five; USG, amniography, soft
tissue X-ray, arterography, termography.

31) Choose the correct answer. Abruptio placentae is?

a.
b.
c.
d.

The
The
The
The

trophoblastic implantation on the lower uterine segment.

premature separation of the normally implanted placenta.
implantation of the fertilized ovum in an abnormal site.
premature separation that obstructs the presenting part prior.

The incorrect literal is B, , because Abruptio placentae is the premature

separation of the normally implanted placenta.

32) Choose the incorrect literal. The clinical findings of placentae

abruption are?
a. Abdominal pain, vaginal bleeding.
b. Hipertrofic contractions, uterine tenderness
c. Abdominal pain, painless vaginal bleeding
The incorrect literal is C, because the abdominal pain and painless vaginal
bleeding are the clinical findings of placenta previa.

33) Underline the correct answer: which is the most common clinical
manifestation in placenta previa
a) Painless vaginal bleeding
b) Stomachache
c) Fever
d) Headache
Justification: the most common clinical manifestation is painless vaginal
bleeding in the third trimester, particulary around the thirty forth week

34) Underline the correct answer: how many days the antibiotic
treatment is given after cesaream section.
3 to 5 days
5 to 7 days
7 to 10 days
1 to 2 days
Justification: therefore, the early use of therapeutic antibiotics for 3 to 5 days is
recommended postpartum period.

35) What percentage has disseminated intravascular coagulopathy (DIC)

in the abruptio placentae?
a)
b)
c)
d)

50%
10%
60%
30%

The correct answer is (d), because Dic occurs in approximately 30% of patients
with abruptio placentae and the mechanism of DIC is due to the relase of
thromboplastin tissue into the circulation

36) What are the symptoms patients with DIC in the abruptio placentae
present?
a)
b)
c)
d)

Heavy uterine bleeding

Spontaneous bleeding
Heavy uterine bleeding and/or spontaneous bleeding
Tachycardia, fever and secretion

The correct answer is (c), because clinically the patients with DIC may manifest
heavy and/or spontaneous bleeding from extragenital sites such as bladder, nose
or venous punctures

36)

Point wrong about placenta previa.

a) Placenta previa is defined as trophoblastic implantation on the

lower uterine.
b) The most clinical manifestation is significant but painless uterine
c) Total placenta,partial placenta,marginal uterine.
The is correct because Placenta previa is defined as trophoblastic implantation
on the lower uterine.

37) Complete:
This is the time when the placenta previa is most likely to be disturbed by the
thinning of the lower uterine segment. The initial bleeding episode is usually
limited and while it may be substantial in amount it is seldom enough to
produce maternal shock or fetal compromise.
a) Placenta previa, shock, uterine segment.
b) Placenta previa,uterine segment, shock.
c) Uterine segment. Placenta previa, shock

38.

INDUCTION COMPLETE:

The assistent employs the SELLINCK maneuver in using THUMB and

FOREFINGER to press the CRICOID cartilage fimly posteriorly

Justif: The assistent employs the SELLINCK maneuver in using THUMB and
FOREFINGER to press the CRICOID cartilage fimly posteriorly, thus compressing
the esophagus betwen the cricoid cartilage and the vertebral column.

1) INDUCTION THE DOSE OF THIOPENTAL: RIGHT POINT

a) 3 mg/kg
b) 4 mg/kg
c) 10 mg/kg
d) 20 mg/kg
Justif: the correct answer is (b) becouse: once the assistent is in position, give a
sleep dose of thiopental (about 4 mg/kg without a test dose) IV. Do not ventilate
the patient by mask at this time.

39 UNDERLINE THE CORRECT ANSWER

WHERE EPIDURAL ANESTHESIA IS USUALLY ENTERED?
a) L1-2 // L2-3 INTERSPACE
b) L2-3 // L3-4 INTERSPACE
c) L3-4 // L4-5 INTERSPACE
d) T12-L1// L1-2 INTERSPACE
THE CORRECT ANSWER IS B, BECAUSE THE EPIDURAL ANESTHESIA IS ENTERED
IN L2-3 OR L3-4 INTERSPACE

40 UNDERLINE THE CORRECT ANSWER

WHICH ARE THE AGENTS FOR MINOR PERIPHERAL NERVE BLOCK THAT HAVE
2% OF USUAL CONCENTRATION, 15 30 OF PLAIN SOLUTION AND 30 60
OF EPINEPHRINE SOLUTION?
a) PROCAINE AND CHLOROPROCAINE
b) LIDOCAINE AND MEPIVOCAINE
c) PRILOCAINE
d) BUPIVACAINE AND ETIDOCAINE
THE CORRECT ANSWER IS A, BECAUSE THIS MINOR AGENT CONTAIN 2% OF
USUAL CONCENTRATION, 15 30 OF PLAIN SOLUTION AND 30 60 OF
EPINEPHRINE SOLUTION
41.- In the Epidural Anesthesia, you need extreme caution on patients with:
a)
b)
c)
d)

Pregnant, rough peoples

Chield, elderly
Severe hypotension, anticoagulant therapy
Umbilical Hernias, Digestive Disorders

Justification: The correct answer is C because, the extreme caution should be

observed when epidural Anesthesia is performed on patiens with neurological

disease spinal deformities, septicemia severe, hypotension, or anticoagulan

therapy

42.- The Spinal Anesthesia, is penetrated in:

a)
b)
c)
d)

L1 L2
L3 L4
C12 C11
S1 S2

Justification: The correct answer is B because, It is injected in the Lumbar Region,

usually between L3-L4 with a 22 or 25 gauge spinal needle.